VTNE Exam

Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome in the equine surgical patient is correct? 1. Compartment syndrome only affects the surgery compartment 2. The "up" side of the patient can be affected 3. Following all proper precautions can prevent compartment syndrome 4. Compartment syndrome rarely results in euthanasia

The "up" side of the patient can be affected Compartment syndrome may occur to the "up" side if the limbs are not positioned properly or if prolonged hypotension is allowed to occur. It can affect one or several muscle compartments, can occur even if all precautions are followed, and euthanasia is not an uncommon outcome.

Which of the following crystalloid fluids would likely be a better choice for a patient with hyperkalemia currently undergoing a surgical procedure? 1. Lactated Ringer's solution 2. Normosol-R 3. 0.9% sodium chloride 4. D5W

0.9% sodium chloride The 0.9% sodium chloride does not contain potassium. Patients with hyperkalemia have increased potassium; therefore, using a maintenance fluid without added potassium is often ideal. D5W is 5% dextrose in water. This is not a fluid used for maintenance therapy.

A 10-kg dog requires a metoclopramide CRI at a rate of 2 mg/kg/day. The veterinarian asks that it be added to a new 1-L bag of Normosol-R. His fluid rate is 100 mL/hr, and the metoclopramide is 5 mg/mL. How many mL of metoclopramide should be added to the bag? 1. 0.8 mL 2. 1.7 mL 3. 3.2 mL 4. 4.1 mL

1.7 mL Calculate the mg required/day and then break it down to mg/hr: 10 kg x 2 mg/kg/day = 20 mg/day 20 mg/day/24 hr = 0.83 mg/hr Calculate how many hr the fluid bag will last: 1000 mL/100 mL = 10 hr Calculate how many mg are required to last the same amount of time: 10 hr x 0.83 mg/hr = 8.3 mg/1000 mL Calculate the mL required; 8.3 mg/5 mg/mL = 1.7 mL metoclopramide

A 10-cc syringe can hold: 1. 1 mL 2. 10 mL 3. 100 mL 4. 1000 mL

10 mL

When autoclaving, the minimum temperature and exposure times for the center of the surgical packs are: 1. 121.5° F for 10 minutes 2. 250° F for 15 minutes 3. 250° F for 20 minutes 4. 300° F for 30 minutes 300° F for 30 minutes

250° F for 15 minutes The minimum temperature and exposure time to the steam of an autoclave to provide sterility is 250° F or 121° C for 13 minutes, at 15 psi.

How many ppm is halothane when a person can smell it? 1. 5 2. 33 3. 200 4. 5000

33 If the concentration of halothane in room air is 33 ppm, this means that out of every 1 million molecules of air, 33 are halothane. (The rest are chiefly nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon dioxide.) Although at first glance 33 ppm appears to be a small amount, this is the level at which the average person can smell the odor of halothane in room air. It is also more than 15 times the recommended maximum concentration that should be present in a veterinary hospital.

At what age do the permanent canine and premolar teeth in dogs generally erupt? 1. 3-5 months 2. 4-6 months 3. 5-7 months 4. 6-8 months

4-6 months Permanent canines and premolars erupt at about 4-6 months. Adult incisors appear at 3-5 months. Adult molars appear at 5-7 months.

It is safe to draw ≅1% of a bird's body weight of blood. For a 450 g bird, how much blood can be taken safely? 1. 0.45 mL 2. 4.5 mL 3. 45 mL 4. 450mL 450 mL

4.5ml Blood weighs approximately 1 g/mL. 1% of 450 g = 4.5 g. 4.5 g of blood is approximately 4.5 mL. 450 g x 0.01 x 1 mL/g = 4.5 mL.

When scheduling appointments, which of the following factors should be considered? 1. Number of veterinarians seeing appointments 2. Veterinary technician appointments 3. Length of time for client education 4. All of the above

All of the above When scheduling appointments many factors need to be considered: number of veterinarians seeing appointments, veterinary technician appointments, nonsterile procedures, length of time for client education, dental and surgical procedures, holidays, and vacation times.

Esmolol is: 1. A nonselective beta blocker 2. A beta-1 blocker 3. A beta-2 blocker 4. Not a beta blocker

A beta-1 blocker Esmolol is a beta-1 blocker. It does not act on beta-2 receptors and so is not a nonselective beta blocker.

What is meant by the term noxious stimulus? 1. A toxic overdose of a drug 2. A damaging or potentially damaging tissue stimulus 3. An nitrous oxide reaction 4. The changing of the nervous system based on the environment

A damaging or potentially damaging tissue stimulus Pain itself is described in terms of a noxious stimulus, meaning the damaging or potentially tissue-damaging stimulus. Sensory neurons are responsible for the changing of the nervous system based on the environment. A toxic overdose of a drug is termed an overdose toxicity. A nitrous oxide reaction is a false term.

When conducting a tooth-by tooth evaluation with dental radiographs, when is the client given the total estimate for care? 1. On the telephone when the appointment is made 2. In the examination room 3. When the animal is picked up after treatment 4. After the evaluation is completed while the patient is still anesthetized

After the evaluation is completed while the patient is still anesthetized It is critical that the owner is notified of any changes to the treatment plan. The oral exam is performed in two parts. The first part is in the exam room with the patient awake. The initial treatment plan can be presented at this point. The second part of the exam is performed after the patient is anesthetized. Each tooth, the oral cavity, and full-mouth radiographs are performed. After this is accomplished, the owner should be contacted and be told whether the treatment plan will remain the same or will change in any way. This is also a good opportunity to update the owner on the patient's condition under anesthesia and to provide a tentative completion time.

Antimicrobial drugs that work against bacterial deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) have the potential for causing birth defects or other problems in the host animal if they also alter mammalian DNA. One group of antimicrobial agents known for this tendency is: 1. Antifungals 2. Antibacterials 3. Antivirals 4. Antiprotozoals

Antifungals Some antifungals work by causing mutations in the DNA. There is also the possibility they can cause mutations in mammalian DNA, causing birth defects. Antibacterial, antivirals, and antiprotozoals may also have effects on the target organism's DNA but will not also alter mammalian DNA.

