VET 405 - Final

functional obstruction (mechanical or otherwise)

generalized enlargement of the small intestine means ____________

hypsodont; brachydont

grazers have ___________ teeth which can handle excessive wear while browsers have __________ teeth which do not need to stand up to as much wear

by the kidney in a charged form (anionic)

how are ketones elminated from the body?

formed in the liver, used to recycle Acetyl-CoA back into CoA for continued b-oxidation (skips TCA cycle)

how are ketones formed in the body?

nanophyetus salmincola; neorickettsia helminthoeca

salmon poisoning is caused by a ___________ containing the bacteria ____________

The bicarbonate produced by enterocytes will cause H+ to be taken out of capillaries to transport it across the cell thereby increasing pH

how can the GI tract impact the body's pH?

dehydration, electrolyte imbalance (acidosis), hypoglycemia/ketoacidosis, protein loss, growth retardation/weight loss, death

list possible clinical outcomes of diarrhea

1. malabsorption 2. excessive secretion 3. exudation/effusion 4. osmotic imbalance 5. motility disorders

list the 5 basic mechanisms of infectious diarrhea

Foregut fermenters

Kangaroos, Colobus Monkeys, Sheep, and Llamas are all __________

GI Protectants

Kaolin-Pectin and Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto) are _____________

false; they have no known zoonotic potential, but the host-specific species can exist on transport hosts like rodents

T/F: Isospora are a type of coccidia with high zoonotic potential

false; should be given before any signs manifest

T/F: antihilmethic should be first given during a period of time when the animal is experiencing clinical signs related to that infection

false; there's septic AND nonseptic exudates, but both are a result of inflammation

T/F: exudates are consistently associated with sepsis

lymphosarcoma and adenomas

What are the most likely intestinal neoplasia to occur?

dudodenal loops w/ pancreas in the middle

What are the structures labeled "D" and "E"?

large intestine and cloaca

What are the structures labeled "I and J"?

Foreign body or mass

What condition best fits with the location labeled "A"?

Gastric dilation

What condition best fits with the location labeled "A"?

foreign body or mass

What condition best fits with the location labeled "B"?

gastric torsion

What condition best fits with the location labeled "B"?

gastroenteritis, peritonitis, or infarction

What condition best fits with the location labeled "C"?

neoplasia or granuloma

What condition best fits with the location labeled "D and E"?

peritonitis, gastroenteritis, or infarction

What condition best fits with the location labeled "D"?

peritonitis, gastroenteritis, or infarction

What condition best fits with the location labeled "E"?

plication, bunching, crescent shaped bubbles

What condition best fits with the locations labeled "A,B, and C"? (SI characteristics)

bind bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins; activated charcoal, di-tri-octahedral smectitie

What do Adsorbents do to decrease diarrhea? what are some examples?

they are all incidental post-mortem findings; nonlesions

What do all these images have in common?

destroys abomasal cells so that they are not able to produce HCl leading to weight loss and diarrhea

What does Ostertagiasis (a type of trichostrongyle affecting cattle) do to its host?

Ileus is an adynamic state of the bowel (segmental or diffuse) restulting in a functional obstruction; things like shock and abdominal surgery can cause it

What is ileus? what causes ileus?

Body of the stomach

What is in the highlighted region?

Fundus

What is in the highlighted region?

pylorus

What is in the highlighted region?

pH is a measure of hydrogen ion concentration; pH alters biological function and indicates a physiological disturbance

What is pH? what is its significance in the body?

crop; temporary food storage, moistens ingesta (mucous)

What is structure labeled "A"? what is its function?

proventriculus; cranial part of stomach, serves secretory functions

What is structure labeled "B"? what is its function?

gillard/ventriculus; distal part of stomach, mechanical functions (grinding), contains cuticle

What is structure labeled "c"? what is its function?

swim bladder is connected to the distal esophagus and the fish can gulp gas to fill/empty it

What is the fish stomach's role in buoyancy?

cysts (environmentally resistant stage excreted in feces) in fecal float

What is the infective stage of Giarida? At what stage are most Giardia infections able to be clinically diagnosed?

