UNIT 4 MICROBIOLOGY
Which event happens first during cytotoxic T-cell activation?
CD8 binds to MHC molecules of infected cells
Which of the following cell surface structures may initiate B cells by T-independent antigens?
Capsules
Which of the following is not a proposed explanation for the development of autoimmunity?
Certain antigens in a person's diet could trigger the production of antibodies that cross-react with host tissues.
Which of the following describes the classical pathway of complement activation?
Complement proteins activate when antibodies bind to a pathogen.
Which of the following scenarios would result in long-term immunity? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
- A healthy individual receiving an MMR vaccination - An otherwise healthy individual developing antibodies against Epstein-Barr virus following a case of mononucleosis
Which of the following statements is/are ways in which fever is protective? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
- Fever limits the growth of heat-sensitive pathogens. - Fever increases phagocytic efficiency. - Fever enhances antiviral properties of interferon
Which of the following as an example of an autoimmune disorder? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
- Following an untreated case of strep throat, your patient develops rheumatic heart disease. - Your juvenile patient develops Type I diabetes mellitus. - After infection with Zika Virus, your patient develops Guillain-Barré syndrome.
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding T cytotoxic cell antigen elimination? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
- Following apoptosis by cytotoxic T cells, macrophages and natural killer cells clear the dead cells. - Interferons released by infected or cancer cells attract and activate cytotoxic T cells, while cytokines released by the cytotoxic T cells attract natural killer cells and macrophages. - Once the threat has been detected by the T cell receptor, the cytotoxic T cell releases perforins that form pores in the target cell and granzymes, which enter through pores to trigger apoptosis.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the way(s) in which granulocytes and agranulocytes differ? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
- Granulocytes have granules in their cytoplasm that are visible with light microscopy, whereas agranulocytes do not have granules in their cytoplasm. - Granulocytes consist of neutrophils, mast cells, eosinophils, and basophils, whereas agranulocytes consist of lymphocytes, dendritic cells, and monocytes.
Which of the following statements accurately describes innate immunity? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
- Innate immunity has the capacity to distinguish foreign versus self. - Innate immunity has an immediate response to antigens.
Which of the following measures can be used to diagnose allergies? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
- Large wheal and flare lesion following a skin prick testElevated - IgE titers within the patient's serum to a specific allergen
Which of the following is part of the second line of defense? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
- Leukocytes - Molecular factors such as chemokines
Which of the following statements regarding B lymphocytes is/are true? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
- Once activated, B lymphocytes have the ability to produce antibodies. - B lymphocytes are both produced and mature in the bone marrow.
Which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions involves production of antibodies? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
- Type I hypersensitivity - Type III hypersensitivity - Type II hypersensitivity
Which of the following statements accurately differentiates the adaptive immune system and the innate immune system? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
- Unlike the innate immune system, the adaptive immune system includes both a cellular and humoral response. - Unlike the innate immune system, the adaptive immune system is characterized by memory and specificity.
While hiking, you sprain your ankle. Which of the following signs and symptoms of inflammation should you observe? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
- pain - swelling
You are working in a pediatric doctor's office and your 5-year-old patient needs his 5th dose of the diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccine. Which of the following vaccines would you need to administer?
DTaP
Antipyretics such as ibuprofen and acetaminophen work in which of the following manners?
Decrease production of prostaglandins
The hygiene hypothesis proposes which of the following?
Decreasing diversity of our normal flora from increased antibiotic usage and changes in diet and lifestyle may lead to increased allergies and autoimmune disorders.
Which of the following statements concerning desensitization therapy is true?
Desensitization therapy encourages plasma cells to produce IgG antibodies against the allergen.
When does MHC-II loading occur?
During the fusion of vesicles containing MHC-II proteins with vesicles containing digested pathogens
Which of the following scenarios would be most likely to lead to graft-versus-host disease?
A bone marrow is transplanted from an older, unaffected sibling to a younger sibling affected with severe combined immunodeficiency.
