West Coast EMT Block 1 Exam
In which of the following manners should you act and speak with a patient? Select one: A. Loud and official B. Passive C. Calm and confident D. Authoritative
C. Calm and confident
The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based mostly on: Select one: A. regional trauma guidelines. B. the lead EMT's decision. C. EMS research. D. local protocols.
C. EMS research.
Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? Select one: A. Radio B. Online C. Off-line D. Direct
C. Off-line
During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher's responsibilities include all of the following, except: Select one: A. selecting and notifying the correct EMS response units and personnel. B. coordinating responding EMS units with other public safety personnel. C. discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives. D. screening and assigning a priority to each call based on local protocols.
C. discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives.
General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? Select one: A. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery B. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery C. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery D. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion
A. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities? Select one: A. Attempted suicide B. Accidental knife wound C. Cardiac arrest D. Drug overdose
A. Attempted suicide
When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid: Select one: A. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible. B. the use of more than two EMTs. C. the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher. D. flexing your body at the knees.
A. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.
Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training? Select one: A. Use of a manually triggered ventilator B. Automated external defibrillation C. Oral glucose for hypoglycemia D. Intranasal medication administration
B. Automated external defibrillation
You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death? Select one: A. Absent breath sounds B. Dependent lividity C. Profound cyanosis D. Absence of a pulse
B. Dependent lividity
Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies? Select one: A. Simplex station B. Scanner C. Duplex station D. Mobile repeater
B. Scanner
You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 pounds with fewer than _____rescuers, regardless of individual strength. Select one: A. five B. four C. six D. three
B. four
The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the: Select one: A. code of ethics. B. standard of care. C. scope of practice. D. EMT oath.
B. standard of care.
Which of the following incidents does not require a report to be filed with local authorities? Select one: A. Gunshot wounds B. Animal bites C. Spousal abuse D. Cardiac arrest
D. Cardiac arrest
Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure? Select one: A. Mumps B. Rubella C. Chickenpox D. Syphilis
D. Syphilis
A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than______ hours following the incident. Select one: A. 72 B. 24 C. 12 D. six
A. 72
The most appropriate carrying device to use when moving a patient across rough or uneven terrain is the: Select one: A. basket stretcher. B. wheeled stretcher. C. stair chair. D. scoop stretcher.
A. basket stretcher.
An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she: Select one: A. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient. B. terminated care of a competent adult patient at his or her request. C. refused to care for a violent patient who is armed with a knife. D. remained at the hospital for 30 minutes to give a patient report.
A. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient.
Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT? Select one: A. Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds B. Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases C. Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course D. A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care
B. Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases
Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, except: Select one: A. risk of building collapse. B. carbon dioxide deficiency. C. high ambient temperatures. D. smoke and toxic gases.
B. carbon dioxide deficiency.
The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to: Select one: A. lack of proper immunizations. B. careless handling of sharps. C. noncompliance with standard precautions. D. excessive blood splashing or splattering.
B. careless handling of sharps.
In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates: Select one: A. potential falsification of the patient care form. B. inadequate patient care was administered. C. the EMT was too busy providing patient care to fill out the form. D. thorough documentation was not required.
B. inadequate patient care was administered.
Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: Select one: A. EMS medical director. B. individual EMT. C. EMS training officer. D. State Bureau of EMS.
B. individual EMT.
An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): Select one: A. advanced EMT (AEMT). B. paramedic. C. EMR. D. EMT.
B. paramedic
You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for eight hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is most effectively managed by: Select one: A. allowing each worker to sleep in 15- to 30-minute increments. B. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support. C. conducting a critical incident stress debriefing the next day. D. providing large amounts of caffeine to the rescue workers.
B. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support.
The capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from stress is called: Select one: A. eustress. B. resilience. C. wellness. D. distress.
B. resilience.
The____ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle. Select one: A. ischium B. sacrum С. соссух D. thorax
B. sacrum
Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called: Select one: A. battery. B. negligence. C. assault. D. libel.