ketone bodies

___________ are small, water-soluble circulating lipids produced by the liver and kidneys that can cross the BBB and the placenta during periods of starvation?

acidemia; alkalemia

___________ is when pH of the blood is too low and ____________ is when the pH of the blood is too high

isospora; eimeria

___________ type of coccidia most commonly affects dogs, cats and pigs, while _________ affects pigs and ruminants

pleurodont

a __________ is a reptile which has teeth attached on a lingual surface that are constantly shed (including most lizards and snakes)

biliary cyst; neoplasia; abscess

a uniformly anechoic liver mass is usually _________ while a complex appearing liver mass is usually ____________, and any gas trapping is often indicative of ____________

alkaline (pancreatic duct cells secrete HCO3-)

pancreatic secretions are (acidic/alkaline) during the intestinal phase of a meal

1. spleen should not extend to the urinary bladder 2. spleen should not extend to the right kidney 3. splenic height should not exceed kidney height

what margins define an enlarged spleen on ultrasound? (3)

fat saponification

what might a hyperechoic pancreas indicate?

biliary obstruction, cyst formation

what might a hypoechoic pancreas indicate?

mostly the same as small bowel diarrhea, but can have unique bacteria that locate there

what potential causes of diarrhea are unique to pathogensis of disease in the large intestine?

via the extrinsic and intrinsic nervous system from gastric distention and nutrients in proximal small intestine

what stimulates the Gastro-Colic reflex in a post-prandial animal?

decreased portal detail, isoechoic to spleen and falciform fat

what type of echogenicity changes will occur with a hyperechoic liver parenchyma?

increased portal detail, hypoechoic/isoechoic to the renal cortex

what type of echogenicity changes will occur with a hypoechoic liver parenchyma?

nemotodes (ascarids)

what type of helminth are Toxocara canis?

for antibiotic responsive diarrhea (responds to antibiotics); metronidazole and tylosin

when are antimicrobial uses for diarrhea indicated? what are a couple of examples?

to reduce signs of IBD; corticosteroids, chemotherapeutics

when are immune modulators used for diarrhea? what are some examples?

mesothelial cells (lining of body cavities become hyperplastic from chronic effusions (mostly dogs and cattle)

when do mesothelial cells become reactive?

in young kittens, puppies, and piglets (immunocompromised animals)

when does Isospora most commonly diagnosed following clinical signs?

diabetes mellitus

under which *pathological* conditions are ketone bodies formed?

starvation, high protein diet, high fat diet, high gluconeogenesis, high glucagon, corticosteroids, TH, and Catecholamines

under which *physiological* conditions are ketone bodies formed?

increases esophageal and gastric tone while causing pyloric and duodenal relaxation; little/no effect on colon

what GI segments does metoclopramide target?

nutrient absorption

what activity has the biggest osmotic driving force in the GI tract?

dehydration, inflammation, hepatocellular injury/cholestasis, acid-base and electrolyte derangments, hypocalcemia

what are some lab abnormalities (aside from spec PL) that is consistent with pancreatitis? (5)

gain of acid (high anion gap) or loss of bicarbonate (anion gap is normal)

what are some potential causes of primary metabolic acidosis?

loss of acid from renal or gastric losses or gain of bicarbonate (latrogenic)

what are some potential causes of primary metabolic alkalosis?

severe renal disease, malnourishment, and pancreatitis

what are the 3 main causes for elevated TLI?

1. inactivates pepsin 2. prevents acid-pepsin damage to duodenal mucosa 3. provides functional pH for pancreatic and brush border enzymes 4. increases solubility of bile acids and fatty acids

what are the advantages of maintaining intraluminal pH at nearly 7? (4)

anorexia, vomiting, EXTREME abdominal pain; high spec cPL

what are the clinical signs and lab results of pancreatic necrosis?

thickening of intestinal walls, increased total bowel height for both; swollen lymph nodes in lymphoma

what are the ultrasound features of IBD and intestinal lymphoma in cats?

increased pancreas height (exceeds height of adjacent duodenum), nodular hyperplasia, dilation of pancreatic duct

what are the ultrasound features of feline *chronic* pancreatitis?

hepatomegaly, hyperechoic (more than/as much as surrounding fat), reduced venous echogenicity

what are the ultrasound features of hepatic lipidosis?