How are autoimmune disorders diagnosed?
A collection of tests and careful assessment of signs and symptoms are required.
Which of the following definitions correctly describes the CRISPR-Cas9 system?
A gene-editing tool that locates a specific DNA sequence and cuts it out so that a new sequence can be inserted.
Which of the following is a correct statement about hemolytic transfusion reactions?
A hemolytic transfusion reaction, which lyses red blood cells, could kill the patient.
A person with blood type A+ can safely donate to a person with blood type _____ and receive from a person with blood type _____.
AB+; O+
You would like to determine the blood type of your patient via an agglutination test. You add three drops of the patient's blood sample to a glass slide and add either anti-A, anti-B, or anti-Rh sera to each drop. You observe agglutination reactions in the samples to which you added the anti-A and anti-B sera. What is the blood type of your patient?
AB-
You add 100 copies of a target gene to a thermocycler and set it to run through 30 cycles. How many copies can you expect once the procedure is finished?
About 1x1011
Choose the false statement about immune responses.
Adaptive immune responses are always the same, regardless of the threat encountered, while innate immune responses are not.
What is an adjuvant?
Adjuvants are pharmacological additives that enhance the body's natural immune response to an antigen.
When do helper T-cells develop into TH1 or TH2 cells?
After proliferation into a clonal population
Which of the following scenarios is most concerning for development of hemolytic disease of the newborn?
An Rh- mother pregnant with an Rh+ fetus
Similar to the need for a primary activation signal to fully activate T helper cells, a primary activation signal is needed to activate B cells by T-dependent antigens. Which of the following serves as the primary activation signal?
An extracellular antigen binds to a B cell receptor.
What is the primary benefit of vaccination?
An immune response will occur quicker upon future exposure to the pathogen.
What makes agglutination by antibodies possible?
Each antibody has at least two antigen-binding sites.
How can a sufficient humoral immune response occur if a plasma cell only lives for a few days?
Each plasma cell can produce up to 2000 antibodies every second.
Your patient is suffering from a parasitic infection. Which of the following cells would most likely be elevated?
Eosinophils
__________, or amount of antibody present in the blood, is _________ during the secondary immune response.
Antibody titer; greater
While all effects of fever are not entirely understood, some studies have suggested various reasons as to why especially low-grade fevers may be beneficial. Which of the following would not be a function of fever?
Fever works by limiting the production of prostaglandins in the hypothalamus.
What is an antigen?
Any molecule that, when presented in the right context, will stimulate an immune response
Which of the following statements best describes the hygiene hypothesis as it relates to allergies?
As a result of increased antibiotic usage and cleaner foods and beverages, our normal gut microbiota has shifted, resulting in increased hypersensitivities in developed countries.
Desensitization immunotherapy administers allergen in controlled amounts and stimulates T regulatory cell populations. Which of the following is not a correct statement about this therapy?
As a result of the controlled injection of the allergen, the number of IgE molecules is increased.
Which type of vaccine could possibly cause a person to develop the disease?
Attenuated live vaccine
___________ are transplants from self, like a self-skin graft from one part of the body to another location.
Autografts
Which type of cell directly binds an antigen, rather than requiring an antigen-presenting cell to first process the antigen?
B cells
TH2 cells produce cytokines that activate
B cells.
A patient with the antigens A and RH+ would not be able to receive blood from which of the following?
B+
Which of the following restriction enzymes would recognize and cut the following DNA sequence?-TGGATCCA--ACCTAGGT-
BamHIGATCCTAG
What is the function of boosters?
Boosters are injections that are given periodically to maintain immunity.
Which of the following is a common feature between T and B cells?
Both produce memory cells after activation.
Which of the following does not describe adaptive immunity?
generalized responses that don't vary based on the pathogen being fought
Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune type IV hypersensitivity?
graft-versus-host disease
In a recombinant vector vaccine, genetic material from a pathogen is placed into a ________ and introduced to human cells.
harmless virus or bacteria
Which of the following acts as a proinflammatory factor?
histamine
A patient with a newly transplanted organ is likely prescribed __________ in order to limit the risk of transplant rejection.
immunosuppressants
The influenza vaccine is an example of a(n)
inactivated killed vaccine.
