violence and immunity questions

A client who is human immunodeficiency virus seropositive has been taking stavudine. The nurse should monitor which most closely while the client is taking this medication?1.Gait 2.Appetite 3.Level of consciousness 4.Gastrointestinal function

1

A client with localized redness and swelling due to a bee sting reports intense local pain, a burning sensation, and itching. What would be the most appropriate nursing action? 1 Applying cold compresses to the affected area 2 Ensuring the client keeps the skin clean and dry 3 Monitoring for neurological and cardiac symptoms 4 Advising the client to launder all clothes with bleach

1

Why would a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) be administered pregabalin? 1 To reduce neuropathic pain 2 To reduce cognitive difficulty 3 To reduce swallowing difficulty 4 To reduce muscle and joint pain

1 Pregabalin is indicated for neuropathic pain based on its mechanism of interference with nerve signaling. Clients with AIDS generally exhibit emotional and behavioral changes, which can be managed with appropriate antidepressants and anxiolytics. AIDS clients who experience difficulty swallowing may have candidal esophagitis; this condition can be managed with antifungal mediations such as fluconazole or amphotericin B. Traditional analgesics are used to manage joint and muscle pain

Which malnutrition condition may predispose a client to secondary immunodeficiency? 1 Cachexia 2 Cirrhosis 3 Diabetes mellitus 4 Hodgkin's lymphoma

1- Cachexia is a nutrition disorder that may occur due to wasting of muscle mass and weight, resulting in secondary immunodeficiency disorder. Cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, and Hodgkin's lymphoma also lead to secondary immunodeficiency disorder, but these are not malnutrition disorders.

What is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction? 1 Anaphylaxis 2 Serum sickness 3 Contact dermatitis 4 Blood transfusion reaction

1-An example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is anaphylaxis. Serum sickness is a type III immune complex reaction. Contact dermatitis is a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction. A blood transfusion reaction is a type II cytotoxic reaction.

A client is receiving zalcitabine. The nurse should monitor the results of which study to determine the effectiveness of this medication? 1.Western blot 2.CD4+ cell count 3.Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) 4.Complete blood cell (CBC) count with differential

2

The nurse accidentally sticks her self with an HIV infected patient what medication is what she be on

Emtricabine and tenofivr

What are some adverse effects of Zpdovudine

Nausea headaches and bone marrow suppression

A person after an organ transplant is given ganciclovr Even though he doesn't have a viral infection why is it

This med will prevent a CMV infection

What is the function of IgG in the body? 1 Activates the degranulation of mast cells 2 Activates the classic complement pathway 3 Prevents upper respiratory tract infections 4 Prevents lower respiratory tract infections

2 The classic complement pathway is activated by the IgG and IgM antibodies. IgE antibodies cause a degranulation of mast cells. IgA antibodies are found largely in mucous membrane secretions and play an important role in preventing upper and lower respiratory tract infections

A nurse is teaching a client about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What are the various ways HIV is transmitted? Select all that apply. 1- Mosquito bites 2-Sharing syringe needles 3-Breastfeeding a newborn 4-Kissing the infected partner 5-Anal intercourse

2,3,5

A client who underwent a physical examination reports itching after 2 days. Which condition should the nurse suspect? 1 Eczema 2 Hypersensitivity 3 Contact dermatitis 4 Anaphylactic shock

3

A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has been started on therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the results of which laboratory blood study for adverse effects of therapy? 1.Creatinine level 2.Potassium concentration 3.Complete blood cell (CBC) count 4.Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

3

he nurse is performing an assessment on a female client who complains of fatigue, weakness, muscle and joint pain, anorexia, and photosensitivity. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is suspected. What should the nurse further assess for that also is indicative of SLE? 1.Ascites 2.Emboli 3.Facial rash 4.Two hemoglobin S genes

3

The nurse is reviewing the results of serum laboratory studies drawn on a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome who is receiving didanosine. The nurse interprets that the client may have the medication discontinued by the primary health care provider if which elevated result is noted? 1.Serum protein level 2.Blood glucose level 3.Serum amylase level 4.Serum creatinine level

3- Didanosine can cause pancreatitis. A serum amylase level that is increased to 1.5 to 2 times normal may signify pancreatitis in the client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome and is potentially fatal. The medication may have to be discontinued. The medication is also hepatotoxic and can result in liver failure.