1. fatty liver syndrome 2. endocrine disease (diabetes, hyperadrenocorticism-cushings) 3. vacuolar hepatopathy

what are three likely causes of hepatic enlargement with hyperechoic parenchyma?

1. right heart failture 2. acute hepatitis/hepatopathy 3. lymphoma

what are three likely causes of hepatic enlargement with hypoechoic parenchyma?

wasting syndrome, peracute mortality, severe tooth wear, ruminal acidosis (commercial pellets), and phytobezoars

what can happen when browsers eat like grazers?

from flukes traveling to the liver

what causes a this calcified bile duct problem in the liver?

linear foreign body

what causes the small intestine to plicate?

the ratio of HCO3- (conj base) to CO2 (conj acid)

what chemical ratio indicates the approximate pH of the blood?

weakness, anemia, diarrhea, hypoproteinemia, poor weight gain, decreased milk production

what clinical signs are related to fluke infections?

the difference remaining after subtracting all measured anions from all measured cations; yields the anion gap (mostly made of albumin and phosphate)

what is an anion gap?

provide small meals over several days to gently return insulin function to normal, avoid high Na+ diets (to avoid flooding into cells), and supplement with thiamin (gluconeogenesis), watch electrolyte balance

what is an appropriate plan to treat a starved animal to prevent refeeding syndrome?

inflammatory response both locally and systemic following ischemia; causes a lot of damage; white blood cells flood the site from singals by Ca2+ left by poor gradients, and oxygen free radicals are produced

what is an ischema-reperfusion injury? what are some of the problems that arise?

there is no specific treatment, just supportive care and maintaining a clean environment

what is used to treat cryptosporidium?

fat soluble vitamins will not be absorbed

what major consequence results from fat maldigestion?

transmitted by adult fleas onto the skin, animal licks fur and ingests the tapeworm eggs

what is a tapeworm life cycle?

decreased; increased

(Increased/decreased) folate indicates proximal SI damage while (increased/decreased) folate indicates bacterial overgrowth (SIBO)

decreased

(increased/decreased) cobalamin (B12) indicates SI damage AND/OR bacterial overgrowth (SIBO)

eat a combination of carbohydrates and fish (CHO+protein)

How do mammals that hibernate eat to maintain maximum leptin sensitivity?

1.either from altered enterocyte function (like mechanical interfecence w/ brush border enzymes - cyptosporidium) 2.from loss of enterocytes (primary descruction of villus enterocytes like with coronavirus, transmissible gastroentereitis virus, etc)

How does malabsorption result leading to diarrhea?

respiratory compensation (increased respiration; hyperventilation)

How does the body rapidly compensate for abnormal changes in blood pH?

strangulated will be black/severely necrosed bowel while nonstrangulated like with displacements, impactions, and adhesions

How is a strangulated bowel distinguished from non-strangulated?

pancreatitis, decreased GFR, cobalamin (B12) deficiency in cats, or exogenous dexamethasone administration

If decreased TLI indicates EPI, what might an increased serum TLI mean?

Coccidia; Eimeria and Cryptosporidium

Ruminants (young ones especially) are most susceptible to which family of protozoa? what are the two most infective species?

ketones are relatively strong acids which decreases the pH of the blood which impairs the ability of hemoglobin to bind to oxygen

What is the main issue with ketoacidosis?

protein losing enteritis causes water to move into the lumen; can be caused by hypoalbuminemia and/or exudation

What is the mechanism behind osmotic imbalance diarrhea?

coprodeum; stores feces

What is the structure labeled "13"? what is its function?

urodeum; contains distal orifices of urinary and reproductive systems (ureter/left oviduct)

What is the structure labeled "14"? what is its function?

proctodeum and cloacal bursa; contains orifice of cloacal bursa (lymphoid tissue)

What is the structure labeled "15 and 16"? what is its function?

vent; excretion of feces, uric acid and eggs

What is the structure labeled "17"? what is its function?

spleen

What is the structure labeled "F"?

gallbladder

What is the structure labeled "G"?

cecae

What is the structure labeled "H"? what is its function?