Which of the following allergies and treatments is mismatched?
insect bite/sting allergy: continued preemptive treatment with an injected antibody preparation that ties up the patient's IgE antibodies
_________ play a role in hematopoiesis.
interleukins
Antigen processing and presentation
is a way for a cell to give information about its activities.
Lupus is a ________ hypersensitivity characterized by ______.
type III; a rash across cheeks and nose, fatigue, and joint pain
The major histocompatibility complex type I (MHC I) _________.
is found on all body cells except red blood cells
Chronic inflammation
is not useful or protective and promotes atherosclerosis, cancers, and neurodegenerative disorders.
A patient that experiences a tuberculin skin test reaction is experiencing which class of hypersensitivity reactions?
type IV
The cellular branch of adaptive immunity
is organized by T helper cells and carried out by T cytotoxic cells.
Which of the following hypersensitivities are T cell-mediated responses against self-antigens or otherwise harmless antigens?
type IV hypersensitivities
Which of the following is one of the categories of the second-line defenses?
leukocytes
The liquid contained within the lymphatic vessels is called _________.
lymph
A patient fully recovered from Ebola with minor medical support. This was the result of ____________.
naturally acquired active immunity
A mother is breastfeeding her infant son and transferring crucial antibodies to him. This will result in _________.
naturally acquired passive immunity
Which cell type is the most numerous white blood cell in circulation, is the first leukocyte recruited from the bloodstream to injured tissues, and releases potent antimicrobial peptides?
neutrophils
The picture shows _________ that are commonly elevated during ___________.
neutrophils; acute bacterial infections
Although antivenom can save lives, it can also cause what type of reaction in certain patients?
nonautoimmune type III hypersensitivity
Which of the following is an outcome of complement activation?
opsonization, cytolysis, and inflammation
Antibodies are secreted from which type of cell?
plasma cells
All the following apply to B cells except
play a critical role in both the cellular and humoral responses.
The general goal of first-line defenses is to
prevent pathogen entry
The thymus and bone marrow are examples of __________ lymphoid tissues and play a role in _________.
primary; maturation of leukocytes
Which of the following is not a main goal of inflammation?
produce localized heat and swelling in an effort to denature key bacterial proteins
The aspect of the immune response that vaccines are based on is
production of memory cells and high antibody titers from pathogen exposure.
In contrast to a primary immune response, immunological memory
provides a rapid reactivation of both cellular and humoral responses including generating higher antibody titers and antibodies with increased affinity for its antigen.
Your patient is suffering from Grave's disease. This type II hypersensitivity is caused by _________.
receptor overactivation
Which of the following features are shared between both innate and adaptive immunity?
recognize diverse pathogens, eliminate identified invaders, and discriminate between self and foreign antigens
The 2014 outbreak of Ebola spurred the development of a new vaccine for this disease. The newly designed vaccines were ________.
recombinant vector vaccines
Antimicrobial peptides can do all of the following except
regulate body temperature
What is the role of memory cells?
remain in the lymphoid tissue to rapidly proliferate and differentiate upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen
Elevated body temperature that fluctuates but does not reach normal during the course of the fluctuations is classified as a _________.
remittent fever
Pregnancy tests are examples of _________.
sandwich ELISAs
What are cytokines?
signaling proteins that help cells communicate with each other, initiating and coordinating immune actions
Allografts are
similar to the host, but not genetically identical.
Which of the following is the most important physical barrier of the first line of defense?
skin
Adjuvants appear to work by
stimulating cytokine release and encouraging the uptake and processing of antigens by dendritic cells.
___________include a variety of bacterial toxins (e.g. staphylococcal enterotoxins and staphylococcal toxic shock toxin) and are especially potent T helper cell activators.
superantigens
Tachycardia and a drop in blood pressure are signs of _________ affecting the __________.
systemic anaphylaxis; cardiovascular system
Which of the following is a true statement about the tuberculin skin test?