Which leukocyte releases vasoactive amines during a client's allergic reactions? 1 Neutrophil 2 Monocyte 3 Eosinophil 4 Macrophage

3- Eosinophils release vasoactive amines during allergic reactions to limit the extent of the allergic reactions. Neutrophils are phagocytes and increase in inflammation and infection. Monocytes are involved in the destruction of bacteria and cellular debris. Macrophages are involved in nonspecific recognition of foreign protein and microorganisms.

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is the cause of systemic lupus erythematosus? 1 Type I 2 Type II 3 Type III 4 Type IV

3- Systemic lupus erythematosus is an example of an immune complex-mediated, or type III, hypersensitive reaction. Anaphylaxis is an example of a type I or immediate hypersensitive reaction. Cytotoxic or type II hypersensitive reactions can result in conditions such as myasthenia gravis and Goodpasture syndrome. Graft rejection and sarcoidosis are conditions that are caused by delayed or type IV hypersensitivity reactions.

A client who abused intravenous drugs was diagnosed with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) several years ago. What does the nurse explain to the client regarding the diagnostic criterion for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? 1 Contracts HIV-specific antibodies 2 Develops an acute retroviral syndrome 3 Is capable of transmitting the virus to others 4 Has a CD4+T-cell lymphocyte level of less than 200 cells/µL (60%)

4

A 25-year-old female is admitted to the ER in anaphylactic shock due to a bee sting. According to the patient's mother, the patient is severely allergic to bees and was recently stung by one. This type of anaphylactic reaction is known as a?* A. Type I Hypersensivity Reaction B. Type II Hypersensivity Reaction C. Type III Hypersensivity Reaction D. Type IV Hypersensivity Reaction

A

What is the MOST important step a nurse can take to prevent anaphylactic shock in a patient?* A. Assessing, documenting, and avoiding all the patient allergies B. Administering Epinephrine C. Administering Corticosteroids D. Establishing IV access

A

You're providing education to a patient, who has a severe peanut allergy, on how to recognize the signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. Select all the signs and symptoms associated with anaphylactic shock:* A. Hyperglycemia B. Difficulty speaking C. Feeling dizzy D. Hypertension E. Dyspnea F. Itchy G. Vomiting and Nausea H. Fever I. Slow heart rate

B,C,E,F,G

A patient is having an anaphylactic reaction to an IV medication. What is the FIRST action the nurse should take?* A. Administer Epinephrine B. Call a Rapid Response C. Stop the medication D. Administer a breathing treatment

C

Your patient is having a sudden and severe anaphylactic reaction to a medication. You immediately stop the medication and call a rapid response. The patient's blood pressure is 80/52, heart rate 120, and oxygen saturation 87%. Audible wheezing is noted along with facial redness and swelling. As the nurse you know that the first initial treatment for this patient's condition is?* A. IV Diphenhydramine B. IV Normal Saline Bolus C. IM Epinephrine D. Nebulized Albuterol

C

You're providing care to a patient in anaphylactic shock. What is NOT a typical medical treatment for this condition, and if ordered the nurse should ask for an order clarification? A. IV Diphenhydramine B. Epinephrine C. Corticosteroids D. Isotonic intravenous fluids E. IV Furosemide

E

You're providing care to a patient in anaphylactic shock. What is NOT a typical medical treatment for this condition, and if ordered the nurse should ask for an order clarification?* A. IV Diphenhydramine B. Epinephrine C. Corticosteroids D. Isotonic intravenous fluids E. IV Furosemide

E

A nurse is teaching a health class about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which basic methods are used to reduce the incidence of HIV transmission? Select all that apply. 1 Using condoms 2 Using separate toilets 3 Practicing sexual abstinence 4 Preventing direct casual contacts 5 Sterilizing the household utensils

1/3-HIV is found in body fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal secretions, breast milk, amniotic fluid, urine, feces, saliva, tears, and cerebrospinal fluid. Therefore a client should use condoms to prevent contact between the vaginal mucus membranes and semen. Practicing sexual abstinence is the best method to prevent transmission of the virus. The HIV virus is not transmitted by sharing the same toilet facilities, casual contacts such as shaking hands and kissing, or by sharing the same household utensils.

What are the mediators of injury in IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions? Select all that apply. 1 Cytokines 2 Mast cells 3 Histamines 4 Neutrophils 5 Leukotriene

2,3,5 Mast cells, histamines, and leukotrienes are the mediators of injury in IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions. Cytokines are the mediators of injury in the delayed type of hypersensitivity reaction. Neutrophils are the mediators of injury in the immune-complex type of hypersensitivity reaction.