C. assault.
As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: Select one: A. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. B. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once. C. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician. D. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call.
C. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician.
When a person is standing upright, the weight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is first reflected onto the: Select one: A. thigh muscles. B. spinal column. C. shoulder girdle. D. pelvic girdle.
C. shoulder girdle.
The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: Select one: A. regional trauma center. B. National Registry of EMTs. C. state office of EMS. D. American Heart Association.
C. state office of EMS.
Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs? Select one: A. Race B. Gender C. Age D. Immunity
D. Immunity
To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should: Select one: A. use a direct carry whenever possible. B. flex at the waist instead of the hips. C. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags. D. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.
D. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.
The first rule of safe lifting is to: Select one: A. spread your legs approximately 20" apart. B. always lift with your palms facing down. C. keep your back in a slightly curved position. D. keep your back in a straight, vertical position.
D. keep your back in a straight, vertical position.
A______receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency. Select one: A. scanner B. decoder C. duplex D. repeater
D. repeater
Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) most affects EMS personnel? Select one: A. Protecting patient privacy B. Preventing insurance fraud C. Ensuring access to insurance D. Controlling insurance costs
A. Protecting patient privacy
The most serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: Select one: A. substandard or inappropriate patient care. B. punitive action and the loss of a job. C. tension among coworkers and supervisors. D. low morale and frequently missed shifts.
A. substandard or inappropriate patient care.
Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collision may include: Select one: A. long-term feelings of being overwhelmed by the nature of the call. B. increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation. C. the inability to remain focused, because the task at hand is demanding. D. short term loss of energy due to the high physical demands of the job.
B. increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation.
The most serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: Select one: A. unnecessarily wasting time. B. injury to you or your patient. C. causing patient anxiety or fear. D. confusion among team members.
B. injury to you or your patient.
The most effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to: Select one: A. wear socks made of heavy-duty cotton. B. wear at least three layers of clothing. C. avoid outer clothing with zippers. D. wear a heavy, thick jacket or coat.
B. wear at least three layers of clothing.
Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure? Select one: • A. An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so. • B. A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first. • C. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug. • D. Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient's spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled.
C. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.
It is essential that you Select one: A. incinerate B. properly store C. decontaminate D. throw out
C. decontaminate
Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: Select one: A. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. B. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. C. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. D. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive.
C. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.
Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: Select one: A. АЕМТ. B. EMR. C. paramedic. D. EMT.
C. paramedic.
Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? Select one: A. A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen B. A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain C. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin D. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device
D. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device
EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of: Select one: A. the Emergency Medical Services Act. B. Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured. C. the Department of Transportation's White Paper: Death and Dying. D. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.
D. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.
Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except: Select one: A. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response. B. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment. C. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips. D. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation.
D. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation.
When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: Select one: A. using coded medical language. B. withholding medical history data. C. refraining from objective statements. D. not disclosing his or her name.
D. not disclosing his or her name
Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: Select one: A. have large, rounded lenses. B. are not secured with a strap. C. do not have shatterproof lenses. D. offer little or no side protection.
D. offer little or no side protection.
Putrefaction is defined as: Select one: A. decomposition of the body's tissues. B. blood settling to the lowest point of the body. C. separation of the torso from the rest of the body. D. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face.
A. decomposition of the body's tissues.
What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle? Select one: A. Request another ambulance. B. Check for other patients. C. Ensure the vehicle is stable. D. Contact medical control.
C. Ensure the vehicle is stable.
Which of the following most accurately describes the correct position of the EMTs who are executing the diamond carry technique? Select one: A. Two at the head, two at the feet, and a fifth EMT balancing the torso B. Two at the head, one at the feet, and one on the left side of the patient's torso C. One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient's torso D. One at the head, two at the feet, and a fourth EMT balancing the torso
C. One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient's torso
Two-way communication that requires the EMT to "push to talk" and "release to listen" describes which mode of communication? Select one: A. Multiplex B. Complex C. Simplex D. Duplex
C. Simplex
When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: Select one: A. coded and scripted. B. spoken in a loud voice. C. brief and easily understood. D. lengthy and complete.