For the test, PPD is injected into the skin of the forearm.
Which of the following is not a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
Goodpasture syndrome
Which molecule triggers apoptosis?
Granzyme
Which of the following molecules released by cytotoxic T cells will enter a virus-infected cell through pores and break down proteins?
Granzymes
The degree to which the antigen provokes an immune response varies and depends on the antigen's biochemical features. Which of the following molecules are the least immunogenic?
Haptens
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
For which of the following diseases is no vaccine available?
Hepatitis C
________ reactions are inappropriate responses against a threat that lead to immune-based pathologies such as allergy and autoimmunity.
Hypersensitivity
The branches of adaptive immunity are
the cellular response and the humoral response
Place the stages of adaptive immunity in order from first to last. I. Antigen elimination and memory II. Lymphocyte activation III. Antigen presentation IV. Lymphocyte proliferation and differentiation
III, II, IV, I
In type I hypersensitivities, allergen exposure triggers the immune system to produce ________. This is called the _________.
IgE; sensitizing exposure
Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta and is the most abundant of all antibodies?
IgG
Choose the false statement.
IgG binds to the surface of mast cells and basophils.
_________can exist as either a monomer or a snowflake-shaped pentamer and is central to _________.
IgM; agglutination and precipitation reactions
What is graft-versus-host disease?
Immune system cells in transplanted bone marrow attack the body of its new host.
Why are immunological diagnostic tools a better choice than biochemical tools in identifying a variety of cellular as well as viral pathogens?
Immunologic diagnositics can identify noncellular pathogens like viruses that lack their own biochemical processes.
Which of the following statements is true concerning the alternative complement cascade?
In the alternative complement cascade, complement proteins directly interact with the invading agent.
Which of the following mechanisms occurs in a patient suffering from systemic lupus erythematosus?
Insoluble antigen-antibody complexes form and deposit in tissues, attracting complement, which in turn activates inflammation cascades and recruits inflammation-promoting leukocytes.
What is the difference between an intolerance and an allergy?
Intolerances tend to have a delayed onset of symptoms, while allergic reactions occur rapidly.
What type of antigen typically binds to MHC I to present an MCH I-antigen complex?
Intracellular antigen
Which of the following is an incorrect statement about iron-binding proteins?
Iron-binding proteins are also referred to as "siderophores."
You are programming a thermocycler and are setting temperature of the second step in your protocol to 62°C. What is happening during this step?
It allows the primers to anneal.
Genome maps reveal valuable information about an organism. Which of the following would it not be helpful with?
It is not a useful tool for investigating differences between healthy cells and diseased ones, such as cancer cells.
Why are leukocytes so central to second-line molecular defenses?
Leukocytes produce second-line molecular defenses.
___________ contain pathogens that have been altered so that they do not cause disease (are not pathogenic), but are still infectious.
Live attenuated vaccines
Cellular and humoral responses both progress through four main stages. What is the second stage?
Lymphocyte activation
Based on the animation, T cells recognized the antigen displayed by what protein of the B cell?
MHC
What is the role of MHC I in the immune response?
MHC I is found on all body cells except red blood cells and presents a sample of cellular proteins, including those of any intracellular pathogens, to T cells.
Which statement is not true about MHC II?
MHC II interacts with both the CD4 and CD8 receptors on T helper and T cytotoxic cells.
Which proteins on the antigen-presenting cell are recognized by the helper T-cell?
MHC proteins
Which of the cells listed below can present antigens on Class II MHC proteins?
Macrophages
Which of the following diseases has seen the strongest surge in the number of cases in the U.S. due to decreasing vaccination rates?
Measles
When a person has previously been vaccinated against a viral pathogen, which cells are activated if that same pathogen re-enters the host's cells months or years later?