A nurse is teaching parents of toddlers about why children receiving specific medications should not receive varicella vaccines. Which medication will be included in the discussion? 1 Insulin 2 Steroids 3 Antibiotics

2- Steroids have an immunosuppressive effect. It is thought that resistance to certain viral diseases, including varicella, is greatly decreased when a child takes steroids regularly. There is no known correlation between varicella and insulin. Because varicella is a viral disease, antibiotics will have no effect. There is no known correlation between varicella and anticonvulsants.

A nurse is monitoring a client who is having a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain with contrast. Which response indicates that the client is having an untoward reaction to the contrast medium? 1 Pelvic warmth 2 Feeling flushed 3 Shortness of breath 4 Salty taste in the mouth

3

The home care nurse is preparing to visit a client who has undergone renal transplantation. The nurse develops a plan of care that includes monitoring the client for signs of acute graft rejection. The nurse documents in the plan to assess the client for which signs of acute graft rejection?1.Fever, hypotension, and polyuria 2.Hypertension, polyuria, and thirst 3.Fever, hypertension, and graft tenderness 4.Hypotension, graft tenderness, and hypothermia

3

a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for combination oral NRTI's (abacavir, lamivudine and dolutegravir) for treatment of HIV. which of the following statements should the nurse include? - these medications work by blocking HIV entry in to the cells 2- these meds work by weakening the cell wall of the HIV virus 3- these medication work by stopping enzymes to prevent replication 4- the meds work by preventing protein synthesis within the hiv cell

3

Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? 1 IgE 2 IgA 3 IgG 4 IgM

3- IgG is the only immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta. IgE is found in the plasma and interstitial fluids. IgA lines the mucous membranes and protects body surfaces. IgM is found in plasma; this immunoglobulin activates due to the invasion of ABO blood antigens.

A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is experiencing nausea and vomiting. The nurse should include which measure in the dietary plan?1.Provide large, nutritious meals. 2.Serve foods while they are hot. 3.Add spices to food for added flavor. 4.Remove dairy products and red meat from the meal.

4

What is the BEST position for a patient in anaphylactic shock?* A. Lateral recumbent B. Supine with legs elevated C. High Fowler's D. Semi-Fowler's

B

You're assessing a patient's knowledge on how to use their EpiPen in case of an anaphylactic reaction. You're using an EpiPen trainer device to teach the patient. What demonstrated by the patient shows the patient knows how to administer the medication? Select all that apply:* A. The patient injects the medication in the subq tissue of the abdomen. B. The patient massages the site after injection. C. The patient administers the injection through the clothes. D. The patient aspirates before injecting the medication.

B,C

The nurse is reviewing blood screening tests of the immune system of a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). What does the nurse expect to find? 1 A decrease in CD4 T cells 2 An increase in thymic hormones 3 An increase in immunoglobulin E 4 A decrease in the serum level of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenas

1

A nurse is planning to provide discharge teaching to the family of a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching plan? 1 "Wash used dishes in hot, soapy water." 2 "Let dishes soak in hot water for 24 hours before washing." 3 "You should boil the client's dishes for 30 minutes after use." 4 "Have the client eat from paper plates so they can be discarded."

1 -A person cannot contract human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) by eating from dishes previously used by an individual with AIDS; routine care is adequate. Washing used dishes in hot, soapy water is sufficient care for dishes used by the AIDS client. Dishes do not need to soak for 24 hours before being washed. The client's dishes do not need to be boiled for 30 minutes after use. Paper plates are fine to use but are not indicated to prevent the spread of AIDS.

A mother with the diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) states that she has been caring for her baby even though she has not been feeling well. What important information should the nurse determine? 1 If she has kissed the baby 2 If the baby is breast-feeding 3 When the baby last received antibiotics 4 How long she has been caring for the baby

2-Epidemiologic evidence has identified breast milk as a source of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission. Kissing is not believed to transmit HIV. When the baby last received antibiotics is unrelated to transmission of HIV. HIV transmission does not occur from contact associated with caring for a newborn.

Which process does the IgD immunoglobulin support? 1 Manifestation of allergic reactions 2 Protection of the body's mucous surfaces 3 Differentiation of the B-lymphocytes 4 Provision of the primary immune response

3- IgD is present on the lymphocyte surface; this immunoglobulin differentiates B-lymphocytes. IgE causes symptoms of allergic reactions by adhering to mast cells and basophils. IgE also helps to defend the body against parasitic infections. IgA lines the mucous membranes and protects the body surfaces. IgM provides the primary immune response

Which type of immunity is acquired through the transfer of colostrum from the mother to the child? 1 Natural active immunity 2 Artificial active immunity 3 Natural passive immunity 4 Artificial passive immunity

3- Natural passive immunity is acquired through the transfer of colostrum from the mother to the child. Natural active immunity is acquired when there is a natural contact with an antigen through a clinical infection. Artificial active immunity is acquired through immunization with an antigen. Artificial passive immunity is acquired by injecting serum from an immune human.