Liver: there is glucogenolysis (increased cAMP, which promotes F2, 6 Biphosphatase to continue the cascade) Skeletal Muscle: GLUT4 is decreased by lack of glucocorticoids, but glycogen is preserved (fight/flight)

What major changes occur in carbohydrate metabolism for an animal that is starving and/or cachexic?

Liver: decreased lipogenesis (by malonyl CoA decrease), and ketogenesis from Acetyl CoA accumulation in liver from starvation process Skeletal Muscle: fatty acid breakdown spares muscle proteins from catabolism

What major changes occur in lipid metabolism for an animal that is starving and/or cachexic?

Liver: increased gluconeogesis from amino acid breakdown, alanine is converted to pyruvate and nitrogen is used to form urea or another amino acid Skeletal Muscle: low insulin/IGF-1 decreases protein synthesis, glucocorticoid+ubiquitin increase = proteolysis

What major changes occur in protein metabolism for an animal that is starving and/or cachexic?

1. liver margin should be sharp 2. gastric axis should be within normal range 3. gastric axis should be perpendicular to the spine on V/d

What three criteria define a healthy liver on a radiograph?

left lateral projection

What type of imaging causes gas to move into the pylorus?

Eimeria/Isospora have their own species but cryptosporidium is zoonotic

Which type of coccidia is most host specific?

causes malaborption by attacking the mitotically active cells of the intestine (crypt cells)

Why is canine and feline (panleukopenia) parvovirus so destructive?

teniae; haustra

_______ are bands of longitudinal tunica muscularis in the equine large intestine that shorten creating sacculation termed _________

zinc

_______ is a metal that targets the pancreas leading to fibrosis and atrophy when levels reach a toxicosis

prokinetic; through 5-HT reeptors and serotonin

_________ are pharmacologic agents which increase movement of ingesta through the GI tract; what is the most typical mechanism of action?

enterokinase and typsinogen (acitvated into trypsin by enterokinase)

___________ and _____________ are required to activate many pancreatic enzymes

abnormal accumulation of fluid in a body cavity

define an effusion

decreased #/function of pancreatic acinar cells leading to maldigestion (weightloss/diarrhea) +/- small instestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO)

define exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

infected in utero or by ingestion, liver-lung migration coughs up, swallowed, establishes as an adult

describe the life cycle of toxicara canis

focally enlarged spleens will alter the contour/positioning of the spleen in the peritoneal cavity while the generally enlarged spleen retains its shape but with rounded margins

how can you tell the difference between a focally enlarged and a generally enlarged spleen on a radiograph?

metabolic compensation by the kidneys (increase/decrease) the amount of HCO3-; slow

how does the body compensate for respiratory alkalemia/acidemia? is this process fast or slow?

have very well developed salivary glands and a voluminous simple stomach for crop-like storage

how has the lagomorph stomach developed for the high fiber diet that it consumes

via chemical buffers (mainly bicarbonate/CO2) as well as active control of H+ by the lungs (PCO2) and the kidneys (HCO3-)

how is pH regulated in the body?

respiratory alkalosis; lung disease or brain disease

hyperventillation, hypocapnia, and hypocarbia all mean that the animal is experiencing ___________. what might the causes of this be?

respiratory acidosis; brain disease, cervical spinal cord disease, peripheral nerve/NM junction issue, respiratory muscle disease/fatigue

hypoventillation, hypercapnia, and hypercarbia all mean that the animal is experiencing ___________. what might the causes of this be?

bile peritonitis

in biochemical assays on *effusion*, what does >2x normal bilirubin suggest?

sepsis, ischemia, intestinal lesions

in biochemical assays on effusion, what do the presence of glucose/lactate suggest? (3)

chylous effusion

in biochemical assays on effusion, what does >100mg/dl of triglycerides suggest?

uroabdomen

in biochemical assays on effusion, what does >2x normal creatinine suggest?