C. brief and easily understood.
The patient care report (PCR) ensures: Select one: A. availability of research data. B. legal protection. C. continuity of care. D. quality assurance.
C. continuity of care.
Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? Select one: • A. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients •B. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting • C. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients • D. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to v the sick and injured
D. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to v the sick and injured
Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy? Select one: A. Teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR B. The construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash C. Protecting a patient's spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height D. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving
D. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving
When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: Select one: A. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel. B. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. C. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water. D. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.
D. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.
After applying medical restraints to a combative patient, you should: Select one: A. position the patient prone in order to further prevent injury to yourself. B. remove them only if the patient verbally commits to calming down. C. inform the patient that the restraints are punishment for their behavior. D. remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so.
D. remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so.
The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: Select one: A. undergo an annual physical examination. B. ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date. C. undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis. D. wash your hands in between patient contacts.
D. wash your hands in between patient contacts.
The extremity lift would not be appropriate to use on a patient: Select one: A. who complains of nausea. B. without a spinal injury. C. with forearm lacerations. D. with a deformed humerus.
D. with a deformed humerus.
A positive TB skin test indicates that: Select one: A. you are actively infected with TB. B. you have never been exposed to TB. C. the TB disease is currently dormant but might later become active. D. you have been exposed to TB.
D. you have been exposed to TB.
You are caring for a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate? Select one: • A. "I notice that you are a retired paramedic, so I'm sure you will understand all of the things that we will be doing to you." • B. "It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow." • C. "This is nothing to worry about. Please try to stay calm. The physician at the hospital will probably not find any signs of a heart problem." • D. "We need to take you to the ED stat. We will give you ASA and NTG en route and then reassess your vitals. Do you have any questions?"
B. "It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow."
In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: Select one: A. has a poor relationship with his or her parents. B. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself. C. possesses a valid driver's license. D. is mentally competent and able to refuse.
B. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.
You could be sued for____ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. Select one: A. negligence B. slander C. libel D. assault
B. slander
When the shoulder girdle is aligned over the pelvis during lifting: Select one: A. the hands can be held further apart from the body. B. the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae. C. the risk of back injuries is significantly increased. D. the muscles of the back experience increased strain
B. the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae.
Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? Select one: A. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. B. The NREMT regulates EMS training standards. C. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. D. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs.
C. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.
Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and a receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a: Select one: A. repeater. B. multiplex. C. base station. D. mobile radio.
C. base station.
All information recorded on the PCR must be: Select one: A. reflective of your opinion. B. a matter of public record. C. considered confidential. D. typewritten or printed.
C. considered confidential.
An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: Select one: A. reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be. B. demand that the patient remain quiet and cooperative during transport. C. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. D. ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint.
C. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should: Select one: A. recall that most visually impaired patients are blind. B. possess an in-depth knowledge of sign language. C. determine the degree of the patient's impairment. D. expect the patient to have difficulty understanding.
C. determine the degree of the patient's impairment.
The EMT certification exam is designed to: Select one: A. rank EMTs based on performance on the certification exam. B. provide EMTs with the best possible wage once certification is achieved. C. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills. D. identify those EMTs who are prepared for advanced levels of training.
C. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills.
The continuous quality improvement (CQl) process is designed to: Select one: A. ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office. B. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient. C. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed. D. administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols.
C. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.
When using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should: Select one: A. bend your back laterally to maximize your amount of pulling power. B. avoid situations involving strenuous effort lasting more than five minutes. C. kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over. D. extend your elbows as far beyond your anterior torso as possible.
C. kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over.
The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: Select one: A. EMS supervisor. B. state EMS office. C. medical director. D. local health district.
