WGU C247 - Interconnecting Network Devices

अब Quizwiz के साथ अपने होमवर्क और परीक्षाओं को एस करें!

Virtual-access interface

A virtual interface inside a Cisco router, created by IOS's PPPoE function to act as the Layer 2 interface, with its Layer 2 PPP parameters being built from the configuration listed on an associated dialer interface.

Dialer interface

A virtual interface inside a Cisco router, used for a variety of purposes, including for PPPoE to act as the Layer 3 interface, and to hold the PPP configuration used as a template by IOS to create an associated virtual-access interface.

EIGRP for IPv4 classic mode

The traditional method to configure EIGRP for IPv4, which enables EIGRP on interfaces indirectly using the network command in EIGRP router configuration mode.

Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP)

The transport layer protocol used by many voice and video applications, including between Cisco IP Telephone and other Cisco Unified Communications products.

Another engineer has configured HSRP on two routers that connect to the same LAN. You connect to the console of one of the routers, and see this log message: *Mar 12 17:18:19.123: %IP-4-DUPADDR: Duplicate address 10.2.2.2 on GigabitEthernet0/0, sourced by 0000.0c9f.f002

The two HSRP routers are configured with different HSRP group numbers. The two HSRP routers are configured with different HSRP version numbers.

Quality of Experience (QoE)

The users' perception of the quality of their experience in using applications in the network.

Jitter

The variation in delay experienced by successive packets in a single application flow.

OSPF version 3

The version of the OSPF routing protocol that originally supported only IPv6, and not IPv4, but now supports IPv4 through the use of address family configuration.

OSPF version 2

The version of the OSPF routing protocol that supports IPv4, and not IPv6, and has been commonly used for over 20 years.

Refer to the diagram; what is likely the root problem when these messages are displayed? R1# *May 4 00:20:36.075: %HSRP-5-STATECHANGE: FastEthernet0/0 Grp 1 state Standby -> Active R1# *May 4 00:20:39.199: %IP-4-DUPADDR: Duplicate address 172.16.1.5 on FastEthernet0/0, sourced by 0000.0c9f.f001 R1# R2# *May 4 00:20:39.131: %HSRP-5-STATECHANGE: FastEthernet0/0 Grp 1 state Standby -> Active R2# *May 4 00:20:39.339: %IP-4-DUPADDR: Duplicate address 172.16.1.5 on FastEthernet0/0, sourced by 0000.0c07.ac01 R2#

There is an HSRP version mismatch.

Framing

The conventions for how Layer 2 interprets the bits sent according to OSI Layer 1. For example, after an electrical signal has been received and converted to binary, framing identifies the information fields inside the data.

Refer to the exhibit; which options are true? (Choose two answers.) R2#show ipv6 ospf interface GigabitEthernet0/1 is up, line protocol is up Link Local Address FE80::F816:3EFF:FEDC:A9EF, Interface ID 3 Area 0, Process ID 10, Instance ID 0, Router ID 192.168.1.1 Network Type BROADCAST, Cost: 10 Transmit Delay is 1 sec, State BDR, Priority 1 Designated Router (ID) 192.168.100.1, local address FE80::F816:3EFF:FE1F:FFE1 Backup Designated router (ID) 192.168.1.1, local address FE80::F816:3EFF:FEDC:A9EF Timer intervals configured, Hello 10, Dead 40, Wait 40, Retransmit 5 Hello due in 00:00:06 Graceful restart helper support enabled Index 1/1/1, flood queue length 0 Next 0x0(0)/0x0(0)/0x0(0) Last flood scan length is 1, maximum is 4 Last flood scan time is 1 msec, maximum is 1 msec Neighbor Count is 2, Adjacent neighbor count is 2 Adjacent with neighbor 172.16.1.1 Adjacent with neighbor 192.168.100.1 (Designated Router) Suppress hello for 0 neighbor(s) R2#

This router is the BDR. This router's RID is 192.168.1.1.

Shared port

With 802.1w RSTP, a port type that is determined by the fact that the port uses half duplex, which could then imply a shared LAN as created by a LAN hub.

Partial update

With IP routing protocols, the general concept that a routing protocol update lists a subset of all known routes.

Full update

With IP routing protocols, the general concept that a routing protocol update lists all known routes.

Application signature

With Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR), the definition of a combination of matchable fields that Cisco has identified as being characteristic of a specific application, so that NBAR can be configured by the customer to match an application, while IOS then defines the particulars of that matching.

Hello Interval

With OSPF and EIGRP, an interface timer that dictates how often the router should send Hello messages.

Congestion window

With TCP, a calculation each TCP receiver does that limits the window it grants to the receiver by shrinking the window in response to the loss of TCP segments.

Session key

With encryption, a secret value that is known to both parties in a communication, used for a period of time, which the endpoints use when encrypting and decrypting data.

Periodic update

With routing protocols, the concept that the routing protocol advertises routes in a routing update on a regular periodic basis. This is typical of distance vector routing protocols.

IP SLA responder

With the Cisco IP Service Level Agreement (SLA) feature in routers, a process that runs in a router (after being configured on that router) and waits to receive and respond to certain types of IP SLA probe messages.

IP SLA source

With the Cisco IP Service Level Agreement (SLA) feature in routers, the router that is configured to originate IP SLA probe messages of some kind.

Routers R1 and R2 connect to the same Ethernet VLAN using their GigabitEthernet1/0 interfaces, respectively. No problems exist in the LAN.

Yes, R1 can ping the R2 loopback because the static route is configured correctly.

Routers R1 and R2 connect to the same Ethernet VLAN with their GigabitEthernet 1/0 interfaces, respectively. There are no LAN problems between the two routers. Next, examine the configuration show in the exhibit. Will R1 and R2 form an EIGRP adjacency, and why or why not? R1#show running-config Building configuration... Current configuration : 1099 bytes ! ! Last configuration change at 14:40:46 UTC Mon Sep 30 2013 ! version 15.0 service timestamps debug datetime msec service timestamps log datetime msec no service password-encryption ! hostname R1 ! boot-start-marker boot-end-marker ! ! no aaa new-model ! ! ! ip cef ! ! ! ! no ip domain lookup ip domain name lab.local ipv6 unicast-routing ipv6 cef ! multilink bundle-name authenticated ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! redundancy ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! interface FastEthernet0/0 no ip address shutdown duplex half ! ! interface GigabitEthernet1/0 no ip address ipv6 address 2001:12:12::1/64 ipv6 enable ipv6 eigrp 100 ! ! ip forward-protocol nd no ip http server no ip http secure-server ! ! ! ipv6 router eigrp 100 eigrp router-id 1.1.1.1 ! ! ! ! ! ! ! control-plane ! ! line con 0 exec-timeout 0 0 privilege level 15 logging synchronous stopbits 1 line aux 0 exec-timeout 0 0 privilege level 15 logging synchronous stopbits 1 line vty 0 4 login ! end !!!!!!!!!!!!!!! Next, on R2 R2#show running-config Building configuration... Current configuration : 1068 bytes ! ! Last configuration change at 14:41:53 UTC Mon Sep 30 2013 ! upgrade fpd auto version 15.0 service timestamps debug datetime msec service timestamps log datetime msec no service password-encryption ! hostname R2 ! boot-start-marker boot-end-marker ! ! no aaa new-model ! ! ! ip source-route ip cef ! ! ! ! no ip domain lookup ip domain name lab.local ipv6 unicast-routing ipv6 cef ! multilink bundle-name authenticated ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! redundancy ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! interface FastEthernet0/0 no ip address shutdown duplex half ! ! interface GigabitEthernet1/0 no ip address ipv6 enable ipv6 eigrp 100 ! ! ip forward-protocol nd no ip http server no ip http secure-server ! ! ! ipv6 router eigrp 100 eigrp router-id 2.2.2.2 ! ! ! ! ! ! ! control-plane ! ! line con 0 exec-timeout 0 0 privilege level 15 logging synchronous stopbits 1 line aux 0 exec-timeout 0 0 privilege level 15 logging synchronous stopbits 1 line vty 0 4 login ! end

Yes, an adjacency will form because all required configuration is present.

Which statement would correctly match traffic coming from the 192.168.31.0/24 network to the 10.10.10.1 host?

access-list 100 permit ip 192.168.31.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.10.10.1

The term _________ refers to the process of matching the fields in a message to make a choice to take some QoS action.

classification

Application Centric Infrastructure (ACI)

Cisco's data center SDN solution, the concepts of defining policies that the APIC controller then pushes to the switches in the network using the OpFlex protocol, with the partially distributed control plane in each switch building the forwarding table entries to support the policies learned from the controller. It also supports a GUI, a CLI, and APIs.

Cisco Intercloud Fabric

Cisco software that provides a variety of functions to help companies connect to different cloud services and to aid the management of and migration between different public cloud services.

DevNet

Cisco's community and resource site for software developers, open to all, with many great learning resources; https://developer.cisco.com.

ACI (See Application Centric Infrastructure)

Broadcast address

Generally, any address that represents all devices, and can be used to send one message to all devices. In Ethernet, the MAC address of all binary 1s, or FFFF.FFFF.FFFF in hex.

Which Cisco IOS IP SLA probe can be used to monitor the state and performance of a remote device without requiring any additional configuration on the remote device?