A client calls the hospital to say that his Pekingese has suffered an eye proptosis. Your advice to the client should include all of the following, except: 1. Apply pressure to the globe to replace it in the socket 2. Protect the globe from further trauma 3. Keep the globe moist 4. Immediately bring the dog to the veterinarian

Apply pressure to the globe to replace it in the socket Trying to replace the globe will only cause further trauma and may result in the owner being bitten. If possible, the owner should apply lube to keep the globe moist, cover it (a disposable cup works well for this), or place an e-collar to prevent further damage, and then bring the dog to the veterinarian as soon as possible.

Repository forms of parenteral drugs: 1. Contain a special coating that protects the drug from the harsh, acidic environment of the stomach 2. Are formulated to prolong absorption of the drug from the site of administration 3. Are composed of specially prepared plant or animal parts rather than being manufactured from chemicals 4. Are extremely irritating to the tissues

Are formulated to prolong absorption of the drug from the site of administration A repository drug is one that is designed to produce a sustained, long-lasting release of medication. Medications composed of plant or animal parts are called biologics, whereas the coating on a drug that protects it from the environment of the stomach is called the enteric coating.

Which of the following values is used to evaluate renal function in the avian patient? 1. Uric acid 2. BUN 3. Creatinine 4. BUN, creatinine, and uric acid

BUN The avian kidney produces both urine and urates. Because uric acid (urates) is a main component of nitrogenous waste, uric acid best represents renal function in birds.

What term identifies the tooth surface facing the cheeks? 1. Apical 2. Rostral 3. Furcation 4. Buccal

Buccal Buccal is the surface facing the cheek. Rostral is the term meaning toward the front of the head. The furcation is the space between two roots in a multirooted tooth. Apical is defined as toward the end portion or apex of the tooth.

The surface of the tooth that is toward the cheek is known as: 1. Occlusal 2. Labial 3. Buccal 4. Mesial

Buccal The buccal surface is the side of the tooth that comes into contact with the cheek mucosa. The occlusal surface is the flat surface found on the crowns of molars. The flat surface allows food to be ground to a form that can be swallowed. The most rostral surface is known as the labial aspect, or toward the lips. The mesial surface is the part closest to the midline of the arch. The midline is the interdental space between the right and left maxillary and mandibular first incisors.

Which of the following drugs would likely be contraindicated for use in a rabbit that presented for GI stasis and moderate-to-severe dental pain? 1. Buprenorphine 2. Fentanyl 3. Butorphanol 4. Oxymorphone

Butorphanol The pain is described as moderate to severe. Full mu opioids such as oxymorphone and fentanyl would be the best choice to treat moderate-to-severe pain in this patient. Buprenorphine is a partial mu agonist opioid. This drug is best used for mild-to-moderate pain. Butorphanol is a kappa agonist opioid that is best used for sedation and mild analgesia.

Which of the following is not considered an electrolyte? 1. Calcium 2. Sodium 3. Potassium 4. Chloride

Calcium Calcium is considered a mineral, not an electrolyte. Sodium, potassium, and chloride are all considered electrolytes.

Postoperative complications: 1. Do not occur if the surgeon is skilled 2. Should never be discussed with a client 3. Can occur even if the surgery went well 4. Are almost always attributable to poor assistance in surgery

Can occur even if the surgery went well There is always risk associated with surgery regardless of the surgeon's skill or the type of assistance provided in surgery. As a result, the client should be well informed of surgical risks and possible complications.

Which of the following terms best describes the following definition: "Sudden cessation of functional ventilation and systemic perfusion" 1. Bradycardia 2. Cardiopulmonary arrest 3. Ventricular tachycardia 4. Hypercapnia

Cardiopulmonary arrest Cardiopulmonary arrest is a sudden cessation of functional ventilation and systemic perfusion. This results in reduced oxygen delivery to tissues with decreased removal of CO2. Bradycardia is defined as a slow heart rate. Ventricular tachycardia is an abnormally fast heart rate with three or more abnormal heat beats in a row. Hypercapnia is too much CO2. During cardiopulmonary arrest, the heart is not beating or not beating well, and little to no CO2 is being created.

What does the presence of petechiae and ecchymoses indicate in a patient? 1. Anemia 2. Coagulation disorder 3. Dehydration 4. Hypertension

Coagulation disorder Petechiae, or pinpoint bruising of the tissue surfaces, and ecchymoses, or wide bruised areas on the tissue surfaces, indicate dysfunction of coagulation mechanisms. Anemia can result from bleeding disorders, although not always present with the two signs. Dehydration is related to fluid balance and is unrelated to petechiae and ecchymoses. Hypertension is an elevation of the blood pressure, which is also unrelated.

Which of the following ultrasound artifacts will likely be produced when the sound wave strikes a metal object or a pocket of air? 1. Edge shadowing 2. Comet tail 3. Mirror image 4. Acoustic enhancement

Comet tail When a sound wave strikes a metal object or air, a comet-tail artifact will likely be produced. A comet-tail artifact appears as a series of closely interspaced and intense reverberations or reflections that resemble the tail of a comet. Edge shadowing occurs when the sound wave is redirected by an interface and a shadow is cast from the edge of an object. Mirror image artifact occurs when the sound wave strikes a strong reflective surface and is misinterpreted by the ultrasound machine, which writes the same image on the opposite side of the reflector to create a mirror image. Acoustic enhancement occurs when the sound wave accelerates through a fluid-filled medium and the intensity is stronger, which enhances the tissue behind it.

A patient with von Willebrand's disease requires surgery. Which product can be administered to prevent hemorrhage? 1. Cryoprecipitate 2. Fresh whole blood 3. Fresh frozen plasma 4. Packed red blood cells

Cryoprecipitate Cryoprecipitate contains von Willebrand's factor, factor VIII, fibrinogen, and fibronectin, and therefore it would be appropriate in this patient. Fresh whole blood contains red blood cells, white blood cells, proteins, and coagulation factors, whereas packed red blood cells contain red blood cells. Fresh frozen plasma contains albumin and coagulation factors.

A client would like to know what chew toy would be safest for her dog's teeth. You suggest that she is best to give "Fido" a: 1. Dried cow hoof 2. Nylon rope toy 3. Dense rubber exerciser 4. Large knucklebone

Dense rubber exerciser Dense rubber exercisers are the safest because they flex when the dog bites down. This flexibility will not in most cases allow the tooth to be fractured. Dried cow hooves and knucklebones are hard and could cause slab fractures and periodontal ankyloses (ligament shock-absorbing capacity that is lost because of calcification within the periodontal ligament space). Nylon ropes are abrasive and can cause gingival trauma and wear on the crowns of the teeth.