The client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is diagnosed with cutaneous Kaposi's sarcoma. Based on this diagnosis, the nurse understands that this has been confirmed by which finding? 1.Swelling in the genital area 2.Swelling in the lower extremities 3.Positive punch biopsy of the cutaneous lesions 4.Appearance of reddish-blue lesions noted on the skin

3-Kaposi's sarcoma lesions begin as red, dark blue, or purple macules on the lower legs that change into plaques. These large plaques ulcerate or open and drain. The lesions spread by metastasis through the upper body and then to the face and oral mucosa. They can move to the lymphatic system, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract. Late disease results in swelling and pain in the lower extremities, penis, scrotum, or face. Diagnosis is made by punch biopsy of cutaneous lesions and biopsy of pulmonary and gastrointestinal lesions.

A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is receiving ganciclovir. The nurse should take which priority action in caring for this client? 1.Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia. 2.Administer the medication without food. 3.Administer the medication with an antacid. 4.Ensure that the client uses an electric razor for shaving.

4- Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is a viral disease caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which destroys T cells, thereby increasing susceptibility to infection and malignancy. Because ganciclovir causes neutropenia and thrombocytopenia as the most frequent side effects, the nurse monitors for signs and symptoms of bleeding and implements the same precautions as for a client receiving anticoagulant therapy. The medication may cause hypoglycemia, but not hyperglycemia. The medication does not have to be taken on an empty stomach or without food and should not be taken with an antacid.

Anaphylactic shock can occur due to either an immunological or non-immunological cause. Select ALL the CORRECT statements about the differences between an immunological reaction (anaphylactic) and non-immunological reaction (anaphylactoid):* A. "In an immunological reaction (anaphylactic) IgE antibodies are created and they attach to mast cells and basophils." B. "An immunological reaction (anaphylactic) requires a patient to be sensitized for anaphylactic shock to occur." C. "A non-immunological reaction (anaphylactoid) causes the same reaction as an anaphylactic reaction, but it's not due to immunoglobulin IgE antibodies." D. "Some common substances that cause a non-immunological reaction (anaphylactoid) are IV contrast dyes and NSAIDS." E. "A patient does not have to be sensitized for a non-immunological reaction (anaphylactoid) to occur and it can happen with first time exposure."

ALL

A patient is in anaphylactic shock. The patient has a severe allergy to peanuts and mistakenly consumed an eggroll containing peanut ingredients during his lunch break. The patient is given Epinephrine intramuscularly. As the nurse, you know this medication will have what effect on the body?* A. It will prevent a recurrent attack. B. It will cause vasoconstriction and decrease the blood pressure. C. It will help dilate the airways. D. It will help block the effects of histamine in the body.

C

A client has a kidney transplant. The nurse should monitor for which assessment findings associated with rejection of the transplant? Select all that apply. 1- fever 2-oilguria 3-jaundice 4-polydi[sia 5weight gain

1,2,5 Fever is a characteristic of the systemic inflammatory response to the antigen (transplanted kidney). Oliguria or anuria occurs when the transplanted kidney is rejected and fails to function. Weight gain can occur from fluid retention when the transplanted kidney fails to function or as a result of steroid therapy; this response must be assessed further. Jaundice is unrelated to rejection. Polydipsia is associated with diabetes mellitus; it is not a clinical manifestation of rejection.

A nurse is caring for a client who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive. Which complication associated with this diagnosis is most important for the nurse to teach prevention strategies? 1 Infection 2 Depression 3 Social isolation 4 Kaposi sarcoma

1- The client has a weakened immune response. Instructions regarding rest, nutrition, and avoidance of unnecessary exposure to people with infections help reduce the risk for infection. Clients can be taught cognitive strategies to cope with depression, but the strategies will not prevent depression. The client may experience social isolation as a result of society's fears and misconceptions; these are beyond the client's control. Although Kaposi sarcoma is related to HIV infection, there are no specific measures to prevent its occurrence.

