Unit 3 Questions, Microbiology Chapter 7, Unit 4 Questions, UNE BIOL 1020 Unit 5 Questions, UNE Microbiology Final
Which one of the following is true for immune complex hypersensitivity? A. Complement is involved as a mediator B. There is usually a skin reaction C. The origin of hypersensitivity is the T lymphocytes D. It is manifested within days to weeks E. Dendritic cells are involved
... A. Complement is involved as a mediator
Commensalism
An association that is beneficial only to the microbe and the host is unaffected
Histamine
A chemical mediator of inflammation
Perforin
A cytotoxin released by cytotoxic T cells, it forms pores in cell membranes
Hapten
A small molecule that lacks immunogenicity
What is a drawback to inactivated vaccines? A. Booster shots are required to maintain immunity for long periods of time B. They have to be kept refrigerated C. They have a short shelf life D. All of the above are correct
A. Booster shots are required to maintain immunity for long periods of time
All of the following would be required for a positive fluorescent antibody (FA) test for syphilis except A. Complement from a guinea pig B. Syphilis spirochetes in a patient sample scraped from a lesion C. Anti-Treponema antibodies D. Fluroescein-labeled antiglobulin antibodies E. A microscopic slide
A. Complement from a guinea pig
The theory called clonal selection says A. Exposure to an antigen activates those T- and B-cells with receptors recognizing specific epitopes on the antigen B. B cells provide resistance through direct cell-to-cell contact with, and lysis of, infected or otherwise abnormal cells C. T cells are involved in the process by which antibodies are produced against epitopes D. The activation of T cells produces antibodies that recognize epitopes
A. Exposure to an antigen activates those T- and B-cells with receptors recognizing specific epitopes on the antigen
An example of opportunistic organisms are those that A. Inhabit the lungs and cause disease when body defenses are suppressed B. Cause typhoid fever C. Inhabit the intestine but are incapable of causing disease D. Can exist as cysts E. Require an intermediary host
A. Inhabit the lungs and cause disease when body defenses are suppressed
Transplanted tissue is rejected by the body if the A. immune system interprets the tissue to be nonself B. grafted tissue is an autograft C. donor and recipient of the transplant are identical twins D. blood types of donor and recipient are the same E. serum sickness is uncontrolled
A. immune system interprets the tissue to be nonself
Pathogenicity
Ability to produce disease
Myasthenia gravis
Antibodies react with acetylcholine receptors
Graves disease
Antibodies react with receptors on the surface of the thyroid glan
SLE (lupus)
Antibodies reacting to an individual's own nuclear components cause dysfunction
Artificial passive immunity
Antibody molecules injected into person
Opsonin
Antibody or complement protein that encourages phagocytosis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Antibody reacting with antigen in joints
Antiserum
Antibody-containing serum
Epitopes
Antigenic determinants
Superantigens are A. Antigens that bind simultaneously to MHCII protein and the T cell receptor on T helper cells B. Extraordinarily large antigens on B cells C. None of the choices is correct D. Haptens + carrier proteins E. Endotoxins
Antigens that bind simultaneously to MHCII protein and the T cell receptor on T helper cells
Disease
Any change from the general state of good health
Autoimmune disease
Any condition in which antibodies act on an individual's own cells
The link between macrophages and neutrophils is that both cells A.Have large granules in the cytoplasm B.Are phagocytes C. Have a life span of about 10 years D. Lack a nucleus E. recognize tumor and virus infected cells and kill them
B. Are phagocytes
All of the following are characteristics of endotoxins except A. Is a product of the LPS layer B. Does not trigger an inflammatory response C. Cannot be converted to toxoid D. Usual source is Gram negative bacteria E. Only exposed when the cell dies
B. Does not trigger an inflammatory response
The portion of the immunoglobulin molecule that contains the antigen binding site can be described as all of the following except the A. Fab fragment B. Fc fragment C. variable region D. light chain E. portion responsible for cross-linking
B. Fc fragment
Precipitation reactions between antigens and antibodies are characterized by A. Appearance of IgE in the immune system B. Formation of a structure called a lattice C. Inhibition of the complement system D. Destruction of the available red blood cells
B. Formation of a structure called a lattice
Which of the following is not an antigen? A. Capsomere B. Haptens C. Flagella proteins D. Components of bacterial capsules E. Pilus proteins
B. Haptens
Which of the following are cytokines produced in response to invasion by viruses A. RIG-1 B. Interferon C. Histamine D. Interleukin E. Colony-stimulating factor
B. Interferon
When the body has been exposed to exotoxins A. It will respond with toxoids B. It will produce antitoxins C. It will develop endotoxin shock D. It will produce hydrolytic enzymes like hemolysins or phospholipases E. It will lose the ability to respond to sensations
B. It will produce antitoxins
The ability to mount an efficient secondary antibody response depends on A. All of the choices are correct B. Memory T and B cells C. Cross-linking of IgM antibodies D. High concentrations of IgA antibody E. Class switching to IgD production