An owner calls the clinic regarding her sick guinea pig. She tells you that her pet has not eaten in 16 hours and has been "picky" with her food during the previous few weeks. She has noticed drooling, overgrooming, and small-sized feces. It sounds as if the veterinarian should examine the guinea pig. Although a diagnosis can't be made on the phone, what is the most likely cause of the animal's signs? 1. Cystic ovaries 2. Dental disease 3. Pasteurella multocida 4. Trichobezoar

Dental disease These are the most common signs of dental disease in a rabbit, chinchilla, and guinea pig. Trichobezoars are hairballs. These are much less common than once believed and when present, they act as a GI foreign body or blockage. Pasteurella multocida is a common bacterium of the upper respiratory tract. This is found most often in rabbits. Cystic ovaries will often cause abdominal pain and anorexia

The parasite diagnosed by tracheal wash is: 1. Tritrichomonas species 2. Dictyocaulus species 3. Dioctophyma species 4. Anaplasma species

Dictyocaulus species Respiratory roundworms include the lungworms of cattle and sheep (Dictyocaulus species and Muellerius capillaris). Diagnosis is made by finding the larvae on standard fecal flotation or flotation of the sputum-mucus discharge. Dioctophyma species is the giant kidney worm and is diagnosed by urine sediment exam. Anaplasma is a genus of rickettsiales bacteria and is difficult to diagnose, but basic blood work provides clues to the clinician. Tritrichomonas is a genus of single-celled flagellated protozoan parasites, some of whose species are known to be pathogens of the bovine reproductive tract as well as the intestinal tract of felines; it is diagnosed by vaginal washing.

The word root digitorum refers to which of the following? 1. Rib 2. Wrist 3. Digit 4. Thigh

Digit The word root digitorum refers to digit. The word root costals refers to rib. The word root carpi refers to wrist. The word root femoris refers to thigh.

Which of the following surgical packs would not be considered contaminated and would not need to be reautoclaved? 1. Single-wrapped crepe paper pack stored on an open shelf for 8 weeks 2. Pack that was opened for a procedure but was not used and was needed for the next day's procedure 3. Double-wrapped paper pack stored in a closed cabinet for 6 weeks 4. Instrument in an autoclave pouch that has a very small tear near the top of the pack

Double-wrapped paper pack stored in a closed cabinet for 6 weeks A double-wrapped pack can be stored in this manner for 6 to 8 weeks. A single wrapped crepe-paper pack can be stored on an open shelf for 3 weeks. A pack that was opened, but not used, cannot be considered sterile for the next day's procedures. Any pouch that has a small perforation is considered nonsterile.

While writing in a patient's medical record you make a mistake. What should you do? 1. Scratch it out 2. Erase it 3. Draw a line through it 4. Black it out

Draw a line through it When a mistake is made, a line should be drawn through it so it is still legible. The mistake should be initialed and the correct information entered. If the mistake is scratched out or blacked out, it will be illegible. A mistake should be written in pen so it should not be erasable.

Enamel hypoplasia is also referred to as: 1. Dysplasia 2. Odontalgia 3. Anodontia 4. Oligodontia

Dysplasia Enamel hypoplasia (dysplasia) may be defined as an incomplete or defective formation of the organic enamel matrix of teeth. Anodontia (total absence of teeth) and oligodontia (congenital absence of many but not all teeth) are associated with ectodermal dysplasia, are rare, and can occur in dogs with no apparent systemic problem or congenital syndrome. Odontalgia is painful teeth.

The coxal tuber is located on which of the following bones of the horse? 1. Talus 2. Metatarsal 3. Hip bone 4. Femur

Hip bone The coxal tuber is located at the proximal end of the hip bone. The talus is located within the tarsal joint distal to the tibia. The metatarsal bones are located distal to the tarsal joint and proximal to the sesamoid bones. The femur is immediately distal to the hipbone.

After surgery has begun, how often should antibiotics be administered? 1. Every 15-30 minutes 2. Every 30-60 minutes 3. Every 60-90 minutes 4. Every 90-120 minutes

Every 90-120 minutes Antibiotics are usually used in surgeries that involve anything that may decrease the patients' ability to fight infection such as shock, trauma, or poor body condition. In these cases, antibiotics are given right before or when surgery starts and then every 90-120 minutes during the surgery.

In what species are the platelets normally larger than the red blood cells? 1. Bovine 2. Canine 3. Equine 4. Feline

Feline Platelets, especially in cats, may be larger than erythrocytes. This can lead to inaccurate electronic blood cell counts when the cells are not differentiated by size. Platelets in the other species have a smaller appearance in comparison to the red blood cells.

When administrating oral medications to cats, which of the following techniques should be practiced? 1. Placing medication inside a piece of cheese 2. Flushing water with a syringe into the mouth after the tablet has been given 3. Placing the tablet or capsule on the back of the tongue and holding the mouth shut 4. Cats cannot take oral medications

Flushing water with a syringe into the mouth after the tablet has been given When administering oral medications to cats, ensure that the medication is washed down with water to prevent the tablet or capsule from sticking in the lower portion of the esophagus and causing irritation.

What is a nosocomial infection? 1. Infection arising from bacteria in the gastrointestinal tract 2. Infection originating from the respiratory tract, especially the nose 3. Hospital-acquired infection 4. Resistant infection

Hospital-acquired infection Nosocomial infections are acquired in hospital.

Which of the following body cavities is the largest? 1. Dorsal 2. Cranial 3. Spinal 4. Ventral

Ventral The ventral body cavity is the largest body cavity and contains most of the soft organs within the body. The dorsal cavity, which contains the brain and spinal cord, cranial, and spinal cavity, are much smaller compared to the ventral cavity.

When a bitch is presented to the hospital for an ovariohysterectomy, the technician should do all of the following except: 1. Ensure the dog is a female 2. Obtain a telephone number where the client can be reached that day 3. Ensure that the bitch does not have an abdominal scar 4. Give the dog aspirin, because the surgical procedure will be painful

Give the dog aspirin, because the surgical procedure will be painful Aspirin is not given for preemptive analgesia before a surgery because of its effect on platelet function, which may diminish blood clotting during the procedure. Also, preemptive analgesics are generally given by injection before surgery, and aspirin comes in an oral form only. Technicians should always ensure that the patient is female, and should verify the phone number of the client in case of emergency. In addition, older female patients should be checked for an abdominal scar, which may indicate the pet is already spayed.