ICMP Echo probe

The user at Host A has tried to ping R1's G1/0 interface. Both the global address of 2001:db8:6783:12::1 and the link-local address of fe80::1 were tried, both with no success. Which of the following could not cause this failure?

ICMP is disabled on a router interface if an ACL to permit a ping request is not configured.

Refer to the exhibit; what is the likely problem that would cause these messages? R2#show ipv6 ospf neighbor OSPFv3 Router with ID (192.168.1.1) (Process ID 10) Neighbor ID Pri State Dead Time Interface ID Interface 192.168.100.1 1 EXSTART/DR 00:00:37 3 GigabitEthernet0/1 R2#show ipv6 ospf neighbor OSPFv3 Router with ID (192.168.1.1) (Process ID 10) Neighbor ID Pri State Dead Time Interface ID Interface 192.168.100.1 1 DOWN/DROTHER - 3 GigabitEthernet0/1 R2# *May 5 03:51:08.259: %OSPFv3-5-ADJCHG: Process 10, IPv6, Nbr 192.168.100.1 on GigabitEthernet0/1 from EXSTART to DOWN, Neighbor Down: Too many retransmissions R2# *May 5 03:51:17.187: %OSPF-5-ADJCHG: Process 10, Nbr 172.16.1.193 on GigabitEthernet0/1 from EXSTART to DOWN, Neighbor Down: Too many retransmissions *May 5 03:51:18.169: %OSPF-5-ADJCHG: Process 10, Nbr 172.16.1.2 on GigabitEthernet0/1 from EXSTART to DOWN, Neighbor Down: Too many retransmissions R2#

MTU mismatch

Which of the following are valid types of STP? (Choose four answers.)

PVST+ 802.1w 802.1D Rapid PVST+

Which cloud service model is primarily targeted toward the software development community and provides the ability to not only customize the hardware being virtualized but also offer different development tools and utilities that are commonly used for a specific environment?

PaaS

Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be used for software development?

PaaS

ping

Packet Internet groper. An Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo message and its reply; ping often is used in IP networks to test the reachability of a network device.

PAgP

Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) is a messaging protocol defined by Cisco which enables two neighboring devices to realize that they have multiple parallel links connecting to each other, and then to decide which links can be combined into an EtherChannel.

What STP feature causes an interface to be placed in the forwarding state as soon as the interface is physically active?

PortFast The PortFast feature allows STP to move a port from blocking to forwarding, without going through the interim listening and learning states. STP allows this exception when the link is known to have no switch on the other end of the link, removing the risk of a switching loop. BPDU Guard is a common feature to use at the same time as PortFast, because it watches for incoming bridge protocol data units (BPDU), which should not happen on an access port, and prevents the loops from a rogue switch by disabling the port.

Anti-replay

Preventing a man in the middle from copying and later replying the packets sent by a legitimate user, for the purpose of appearing to be a legitimate user.

Confidentiality (privacy)

Preventing anyone in the middle of the Internet (a.k.a. man in the middle) from being able to read the data.

Which of the following are functions provided by Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose three answers.)

Prevents MAC table instability Prevents broadcast storms Prevents multiple copies of a single frame from being forwarded

After a recent change, routing protocols stopped working on the network, and then the show commands were issued as shown here in the exhibit. Based on the output provided, what changes should be made to correct the problem? Output from Connect to Router1. R1#show interface serial 0/0/1 Serial0/0/1 is up, line protocol is up Hardware is GT96K Serial Internet address is 13.0.0.1/24 MTU 1500 bytes, BW 1544 Kbit/sec, DLY 20000 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation PPP, LCP Open Open: IPCP, CDPCP, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) CRC checking enabled Last input 00:00:18, output 00:00:08, output hang never Last clearing of "show interface" counters 00:34:36 Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0 Queueing strategy: weighted fair Output queue: 0/1000/64/0 (size/max total/threshold/drops) Conversations 0/1/256 (active/max active/max total) Reserved Conversations 0/0 (allocated/max allocated) Available Bandwidth 1158 kilobits/sec 5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 2515 packets input, 57547 bytes, 0 no buffer Received 0 broadcasts, 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 0 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored, 0 abort 2522 packets output, 58721 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 0 collisions, 329 interface resets 2 unknown protocol drops 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out 286 carrier transitions DCD=up DSR=up DTR=up RTS=up CTS=up R1#show ip route Codes: C - connected, S - static, R - RIP, M - mobile, B - BGP D - EIGRP, EX - EIGRP external, O - OSPF, IA - OSPF inter area N1 - OSPF NSSA external type 1, N2 - OSPF NSSA external type 2 E1 - OSPF external type 1, E2 - OSPF external type 2 i - IS-IS, su - IS-IS summary, L1 - IS-IS level-1, L2 - IS-IS level-2 ia - IS-IS inter area, * - candidate default, U - per-user static route o - ODR, P - periodic downloaded static route Gateway of last resort is not set 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 10.0.0.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0 13.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 13.0.0.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1 31.0.0.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 31.0.0.3 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1 Output from R3 R3#show interface serial 0/0/1 Serial0/0/1 is up, line protocol is up Hardware is GT96K Serial Internet address is 31.0.0.3/24 MTU 1500 bytes, BW 1544 Kbit/sec, DLY 20000 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation PPP, LCP Open Open: IPCP, CDPCP, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) CRC checking enabled Last input 00:00:16, output 00:00:10, output hang never Last clearing of "show interface" counters 00:34:16 Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0 Queueing strategy: weighted fair Output queue: 0/1000/64/0 (size/max total/threshold/drops) Conversations 0/1/256 (active/max active/max total) Reserved Conversations 0/0 (allocated/max allocated) Available Bandwidth 1158 kilobits/sec 5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 2510 packets input, 58546 bytes, 0 no buffer Received 0 broadcasts, 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 0 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored, 0 abort 2514 packets output, 57515 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 0 collisions, 329 interface resets 0 unknown protocol drops 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out 276 carrier transitions DCD=up DSR=up DTR=up RTS=up CTS=up R3#show ip route Codes: C - connected, S - static, R - RIP, M - mobile, B - BGP D - EIGRP, EX - EIGRP external, O - OSPF, IA - OSPF inter area N1 - OSPF NSSA external type 1, N2 - OSPF NSSA external type 2 E1 - OSPF external type 1, E2 - OSPF external type 2 i - IS-IS, su - IS-IS summary, L1 - IS-IS level-1, L2 - IS-IS level-2 ia - IS-IS inter area, * - candidate default, U - per-user static route o - ODR, P - periodic downloaded static route Gateway of last resort is not set 172.16.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 172.16.0.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1 13.0.0.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 13.0.0.1 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1 31.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 31.0.0.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1

Primary IP address on R3

Which of the following behaviors is applied to a low latency queue in a Cisco router or switch?

Priority scheduling

What are the benefits of using IPsec as an addition to your packets that are being sent across a network? (Choose three answers.)

Privacy Antireplay Authentication

Which cloud service is specific to one company that owns both the tools/infrastructure that creates the cloud and the people that use the services?

Private cloud

An enterprise connects 20 sites into an MPLS VPN WAN. The enterprise uses OSPF for IPv4 routes at all sites. Consider the OSPF area design options, and the PE-CE links. Which of the following answers is most accurate about OSPF areas and the PE-CE links?

The PE-CE link may or may not be chosen to be in backbone area 0.

What is the database of variables on a network device that can be polled or manipulated in Simple Network Management Protocol operations?

The SNMP MIB

Hello BPDU

The STP and RSTP message used for the majority of STP communications, listing the root's bridge ID, the sending device's bridge ID, and the sending device's cost with which to reach the root.

Root cost

The STP cost from a nonroot switch to reach the root switch, as the sum of all STP costs for all ports out which a frame would exit to reach the root.

Encoding

The conventions for how a device varies the electrical or optical signals sent over a cable to imply a particular binary code. For instance, a modem might encode a binary 1 or 0 by using one frequency to mean 1 and another to mean 0.

Refer to the diagram; which commands would correctly configure OSPF on R1's Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 interfaces using a process ID of 10 using only interface configuration mode commands? (Choose two answers.)

ip ospf 10 area 0 ip ospf 10 area 1

Question 4 : Which of the following IPv6 ACL entries would match and permit IPv6 packets coming from the Internet destined for the 2001:0db8:1111:0001:0000:0000:0000:0000 prefix with a 64-bit prefix length?

permit ipv6 any 2001:db8:1111:1::/64

Which Cisco IOS command is used to control the username/password combination that will be sent to a remote device for PAP authentication?

ppp pap sent-username

What command enables you to verify whether a DCE or DTE serial cable is attached to the serial interface of the router?

show controllers

Which of the following commands list a nonroot switch's root cost? (Choose two answers.)

show spanning-tree root show spanning-tree

Which option(s) can be used to find the MAC address of the current root switch? (Choose two answers.)

show spanning-tree root show spanning-tree

Which Cisco IOS command is used to display the status of the default modes of the PortFast and BPDU Guard features?

show spanning-tree summary

A junior-level engineer has been given the task of configuring an ACL on a router; she was told that the port that should be blocked is UDP 69. Which access-list command keyword could be used in place of this port number when configured?

tftp

Refer to the diagram; which MetroE service type is shown?

E-Tree

Which Cisco offering was specifically designed to be used in the cloud as a virtual network function (VNF)?