B. Memory T and B cells
The innate immune system recognizes pathogens by identifying unique microbial sequences not found on host cells. This system of recognition is called A. AMP B. PAMP C. TLR D. MHC E. ROS
B. PAMP
Which of the following are adhesins? A. Endotoxins B. Pili C. Siderophores D. Cilia E. Flagella
B. Pili
In an emergency, a person whose blood type is B may donate blood to a person whose blood A. type is O but not A B. type is AB but not O C. has been depleted of complement D. type is A but not AB E. type is A but not O
B. type is AB but not O
Hemolytic disease of the newborn may result when which of the following couples have children? A.An Rh (+) man and an Rh (+) woman B.An Rh (+) man and an Rh (-) woman C.An Rh (-) man and an Rh (+) woman D.An Rh (-) man and an Rh (-) woman E.All of the choices are correct
B.An Rh (+) man and an Rh (-) woman
Which of the following are mechanical barriers in the body's first line of defense? A.Peristaltic removal of mucus entrapped pathogens B.Intact dermis and epidermis C.Normal microbiota like Lactobacillus lining the vaginal tract D.Defensins and lactoferrin E. lysozyme and peroxidase
B.Intact dermis and epidermis
These cells are found in large numbers in allergic reactions
Basophils
Precipitation
Binding of soluble antigen with soluble antibody
Polyclonal antibodies in serum contain A. At least three different kinds of antigens B. A mixture of vaccines C. A mixture of antibodies D. At least three different kinds of cells
C. A mixture of antibodies
Which one of the following is not a product of the lysosome? A. Perioxidase enzyme B. Nitric Acid (NO) C. Cytokines D. Superoxide anion (O2-) E. Peptidoglycan-degrading enzyme
C. Cytokines
The ______________ antibody class is referred to as the maternal antibody A. IgM B. IgE C. IgG D. IgA E. IgD
C. IgG
T cells recognize epitopes only in the context of A. Complement B. Interleukin-2 C. MHC proteins D. B cells E. Granzyme
C. MHC proteins
What chemical circulating in the blood causes fever? A. Histamine B. Perforin C. Pyrogen D. Pyogen E. Lactoferrin
C. Pyrogen
An individual generally acquires natural active immunity after A. An infusion of T lymphocytes B. An injection of IgG C. Suffering an illness D. A blood transfusion E. Taking immunosuppressive drugs
C. Suffering an illness
Which one of the following does not apply to plasma cells? A. The are derived from B cells B. They are effector B cells C. They actively produce cytokines D. They live for four to five days E. They are large, highly complex cells
C. They actively produce cytokines
An isograft has less chance of rejection than a xenograft because A. new blood vessels need not be formed in the isograft B. the isograft is not composed of living tissue C. the graft composition of the donor and recipient are identical in an isograft D. there are no antigens in an isograft E. it is an allograft
C. the graft composition of the donor and recipient are identical in an isograft
Elicits chemotaxis of immune cells
Chemokine
Agglutination
Combining of cellular antigen with antibody
Titer
Concentration of antibody
Maternal antibodies
Cross the placenta
An ELISA uses which of the following reagents? A. A source of complement B. A radioactive antibody C. An enzyme-labeled anti-antibody D. An enzyme-linked antibody E. A fluorescent enzyme
D. An enzyme-linked antibody
Which one of the following is not an effect of complement activation? A. Formation of a membrane attack complex B. Attraction of phagocytes C. Lysis of the cell through cytoplasmic leakage D. Enhanced T-lymphocyte activity through thymus gland interaction E. Production of C3b opsonin
D. Enhanced T-lymphocyte activity through thymus gland interaction
DiGeorge syndrome is A. Characterized by a goiter B. A defect of phagocytic cells C. Characterized by cytotoxic reactions D. Immune deficiency diseases E. Forms of type I hypersensitivity
D. Immune deficiency diseases
The neutralization of toxin molecules by antitoxins accomplishes all of the following except A. Prevents attachment to specific molecules on the cell surface B. Inactivates the toxin molecule C. Lessens the ability of toxins to diffuse through the tissues D. Increases the activity between toxins and interleukins E. Masks the toxicity of toxin molecules
D. Increases the activity between toxins and interleukins
Complement marks pathogens for destruction by all of the following except A. C3B receptors B. Classical pathway C. Alternate pathway D. TLR E. MAC
D. TLR
IgE is the antibody involved in ____________ hypersensitivity A. Immune Complex B. Cellular C. Type IV D. Type I E. Type II
D. Type I
What is a phagolysosome? A. When a phagosome releases defensin and starts producing hydrogen peroxide B. When a phagosome releases histamine and other allergic stimulants in tissues C. When a phagocyte starts to produce lysosomes D. When a phagosome fuses with several lysosomes to digest a pathogen E. When a phagocyte moves with amoeba-like locomotion
D. When a phagosome fuses with several lysosomes to digest a pathogen
Dermatophytosis refers to fungal disease A. that resists antibiotic treatment B. that spreads to the internal organs C. that releases enterotoxins D. of the hair, skin, and nails E. that accompanies predisposing factors
D. of the hair, skin, and nails
Opportunistic
Describes a commensalistic microorganism that causes disease in certain conditions
Primary Infection
Disease that occurs in a healthy host