Which of these signs is not an indication of dystocia? 1. Green or black vulvar discharge 2. Profuse vulvar hemorrhage 3. Pup or kitten in the birth canal for 5 minutes 4. More than 1 hour of vigorous contractions with no pup or kitten produced

Green or black vulvar discharge This normal during parturition, and it is therefore not an indication of dystocia. Dystocia is considered when there is active straining for >60 minutes without delivering a fetus, no straining for >4 hours when fetuses are present, weak contractions lasting >2 hours, or if the mother or fetuses are showing signs of stress. A pup or kitten should not take longer than 5 minutes to move through the birth canal. Profuse hemor-rhage from the vulva is also a sign of dystocia.

Which of the following describes a patient suffering from mastitis? 1. Hard, painful nipple, and galactostasis. 2. Hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, and seizures. 3. In hard labor for 30 to 60 minutes with no new young produced. 4. Vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia, polyuria, and polydipsia.

Hard, painful nipple and galactostasis Mastitis results in hard, painful nipple, and galactostasis (loss of milk production). Eclampsia is a condition of hypocalcemia arising from lactation, resulting in muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, and seizures. Hard labor for 30 to 60 minutes with no new young is a form of dystocia. Vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia, polyuria, and polydipsia are all signs of pyometra.

Serum centrifuged in a microhematocrit tube characterized by varying degrees of redness is likely a result of: 1. Hemolysis 2. Hyperproteinemia 3. Icterus 4. Lipemia

Hemolysis Icterus manifests as yellow-to-orange serum caused by increased bilirubin levels in serum. Hemolyzed serum manifests as a red color because of increased hemoglobin levels in serum. Hyperproteinemia results in increased total protein readings, and when severe, presents yellow fluid with high viscosity, such as with feline infectious peritonitis. Lipemia manifests as turbid, white serum from an increased triglyceride level.

What appears as a blue spherical nuclear remnant seen in some Wright-stained erythrocytes? 1. Reticulocyte 2. Howell-Jolly body 3. Heinz body 4. Leptocyte

Howell-Jolly body Howell-Jolly bodies are basophilic nuclear remnants seen in young erythrocytes during the response to anemia. Heinz bodies are round structures representing denatured hemoglobin. Reticulocytes are immature erythrocytes that contain organelles (ribosomes) that are lost as the cell matures. These organelles account for the diffuse blue-gray or polychromatophilic staining of immature cells with Wright stain. An increased membrane surface area relative to the cell volume characterizes a leptocyte.

Veterinary technicians that advocate for pain management are most closely compared to what group of nurses? 1. Orthopedic nurses 2. Psychiatric nurses 3. Human neonatal and pediatric nurses 4. Emergency and critical care nurses

Human neonatal and pediatric nurses Human neonatal and pediatric nurses and veterinary technicians share the position of patient advocate, providing a voice for their patients and attending to their perceived needs. Orthopedic, psychiatric, emergency, and critical care nurses do not necessarily encompass pain management in their daily routines.

Which of the following is the best method for storing lead x-ray gowns? 1. Folded and kept in a drawer to prevent overexposure 2. Hung up by the shoulders when not in use 3. Draped across the table with the tail end hanging off the side 4. None of the above None of the above

Hung up by the shoulders when not in use When lead x-ray gowns are not in use they should be hung up by the shoulders so that the lead can freely hang, which helps avoid the risk of cracking. If the lead is folded or partially hung over the side of something there is a risk of the lead cracking, which can lead to inadequate protection from radiation.

For glucosuria to occur, which of the following must also be present? 1. Uremia 2. Hyperglycemia 3. Ketonemia 4. Azoturia

Hyperglycemia Insulin is necessary to transport glucose into body cells, and a deficiency causes hyperglycemia and the spilling of glucose into the urine (glucosuria). Uremia and azoturia can be associated with renal disease and do not cause glucosuria. Ketonemia is associated with diabetes and is often present when hyperglycemia is extreme. However, hyperglycemia and glucosuria occur before there is ketonemia.

Which of the following is a common cause of bradycardia? 1. Hypovolemia 2. Hypoxia 3. Hypokalemia 4. Hyperkalemia

Hyperkalemia Common causes of bradycardia include hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, toxin ingestion, and increased intracranial pressure. Common causes of tachycardia include hypovolemia, hypoxia, and hypokalemia.

Which of the following does not cause an increase in respiratory rate (RR) in an anesthetized animal? 1. Increased blood CO2 2. Anesthesia is too light 3. Increased PaO2 4. Hyperthermia

Increased PaO2 Increased PaO2 indicates that the hemoglobin is saturated. This would trigger the respiratory center to decrease respiratory rate. Increased blood CO2 triggers increased respirations. If anesthesia is too light, the patient will begin waking, resulting in an increased RR. When a patient experiences hyperthermia, its temperature is increasing. Companion animals use "panting" as a cooling method. Therefore, hyperthermia will increase the RR.

The mode of action in which Enrofloxacin works by is: 1. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis 2. Inhibiting DNA 3. Inhibiting protein synthesis 4. Inhibiting the metabolic pathway

Inhibiting DNA Fluoroquinolones work by directly inhibiting DNA. They are not involved with protein or cell wall synthesis and do not inhibit the metabolic pathway.

Which block can be used in a castration procedure for companion animals, large animals, and exotic animals? 1. Intratesticular block 2. Epidural block 3. Intra-articular block 4. Intrapleural block

Intratesticular block An intratesticular block is extremely easy to perform and provides <8 hours of postoperative pain relief for companion animals, large animals, and exotic patients undergoing castration by anesthetizing the spermatic cord. Indications for an epidural include intra- and postoperative analgesia for hindquarter surgeries in dogs and cats (e.g., tail amputation, anal-rectal surgeries, tibial-femoral fractures, total hip replacement, cruciate ligament repair), exploratory laparotomy, cesarean section, and surgical procedures caudal to the region of the twelfth or thirteenth ribs. An intra-articular block is placed between joint spaces. An interpleural block technique provides anesthesia to the thoracic as well as cranial abdominal nerves (which enter the spinal cord at the level of the thorax).