CSR

Question 3 : In the show ip route command, what code designation implies that a route was learned with EIGRP?

What is the name of the new RSTP port state that replaces the STP disabled and blocking states?

Discarding

ONF (Open Networking Foundation)

A consortium of SDN users and vendors who work together to foster the adoption of open SDN in the marketplace.

Refer to the exhibit; which option would correctly configure a router into a ROAS configuration for four different VLANS (100, 200, 300, and 400). leaving the physical interface to handle native VLAN traffic? 1. ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 no shutdown ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.100 encapsulation dot1q 100 ip address 20.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.200 encapsulation dot1q 200 ip address 30.30.30.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.300 encapsulation dot1q 300 ip address 40.40.40.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.400 encapsulation dot1q 400 ip address 50.50.50.1 255.255.255.0 ! 2. ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 no shutdown ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.100 encapsulation vlan 100 ip address 20.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.200 encapsulation vlan 200 ip address 30.30.30.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.300 encapsulation vlan 300 ip address 40.40.40.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.400 encapsulation vlan 400 ip address 50.50.50.1 255.255.255.0 ! 3. ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 encapsulation dot1q 1 native ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 no shutdown ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.100 encapsulation dot1q 100 ip address 20.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.200 encapsulation dot1q 200 ip address 30.30.30.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.300 encapsulation dot1q 300 ip address 40.40.40.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.400 encapsulation dot1q 400 ip address 50.50.50.1 255.255.255.0 ! 4. ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 encapsulation dot1q 1 native ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 no shutdown ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.100 encapsulation vlan 100 ip address 20.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.200 encapsulation vlan 200 ip address 30.30.30.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.300 encapsulation vlan 300 ip address 40.40.40.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.400 encapsulation vlan 400 ip address 50.50.50.1 255.255.255.0 !

Review the topology diagram. HSRP has been configured on the routers to support VLAN 10, 20, and 30 with fault-tolerant default gateways. The virtual IP address the devices in VLAN 10 use is 10.0.0.50. VLAN 10 contains more than ten hosts. How many of the routers will be actively forwarding traffic for the VLAN 10 users?

Which of the following port states are used by 802.1w RSTP but not by 802.1D STP?

Discarding

Which MEF-defined Metro Ethernet service acts similarly to a local LAN?

E-LAN

Routers R1 and R2, in two different ASNs, connect directly to each other over a WAN link, with the two routers in the same subnet. If using the IP addresses on that common link to define the eBGP neighbors, how many different BGP neighbor commands would be required on Router R1 to make the eBGP peer work to Router R2?

1 For this scenario, each router would need a neighbor ip-address remote-as asn BGP subcommand, but no other neighbor commands. For example, if using ASNs 1 and 2, and link IP addresses 1.1.1.1 and 1.1.1.2, respectively, the configuration would be, on R1: router bgp 1 neighbor 1.1.1.2 remote-as 2 And on R2: router bgp 2 neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 1

You are the administrator of the network shown in the figure. The exhibit shows a configuration for router B that a coworker created using a word processor. (The configuration has not yet been added to router B.) Your colleague claims that once the configuration is added to router B, routers A and B can exchange routes. Which of the following answers best describes which lines of the suggested configuration need to be changed for the configuration to work, or whether the configuration does not actually need changes?

1) router eigrp 500 2) network 192.168.50.0 3) network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.192 area 0 Change line 3.

In the example shown in the exhibit, OSPF is configured correctly, but no OSPF-related interface subcommands were used. What is the bandwidth of interface serial 1? HICKORY#show ip ospf interface Serial1 is up, line protocol is up Internet Address 192.168.2.201/27, Area 0 Process ID 1, Router ID 192.168.22.1, Network Type NON_BROADCAST, Cost: 64 Transmit Delay is 1 sec, State BDR, Priority 1 Designated Router (ID) 10.255.255.1, Interface address 192.168.2.200 Backup Designated router (ID) 192.168.22.1, Interface address 192.168.2.201 Timer intervals configured, Hello 30, Dead 120, Wait 120, Retransmit 5 Hello due in 00:00:09 Neighbor Count is 1, Adjacent neighbor count is 1 Adjacent with neighbor 10.255.255.1 (Designated Router) Suppress hello for 0 neighbor(s)

1.5 Mbps (T1)

Which MEF-defined Metro Ethernet service allows two CPE devices to exchange frames similarly to leased lines?

E-Line

Which options would be matched by the statement access-list 1 permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255?

172.16.0.100

IP Control Protocol (IPCP)

A control protocol defined as part of PPP for the purpose of initializing and controlling the sending of IPv4 packets over a PPP link.

Link Control Protocol

A control protocol defined as part of PPP for the purpose of initializing and maintaining a PPP link.

Discarding state

An RSTP interface state in which no received frames are processed and the switch forwards no frames out the interface, with the exception of RSTP messages.

Examine the exhibit. According to the command output, select the routing table entries you would expect to see if a show ip route command were issued. (Choose two answers.) R1#show ip eigrp topology IP-EIGRP Topology Table for AS(1)/ID(10.1.6.1) ! Lines omitted for brevity P 10.1.5.0/24, 2 successors, FD is 2681856 via 10.1.4.2 (2681856/2169856), Serial0/0 via 10.1.8.1 (2973451/2579243), Serial0/2 via 10.1.6.3 (2681856/2169856), Serial0/1

10.1.5.0 [90/2681856] via 10.1.6.3 10.1.5.0 [90/2681856] via 10.1.4.2

Examine the following excerpt from a router's CLI: P 10.1.1.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 2172416 via 10.1.6.3 (2172416/28160), Serial0/1 via 10.1.4.2 (2684416/2284156), Serial0/0 via 10.1.5.4 (2684416/2165432), Serial1/0 Which of the following identifies a next-hop IP address on a feasible successor route?

10.1.5.4

Which of the following wildcard masks is most useful for matching all IP packets in subnet 10.1.128.0, mask 255.255.255.0?

0.0.0.255

Which of the following wildcard masks is most useful for matching all IP packets in subnet 10.1.128.0, mask 255.255.240.0?

0.0.15.255

Which option would be the correct wildcard mask to match a subnet with the 255.255.248.0 subnet mask?

0.0.7.255

Which option would be the correct subnet specified with the ACL access-list 1 permit 192.30.32.0 0.0.31.255?

192.30.32.0 255.255.224.0

Refer to the exhibit; which addresses would be allowed? (Choose two answers.) 1.) If Source IP address = 172.16.1.0/24 then Discard 2.) If Source IP address = 10.10.10.0/24 then Allow 3.) If Source IP address = 172.16.1.1 then Allow 4.) If Source IP address = 10.10.10.100 then Discard 5.) If Source IP address = Any then Allow

10.10.10.100 192.168.1.145

How many active routers can be forwarding at the same time with HSRP?

How many of the switches in a stacked FlexStack configuration run STP?

In the absence of a direct cost being configured for an OSPF interface, and using the default reference OSPF bandwidth, what is the OSPF cost for a Fast Ethernet interface operating at 100 Mbps?

Which of the following answers list a valid number that can be used with standard numbered IP ACLs? (Choose two answers.)

1987 87

Given the output from a working OSPF router, as seen in the exhibit, how many neighboring routers exist? HICKORY#show ip ospf neighbor Neighbor ID Pri State Dead Time Address Interface 192.168.22.1 1 FULL/BDR 00:00:35 192.168.22.1 Fast0/0 192.168.22.1 1 FULL/ - 00:00:35 192.168.2.101 Serial1/0 10.255.255.1 10 FULL/DR 00:01:37 192.168.2.200 Serial1/1

Refer to the exhibit; which networks would be advertised by R1? (Choose two answers.) R1 ... ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 192.168.1.17 255.255.255.128 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 192.168.200.76 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/2 ip address 10.100.150.87 255.255.255.248 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/3 ip address 172.30.0.0 255.255.0.0 ! router bgp 10 neighbor 192.168.1.32 remote-as 20 network 192.168.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 network 192.168.200.0 mask 255.255.254.0 network 10.100.150.80 mask 255.255.255.248 network 172.30.0.0 ...

10.100.150.80/29 172.30.0.0/16

Question 3 : Refer to the diagram; how many subnets would need to be configured to address the devices shown?

Hello

(Multiple definitions) 1) A protocol used by OSPF routers to discover, establish, and maintain neighbor relationships. 2) A protocol used by EIGRP routers to discover, establish, and maintain neighbor relationships. 3) In STP, refers to the name of the periodic message sourced by the root bridge in a spanning tree.

Segment

(Multiple definitions) 1) In TCP, a term used to describe a TCP header and its encapsulated data (also called an L4PDU). 2) Also in TCP, the set of bytes formed when TCP breaks a large chunk of data given to it by the application layer into smaller pieces that fit into TCP segments. 3) In Ethernet, either a single Ethernet cable or a single collision domain (no matter how many cables are used).

Which of the following bridge IDs wins election as root, assuming that the switches with these bridge IDs are in the same network?

4097:0200.1111.1111 The smallest numeric bridge ID wins the election.

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; which configuration commands would be used to monitor all received traffic from H3 and send it to S1? 1. ! monitor session 1 source interface Fa0/10 tx monitor session 1 destination interface Fa0/11 ! 2. ! monitor session 1 source Fa0/10 tx monitor session 1 destination Fa0/11 ! 3. ! monitor 1 source interface Fa0/10 monitor 1 destination interface Fa0/11 tx ! 4. ! monitor 1 source Fa0/10 monitor 1 destination Fa0/11 tx !