Macrophages are involved in A. Activating the acquired immune response B. Phagocytosis C. Release of cytokines and lipid mediators that will trigger an inflammatory response D. Granuloma formation E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
What accounts for the great amount of diversity in antibodies? A. Multiple gene segments coding for the light and heavy chains of an antibody are located on different chromosomes and rearranged independently B. The combining of different light and heavy chains in the assembly of different immunoglobulin molecules C. The DNA rearrangement of the multiple light and heavy chain genes D. Mutations E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
The intentional injection of an attenuated virus into a person will lead to A. Artificially acquired passive immunity B. Naturally acquired passive immunity C. Naturally acquired active immunity D. Eventual disease E. Artificially acquired active immunity
E. Artificially acquired active immunity
Which on of the following is not an effect of complement activation? A. Formation of an attack complex B. Attraction of phagocytes and enhancement of phagocytosis C. Lysis of the cell through cytoplasmic leakage D. Increased blood vessel permeability E. Degradation of mRNA, cessation of protein synthesis and apoptosis
E. Degradation of mRNA, cessation of protein synthesis and apoptosis
Which of the following tests would a veterinarian conduct to detect rabies in the brain of a skunk? A. Virus neutralization B. Agglutination C. Hemagglutination inhibition D. Western blot E. Direct fluorescent antibody
E. Direct fluorescent antibody
Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease that is an example of a(an) _____________ hypersensitivity A. Anaphylactic B. Hyposensitization C. Cytotoxic D. Cellular E. Immune complex
E. Immune complex
The virulence of an organism may be enhanced by all of the following except A. Its ability to spread through the tissues B. Its ability to escape from the phagosome C. Its ability to overcome body defenses D. Its ability to produce exotoxins E. Its ability to grow on artificial laboratory media
E. Its ability to grow on artificial laboratory media
Pathogenicity The organisms of botulism, tetanus, and diphtheria are distinguished by their A. Production of spores B. Chemotaxis C. Ability to produce coagulase D. Growth in anaerobic environments E. Production of exotoxins
E. Production of exotoxins
One of the objects of desensitization procedures is to A. Control transplantation rejection B. Increase the level of IgE in the vascular system C. Stimulate the production of interferon D. Destroy immune complexes that may have formed in the blood vessels E. Reduce the number of basophils and mast cells to which IgE attaches
E. Reduce the number of basophils and mast cells to which IgE attaches
Normal flora may be found in all of the following environments except A. The vagina B. The pharynx C. The axilla D. The upper respiratory tract E. The blood
E. The blood
Food allergies are a form of __________ hypersensitivity A. Type IV B. Type III C. Type II D. secondary E. Type I
E. Type I
In the prodromal phase, symptoms A. are at their height B. have not developed yet and there is no sign of disease C. have begun to disappear D. indicate the host has accumulated antibodies and memory lymphocytes that prevent reinfection E. may include nausea, fever, and headache
E. may include nausea, fever, and headache
Granulocytes that contain toxins that kill parasites, flukes and tapeworms
Eosinophils
CD4 receptor
Glycoprotein receptor of helper T cells recognized by human immunodeficiency virus, HIV
Hay fever
Grass pollen or other airborne antigen elicits degranulation and allergic rhinitis
Urticaria
Hive with puffy center surrounded by red flared area
Anaphylaxis
IgE-mediated mass release of basophilic inflammatory mediators; may be fatal
Arthus phenomenon
Immune complex hypersensitivity; "farmers lung", serum sickness
Naturally acquired active immunity
Immunity provided by illness
Acquired immunity
Immunity that develops after birth
Toxoid
Inactivated toxin
Subunit vaccine
Inactivated type: pili and capsules used
Vector
Insect that transmits disease
T-independent antigen
LPS or carbohydrates with repeating subunits which can activate B cells without TH cell help
IgM
Largest antibody and first antibody to appear. Indicates recent infection. Pentameric form maintains its location to control infections in the bloodstream
Digests the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria
Lysozyme
Cause of complement mediated cell lysis
Membrane attack complex
Microbiota
Microorganisms present in healthy host
In the tissues, these mature into macrophages
Monocytes
These leukocytes are agranulocytes
Monocytes, Lymphocytes (T and B cells)
Ensnared pathogens are trapped in DNA, with degradative enzymes and peptides
Neutrophil extracellular trap
Three types of leukocytes that contain granules with lysosomes
Neutrophils, basophils, eusinophils
Parasitism
Organism feeds on host
Portal of entry
Place where parasite invades host
An exogenous example would be a toxin
Pyrogen
CD8 receptor
Receptors on cytotoxic T cells
Mutualism
Relationship that benefits both species
Herd immunity
Results from a successful vaccination program
What do dendritic cells use to present antigens?
Use TLRs, phagocytosis, and pinocytosis to gather material to present antigens
Rhodamine, fluorescein
Used in indirect FA technique
Asthma
Wheezing and stressed breathing