Taking a complete and accurate patient history: 1. Is an important task that may be performed by veterinary technicians 2. Should only be performed by a veterinarian 3. Is only necessary if the patient has never been to the hospital 4. Is not necessary for wellness exams in healthy patients

Is an important task that may be performed by veterinary technicians The veterinary technician who is capable of obtaining a complete and accurate history can play a critical role in a busy veterinary practice. Obtaining information from clients is often time consuming, and veterinary technicians who can do this well free veterinarians to complete other work. Using historical information, as well as other parts of the database, the veterinary technician should be able to generate technician evaluations and to formulate appropriate technician interventions to support the patient. Patient exams are important every time a patient visits the hospital, even during wellness exams.

What characteristic is true of ethylene oxide gas? 1. It is flammable 2. Exposure to it is not considered a health hazard 3. It is noncombustible 4. It is nontoxic to tissues

It is flammable Ethylene oxide gas is very flammable and is toxic to tissues. Any exposure to ethylene oxide is considered a health risk.

Which of the following is the largest unit of measure? 1. Microgram 2. Milligram 3. Gram 4. Kilogram

Kilogram 1 microgram (mcg) = 0.000001 gram (g) (μg) 1 milligram (mg) = 0.001 g = 1000 mcg (μg) 1 gram (g) = 1.0 g = 1000 mg 1 kilogram (kg) = 1000.0 g

In the feline patient, the spinal cord ends at the level of which of the following vertebra? 1. S1 2. L6 3. L7 4. T13

L7 In the cat, the spinal cord ends at the level of L7. This is important because the chance for intrathecal injection is much higher compared with the dog.

The most common form of malnutrition in hospitalized animals is ___________ because of the reluctance or inability to eat voluntarily. 1. Lack of energy and protein intake 2 .Lack of sugar 3. Lack of carbohydrates 4. Lack of minerals

Lack of energy and protein intake The most common sign of malnutrition is lack of energy and protein intake because of a reluctance or inability to eat voluntarily. Proper nutrition is necessary in sick patients for immune system function, tissue synthesis to promote healing, proper GI function, and regulation of many physiologic processes. Assisted feeding of a complete and balanced diet containing the appropriate amount of protein might be necessary to address this problem. When the dietary protein needs are addressed, any lack of sugar, carbohydrates, or minerals is of little concern for most hospitalized patients.

The ability to distinguish between two objects that are adjacent to each other, yet perpendicular to the sound wave in ultrasound, is described as: 1. Axial resolution 2. Lateral resolution 3. Longitudinal resolution 4. Azimuthal resolution

Lateral resolution Lateral resolution is the ability to distinguish between two objects that are adjacent to one another yet perpendicular to the sound wave. Axial, longitudinal, and azimuthal resolutions are all synonymous terms. Axial resolution is the ability to differentiate between two structures along the beam's length and is equal to half of a pulse's length.

What organism is a spirochete? 1. Corynebacterium pyogenes 2. Streptococcus pyogenes 3. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 4. Leptospira grippotyphosa

Leptospira grippotyphosa Leptospirosis is caused by the bacterium Leptospira, which is a spirochete. Common serovars are Leptospira pomona, Leptospira hardjo, and Leptospira grippotyphosa. Corynebacterium pyogenes is a gram-positive, irregularly shaped rod. Streptococcus pyogenes are gram-positive cocci. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a rod-shaped bacterium.

Normal capillary refill time in mammals is how long? 1. 1 second 2. 1-3 seconds 3. Less than 1-2 seconds 4. Greater than 2 seconds

Less than 1-2 seconds

Using which of the following drugs can prevent laryngospasm? 1. Isoflurane 2. Oxymorphone 3. Lidocaine 4. Diazepam

Lidocaine Laryngospasm is most often observed in cats during endotracheal intubation. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic that acts by anesthetizing the glottis and thus helping with endotracheal tube placement. Oxymorphone, isoflurane, and diazepam do not have a direct effect on the laryngeal tissue.

Which organ is the largest abdominal organ in the body? 1. Stomach 2. Pancreas 3. Kidney 4. Liver

Liver The liver is the largest gland in the body and is divided into several lobes.

Surgical masks: 1. Prevent unpleasant odors from reaching the surgeon's nose 2. Lose their effectiveness when saturated with moisture 3. Are used for orthopedic procedures only 4. Can be tied loosely so that they are not as confining Can be tied loosely so that they are not as confining

Lose their effectiveness when saturated with moisture Masks filter droplets containing microorganisms that come from the mouth and nose, and they should be changed frequently. After masks become wet, strike through can occur and this decreases their effectiveness. They do not prevent odors from reaching the wearer.

When polishing teeth using an air-driven unit, at what speed should the hand piece be set? 1. High speed 2. Low speed 3. Either high or low is acceptable 4. Finishing speed

Low speed A prophy angle used for polishing is used on low speed. Low-speed handpieces have a high torque and speeds of 5000 to 20,000 rpm. 5000 rpm is best for polishing teeth after a cleaning. 20,000 rpm is used for finishing and polishing tooth surfaces after a restoration.

What substance normally blocks the NMDA receptor so that it cannot allow ions to pass freely and generate an impulse? 1. Sodium 2. Magnesium 3. Potassium 4. Calcium

Magnesium The NMDA receptor is normally blocked by magnesium so it does not allow ions to pass through and generate a signal. When increased pain stimulation occurs, AMPA receptors can depolarize the membrane that dislodges the magnesium from the NMDA receptor, allowing it to respond to glutamate. Activating the NMDA receptor can lead to increased nerve transmission and increased nerve excitability.

To obtain a radiograph of the VD extended hip projection, where is the center of the beam focused? 1. Greater trochanter of femur 2. Midline between the left and right ischial tuberosity 3. At the level of the 7th vertebrae 4. At the midfemur

Midline between the left and right ischial tuberosity To obtain a radiograph of the VD extended hip projection, the beam is centered at a midline between the left and right ischial tuberosity. The lateral projection of the pelvis is centered at the greater trochanter of the femur. The level of the 7th vertebra is at the level of the beginning of the pelvis and is too high to center the beam for a VD extended hip projection. The level of the midfemur is too low to obtain a full view of the VD extended hip projection.

Which of the following is an example of an opioid agonist? 1. Morphine 2. Naloxone 3. Butorphanol 4. Nalbuphine

Morphine Morphine is the only choice that is identified as an opioid agonist. Naloxone is the opposite and is considered an opioid antagonist. Butorphanol and nalbuphine are of the same class of opioids known as opioid agonists-antagonists. This means they are mu receptor antagonists but also kappa receptor agonists. Because they are not full mu receptor agonists similar to morphine and hydromorphone, they should be considered weak analgesics.