What causes medications used to treat AIDS to become ineffective? 1 Taking the medications 90% of the time 2 Missing doses of the prescribed medications 3 Taking medications from different classifications 4 Developing immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)

2-The most important reason for the development of drug resistance in the treatment of AIDS is missing doses of drugs. When doses are missed, the blood drug concentrations become lower than what is needed to inhibit viral replication. The virus replicates and produces new particles that are resistant to the drugs. Taking the medications 90% of the time prevents medications from becoming ineffective. Taking medications from different classes prevents the drugs from becoming ineffective. Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) occurs when T-cells rebound with medication therapy and become aware of opportunistic infections.

Which is the most common opportunistic infection in a client infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? 1 Candidiasis 2 Cryptosporidiosis 3 Toxoplasmosis encephalitis 4 Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

4-Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) is the most common opportunistic infection in a client infected with HIV. It causes tachypnea and persistent dry cough. Candidiasis presents in a client infected with AIDS because the immune system can no longer control Candida fungal growth. Cryptosporidiosis, an intestinal infection caused by Cryptosporidium organisms, presents in clients with AIDS as does toxoplasmosis encephalitis, which is caused by Toxoplasma gondii and is acquired through contact with contaminated cat feces or by ingesting infected undercooked meat.

A nurse is caring for a client with pruritic lesions from an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction. Which mediator of injury is involved? 1 Histamine 2 Cytokine 3 Neutrophil 4 Macrophage

1- Histamine is one of the mediators of injury involving IgE-mediated injury that may cause pruritus. Cytokines are the mediators of injury in delayed hypersensitivity reaction. Neutrophils are involved in immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity reactions. Macrophages in tissues are involved in cytotoxic reactions.

What does the nurse explain to a client that a positive diagnosis for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is based on? 1 Performance of high-risk sexual behaviors 2 Evidence of extreme weight loss and high fever 3 Identification of an associated opportunistic infection 4 Positive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and Western blot tests

4-Positive ELISA and Western blot tests confirm the presence of HIV antibodies that occur in response to the presence of the HIV. Performance of high-risk sexual behaviors places someone at risk but does not constitute a positive diagnosis. Evidence of extreme weight loss and high fever do not confirm the presence of HIV; these adaptations are related to many disorders, not just HIV infection. The diagnosis of just an opportunistic infection is not sufficient to confirm the diagnosis of HIV. An opportunistic infection (included in the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention surveillance case definition for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome [AIDS]) in the presence of HIV antibodies indicates that the individual has AIDS.

. During anaphylactic shock the mast cells and basophils release large amounts of histamine. What effects does histamine have on the body during anaphylactic shock? Select all that apply:* A. Decreases capillary permeability B. Vasodilation of vessels C. Decreases heart rate D. Shifts intravascular fluid to interstitial space E. Constricts the airways F. Stimulates contraction of GI smooth muscles G. Inhibits the production of gastric secretions H. Itching

B,D,E,F,H

Which dietary modifications can help improve the nutritional status of a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? 1 Refraining from consuming fatty foods 2 Refraining from consuming frequent meals 3 Refraining from consuming high-calorie foods 4 Refraining from consuming high-protein foods

1- Many clients with AIDS become intolerant to fat due to the disease and the antiretroviral medications. Therefore the client should be instructed to refrain from consuming fatty foods. The client should be encouraged to eat small and frequent meals to improve nutritional status. High-calorie and high-protein foods are beneficial to clients with AIDS because they provide energy and build immunity.

The nurse provides home care instructions to a client with systemic lupus erythematosus and tells the client about methods to manage fatigue. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? 1."I should take hot baths because they are relaxing." 2."I should sit whenever possible to conserve my energy." 3."I should avoid long periods of rest because it causes joint stiffness." 4."I should do some exercises, such as walking, when I am not fatigued."

1-To help reduce fatigue in the client with systemic lupus erythematosus, the nurse should instruct the client to sit whenever possible, avoid hot baths (because they exacerbate fatigue), schedule moderate low-impact exercises when not fatigued, and maintain a balanced diet. The client is instructed to avoid long periods of rest because it promotes joint stiffness.

The nurse is counseling a client infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) regarding prevention of HIV transmission. Which statement by the client indicates the nurse needs to follow up? 1 "I should abstain from sexual activity." 2 "I can safely have anal sex without any barriers." 3 "I should get HIV counseling if planning for pregnancy." 4 "I will use condoms while having sexual intercourse."