Refer to the diagram and exhibits; an engineer is tasked with designing and configuring an ACL based on the following requirements. Which of the configurations listed in the exhibit would correctly configure R1 inbound? Deny HTTP traffic from hosts A and B to LAN B Deny FTP traffic from hosts C and D to LAN B Permit SMTP traffic from hosts B and C to LAN B Deny all other SMTP traffic Permit Telnet traffic from hosts A and D to host E Deny all other Telnet traffic to host E Permit all other traffic 1. access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.150 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq www access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.151 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq www access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.152 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq ftp access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.153 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq ftp access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.151 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq smtp access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.152 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq smtp access-list 101 deny tcp any any eq smtp access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.150 host 172.16.30.200 eq telnet access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.153 host 172.16.30.200 eq telnet access-list 101 deny tcp any host 172.16.30.200 eq telnet access-list 101 permit ip any any 2. access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 host 172.16.30.150 eq www access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 host 172.16.30.151 eq www access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 host 172.16.30.152 eq ftp access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 host 172.16.30.153 eq ftp access-list 101 permit tcp 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 host 172.16.30.151 eq smtp access-list 101 permit tcp 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 host 172.16.30.152 eq smtp access-list 101 deny tcp any any eq smtp access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.200 host 172.16.30.150 eq telnet access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.200 host 172.16.30.153 eq telnet access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.200 any eq telnet access-list 101 permit ip any any 3. access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq www host 172.16.30.150 access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq www host 172.16.30.151 access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq ftp host 172.16.30.152 access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq ftp host 172.16.30.153 access-list 101 permit tcp 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq smtp host 172.16.30.151 access-list 101 permit tcp 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq smtp host 172.16.30.152 access-list 101 deny tcp any eq smtp any access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.200 eq telnet host 172.16.30.150 access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.200 eq telnet host 172.16.30.153 access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.200 eq telnet any access-list 101 permit ip any any 4. access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.150 eq www 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.151 eq www 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.152 eq ftp 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.153 eq ftp 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.151 eq smtp 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.152 eq smtp 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 access-list 101 deny tcp any eq smtp any access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.150 eq telnet host 172.16.30.200 access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.153 eq telnet host 172.16.30.200 access-list 101 deny tcp any eq telnet host 172.16.30.200 access-list 101 permit ip any any

R5#show ip route eigrp 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 10 subnets D 10.12.0.0 [90/3584] via 10.45.0.4, 00:00:12, GigabitEthernet1/0 D 10.2.0.0 [90/28416] via 10.45.0.4, 00:00:12, GigabitEthernet1/0 D 10.3.0.0 [90/29184] via 10.45.0.4, 00:00:12, GigabitEthernet1/0 D 10.1.0.0 [90/29184] via 10.45.0.4, 00:00:12, GigabitEthernet1/0 D 10.24.0.0 [90/2170112] via 10.45.0.4, 00:00:12, GigabitEthernet1/0 D 10.23.0.0 [90/3328] via 10.45.0.4, 00:00:12, GigabitEthernet1/0 D 10.34.0.0 [90/3072] via 10.45.0.4, 00:00:12, GigabitEthernet1/0 R5#show ip eigrp topology IP-EIGRP Topology Table for AS(1)/ID(10.45.0.5) Codes: P - Passive, A - Active, U - Update, Q - Query, R - Reply, r - reply Status, s - sia Status P 10.15.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 28160 via Connected, FastEthernet2/0 P 10.12.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 3584 via 10.45.0.4 (3584/3328), GigabitEthernet1/0 via 10.15.0.1 (28416/2816), FastEthernet2/0 P 10.2.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 28416 via 10.45.0.4 (28416/28160), GigabitEthernet1/0 P 10.3.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 29184 via 10.45.0.4 (29184/28928), GigabitEthernet1/0 via 10.15.0.1 (30720/28160), FastEthernet2/0 P 10.1.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 29184 via 10.45.0.4 (29184/28928), GigabitEthernet1/0 via 10.15.0.1 (30720/28160), FastEthernet2/0 P 10.4.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 28160 via Connected, FastEthernet2/1 P 10.24.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 2170112 via 10.45.0.4 (2170112/2169856), GigabitEthernet1/0 P 10.23.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 3328 via 10.45.0.4 (3328/3072), GigabitEthernet1/0 via 10.15.0.1 (28672/3072), FastEthernet2/0 P 10.45.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 2816 via Connected, GigabitEthernet1/0 P 10.34.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 3072 via 10.45.0.4 (3072/2816), GigabitEthernet1/0 R5# Which of the following is true about the route to subnet 10.1.0.0/24?

10.15.0.1 is a feasible successor.

You are the administrator of the network shown in the figure. The WAN links and EIGRP have just been fixed and seem to be running fine. You go to location B and type show ip route eigrp. Which of the following route(s) do you expect to see?

10.25.67.32

On a Cisco router, what is the default OSPF cost of a fractional T1 with a capacity of 1 Mbps? You can assume that the capacity has been identified correctly on the interface using a bandwidth command.

100

Question 51 : Which IEEE Metro Ethernet standard offers a 1-Gbps access link (UNI) covering distances up to 5 km?

1000Base-LX

Which of the following is the most likely technology used for an access link to a Metro Ethernet service?

100Base-LX10

Which IEEE Metro Ethernet standard offers a 10-Gbps access link (UNI) covering distances up to 40 km?

10GBase-ER

When configuring a PPPoE client, what is the value of the MTU that should be configured on the dialer interface?

1492

Refer to the exhibit; which route shown would be the one used to reach the device configured with the 172.16.1.130 IP address? R2#show ip route Codes: L - local, C - connected, S - static, R - RIP, M - mobile, B - BGP D - EIGRP, EX - EIGRP external, O - OSPF, IA - OSPF inter area N1 - OSPF NSSA external type 1, N2 - OSPF NSSA external type 2 E1 - OSPF external type 1, E2 - OSPF external type 2 i - IS-IS, su - IS-IS summary, L1 - IS-IS level-1, L2 - IS-IS level-2 ia - IS-IS inter area, * - candidate default, U - per-user static route o - ODR, P - periodic downloaded static route, H - NHRP, l - LISP a - application route + - replicated route, % - next hop override, p - overrides from PfR Gateway of last resort is not set 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks C 10.10.10.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1 L 10.10.10.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1 172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 8 subnets, 4 masks O 172.16.1.0/24 [110/2] via 10.10.10.3, 00:09:16, GigabitEthernet0/1 O 172.16.1.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.1, 00:10:57, GigabitEthernet0/1 O 172.16.1.0/26 [110/2] via 10.10.10.4, 00:07:31, GigabitEthernet0/1 O 172.16.1.64/26 [110/2] via 10.10.10.4, 00:07:31, GigabitEthernet0/1 O 172.16.1.128/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.1, 00:10:38, GigabitEthernet0/1 O 172.16.1.128/26 [110/2] via 10.10.10.4, 00:07:31, GigabitEthernet0/1 S 172.16.1.128/26 [1/0] via 192.168.1.2 O 172.16.1.192/26 [110/2] via 10.10.10.4, 00:07:31, GigabitEthernet0/1 192.168.1.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks C 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/2 L 192.168.1.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/2 R2#

172.16.1.128/26 [1/0]

Question 76 : Refer to the exhibit; which route shown would be the one used to reach the device configured with the 172.16.1.130 IP address? R2#show ip route Codes: L - local, C - connected, S - static, R - RIP, M - mobile, B - BGP D - EIGRP, EX - EIGRP external, O - OSPF, IA - OSPF inter area N1 - OSPF NSSA external type 1, N2 - OSPF NSSA external type 2 E1 - OSPF external type 1, E2 - OSPF external type 2 i - IS-IS, su - IS-IS summary, L1 - IS-IS level-1, L2 - IS-IS level-2 ia - IS-IS inter area, * - candidate default, U - per-user static route o - ODR, P - periodic downloaded static route, H - NHRP, l - LISP a - application route + - replicated route, % - next hop override, p - overrides from PfR Gateway of last resort is not set 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks C 10.10.10.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1 L 10.10.10.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1 172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 8 subnets, 4 masks O 172.16.1.0/24 [110/2] via 10.10.10.3, 00:09:16, GigabitEthernet0/1 O 172.16.1.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.1, 00:10:57, GigabitEthernet0/1 O 172.16.1.0/26 [110/2] via 10.10.10.4, 00:07:31, GigabitEthernet0/1 O 172.16.1.64/26 [110/2] via 10.10.10.4, 00:07:31, GigabitEthernet0/1 O 172.16.1.128/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.1, 00:10:38, GigabitEthernet0/1 O 172.16.1.128/26 [110/2] via 10.10.10.4, 00:07:31, GigabitEthernet0/1 S 172.16.1.145/26 [1/0] via 192.168.1.2 O 172.16.1.192/26 [110/2] via 10.10.10.4, 00:07:31, GigabitEthernet0/1 192.168.1.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks C 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/2 L 192.168.1.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/2 R2#

172.16.1.128/26 [110/2]

Examine the exhibit. What are the OSPF router IDs of any and all routers with which this router is considered in an OSPF adjacent state using this router's Fa0/0 interface? (Choose two answers.) FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up Internet Address 10.1.2.2/24, Area 0 Process ID 2, Router ID 10.1.5.2, Network Type BROADCAST, Cost: 1 Transmit Delay is 1 sec, State DROTHER, Priority 255 Designated Router (ID) 172.31.12.201, Interface address 10.1.2.11 Backup Designated router (ID) 172.31.230.3, Interface address 10.1.2.13 Timer intervals configured, Hello 10, Dead 40, Wait 40, Retransmit 5 oob-resync timeout 40 Hello due in 00:00:00 Index 1/1, flood queue length 0 Next 0x0(0)/0x0(0) Last flood scan length is 1, maximum is 1 Last flood scan time is 0 msec, maximum is 4 msec Neighbor Count is 3, Adjacent neighbor count is 2 Adjacent with neighbor 172.31.12.201 (Designated Router) Adjacent with neighbor 172.31.230.3 (Backup Designated Router) Suppress hello for 0 neighbor(s)

172.31.12.201. 172.31.230.3.