Which of the following has the poorest potential for healing and return to normal function after damage and effective surgical repair? 1. Bone 2. Gastrointestinal tract 3. Liver 4. Nervous tissue

Nervous tissue The basic functional unit of the nervous system, the neuron, is incapable of reproduction; consequently, damage to the nervous system is often repaired by scar tissue. The gastrointestinal tract, liver, and bone have excellent healing potential.

The following information was provided for a prescription written by a veterinarian: "Dr. Pete Bill, Veterinary Associates, Inc., 325 Sentry Highway, West Lafayette, IN 47907. Indiana License Number #4xxx. (317) 555-8636. For: Mr. R. K. Jones, 111, Melrose Place, Loomisville, IN 47905. Canine patient Ruby, Amoxicillin 100 mg tablets, Sig: 1 tab q8h po prn 2 refills. Date : 1/5/2016. Signature: Pete Bill." What vital information is missing from this prescription? 1. Veterinarian's Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) license number 2. Pet's name 3. Owner's telephone number 4. Number of tablets

Number of tablets Prescriptions must include the name, address, telephone number, signature, and DEA number (if the drug is controlled) of the prescribing veterinarian, as well as the drug name, concentration, and quantity (mL or number of tablets). It must also include directions, name and address of the client, name and species of the patient, any cautionary information, and the number of refills

When giving postoperative analgesics to rodents and rabbits to alleviate pain, which of the following statements is true precaution? 1. NSAIDs cannot be used because they cause gastric ulceration at normal therapeutic doses in these species 2. Opioids (narcotics) cause severe respiratory depression and so must never be used 3. Opioids must be given with care if a neuroleptanalgesic mixture has been used for anesthesia 4. Local anesthetics cannot be used because they produce cardiac arrest even at low doses in these species

Opioids must be given with care if a neuroleptanalgesic mixture has been used for anesthesia Because the commonly used opioids will potentiate the actions of injectable anesthetic agents, their preoperative administration could lead to inadvertent anesthetic overdose. Because of the limited information available concerning the degree of interaction between injectable anesthetics and opioids, it is safer in this case to administer opioid analgesics at the end of the operation in small rodents, as the depth of anesthesia is becoming lighter. Local anesthetics are not likely to be given postoperatively. All of the morphine-like drugs that can be used in dogs and cats can also be used in small mammals but often have a shorter duration of action in these species; they do not cause severe respiratory depression. NSAIDs (particularly the more potent NSAIDs such as carprofen, ketoprofen, and meloxicam) can provide very effective pain relief in small mammals.

Visceral pain is quite common among companion animals. Which of the following is not an example of visceral pain? 1. Pancreatitis 2. Gastroenteritis 3. Bowel ischemia 4. Osteosarcoma

Osteosarcoma Viscera are defined as any internal body organ that is enclosed within a cavity. Osteosarcoma is not part of the viscera, whereas the pancreas and intestinal tract are. Therefore pancreatitis, gastroenteritis, and bowel ischemia are examples of visceral pain.

An example of an elective procedure is: 1. Ovariohysterectomy 2. Nephrotomy 3. Exploratory laparotomy 4. Splenectomy

Ovariohysterectomy Elective procedures are not necessary to the patient's immediate health. A nephrotomy, exploratory laparotomy, and a splenectomy would be completed because of a critical presentation in the animal.

Guinea pigs are difficult to intubate because of which of the following anatomic structures? 1. Enlarged nasopharynx 2. Hyperplastic oropharynx 3. Palatal ostium 4. Nasopharyngeal diverticula

Palatal ostium The palatal ostium is an anatomic structure causing the opening between the oral cavity and the opening to the trachea to be very small. Visualization is difficult, and the tissues surrounding the glottis can be easily damaged, causing laryngeal edema. Laryngeal edema can lead to respiratory distress or arrest.

The islets of Langerhans are associated with which organ? 1. Pancreas 2. Liver 3. Kidneys 4. Adrenal glands

Pancreas The pancreas is divided into many different cells. The clumps of cells that form it are known as pancreatic islets or islets of Langerhans. The islets of Langerhans are not associated with the liver, kidneys, and adrenal glands.

Which heart condition is most common in Pomeranians? 1. Patent ductus arteriosus 2. Aortic stenosis 3. Atrial septal defect 4. Ventricular septal defect

Patent ductus arteriosus Pomeranians most commonly experience PDA. Bull Terriers are more likely to experience AS, and a variety of breeds, including the Boxer may experience ASD. English Bulldogs and the English Springer Spaniel may experience VSD.

Some anesthesiologists suggest that acepromazine be avoided in: 1. Patients with a history of seizures 2. Aggressive patients 3. All senior dogs 4. All Dobermans

Patients with a history of seizures This use of acepromazine in patients with epilepsy or in patients with an increased risk for convulsions is somewhat controversial. There are limited data suggesting that acepromazine decreases the seizure threshold. Acepromazine can be used in Dobermans, aggressive patients, and in older dogs when appropriate.

For which patients should mask induction with isoflurane be avoided? 1. Patients with impaired liver function 2. Patients with impaired cardiac function 3. Patients with impaired respiratory function 4. Patients with impaired gastrointestinal function

Patients with impaired respiratory function Patients that have impaired respiratory function should be induced by using methods allowing for rapid intubation. Drugs used in these cases should have a very quick onset of action. Chamber or mask induction is extremely risky in these patients because of slow induction times, the potential restraint required, and the anxiety caused for smelling the anesthetic gas. Isoflurane does not have any impact on the liver or gastrointestinal tract. Although isoflurane does affect cardiac function, it is not as significant as the respiratory tract.

A chest tube is placed when an animal has: 1. Subcutaneous emphysema 2. Pulmonary edema 3. Ascites 4. Pneumothorax

Pneumothorax Pneumothorax is when air has been trapped in the chest cavity, between the lungs and the chest wall, and the lungs collapse because of increased pressure within the chest cavity. A chest tube can help evacuate the air and allow the lungs to expand. Pulmonary edema is fluid within the lungs (chest tubes are never placed within lungs). Ascites is fluid within the abdominal cavity. Subcutaneous emphysema is air trapped under the skin, and a chest tube does not treat emphysema.