Memory cytotoxic T cells
_________ are only weakly responsive to traditional desensitization therapies.
Most food allergies
Which of the following statements concerning natural killer cells is true?
Natural killer cells provide protection against viruses, bacteria, parasites, and tumors.
Which of the following are not part of the adaptive immune system?
Neutrophils
Which of the following leukocytes are the most numerous in human blood?
Neutrophils
Why would a body cell that is not a phagocyte need to present antigens?
Non-phagocytic body cells can become infected with a virus.
You are working in the ER and have a patient that needs a blood transfusion. Without knowing his blood type, which of the following blood types would you be able to safely provide?
O-
Where are MHC molecules located on a cell?
On the surface of the cell
Which of the following is not a key antibody function?
Phagocytosis
Which technique would prove that a patient was exposed to a certain virus even if it is no longer in their system?
Plaque reduction neutralization test
What is produced by the process of clonal expansion?
Plasma cells and memory B cells
What is the role of plasma cells in humoral immunity?
Plasma cells produce antibodies.
Which special type of PCR would be used to detect RNA in a sample?
RT-PCR
Which of the following infectious agents would not directly infect immune system cells?
Rabies virus
Which of the following is not a subunit vaccine?
Recombinant vector vaccine
An activated T helper cell becomes either an effector T helper cell or a memory T helper cell. What is the function of the effector T helper cell?
Release factors that help T cytotoxic cell and B cell activation
Herd immunity describes
the protection conferred to non-immunized people when a sizable portion of the rest of the population is immunized.
A drawback of all inactivated vaccines is that
they are quickly cleared from the body, limiting antigen exposure.
Which of the following is not a secondary lymphoid tissue?
thymus
Which of the following are primary lymphoid tissues?
thymus and bone marrow
Which of the following disorders is considered a "Type II" in the Gell and Coombs classification system?
Rheumatic heart disease
Which of the following is an incorrect statement about admininstering RhoGAM to an Rh- mother?
RhoGAM will be administered to every Rh- mother after birth, even if her child is Rh-.
Which of the following vaccines is administered orally?
Rotavirus vaccine
Which of the following diseases was eradicated after a successful vaccination program?
Smallpox
Conjugate vaccines which link the target antigen to a more immunogenic antigen are usually for
vaccines against bacterial polysaccharide antigens.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
vaccines cause autism
The Hepatitis B vaccine is which type of vaccine?
Subunit vaccine
Why is Celiac disease characterized as a type IV hypersensitivity and not an allergy?
T cells, not IgG, attack the lining to the small intestines within 2-3 days of consuming gluten.
Which of the following is the primary activation signal to fully activate T helper cells?
T helper cell's TCR interacts with the MHCII-antigen complex.
_________ are the most abundant T cells, and their function is to __________.
T helper cells (CD4+); coordinate the adaptive immune response
An APC bearing MHC-antigen complexes on its cell surface migrates to lymphoid tissues and interacts with which of the following cells?
T helper cells and T cytotoxic cells
Choose the false statement.
T helper cells directly combat antigens.
An antigen that is potent enough to activate a B cell on its own is known as
T-independent antigens.
Which T cell class is incorrectly matched with its description?
TC: attack other T cells during self-tolerance screening
Which receptor on the helper T-cell recognizes the specific antigen from an antigen-presenting cell?
TCR
Natural killer cells are activated by
TH1 cells.
What is a drawback of live attenuated vaccines?
The agents present in this type of vaccine could cause disease in an immune-compromised host.
Which of the following most accurately describes how a pathogenic bacterium might be affected by antibodies?
The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host, may opsonize the bacterium, or may agglutinate bacteria.
Which organelle assists directly with the presentation of MHC-I antigens?
The endoplasmic reticulum
Which of the following is an example of a mechanical barrier?
The mucociliary escalator sweeps mucus away from the lungs and toward the mouth.
Which of the following is a correct statement about herd immunity?
The percentage of a population that must be vaccinated for herd immunity to be effective varies based on the pathogen.
What is apoptosis?
The process of programmed cell death.