Question 4 : Refer to the diagram and exhibit; which configuration commands would be used to monitor all transmitted traffic on VLAN 99 on SW2 and send it to S1? 1. ! monitor 1 source vlan 99 tx monitor 1 destination interface Fa0/11 2. ! monitor session 1 source vlan 99 tx monitor session 1 destination interface Fa0/11 ! 3. ! monitor session 1 source vlan 99 tx monitor session 1 destination Fa0/11 ! 4. ! monitor 1 source 99 tx monitor 1 destination interface Fa0/11 !

Refer to the diagram and exhibits; an engineer is tasked with designing and configuring an ACL based on the following requirements. Which of the configurations listed in the exhibit would correctly configure R1 inbound? Permit DNS traffic from hosts A and B to LAN B Deny all other DNS traffic to LAN B Deny SSH traffic from hosts C and D to LAN B Permit TFTP traffic from hosts B and C to host E Deny all other TFTP traffic Deny all Telnet traffic to LAN B Permit all other traffic 1. access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.150 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq dns access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.151 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq dns access-list 101 deny tcp any 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq dns access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.152 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq ssh access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.153 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq ssh access-list 101 permit udp host 172.16.30.151 host 172.16.30.200 eq tftp access-list 101 permit udp host 172.16.30.152 host 172.16.30.200 eq tftp access-list 101 deny udp any any eq tftp access-list 101 deny tcp any 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq telnet access-list 101 permit ip any any 2. access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.150 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq domain access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.151 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq domain access-list 101 deny tcp any 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq domain access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.152 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq 22 access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.153 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq 22 access-list 101 permit udp host 172.16.30.151 host 172.16.30.200 eq tftp access-list 101 permit udp host 172.16.30.152 host 172.16.30.200 eq tftp access-list 101 deny udp any any eq tftp access-list 101 deny tcp any 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq telnet access-list 101 permit ip any any 3. access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.150 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq domain access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.151 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq domain access-list 101 deny tcp any 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq domain access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.152 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq 22 access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.153 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq 22 access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.151 host 172.16.30.200 eq tftp access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.152 host 172.16.30.200 eq tftp access-list 101 deny tcp any any eq tftp access-list 101 deny tcp any 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 eq telnet access-list 101 permit ip any any 4. access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.150 eq domain 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.151 eq domain 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 access-list 101 deny tcp any eq domain 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.152 eq ssh 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 access-list 101 deny tcp host 172.16.30.153 eq ssh 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 access-list 101 permit udp host 172.16.30.151 eq tftp host 172.16.30.200 access-list 101 permit udp host 172.16.30.152 eq tftp host 172.16.30.200 access-list 101 deny udp any eq tftp any access-list 101 deny tcp any eq telnet 172.16.30.192 0.0.0.63 access-list 101 permit ip any any

Refer to the diagram and exhibits; an engineer is tasked with designing and configuring an ACL based on the following requirements. Which of the configurations listed in the exhibit would correctly configure R2 inbound? Permit TFTP and FTP from SW2's LAN to H1 Permit Telnet from SW2's LAN to SW1's LAN Permit SSH from SW2's LAN to H2 a. ipv6 access-list awesome_list_1 permit udp 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:1::100 eq tftp permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:1::100 eq ftp permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:1::100 eq ftp-data permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq telnet permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:1::200 eq ssh b. ipv6 access-list awesome_list_1 permit udp 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:1::100 eq tftp permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:1::100 eq ftp permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:1::100 eq ftp-data permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq telnet permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:1::200 eq 22 c. ipv6 access-list awesome_list_1 permit udp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 eq tftp permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 eq ftp permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 eq ftp-data permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 eq telnet permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::200 eq 22 d. ipv6 access-list awesome_list_1 permit udp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq tftp host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq ftp host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq ftp-data host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq telnet 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq 22 host 2001:db8:1000:2::200

Refer to the diagram and exhibits; an engineer is tasked with designing and configuring an ACL based the following requirements. Which of the configurations listed in the exhibit would correctly configure R1 inbound? Permit POP3 from SW1's LAN to S1 Permit SMTP from SW1's LAN to S1 Permit Telnet from SW1's LAN to S2 a. ipv6 access-list awesome_list_1 permit tcp host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq pop3 permit tcp host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq smtp permit tcp host 2001:db8:1000:2::200 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq telnet b. ipv6 access-list awesome_list_1 permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 eq pop3 permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 eq smtp permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::200 eq telnet c. ipv6 access-list awesome_list_1 permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 eq pop permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 eq smtp permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::200 eq 22 d. ipv6 access-list awesome_list_1 permit udp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 eq pop permit udp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 eq smtp permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::200 eq telnet

Refer to the exhibit; which options would correctly represent the following numbered ACL? access-list 101 deny tcp any host 10.1.2.3 eq telnet access-list 101 deny tcp any host 10.1.2.3 eq ftp access-list 101 deny tcp any host 10.1.2.3 eq www access-list 101 permit ip any any 1. access-list extended Test_ACL deny tcp any host 10.1.2.3 eq telnet deny tcp any host 10.1.2.3 eq ftp deny tcp any host 10.1.2.3 eq www permit ip any any 2. ip access-list extended Test_ACL deny tcp any host 10.1.2.3 eq telnet deny tcp any host 10.1.2.3 eq ftp deny tcp any host 10.1.2.3 eq www permit ip any any 3. ip access extended Test_ACL list 101 deny tcp any host 10.1.2.3 eq telnet list 101 deny tcp any host 10.1.2.3 eq ftp list 101 deny tcp any host 10.1.2.3 eq www list 101 permit ip any any 4. access extended Test_ACL list 101 deny tcp any host 10.1.2.3 eq telnet list 101 deny tcp any host 10.1.2.3 eq ftp list 101 deny tcp any host 10.1.2.3 eq www list 101 permit ip any any

Refer to the exhibit; which options would correctly represent the numbered ACL shown below: access-list 150 deny tcp host 172.16.1.128 host 10.1.2.3 eq smtp access-list 150 deny udp 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.2.3 eq tftp access-list 150 deny tcp 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 host 10.1.2.3 eq 22 access-list 150 permit ip any any 1. access-list extended Test_ACL deny tcp host 172.16.1.128 host 10.1.2.3 eq smtp deny udp 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.2.3 eq tftp deny tcp 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 host 10.1.2.3 eq 22 permit ip any any 2. ip access-list extended Test_ACL deny tcp host 172.16.1.128 host 10.1.2.3 eq smtp deny udp 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.2.3 eq tftp deny tcp 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 host 10.1.2.3 eq 22 permit ip any any 3. ip access extended Test_ACL list 150 deny tcp host 172.16.1.128 host 10.1.2.3 eq smtp list 150 deny udp 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.2.3 eq tftp list 150 deny tcp 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 host 10.1.2.3 eq 22 list 150 permit ip any any 4. access extended Test_ACL list 150 deny tcp host 172.16.1.128 host 10.1.2.3 eq smtp list 150 deny udp 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.2.3 eq tftp list 150 deny tcp 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 host 10.1.2.3 eq 22 list 150 permit ip any any

Which options are stable OSPF neighbor states? (Choose two answers.)

2-way Full

Question 55 : What is the size of the delivery header that is added when using an IPv4 GRE tunnel?

20 bytes

Review the topology diagram and the address planning requirements listed there. A network engineer has proposed some new subnets to use, but is having some problems implementing these addresses. Which of the following are valid subnet addresses for the given design? (Choose two answers.)

2001:0db8:6783::/64 2001:db8:6783:FFFF::/64

In the cabling for a leased line, which of the following usually connects to a four-wire line provided by a telco?

CSU/DSU

Question 38 : Refer to the exhibit; in which area would R1's Gi0/0 interface be placed? R1 ... interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 ! router ospf 10 network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 2 network 20.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 5 network 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 6 network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 10 ! ...

Refer to the exhibit; in which area would R1's Gi0/0 interface be placed? R1 ... interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 ip ospf 20 area 22 ! router ospf 20 network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 10 network 172.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 20 network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 30 network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 100 ! ...

Review the topology diagram. All the Ethernet links have been manually assigned an OSPF cost of 4. Each end of the serial link that connects R3 and R4 has been set to an OSPF cost of 15. The entire private network has been configured as a single OSPF area. What is the cost from R1's routing table to reach the network 10.45.0.0/24?