What anticoagulant is used most commonly in animal-blood collection for CBCs? 1. Sodium heparin 2. Potassium oxalate 3. Potassium ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid 4. Sodium citrate

Potassium ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid Ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid (EDTA) is the preferred anticoagulant for hematologic studies, because it does not alter cell morphology when it is used in the proper ratio for samples to be analyzed soon after collection. EDTA is available as sodium or potassium salt, and it prevents clotting by forming an insoluble complex with calcium, which is necessary for clot formation. EDTA tubes are available in either liquid or powder forms, but the liquid form is more commonly used. Heparin is a suitable anticoagulant for most tests that require plasma samples. Sodium citrates are also commonly used, especially in transfusion medicine, as an anticoagulant. Potassium oxalate cannot be used with blood samples to be assayed for potassium. Sodium citrates similarly interfere with sodium assays, as well as many of the commonly performed blood chemistry tests. Sodium heparin causes cell morphology.

The term proximal refers to which of the following abbreviations? 1. Pa 2. Pr 3. Pl 4. Di

Pr The term proximal is abbreviated as Pr. The term palmar is abbreviated as Pa. The term plantar is abbreviated as Pl. The term distal is abbreviated as Di.

The most common sign in dogs and cats with allergic disease is: 1. Reluctance to eat 2. Lethargy 3. Pruritus 4. Hyperpigmentation

Pruritis Pruritus is the most common sign in dogs and cats with allergic skin disease. Lethargy and reluctance to eat are not generally associated with allergic skin disease. Hyperpigmentation can be a result of chronic licking, rubbing, and chewing.

Which of the following would be the least common side effect expected with common cancer chemotherapeutic drugs? 1. Myelosuppression 2. Vomiting and diarrhea 3. Pruritus 4. Alopecia

Pruritus Hypersensitivity (which may manifest itself as pruritus) is a rare side effect of chemotherapy. Because chemotherapeutics target quickly dividing cells (e.g., bone marrow, the gastrointestinal tract, and hair follicles), you are more likely to see immunosuppression, vomiting, diarrhea, or alopecia.

When performing an electrocardiography (ECG) with a dog in right lateral recumbency, the green electrode is attached to the: 1. Right forelimb 2. Left forelimb 3. Right hind limb 4. Left hind limb

Right hind limb The green electrode is attached to the right hind limb, the white electrode is attached to the right forelimb, the black electrode is attached to the left forelimb, and the red electrode is attached to the left hind limb.

Methocarbamol is labeled as an adjunctive therapy for: 1. Seizures 2. Skeletal muscle trauma 3. Increased intracranial pressure 4. Joint pain

Skeletal muscle trauma Methocarbamol is a muscle relaxant that is often used to treat muscle spasms associated with skeletal muscle trauma (such as a dog with back pain). It is not an anticonvulsant, but it can be used to control muscle tremors associated with toxicities. It will not directly address intracranial pressure or joint pain.

At what level of vertebrae are the withers of a horse located? 1. C1 2. C2 3. C3-C7 4. T4-T9

T4-T9 The thoracic vertebrae have large spinous processes, in which T4-T9 make up the withers of the horse. The C1 vertebra is the first vertebrae in the neck and contains a large wing-shaped process. The C2 vertebra contains the prominent cranial process known as the dens. C3-C7 are the remaining vertebrae of the cervical region.

What is the function of a laryngoscope? 1. To obtain tissue samples from the trachea 2. To facilitate endotracheal intubation by allowing direct visualization of the opening to the trachea 3. To cover the esophagus and prevent regurgitation during surgery 4. To provide a way for anesthetic gases to be delivered

The function of a laryngoscope is to facilitate endotracheal intubation by allowing direct visualization of the opening to the trachea. Anesthetic gases are delivered via an endotracheal tube. A laryngoscope is not used to obtain tissue samples or to cover the esophagus and prevent regurgitation during surgery.

What determines the potency and speed of onset of local anesthetics? 1. The volume of local anesthetic infused into an area 2. The lipid solubility of the drug 3. The temperature of the local anesthetic 4. The brand of local anesthetic used.

The lipid solubility of the drug The potency and speed of onset of local anesthetics is directly related to the lipid solubility of the drug. The larger the lipophilic property of the local anesthetic, the more readily the anesthetic permeates the axonal nerve membranes. The brand, temperature, and volume of drug do not influence time of onset.

When a patient is switching from one NSAID to another, what is the best course of action? 1. The patient should experience a "washout" period of 3-5 days to minimize the risk of concurrent side effects 2. The patient should experience a "washout" period of 30 days to minimize the risk of concurrent side effects. 3. The patient should start both drugs concurrently to minimize the likelihood of breakthrough pain 4. The patient should never switch NSAIDs.

The patient should experience a "washout" period of 3-5 days to minimize the risk of concurrent side effects Often patients will need to switch NSAIDs. When switching from one NSAID to another NSAID, a "washout" period of 3-5 days should be observed to minimize the risk of concurrent adverse effects. Starting both drugs at the same time can increase the incidence of side effects such as GI upset and bleeding.

What is considered the most painful portion of a routine spay procedure? 1. The initial abdominal incision 2. Applying the angiotribe 3. The plucking/tearing of the suspensory ligament 4. Ligation of the ovarian pedicle

The plucking/tearing of the suspensory ligament The most painful portion of the spay procedure is the plucking of the suspensory ligament. The patient may experience a temporary increase in heart rate and respiratory rate, which will resolve without intervention.

Why can't you use the position of the eyes to assess depth of anesthesia in rodents? 1. The eye is too small to assess its position accurately 2. The position of the eye does not change during anesthesia 3. The eye rotates downward in very light planes of anesthesia 4. The eyelids remain closed throughout anesthesia

The position of the eye does not change during anesthesia Ocular reflexes are not as useful in small mammals as in the dog and cat. With most anesthetic regimens, the position of the eye remains fixed in rodents, and the palpebral (blink) reflex may still be present at surgical planes of anesthesia.

What is the definition of hematopoiesis? 1. The destruction of platelets 2. The production of blood cells and platelets 3. The creation of fibrinogen 4. The decrease of red blood cells

The production of blood cells and platelets Hematopoiesis is the production of blood cells and platelets. Fibrinogen is associated with the clotting cascade but not with hematopoiesis.

Nephrectomy refers to: 1. An incision into the kidney 2. The removal of a kidney 3. The removal of a tumor from the kidney 4. The biopsy of a kidney

The removal of a kidney Nephr- is a prefix that indicates kidney; -ectomy is a suffix that indicates removal. -otomy is a suffix that indicates incision.