Which statement provides the best explanation of the need for self-tolerance screening of lymphocytes?
The process which generates the vast array of diverse antigen receptors is a random process that could produce receptors which will bind to the body's own tissues.
Which of the following best characterizes clonal selection?
The production of identical B cells producing the same antibody
Which of the following is a feature true for the adaptive immune response only?
The response is tailored to a specific antigen.
Which of the following statements concerning the secondary response is true?
The secondary response results in production of antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen.
Which of the following statements is incorrect about interferon gamma release assays (IGRAs) used to detect TB in vaccinated populations (vaccinated with BCG vaccine)?
The test is very sensitive and can determine if a patient with a positive IGRA has an active versus latent infection.
What is the hallmark of a conjugated vaccine?
These vaccines contain weakly antigenic elements plus a more potent antigenic protein.
What is a feature of the small fragments presented by MHC-I proteins?
They are small peptides, roughly 8-10 amino acids long.
Which of the following statements about type III hypersensitivities is false?
They develop when IgD or IgE antibodies bind to insoluble targets.
How do phagocytes communicate to other cells what they have captured?
They present antigens from engulfed foreign cells.
What is the fate of activated cytotoxic T-cells?
They proliferate into a clone of cells specific to the same antigen; some of these cells then differentiate into long-lived memory T-cells, while others mature to attack infected cells.
Which of the following is not a main goal of inflammation?
To allow for the complement cascade to become activated
What is edema?
tissue swelling
The amount of antibody present in the blood is termed the antibody ________.
titer
Allergies are classified as:
Type I hypersensitivities
Which of the following hypersensitivity classes is properly listed with its description?
Type III, immune complex
Which of the following hypersensitivities are characterized by the slowest onset?
Type IV
Which of the following statements regarding type IV hypersensitivities is true?
Type IV hypersensitivities are delayed and typically manifest slowly over 12--72 hours after the stimulating antigen is encountered.
Why are type IV hypersensitivities called delayed hypersensitivity reactions?
Type IV reactions manifest slowly over 12-72 hours after the stimulating antigen is encountered.
What does a vaccine contain?
Weakened or killed pathogen or parts of a pathogen
What is the role of B cell receptors (BCRs) and T cell receptors (TCRs) in the immune response?
to recognize specific epitopes of an antigen
When could hemolytic disease of the newborn occur?
When the father is Rh+ and the mother is Rh-
Which of the following statements describes the purpose of gene shuffling?
Which of the following statements describes the purpose of gene shuffling?
How is the immune system able to recognize a limitless number of different antigens and epitopes?
While each lymphocyte carries receptors that recognize only one type of epitope, the immune system produces a wide variety of lymphocytes each of which carries unique receptors.
Which of the following statements are true about serum sickness?
With serum sickness, the patient's immune system recognizes the administered substance as foreign.
In 1984, in one of the most famous cross-species transplantations, a baboon heart was transplanted into an infant (Baby Fae). This surgery is an example of which of the following types of grafts?
Xenograft
The monomeric structure of an antibody can be described as ________-shaped and is composed of light and heavy chains that are held together by _________.
Y; disulfide bridges
Which of the following scenarios is an example of a primary immunodeficiency?
Your patient is born with agammaglobulinemia, a genetic condition that leads to decreased antibody production.
Secondary immunodeficiences are commonly caused by __________.
a decline in immune system rigor
A major factor in the re-emergence of vaccine-preventable diseases in the early 21st century has been
a flawed research study incorrectly linking vaccination to autism was published in the late 1990s.
A DNA vaccine involves placing genes into a plasmid and introducing the plasmid into human cells. Human cells then transcribe and translate the genes to produce antigen which immunize the recipient. What is the source of the genes being introduced?
a pathogen
Antibodies do all the following except
activate killing by T cytotoxic cells.
Which of the following is not a hallmark sign of primary immunodeficiencies?
acute
Which branch of the immune system produces antibodies?
adaptive humoral response
A vaccine additive which enhances the body's natural immune response is called a(n)
adjuvant.