aerobic; muscle, brain, mammary gland, small intestine, fetal liver

ketone bodies are consumed by most _____ tissues. what is included in this category?

what are the main differences between starvating and cachexia?

starvation means that an animal had no access to food but will eat it when it is available - lose body fat initially; cachexia is when the animal has food access but is anorexic and loses high amount of lean tissue like skeletal muscle

ENaC; SMCT1

the _______ channel brings Na+ into the enterocyte in order to passively bring Cl- with it while the ________ channel brings SCFAs with Na+ as a cotransporter

NKCC1; CFTR

the _______ channel passively allows Na+/Cl-/K+ into the enterocyte and the ________ channel uses energy to secrete Cl- into the gut lumen so that Na+ and H20 will follow

liver

the __________ is the most cranial portion of the abdomen

Rhinotheca; gnathotheca

the __________ is the top beak and the __________ is the bottom beak

costal arch

the liver should never extend beyond the ___________ in a lateral radiograph

high risk of ischemia/infarction from things like entrapment/volvulus, mucosal pressure, embolism due to the limited blood supply routes in each bowel section

what are the complications of the GI tract's endarterial blood supply?

weight loss, poor coat quality, VitB12/Folate deficiency, fat malabsorption

what are the consequences of maldigestion by EPI?

perching birds have the highest metabolic needs, followed by placental mammals, lizards, and lastly amphibians (ectotherms have lowest metabolic requirement); matters for when treating sick animals to determine calorie requirements

what are the differences in metabolic needs between different phyla of animals?

Dogs generally get EPI as an immune-mediated process while cats get it from chronic pancreatitis and therefore also have diabetes melitus from the destruction of Islet cells; Cats have very poor hair coat and the clinical signs of diabetes along with EPI signs

what are the differences in the pathogenesis of EPI in cats vs. dogs? How would that manifest clinically?

no anti-dopaminergic effects so it has no antiemetic qualities

what are the downsides to cisapride despite its overall high safety of use?

can have neurologic side effects and is illegal in food animals

what are the drawbacks of metranidazole (anti diarrhea)?

Some will overproliferate due to the high amounts of viable energy sources being supplied to them from lack to absorption by the animal; check folate levels. if they are high that means the microbes are producing folate-like substance as a biproduct

what are the effects of EPI on the intestinal microbiotal? how can these be evaluated?

1. transcellular route (lipophillic/small) 2. paracellular (larger hydrophilic) 3. trancellular via aqueous pores 4. active carrier-mediated absorption (for nutrients) 5. endocytosis w/ exocytosis on basolateral side (large molecules like proteins)

what are the five access routes across a normal gut epithelium?

indications: cheap, easy to place, no anesthesia, low risk complications: very small diameter, cannot use commercial diet, can only be used less than 10 days

what are the indications and complicatons of a nasoesophageal feeding tube?

hepatomegaly

what are the indications for performing a FNA of a liver in a cat?

some cells (cirrotic) don't exfoliate well, may not get a diagnostic sample

what are the limitations to performing a FNA of a liver in a cat?

prostaglandins from inflammation increase secretion, fibrin deposition causing malabsorption, etc

what are the mechanisms by which inflammation can lead to diarrhea?

decreased bicarbonate (Acidemia), decreased DNA/RNA production (B12/folate deficiency)

what are the metabolic consequences of EPI?

place in EDTA or red-top tubes and make fresh smears (line collection); use total protein estimation

what are the methods of analysis for an effusion?

1. small intestinal tumors 2. some foreign bodies 3. IBD/Lymphoma 4. Gastric masses/gastritis

what are the most attainable bowel lesions to identify via ultrasound? (4)

lymphosarcoma, torsion, splenic masses, nodules

what are the most common causes of generalized splenic enlargement?

strongyles (

what are the most common parasites associated with horses?

trichostrongyle

what are the most common parasites associated with ruminants?

neuological signs (weakenss, quiver, excitability)

what are the negative side effects of lidocaine (as a prokinetic)?

dopamine antagonist that crosses the BBB = CNS stimulation, involuntary muscle spasms, aggression/excitation

what are the negative side effects of metoclopramide?