C. medical director.
Which of the following most accurately defines negligence? Select one: A. Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs B. Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will C. Transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training D. Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury
D. Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury
Which is the most appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher? Select one: A. Log roll B. Direct carry C. Extremity carry D. Draw sheet method
D. Draw sheet method
Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated? Select one: A. Expressed B. Actual C. Informed D. Implied
D. Implied
Which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move? Select one: A. Stable patient who is blocking access to a critically injured patient B. Conscious patient with abrasions and a possibly fractured humerus C. Imminent risk of a fire or explosion in or near the patient's vehicle D. Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock
D. Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock
Which of the following statements regarding communication with a child is correct? Select one: A. The EMT should give the child minimal information to avoid scaring him or her. B. Unlike adults, children cannot see through lies or deceptions. C. Most children are intrigued by strangers wearing uniforms. D. Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety.
D. Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety.
Which of the following statements regarding Good Samaritan laws is correct? Select one: A. Such laws provide the EMT with absolute immunity from a lawsuit. B. Such laws guarantee that the EMT will not be held liable if he or she is sued. C. Such laws do not protect EMTs who are off duty. D. Such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence.
D. Such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence.
Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct? Select one: A. Most of the patient's weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher. B. The EMT at the patient's head will bear the least amount of weight. C. A semi-sitting patient's weight is equally distributed on both ends. D. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso.
D. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso
A patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be: Select one: A. authorized by a judge. B. witnessed by a notary. C. reported to the police. D. an informed refusal.
D. an informed refusal.
For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must: Select one: A. be updated a minimum of every 6 months. B. be signed by the local justice of the peace. C. be dated within the previous 24 months. D. clearly state the patient's medical problem.
D. clearly state the patient's medical problem.
The most important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is: Select one: A. evacuating the bystanders. B. calling the hazardous materials team. C. identifying the hazardous material. D. ensuring your personal safety.
D. ensuring your personal safety.
The direct carry is used to transfer a patient: Select one: A. with multiple long bone injuries. B. who cannot be placed on a backboard. C. with a possible cervical spine injury. D. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.
D. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.
Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: Select one: A. are older than 35 years of age. B. received a hepatitis B vaccination. C. have a weak immune system. D. have been infected with hepatitis A in the past.
D. have been infected with hepatitis A in the past.
In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: Select one: A. weight capacity of up to 650 pounds. B. a collapsible undercarriage. C. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher. D. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.
D. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.
Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: Select one: A. using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands. B. positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient. C. withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital. D. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible.
D. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible.
If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: Select one: A. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic. B. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim. C. determine which device the American Heart Association recommends. D. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives.
D. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives.
Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment? Select one: A. A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain B. A confused young male who says he is the president C. A man who is staggering and states that he had three beers D. A diabetic woman who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date
A. A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain
Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment? Select one: A. A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT. B. A physician assumes patient care from an EMT. C. An AEMT transfers patient care to a paramedic. D. An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse.
A. A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.
Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? Select one: A. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment. B. All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport. C. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member. D. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment.
A. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment.
Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is not correct? Select one: A. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column. B. Both sides of the patient must be accessible for a scoop stretcher to be used. C. The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits X-rays while the patient is on it. D. You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her.
A. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal v column.
Vectorborne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: Select one: A. animals or insects. B. smoke or dust. C. inanimate objects. D. direct contact.
A. animals or insects.
As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of: Select one: A. another EMT. B. a paramedic supervisor. C. the general public. D. the medical director.
A. another EMT.
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: A. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications. B. insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids. C. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. D. interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly.
A. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.
Ethnocentrism is defined as: Select one: A. considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture. B. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you believe that your own values are more acceptable. C. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently. D. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question
A. considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.
Two EMTs witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient's emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The EMTs ignored the coworker's treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMTs is considered: Select one: • A. legal but unethical. B. illegal but ethical. • C. illegal and unethical. • D. legal and ethical.
A. legal but unethical.
Continuing education in EMS serves to: Select one: A. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills. B. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system. C. confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care. D. enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training.
A. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills.
Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: Select one: A. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else. B. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy. C. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts. D. touches another person without his or her consent.
A. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.