2- The client with HIV should use barrier protection when engaging in insertive sexual activity such as anal, oral, and vaginal. Therefore the nurse should follow up to provide the client with the correct information. All the other statements are correct and need no follow up. Abstaining from all sexual activity is a safe way to eliminate the risk of exposure to HIV in semen and vaginal secretions. The client should undergo HIV counseling and routinely offer access to voluntary HIV-antibody testing when planning for pregnancy. The most commonly used barrier is a condom, which allows for protected intercourse.

The nurse is educating a client about protease inhibitors. What statement about protease inhibitors is true? 1 Protease inhibitors prevent viral replication. 2 Protease inhibitors prevent the interaction between viral material and the CD4+ T-cell. 3 Protease inhibitors prevent viral and host genetic material integration. 4 Protease inhibitors prevent the clipping of the viral strands into small functional pieces.

4- Protease inhibitors act by preventing the newly formed viral strands within the host CD4+ T-cell from being clipped into smaller functional pieces. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) prevent viral replication. NRTIs inhibits the transformation of viral single-stranded ribonucleic acid into host double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) by the action of the enzyme reverse transcriptase. Entry inhibitor drugs prevent the binding of the virus to the CD4 receptors. Integrase inhibitor drugs prevent the integration of viral material into the host's DNA by the action of the enzyme integrase.

The nurse is caring for a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome and detects early infection with Pneumocystis jiroveci by monitoring the client for which clinical manifestation? 1.Fever 2.Cough 3.Dyspnea at rest 4.Dyspnea on exertion

2-Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is a viral disease caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which destroys T cells, thereby increasing susceptibility to infection and malignancy. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) is a fungal infection and is a common opportunistic infection. The client with P. jiroveci infection usually has a cough as the first sign. The cough begins as nonproductive and then progresses to productive. Later signs and symptoms include fever, dyspnea on exertion, and finally dyspnea at rest.

After multiple bee stings, a client experiences an anaphylactic reaction. The nurse determines that the symptoms the client is experiencing are caused by what processes? 1 Respiratory depression and cardiac arrest 2 Bronchial constriction and decreased peripheral resistance 3 Decreased cardiac output and dilation of major blood vessels 4 Constriction of capillaries and decreased peripheral circulation

2-Hypersensitivity to a foreign substance can cause an anaphylactic reaction; histamine is released, causing bronchial constriction, increased capillary permeability, and dilation of arterioles. This decreased peripheral resistance is associated with hypotension and inadequate circulation to major organs. Respiratory depression and cardiac arrest are the problems that result from bronchial constriction and vascular collapse. Dilation of arterioles occurs. Arterioles dilate, capillary permeability increases, and eventually vascular collapse occurs.

A client calls the nurse in the emergency department and states that he was just stung by a bumblebee while gardening. The client is afraid of a severe reaction because the client's neighbor experienced such a reaction just 1 week ago. Which action should the nurse take? 1.Advise the client to soak the site in hydrogen peroxide. 2.Ask the client if he ever sustained a bee sting in the past. 3.Tell the client to call an ambulance for transport to the emergency department. 4.Tell the client not to worry about the sting unless difficulty with breathing occurs.

2- In some types of allergies, a reaction occurs only on second and subsequent contacts with the allergen. The appropriate action, therefore, would be to ask the client if he ever experienced a bee sting in the past. Option 1 is not appropriate advice. Option 3 is unnecessary. The client should not be told "not to worry."

A child is found to be allergic to dust. The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for the parents. What should the nurse include in the plan? 1 Housework must be done by professional housecleaners. 2 Damp-dusting the house will help limit dust particles in the air. 3 The condition must be accepted because dust cannot be limited. 4 The house must be redecorated because the environment must be dust free.

2- Although dust cannot be avoided completely, use of a damp cloth helps eliminate the quantity of airborne particles that might be inhaled. Hiring professional housecleaners is unnecessary and unrealistic. There are ways to limit the quantity of airborne particles. Redecorating will not eliminate dust; it is part of our environment.

Your patient is started on an IV antibiotic to treat a severe infection. During infusion, the patient uses the call light to notify you that she feels a tight sensation in her throat and it's making it hard to breathe. You immediately arrive to the room and assess the patient. While auscultating the lungs you note wheezing. You also notice that the patient is starting to scratch the face and arms, and on closer inspection of the face you note redness and swelling that extends down to the neck and torso. The patient's vital signs are the following: blood pressure 89/62, heart rate 118 bpm, and oxygen saturation 88% on room air. You suspect anaphylactic shock. Select all the appropriate interventions for this patient:* A. Slow down the antibiotic infusion B. Call a rapid response C. Place the patient on oxygen D. Prepare for the administration of Epinephrine

B,C,D,