Diabetic ketoacidosis Uremic acids (kidney failure) Ethylene glycol toxicosis Lactic acidosis

what are the potential causes of a high anion gap metabolic acidosis(gain of acid)? (DUEL)

renal losses, intestinal losses (diarrhea)

what are the potential causes of a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis(loss of bicarbonate)?

capillary hydrostatic pressure and capillary oncotic pressure

what are the starling forces that affect fluid movement the most?

1. CCK is release by I cells when fat/protein is present 2. CCK enters circulation stimulating acinar cells 3. ACh and CCK activate acinar cells (degranulation) 4. acinar secretions are washed into the duodenum by duct

what are the steps of pancreatic secretions in the duodenal phase of digestion? (4)

Pancreatic enzyme supplementation, balance diet, antibiotics to manage bacterial overgrowth, and B12

what are the steps toward managing EPI for dogs and cats?

1. inflammation 2. shock 3. peritonitis 4. DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)

what are the systemic effects of pancreatic necrosis? (4)

dogs and cats: Giardia Isospora, Cryptosporidium; cats also get Tritrichomonas

what are the three main protozoal parasites in dogs and the four in cats?

adenocarcinoma, islet cell tumors

what are the two most common types of pancreatic cancer?

segmentation contractions (mixing) and anti-peristaltic contractions toward the ilium for additional absorption

what are the two motor activities of the large intestinal phase of digestion?

osmotic diarrhea (maldigestion of protiens) and secretory diarrhea (stimulation of active secretion by toxins from infective agents)

what are the two types of diarrhea that reflect the mechanisms of H20 secretion from the intestinal epithelium?

hyperechoic mesentary (beam attenuating), enlarged pancreas, edemic; dogs are most susceptible

what are the ultrasound features of *acute* pancreatitis? which species gets it most?

clear, low protein, low cell count, some mononuclear cells, +/- neutrophils; lowered oncotic pressure of capillaries

what defines effusions are "pure transudates"? what is the starling force that relates to this type of effusion?

chylomicrons suspended in the effusion caused by lymphatic stasis; will contain lymphocytes, triglycerides (chylomicrons), possibly supprative

what defines effusions that are "chylous"? what is the major cause of this type of effusion?

variable color (cloudy to opaque), high protien, high cell count, neutrophils and macrophages are present; increased capillary permeability caused by *inflammation*

what defines effusions that are "exudates"? what is the major cause of this type of effusion?

primary hemorrhage from trauma, neoplasia, coagulopathy, etc; RBCs and hemosiderin etc will be present within macrophages

what defines effusions that are "hemorrhagic"? what is the major cause of this type of effusion?

clear to cloudy, mid protein, mid cell count, mononuclear cells and neutrophils are present; increased capillary hydrostatic pressure

what defines effusions that are "modified transudates"? what is the starling force that relates to this type of effusion?

will contain neoplastic cells, generally lymphoma/mast cell tumors, or carcinoma

what defines effusions that are "neoplastic"? what is the major cause of this type of effusion?

exudative diarrhea (damage to endothelium), but is more likely multifactorial

what direct diarrhea effect would superficial ulcers of the small intestine cause?

splenic torsion

what disease will result in a "chicken foot" appearance of the splenic veins?

lymphoma

what disease will result in a "chicken wire" appearance on the spleen in an ultrasound?

acute pancreatitis has functional and histological reversibility while chronic does not allow for regeneration

what distinguishes acute pancreatitis from chronic?

use bladder to store water which they can squirt back into their rectum to absorb

what do many desert reptiles use their bladder for?

older is usually chronic hepatic disease leading to cirrhosis while a younger patient usually has a portosystemic shunt

what does a small liver in an older animal means vs. in a younger animal?