Which of the following class of hypersensitivity reactions is not associated with autoimmunity?
allergies
What two types of patients help demonstrate that cancer can be considered a failure of the immune system?
transplant patients and HIV/AIDS patients
Inflammation occurs in three general phases. Which phase is the first to occur after tissue injury?
vascular changes phase
Mast cells are the key players in which phase of inflammation?
vascular changes phase
Which of the following are the three phases of inflammation?
vascular changes, leukocyte recruitment, and resolution
The complement system consists of over 30 different proteins that work together in a cascade fashion to protect us against infectious agents. One way this system is activated is via the ____________, when complement proteins are activated by directly interacting with pathogen.
alternative pathway
Which of the following would not cause serum sickness?
anti-inflammatory drugs
Which of the following are used to treat serum sickness?
anti-inflammatory drugs and antihistamines
Which of the following molecules are only found as part of the humoral immune response?
antibodies
A substance that may trigger an immune response, if presented in the right context is termed a(n)
antigen
Which of the following is an example of a chemical barrier?
antimicrobial peptides
Your patient is suffering from botulism caused by the potent toxin released by Clostridium botulinum. In addition to supportive care, the patient could also receive an ________ to neutralize the toxin and stimulate her _________.
antitoxin; artificially acquired passive immunity
The three main pathways for complement activation all have the same general outcomes. Which of the following would not be an outcome?
apoptosis
The difference between T cell activation by normal antigens and T cell activation by superantigens is that superantigens
are not processed and presented by APCs and cause nonspecific activation of many T cells at once, including those that would not normally recognize the antigen.
Live attenuated vaccines
are the closest to the actual infectious agent encountered in nature and stimulate potent immune responses to multiple antigens on the pathogen.
T-independent antigens
are usually polysaccharides and able to bind multiple B cell receptors on a given B cell.
What are the two categories of second-line defenses?
assorted molecular factors and leukocytes
What is the function of the CD8 receptor?
bind to MHC molecules
Which is not a step in the process of B cell activation by a T-dependent antigen?
binding of the antigen to a T helper cell receptor
Which of the following is not one of the four cardinal signs of inflammation?
bleeding
T-cell precursors are made in the __________ and mature in the __________.
bone marrow; thymus
There are three common features shared by the innate and adaptive immune responses. Which of the following is not one of the three?
both are only found in vertebrate animals
Which of the following is not one of the hallmark signs of primary immunodeficiencies?
caused by common infectious agents
Autoimmune disorders are
chronic conditions that develop from the immune system attacking healthy self-tissues that should normally be left alone.
Which of the following can cause primary immunodeficiencies?
congenital immunodeficiency
All the following apply to T cells except
coordinate the humoral response by making antibodies.
T helper cells release _____ to activate B cells.
cytokines
Which cell type works to prevent our immune system from attacking self and from over-reacting to nonthreatening substances, is abundant in tissues next to body openings, and phagocytizes a broad range of antigens?
dendritic cells
Which of the following pairs is not an example of a cytokine and its function?
eicosanoids: promote the replication and gathering of leukocytes
The parts of an antigen that B and T cells recognize and mount an immune response against are called _________.
epitopes
Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of inflammation?
fever
Which of the following is not an example of first-line defenses?
fever
Secondary lymphoid tissues
filter lymph and sample surrounding body sites for antigens which are brought into contact with the leukocytes that reside in secondary lymphoid tissues to stimulate an immune response.
Kupffer cells are examples of ________ that reside in the _________.
fixed macrophages; liver
Localized anaphylaxis tends to feature isolated symptoms such as
watery eyes, a runny nose, or a confined rash.
In what situation is hemolytic disease of the newborn a life and death situation?
when an RH- mom is pregnant for the second time with an RH+ fetus
What is the general classification used to categorize leukocytes?
whether or not leukocytes have granules in their cytoplasm that are visible when stained and then viewed by light microscopy