Which of the following statements is false when performing an ultrasonic scaling during routine dental prophylaxis? 1. The ultrasonic scaler should not be on the tooth for longer than 10-15 seconds at a time to prevent thermal damage to the pulp cavity 2. The ultrasonic scaler should be grasped like a pencil 3. The side of the instrument should be used against the tooth rather than the tip 4. The ultrasonic scaler can be used for supragingival scaling only

The ultrasonic scaler can be used for supragingival scaling only Ultrasonic scaling or power scaling can be used for both supragingival and subgingival scaling. Thanks to improvements in technology, there are subgingival tips and handpiece inserts available. The subgingival tip or insert is finer and thinner for insertion below the gum line. When using the subgingival tip you will need to reduce the power to avoid any damage to the soft tissue. If visualization is difficult, hand instrumentation using a curette is recommended.

In the veterinary hospital, barrier nursing should be practiced: 1. To keep the staff's uniforms free of pet hair 2. To prevent the staining of staff uniforms 3. To avoid transmitting infection among patients 4. All of the above

To avoid transmitting infection among patients The use of barrier nursing is to help prevent staff members from transmitting infection from the patients they are nursing to others of the same species or to those susceptible to infection such as immunologically challenged patients and pediatric or geriatric patients. Personal protective clothing such as disposable gloves, aprons, and foot covers should be worn. These should be placed in the clinical waste after use. Patients who are most likely to spread disease should be cleaned and treated after all other patients in the isolation facility. This will also help to prevent disease being spread from the most infectious patients by the nursing staff. Patient care should always take priority; uniforms can be washed and/or replaced as needed.

What is the function of a laryngoscope? 1. To obtain tissue samples from the trachea 2. To facilitate endotracheal intubation by allowing direct visualization of the opening to the trachea 3. To cover the esophagus and prevent regurgitation during surgery 4. To provide a way for anesthetic gases to be delivered

To facilitate endotracheal intubation by allowing direct visualization of the opening to the trachea The function of a laryngoscope is to facilitate endotracheal intubation by allowing direct visualization of the opening to the trachea. Anesthetic gases are delivered via an endotracheal tube. A laryngoscope is not used to obtain tissue samples or to cover the esophagus and prevent regurgitation during surgery.

You are looking at your dental radiograph and notice that the tooth is elongated. This happened because the beam was perpendicular to the: 1. Film 2. Tooth 3. Bisecting angle 4. Wrong tooth

Tooth If the x-ray beam is aimed more perpendicular to the tooth rather than to the bisecting angle, causing too little vertical angulation, the tooth will appear more elongated. Foreshortening will occur if the beam is more perpendicular to the film, causing too much vertical angulation. The beam should be perpendicular to the bisecting angle to minimize distortion. If you think about the sun hitting an object at noon, the shadow will be very short (foreshortened). If you think about the sun hitting an object at sunset, the shadow will be very long (elongated).

The parasite whose adult resembles a whip and whose eggs have bipolar plugs is: 1. Strongyloides stercoralis 2. Trichuris vulpis 3. Toxocara canis 4. Toxascaris leonina

Trichuris vulpis Trichuris ovis is commonly called the whipworm, infecting the cecum and colon of ruminants. It has a thick, yellow-brown, symmetric shell with plugs at both ends. Strongyloides stercoralis (threadworm) are seen in the male and female species, and both genders also possess a tiny buccal capsule and cylindrical esophagus without a posterior bulb. In the free-living stage, the esophagi of both sexes are rhabditiform. Males can be distinguished from females by two structures: the spicules and gubernaculum. Examples of roundworms are Toxocara canis and Toxascaris leonine. The adult canis has a round body with spiky cranial and caudal parts, covered by yellow cuticula.

Certain bacteria, especially staphylococcus, produce an enzyme (beta-lactamase) that destroys many penicillin drugs. Which is one of the penicillins not destroyed by beta-lactamase? 1. Penicillin G 2. Unasyn 3. Amoxicillin 4. Hetacillin

Unasyn Some bacteria produce beta-lactamase, an enzyme that is able to deactivate the antibiotic by breaking down the beta-lactam ring. There are several beta-lactamases, with penicillinase being specific for penicillins. A beta-lactamase inhibitor can be combined with the antibiotic to prevent the breakdown of the beta-lactam ring, preventing bacterial resistance. Examples include Clavamox (amoxicillin and clavulanate acid) and Unasyn (ampicillin and sulbactam).

Which tooth has three roots? 1. Upper canine 2. Lower first premolar 3. Lower first molar 4. Upper fourth premolar

Upper fourth premolar The maxillary or upper fourth premolar has three roots-the mesial buccal root, the palatal root, and the distal root. The canine tooth has one root. The first premolar and the first molar have two roots. Teeth can develop an extra root, which is considered an anatomic abnormality. Extra roots are charted as supernumerary roots.

When are drugs such as sulfadimethoxine, sulfadiazine, and other sulfa drugs most likely to cause kidney problems? 1. When an animal is receiving intravenous fluids and it has a diuretic effect on the kidneys 2. When an animal is dehydrated 3. When an animal has only one functional kidney 4. When an animal has a bladder infection

When an animal is dehydrated Sulfonamides can cause the development of crystals in the kidneys, causing damage to renal tubules. A patient that is dehydrated will have decreased urine production, allowing the crystals to accumulate in the kidneys, causing further damage. A bladder infection or loss of a kidney will not contribute to the nephrotoxicity caused by chloramphenicol. Intravenous fluids will flush out the kidneys, decreasing build-up of crystals in the renal tubules.

When would it be considered an advantage to use a hand tie versus an instrument tie? 1. When suturing very tough tissue 2. When suturing the linea alba or areas that are difficult to reach 3. When suturing the skin 4. When suturing hollow organs

When suturing the linea alba or areas that are difficult to reach Hand ties are used in confined or hard-to-reach areas; however, they do waste suture material, as the ends must be left longer than for an instrument tie. For all remaining options, instrument ties are advised.

Which of the following drugs is not considered an alpha-2 adrenoreceptor agonist? 1. Dexmedetomidine 2. Xylazine 3. Medetomidine 4. Yohimbine

Yoimbine All of the listed drugs are examples of alpha-2 adrenoreceptor agonists except yohimbine, which is an alpha-2 antagonist. Therefore, it is used as a reversal for drugs such as xylazine and medetomidine.