Serum amylase levels higher than 3x normal suggests pancreratic acinar cell injury; other possibilities=decreased renal exretion, GI disease, space occupying mass

what does amylase indicate as a laboratory value?

venous thrombus

what does lymphoma in the spleen generally coincide with (~50% of the time)

usually Dx based on ascitic effusions that it causes

what does pancreatic adenocarcinoma look like on an ultrasound? how is it diagnosed?

parvo (hemorrhagic diarrhea, extreme fever, dehydration, enlarged lymph nodes, etc)

what does salmon poisoning (nanophyetus salmincola containing Neorickettsia helminthoeca bacteria) containing mimic in clinical signs?

limits machine's ability to see deeper structures (cuts out useless things)

what does the depth control button do on the ultrasound?

dampen off near field signal and increase signal from deep tissue

what does the time gain compenation button do on the ultrasound?

sensitivity control (increased= white/light grey image; decreased=dark/black image)

what does the time gain control button do on the ultrasound?

increased epithelial permeability, loss of brush border, villus blunting, inhibition of disaccharidase activity, gut dysbiosis

what gross pathogenesis changes are seen in the intestine?

Na+

what ion is most responsible for setting up osmotic gradients in the GI tract?

the "poor man's" bicarbonate; is a marker of metabolic acid-base biochemistry; indicates approximately how much HCO3- exists in the blood

what is TCO2 as it relates to acid-base balance?

azotemia = increase of blood nitrogen; diabetes causes protein catabolism so that the carbon skeletons can be used in the TCA cycle, while the nitrogen end is cleaved off raising blood levels and compromising kidney function

what is azotemia? why are diabetic animals azotemic?

liver pseduomelinosis = pigment from hemoglobin breakdown

what is occuring in the top left image?

Hemamelasma ilei possibly from parasite migration

what is occurring in the bottom left image?

tiger-striping of large intestine mucosa from congestion at superficial folds post-mortem

what is occurring in the bottom right image?

terminal intussesception not associated with any necrosis/inflammation and is therefore post-mortem

what is occurring in the top right image?

it is an unsporulated Eimeria oocyst; normally infects young cattle

what is occurring in this image (including life cycle stage)? What domestic animal does it usually infect?

toxicara canis eggs in the infective stage

what is occurring in this image?

intestinal trichomonads; cats

what is occurring in this image? What domestic animal does it usually infect?

Fluke egg; has an intermediate host is a snail

what is occurring in this slide? what is its life cycle?

nanophyetus salmincola (salmon poisoning fluke); first to snail, then to salmon, then to host when it eats infected salmon

what is occurring in this slide? what is its life cycle?

whipworm (trichuris); direct life cycle

what is occurring in this slide? what is its life cycle?

strongyles; horses

what is occurring in this slide? which animals does it most affect?

trichostrongyles egg; ruminants

what is occurring in this slide? which animals does it most affect?

reduce temp to 10% BMR and utilize brown adipose tissue

what is required by bats to enter a torpor?

pancreatitis

what is the MOST likely cause of post-hepatic iscterus?

a diagnostic test to quantify the number of nematode eggs in a sample to monitor treatment efficacy

what is the McMasters test?

yolk sac reminant, defines the start of the ilium in avian species

what is the Vitelline (Meckel's) diverticulum?

TLI - trypsin like immunoreactivity will be largely decreased

what is the best laboratory indicator of EPI?

Spec Pancreatic Lipase (Spec PL) since it detects only pancreatic lipase (is generally high); if Spec PL is normal, then it cannot be pancreatitis (rule out)

what is the best laboratory indicator of pancreatitis in canines and felines?

prebiotics are "microbe food" while probiotics are actual live microbes

what is the difference between a prebiotic and a probiotic?

only 60-70% metabolic rate of eutherian mammals, lower body temp

what is the difference of metabolic rate between marsupials and eutherian mammals?

infection = Cl- secretion increased IBD = reduced Na+ absorption/impaired ENaC

what is the main difference between diarrhea caused by infectious organisms vs that caused by IBD?

inflammatory mediators like prostaglandins drive crypt enterocytes to increase ion secretion thereby increasing fluid in the lumen

what is the mechanism behind hypersecretory diarrhea?

5HT-4 agonist (+ACh); treats constipation and gastric stasis(stimulates all GI segments including colon)

what is the mechanism of action for cisapride? what are its uses?

blocks v-gated Na+ channels to reduce pain/inflammation as well as directly stimulates smooth muscle

what is the mechanism of action for lidocaine on the GI tract?

motilin receptor agonist (stimulates gut motility/prokinetic); used to treat reflux and delayed gastric emptying

what is the mechanism of action for low-dose erythromycin? what are its uses?

1. central dopamineric antagonist (+on ACh) 2. peripheral 5-HT4 agonist (+ on ACh)

what is the mechanism of action for metoclopramide?

liver protectant by increasing glutothione

what is the mechanism of action of Denamarin?

1. sternal flexure 2. pelvic flexure 3. diaphragmic flexure

what is the order of the colonic flexures in a horse's GI tract?

HCO3- is controlled by the kidneys, GI, and other cells; increased HCO3- results in metabolic alkalosis and decreased HCO3- results in metabolic acidosis

what is the relationship between HCO3- and pH?

PCO2 is controlled by respiration by the lungs; increased PCO2 results in respiratory acidosis and decreased PCO2 results in respiratory alkalosis

what is the relationship between PCO2 and pH?

eq: (kgx30)+70 so 5x30+70= 220kcal/day

what is the resting energy requirement (RER) for a 5kg cat?

necrosis and inflammation

what is the sequella of premature activation of digestive enzymes within the acinar cells of the pancreas?

(water/fluid) = anechoic M - renal Medulla C - renal Cortex L - Liver S - Spleen P -Prostate (fibrous tissue, fat, mineral, gas) =hyperechoic

what is the trick to understanding the echogencities of the visible organs from an ultrasound?

1.when the liver extends past the stomach in the left cranial quadrant, 2.if it has a rounded margin, 3. if it contacts more than 50% of the right kidney/displaces the right kidney

when is the liver considered "enlarged" on an ultrasound? (3)

to the portal vein!!

where do the splenic veins go?

portal veins, hepatic veins, gallbladder, falciform fat

which four aspects of the liver can be seen normally via ultrasound?

albumin

which is the most reliable *negative* acute phase protein?

nematodes, cestodes, protozoa; flukes

which parasites can be detected via fecal float assays? which require sedimentation?

sternal flexure

which part of the colon separates the left ventral and right ventral colons in a horse?

Apex; base

which part of the equine cecum lies at the most ventral aspect of the peritoneal cavity at the caudal border of the sternum? which part rests along the right paralumbar fossa?

the pelvic flexure that separates the left ventral and left dorsal colon

which part of the equine colon is most at risk for obstruciton?

hyper= mucosal surface(lumen), submucosa, serosa; hypo= mucosa, muscularis

which parts of the bowel are hyperechoic? which are hypoechoic?

fundus is nonglandular, body and antrum are glandular; dividing line = Margo Plicatus

which parts of the equine stomach are glandular v.s nonglandular? what is the dividing line between the two?

oral to the obstruction

which side of the stricture/foreign body do the clinical signs of ischemia and dilation occur?

bovine

which species has the lowest renal threshold for glucose reabsorption?

metoclopramide, lidocane

which two prokinetic drugs are used most on large animals?

metoclopramide and cisapride

which two prokinetic drugs are used most on small animals?

mitochondria are overwhelmed with the amount of Acetyl CoA circulating form b-oxidation of triglycerides so the liver forms ketone bodies which are more efficiently produced and can readily cross the BBB for use by glucose-requiring tissues

why are ketone bodies formed in animals with diabetes melitus?

glucose goes through the polyol pathway within cells without glycolysis (overload of glucose) and the resulting sorbitol plus the water it draws in causes cloudy cataracts

why can diabetes melitus cause cataracts?

decreased insulin w/out increased protein synthesis allows for free fatty acids in the blood

why do diabetic animals have hyperlipemia?

because of the vomiting, ascites, ischemia, necrosis, peritonitis etc associated with the obstruction

why do obstructions often result in dehyration and electrolyte abnormalities?

ALP half-life is much shorter in a cat so it is more indicative of ongoing disease (lipodosis)

why is an elevation of ALP activity always important in a cat vs a dog?

decreased clotting factor production and decreased vitamin K storage

why is vitamin K warrented in many cats with hepatic disease?