Which option would be the correct EIGRP metric if the minimum path bandwidth was 10 Mbps and the cumulative delay was 400 ms?

266,240 To find the answer, you need to convert the bandwidth and the delay to be used in the EIGRP formula. The bandwidth used is in kilobits per second, and 10 Mbps is 10,000 kbps. The delay is used in tens of microseconds, and 40 tens of microseconds is equal to 400 ms. Using these parameters, the EIGRP metric would be calculated as shown here:

Question 71 : Refer to the diagram and exhibit; which option shows the correct configuration of the Layer 3 EtherChannel displayed on R1? a. ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 no switchport no ip address channel-group 1 mode on ! interface GigabitEthernet0/2 no switchport no ip address channel-group 1 mode on ! interface GigabitEthernet0/3 no switchport no ip address channel-group 1 mode on ! interface GigabitEthernet0/4 no switchport no ip address channel-group 1 mode on ! interface Port-channel10 no switchport ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 ! b. ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 no switchport no ip address channel-group 1 mode on ! interface GigabitEthernet0/2 no switchport no ip address channel-group 1 mode on ! interface GigabitEthernet0/3 no switchport no ip address channel-group 1 mode on ! interface GigabitEthernet0/4 no switchport no ip address channel-group 1 mode on ! interface Port-channel1 ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 ! c. ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 no switchport no ip address channel-group 1 mode on ! interface GigabitEthernet0/2 no switchport no ip address channel-group 1 mode on ! interface GigabitEthernet0/3 no switchport no ip address channel-group 1 mode on ! interface GigabitEthernet0/4 no switchport no ip address channel-group 1 mode on ! interface Port-channel1 no switchport ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 ! d. ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 no ip address channel-group 1 mode on ! interface GigabitEthernet0/2 no ip address channel-group 1 mode on ! interface GigabitEthernet0/3 no ip address channel-group 1 mode on ! interface GigabitEthernet0/4 no ip address channel-group 1 mode on ! interface Port-channel1 ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 !

Question 78 : Refer to the diagram; which option displays one of the IPv6 addresses that would be assigned to the interfaces shown?

3000::200:ACFF:FEBD:EFAB

By default, how many OSPFv3 routes will be inserted into the routing table for the exact same destination with different next hops?

Question 91 : Refer to the diagram; how many different places can traffic from LAN A to LAN B be filtered with an ACL?

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; which configuration would correctly configure this GRE tunnel on R1? 1 ! interface Tunnel0 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 192.168.1.2 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 no shutdown ! 2. ! interface Tunnel0 mode gre ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 172.16.1.2 no shutdown ! 3 ! interface Tunnel0 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 172.16.1.2 no shutdown ! 4. ! interface Tunnel0 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 172.16.1.2 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 no shutdown !

Refer to the diagram and exhibits; an engineer is tasked with designing and configuring an ACL based on the following requirements. Which of the configurations listed in the exhibit would correctly configure R1 inbound? Permit HTTP from SW1's LAN to S1 Permit FTP (control) from SW1's LAN to S2 Permit SSH from SW1's LAN to SW2's LAN a. ipv6 access-list awesome_list_1 permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 eq http permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::200 eq ftp permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 eq 23 b. ipv6 access-list awesome_list_1 permit tcp host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq www permit tcp host 2001:db8:1000:2::200 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq ftp permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq ssh c. ipv6 access-list awesome_list_1 permit tcp host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq http permit udp host 2001:db8:1000:2::200 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq 22 permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq ssh d. ipv6 access-list awesome_list_1 permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 eq www permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::200 eq ftp permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 eq 22

Refer to the exhibit; which configuration option would correctly configure MLPPP between a router and a previously (correctly) configured remote device?

What is the size of the extra tag that is added to the Ethernet header when using 802.1Q tagging?

4 bytes

In normal practice, what is the maximum number of VLANs that are supported on a higher-end Cisco switch using 802.1Q?

4094

SW2 is a nonroot switch with a 100-Mbps STP root port. A BPDU received on this port contains a root cost of 38. If SW2 advertises to another switch, what will the root cost be in the BPDU SW2 advertises?

Review the network diagram. If the Ethernet interfaces has and OSPF cost of 1 (for each interface) and the serial connection has an OSPF cost of 64 (for each interface connected), what is the cost to reach Subnet 45 from R1?

Refer to the diagram; an engineer is asked to apply an extended ACL on the network. The ACL filters traffic from LAN A to LAN B. Which location would be the best place to apply this ACL?

Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)

A Cisco-proprietary protocol that allows two (or more) routers to share the duties of being the default router on a subnet, with an active/active model, with all routers actively forwarding off-subnet traffic for some hosts in the subnet.

Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)

A Cisco-proprietary protocol that allows two (or more) routers to share the duties of being the default router on a subnet, with an active/standby model, with one router acting as the default router and the other sitting by waiting to take over that role if the first router fails.

MPLS Experimental Bits

A 3-bit field in the MPLS label used for QoS marking.

AS_Path

A BGP path attribute that lists the ASNs in the path (other than the ASN of the router on which the AS_Path is examined).

ASAv

A Cisco ASA firewall software image that runs as a virtual machine rather than on Cisco hardware, intended to be used as a consumer-controlled firewall in a cloud service or in other virtualized environments.

Nexus 1000v

A Cisco Nexus data center switch that runs as a software-only virtual switch inside one host (one hardware server), to provide switching features to the virtual machines running on that host.

Cisco Access Control Server (ACS)

A Cisco product that acts as a AAA server.

Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)

A Cisco router feature that dynamically creates GRE tunnels between routers, using a multipoint GRE tunnel to create a multipoint topology, and using the Next Hop Resolution Protocol (NHRP) to dynamically discover other routers.

Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR)

A Cisco router feature that looks at message details beyond the Layer 2, 3, and 4 headers to identify over 1000 different classifications of packets from different applications.

Cloud Services Router (CSR)

A Cisco router software image that runs as a virtual machine rather than on Cisco hardware, intended to be used as a consumer-controlled router in a cloud service or in other virtualized environments.

BPDU Guard

A Cisco switch feature that listens for incoming STP BPDU messages, disabling the interface if any are received. The goal is to prevent loops when a switch connects to a port expected to only have a host connected to it.

VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP)

A Cisco-proprietary messaging protocol used between Cisco switches to communicate configuration information about the existence of VLANs, including the VLAN ID and VLAN name.

HSRP active

A Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) state in which the router actively supports the forwarding of off-subnet packets for hosts in that subnet.

HSRP standby

A Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) state in which the router does not currently support the forwarding of off-subnet packets for hosts in that subnet, instead waiting for the currently active router to fail before taking over that role.

Access interface

A LAN network design term that refers to a switch interface connected to end-user devices, configured so that it does not use VLAN trunking.

Layer 3 switch

A LAN switch that can also perform Layer 3 routing functions. The name comes from the fact that this device makes forwarding decisions based on logic from multiple OSI layers (Layers 2 and 3).

Multilayer switch

A LAN switch that can also perform Layer 3 routing functions. The name comes from the fact that this device makes forwarding decisions based on logic from multiple OSI layers (Layers 2 and 3).

Routable protocol (Routed Protocol)

A Layer 3 protocol that defines a packet that can be routed, such as IPv4 and IPv6.

Shaping

A QoS tool that monitors the bit rate of the messages exiting a networking devices, so that if the bit rate exceeds the shaping rate for a period of time, the shaper can queue the packets, effectively slowing down the sending rate to match the shaping rate.

Policing

A QoS tool that monitors the bit rate of the messages passing some point in the processing of a networking device, so that if the bit rate exceeds the policing rate for a period of time, the policer can discard excess packets to lower the rate.

Local SPAN

A SPAN monitor session in which the monitored frames and the SPAN destination port are in the same switch.

Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)

A TCP/IP RFC protocol that allows two (or more) routers to share the duties of being the default router on a subnet, with an active/standby model, with one router acting as the default router and the other sitting by waiting to take over that role if the first router fails.

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)

A U.S. federal agency that develops national standards, including standards for cloud computing.

Voice VLAN

A VLAN defined for use by IP Phones, with the Cisco switch notifying the phone about the voice VLAN ID so that the phone can use 802.1Q frames to support traffic for the phone and the attached PC (which uses a data VLAN).

Data VLAN

A VLAN used by typical data devices connected to an Ethernet, such as PCs and servers. Used in comparison to a Voice VLAN.

Cisco VPN

A VPN for which one endpoint is a user device, like a phone, tablet, or PC.

Ethernet access link

A WAN access link (a physical link between a service provider and its customer) that happens to use Ethernet.

Packet switching

A WAN service in which each DTE device connects to a telco using a single physical line, with the possibility of being able to forward traffic to all other sites connected to the same service. The telco switch makes the forwarding decision based on an address in the packet header.

Intercloud exchange

A WAN service that provides connectivity between public cloud providers and their customers, so that customers can install and keep the WAN connections, even when migrating from one cloud provider to another.

MPLS VPN

A WAN service that uses MPLS technology, with many customers connecting to the same MPLS network, but with the VPN features keeping each customer's traffic separate from others.

MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching)

A WAN technology used to create an IP-based service for customers, with the service provider's internal network performing forwarding based on an MPLS label rather than the destination IP address.

Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)

A WAN technology used to create an IP-based service for customers, with the service provider's internal network performing forwarding based on an MPLS label rather than the destination IP address.

Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL)

A convergence algorithm used in EIGRP when a route fails and a router does not have a feasible successor route. DUAL causes the routers to send EIGRP Query and Reply messages to discover alternate loop-free routes.

Software Defined Networking (SDN)

A branch of networking that emerged in the marketplace in the 2010s characterized by the use of a centralized software controller that takes over varying amounts of the control plane processing formerly done inside networking devices, with the controller directing the networking elements as to what forwarding table entries to put into their forwarding tables.

NBMA (nonbroadcast multiaccess)

A characterization of a type of Layer 2 network in which more than two devices connect to the network, but the network does not allow broadcast frames to be sent to all devices on the network.

First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP)

A class of protocols that includes HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP, which allows multiple redundant routers on the same subnet to act as a single default router (first-hop router).

Link state

A classification of the underlying algorithm used in some routing protocols. Link-state protocols build a detailed database that lists links (subnets) and their state (up, down), from which the best routes can then be calculated.

Private cloud

A cloud computing service in which a company provides its own IT services to internal customers inside the same company but by following the practices defined as cloud computing.

Public cloud

A cloud computing service in which the cloud provider is a different company than the cloud consumer.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

A cloud service in which the service consists of a virtual machine that has defined computing resources (CPUs, RAM, disk, and network), and may or may not be provided with an installed OS.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

A cloud service in which the service consists of access to working software, without the need to be concerned about the details of installing and maintaining the software or the servers on which it runs.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

A cloud service intended for software developers as a development platform, with a variety of tools useful to developers already installed, so that the developer can focus on developing software rather than on creating a good development environment.

Cisco Open SDN Controller (OSC)

A commercial SDN controller from Cisco that is based on the OpenDaylight controller.

Telco

A common abbreviation for telephone company.

Internet service provider

A company or organization that provides Internet services to customers; the company may have a heritage as a telco, WAN service provider, or cable company.

Service provider (SP) a.k.a. internet provider

A company that provides a service to multiple customers. Used most often to refer to providers of private WAN services and Internet services.

WAN service provider

A company that provides private WAN services to customers; the company may have a heritage as a telco or cable company.

Unequal-cost load balancing

A concept in EIGRP by which a router adds multiple unequal cost (unequal metric) routes to the routing table, at the same time, allowing equal-metric routes to be used.

Classful addressing

A concept in IPv4 addressing that defines a subnetted IP address as having three parts: network, subnet, and host.

Classless addressing

A concept in IPv4 addressing that defines a subnetted IP address as having two parts: a prefix (or subnet) and a host.

MIB view

A concept in SNMPv3 that identifies a subset of an SNMP agent's MIB for the purpose of limiting access to some parts of the MIB to certain SNMP managers.

Ethernet Virtual Connection (EVC)

A concept in carrier/Metro Ethernet that defines which customer devices can send frames to each other over the Ethernet WAN service; includes E-Line, E-LAN, and E-Tree EVCs.

VLAN interface

A configuration concept inside Cisco switches, used as an interface between IOS running on the switch and a VLAN supported inside the switch, so that the switch can assign an IP address and send IP packets into that VLAN.

eBGP multihop

A configuration feature that enables the router to set the TTL for packets sent by BGP for eBGP connections to some value other than 1 (the normal value), so that the packets are delivered to the peer without being discarded.

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; what is the route that is shown on R1 to reach the Internet? R1 ... interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 20.20.20.2 255.255.255.0 ! router ospf 10 network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 ! ... R2 ... interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 20.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.0 ! router ospf 10 network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 ! ... R3 ... interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 192.0.2.100 255.255.255.0 ! router ospf 10 network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 default-information originate ! ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.0.2.1 ! ...

A default route to 20.20.20.1

DSL modem

A device that connects to a telephone line and uses DSL standards to transmit and receive data to/from a telco using DSL.

A LAN design uses a Layer 3 EtherChannel between two switches SW1 and SW2, with port-channel interface 1 used on both switches. SW1 uses ports G0/1 and G0/2 in the channel. However, only interface G0/1 is bundled into the channel and working. Think about the configuration settings on port G0/2 that could have existed before adding G0/2 to the EtherChannel. Which answers identify a setting that could prevent IOS from adding G0/2 to the Layer 3 EtherChannel? (Choose two answers.)

A different speed (speed value) A default setting for switchport (switchport)

Split horizon

A distant vector routing technique in which information about routes is prevented from exiting the router interface through which that information was received. Split-horizon updates are useful in preventing routing loops.

EtherChannel

A feature in which up to eight parallel Ethernet segments exist between the same two devices, each using the same speed. May be a Layer 2 EtherChannel, which acts like a single link for forwarding and Spanning Tree Protocol logic, or a Layer 3 EtherChannel, which acts like a single link for the switch's Layer 3 routing logic.

Stateless address autoconfiguration (SLAAC)

A feature of IPv6 in which a host or router can be assigned an IPv6 unicast address without the need for a stateful DHCP server.

Multilink PPP (MLPPP)

A feature of PPP that manages multiple links between two nodes, load balancing data link frames across those multiple links by fragmenting each frame into pieces (fragments), sending one fragment over each active link. It also presents a single Layer 3 interface to the Layer 3 logic in the endpoint devices.

Keepalive

A feature of many data link protocols in which the router sends messages periodically to let the neighboring router know that the first router is still alive and well.

Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)

A field existing as the first 6 bits of the ToS byte, as defined by RFC 2474, which redefined the original IP RFC's definition for the IP header ToS byte. The field is used to mark a value in the header for the purpose of performing later QoS actions on the packet.

Protocol type

A field in the IP header that identifies the type of header that follows the IP header, usually a Layer 4 header, such as TCP or UDP. ACLs can examine the protocol type to match packets with a particular value in this header field.

IOS image

A file that contains the IOS.

SDM (Switching Database Manager)

A formal term for a Cisco IOS switch feature that allows the user to reconfigure some settings (with the sdm prefer global command) about how the switch's forwarding matches messages and how it allocates TCAM memory to store tables such as Layer 2 MAC address tables and Layer 3 routing tables.

SPAN monitor session

A function enabled in a Cisco switch that intercepts a defined subset of frames being sent through the switch (as defined by the SPAN monitor session), directing a copy of those frames out a certain port, so that other tools (like network analyzers and intrusion protection systems) can examine the frames.

SPAN session

Ethernet WAN

A general and informal term for any WAN service that uses Ethernet links as the access link between the customer and the service provider.

Fiber Internet

A general term for any Internet access technology that happens to use fiber-optic cabling. It often uses Ethernet protocols on the fiber link.

Dial access

A general term referring to any kind of switched WAN service that uses the telco network in which the device must signal (the equivalent of tapping digits on a phone) to establish a connection before sending data.

Virtual LAN (VLAN)

A group of devices connected to one or more switches that are grouped into a single broadcast domain through configuration. VLANs allow switch administrators to place the devices connected to the switches in separate VLANs without requiring separate physical switches. This creates design advantages of separating the traffic without the expense of buying additional hardware.

Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)

A public network technology that delivers high bandwidth over conventional telco local-loop copper wiring at limited distances. Typically used as an Internet access technology, connecting a user to an ISP.

Public key

A publicly available value used in public/private key encryption systems. Either encrypts a value that can then be decrypted using the matching private key, or decrypts a value that was previously encrypted with the matching private key.

Round robin

A queue scheduling algorithm in which the scheduling algorithm services one queue, then the next, then the next, and so on, working through the queues in sequence.

Shared key

A reference to a security key whose value is known (shared) by both the sender and receiver.

Loss

A reference to packets in a network that are sent but do not reach the destination host.

Poisoned route

A route advertisement in which the routing protocol assigns the route a maximum metric that represents infinity, as a means to advertise that the route is no longer usable.

Consider the routes advertised over a typical single-homed Internet edge connection that uses eBGP. Which of the following answers describe a route typically advertised by eBGP in this case? (Choose two answers.)

A route for the enterprise's public IPv4 address block to the ISP A default route advertised by the ISP to the enterprise

Local loop

A line from the premises of a telephone subscriber to the telephone company CO.

A line from the telco that allows transmission of data at 1.544 Mbps, with the capability to treat the line as 24 different 64-Kbps DS0 channels (plus 8 Kbps of overhead).

A line from the telco that allows transmission of data at 44.736 Mbps, with the capability to treat the line as 28 different 1.544-Mbps DS1 (T1) channels, plus overhead.

Extended access list

A list of IOS access-list global configuration commands that can match multiple parts of an IP packet, including the source and destination IP address and TCP/UDP ports, for the purpose of deciding which packets to discard and which to allow through the router.

Standard access list

A list of IOS global configuration commands that can match only a packet's source IP address for the purpose of deciding which packets to discard and which to allow through the router.

Cloud services catalog

A listing of the services available in a cloud computing service.

Question 46 : Which of the following are true about GRE tunneling and IPv4? (Choose two answers.)

A local source and remote destination needs to be configured on a router for each GRE tunnel. A new directly connected network appears on the local router with each new correctly configured GRE tunnel.

Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)

A long-time Cisco IOS internal feature that optimizes the forwarding process by creating a more search-efficient forwarding information base (FIB) that is used instead of the IP routing table, along with an adjacency table that caches the new data link headers used to reach the next-hop addresses.

Router Advertisement (RA)

A message defined by the IPv6 Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) and used by routers to announce their willingness to act as an IPv6 router on a link. These may be sent in response to a previously received NDP Router Solicitation (RS) message.

Neighbor Solicitation (NS)

A message defined by the IPv6 Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) and used to ask a neighbor to reply back with a Neighbor Advertisement, which lists the neighbor's MAC address.

Router Solicitation (RS)

A message defined by the IPv6 Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) and used to ask any routers on the link to reply, identifying the router, plus other configuration settings (prefixes and prefix lengths).

Neighbor Advertisement (NA)

A message defined by the IPv6 Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) and used to declare to other neighbors a host's MAC address. Sometimes sent in response to a previously received NDP Neighbor Solicitation (NS) message.

Switch

A network device that filters, forwards, and floods frames based on each frame's destination address. The switch operates at the data link layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) reference model.

The diagram shows a simple internetwork that has just been deployed. The network engineer is sitting next to router R1, with R2 in a remote site. To test the installation, the engineer issues a ping 192.168.3.2 command to ping R2's LAN interface IP address, and the ping fails. The exhibit shows the output of a couple other commands on R1. The engineer had a user at the remote site log in to router R2 and also issue the ping 192.168.3.2 command, and the ping worked. From the information shown, which of the following answers is the most likely cause of the problem? R1#show interfaces serial 0/0/1 Serial0/0/1 is up, line protocol is up Hardware is GT96K Serial Internet address is 192.168.9.1/24 MTU 1500 bytes, BW 1544 Kbit, DLY 20000 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation PPP, LCP Open Open: CDPCP, IPCP, loopback not set ! the rest of the output is omitted R1#show ip route Codes: C - connected, S - static, R - RIP, M - mobile, B - BGP D - EIGRP, EX - EIGRP external, O - OSPF, IA - OSPF inter area N1 - OSPF NSSA external type 1, N2 - OSPF NSSA external type 2 E1 - OSPF external type 1, E2 - OSPF external type 2 i - IS-IS, su - IS-IS summary, L1 - IS-IS level-1, L2 - IS-IS level-2 ia - IS-IS inter area, * - candidate default, U - per-user static route o - ODR, P - periodic downloaded static route C 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0 C 192.168.9.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1 10.0.0.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 10.1.1.1 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1 R1#show running-config ! lines omitted for brevity - only routing protocol configuration is shown router eigrp 1 network 192.168.1.0 network 192.168.9.0

A network layer configuration problem exists on the serial link.

Partial mesh

A network topology in which more than two devices could physically communicate, but by choice, only a subset of the pairs of devices connected to the network is allowed to communicate directly.

Which of the following best describes a virtual network function in a public cloud service?

A networking function implemented by the cloud provider for the customer as a VM that is directly accessible and configurable by the customer

Configuration revision number

A number used by VTP that identifies the version of the VLAN configuration database. Each time the configuration database changes, a switch increments the configuration revision number by 1.

IPv6 prefix length

A number written as /x, where x is an integer between 0 and 128 inclusive, that defines the number of initial bits in an IPv6 address, used for IPv6 subnetting and for matching with IPv6 ACLs.

Metric

A numeric measurement used by a routing protocol to determine how good a route is as compared to other alternate routes to reach the same subnet.

Enable mode

A part of the Cisco IOS CLI in which the user can use potentially disruptive commands on a router or switch, including the ability to then reach configuration mode and reconfigure the router.

Multiprotocol BGP (MPBGP)

A particular set of BGP extensions that allows BGP to support multiple address families, which when used to create an MPLS VPN service gives the SP the method to advertise the IPv4 routes of many customers while keeping those route advertisements logically separated.

Access link (WAN)

A physical link between a service provider and its customer that provides access to the SP's network from that customer site.

Console port

A physical socket on a router or switch to which a cable can be connected between a computer and the router/switch, for the purpose of allowing the computer to use a terminal emulator and use the CLI to configure, verify, and troubleshoot the router/switch.

XML (eXtensible Markup Language)

A popular language used to represent data in a way that is readable both to software and to computers, as defined by the World Wide Web (W3C) consortium.

JSON (JavaScript Object Notation)

A popular method to represent data for exchange by APIs, in a format readable by both programs and computers, and defined as part of the JavaScript language.

Switched port

A port on a multilayer Cisco switch or a Layer 2 switch, configured with the normal default interface setting of switchport, that tells the switch to treat the port as if it were a Layer 2 port, resulting in the switch performing switch MAC learning, Layer 2 forwarding, and STP on that interface.

Routed port

A port on a multilayer Cisco switch, configured with the no switchport command, that tells the switch to treat the port as if it were a Layer 3 port, like a router interface.

PVC (permanent virtual circuit)

A preconfigured communications path between two Frame Relay DTEs, identified by a local DLCI on each Frame Relay access link, that provides the functional equivalent of a leased circuit but without a physical leased line for each VC.

Permanent virtual circuit (PVC)

traceroute

A program available on many systems that traces the path that a packet takes to a destination. It is used mostly to debug routing problems between hosts.

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

A protocol defined by IEEE standard 802.1D. Allows switches and bridges to create a redundant LAN, with the protocol dynamically causing some ports to block traffic, so that the bridge/switch forwarding logic will not cause frames to loop indefinitely around the LAN.

Next Hop Resolution Protocol (NHRP)

A protocol defined by the IETF, used by Cisco's DMVPN feature for the purpose of allowing routers connected to the Internet to discover each other's public IP addresses and inform each other of their private IP addresses as used by DMVPN.

Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP)

A protocol that is part of the IPv6 protocol suite and is used to discover and exchange information about devices on the same subnet (neighbors). In particular, it replaces IPv4 ARP.

Generic routing encapsulation (GRE)

A protocol, defined in RFC 2784, that defines the headers used when creating a site-to-site VPN tunnel. The protocol defines the use of a normal IP header, called the Delivery Header, and a GRE header that the endpoints use to create and manage traffic over the GRE tunnel.

Global unicast address

A type of unicast IPv6 address that has been allocated from a range of public globally unique IP addresses as registered through IANA/ICANN, its member agencies, and other registries or ISPs.

Question 6 : Which of the following is true about the concept of EIGRP feasible distance?

A route's feasible distance is the calculated metric of the successor route.

Which of the following is true about the concept of EIGRP reported distance?

A route's reported distance is the metric of a route from a neighboring router's perspective.

Interior gateway protocol (IGP)

A routing protocol designed to be used to exchange routing information inside a single autonomous system.

Autosummary (autosummarization)

A routing protocol feature in which a router that connects to more than one classful network advertises summarized routes for each entire classful network when sending updates out interfaces connected to other classful networks.

Triggered update

A routing protocol feature in which the routing protocol does not wait for the next periodic update when something changes in the network, instead immediately sending a routing update.

Encryption key

A secret value used as input to the math formulas used by an encryption process.

Private key

A secret value used in public/private key encryption systems. Either encrypts a value that can then be decrypted using the matching public key, or decrypts a value that was previously encrypted with the matching public key.

TACACS+

A security protocol often used for user authentication as well as authorization and accounting, often used to authenticate users who log in to Cisco routers and switches.

RADIUS

A security protocol often used for user authentication, including being used as part of the IEEE 802.1x messages between an 802.1x authenticator (typically a LAN switch) and a AAA server.

Secure Socket Layer (SSL)

A security protocol that is integrated into commonly used web browsers that provides encryption and authentication services between the browser and a website.

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

A security protocol that is integrated into commonly used web browsers that provides encryption and authentication services between the browser and a website.

PortFast

A switch STP feature in which a port is placed in an STP forwarding state as soon as the interface comes up, bypassing the listening and learning states. This feature is meant for ports connected to end-user devices.

Trunk interface

A switch interface configured so that it operates using VLAN trunking (either 802.1Q or ISL).

Authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server

A server that holds security information and provides services related to user login, particularly authentication (is the user who they say they are), authorization (once authenticated, what do we allow the user to do), and accounting (tracking the user).

Syslog

A server that takes system messages from network devices and stores them in a database. The syslog server also provides reporting capabilities on these system messages. Some syslog servers can even respond to select system messages with certain actions such as emailing and paging.

Metropolitan-area network (MAN)

A service provided by a service provider to connect customer sites, with the customer sites existing in the same city; it takes its name from the metropolitan area of cities.

Broadcast domain

A set of all devices that receive broadcast frames originating from any device in the set. Devices in the same VLAN are in the same broadcast domain.

IOS feature set

A set of related features that can be enabled on a router to enable certain functionality. For example, the Security feature set would enable the ability to have the router act as a firewall in the network.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

A set of security protocols that, when implemented by two devices on either side of an unsecure network such as the Internet, can allow the devices to send data securely. VPNs provide privacy, device authentication, anti-replay services, and data integrity services.

Virtual private network (VPN)

CIDR notation (Prefix notation)

A shorter way to write a subnet mask in which the number of binary 1s in the mask is simply written in decimal. For instance, /24 denotes the subnet mask with 24 binary 1 bits in the subnet mask. The number of bits of value binary 1 in the mask is considered to be the prefix.

Prefix notation

SNMP community

A simple password mechanism in SNMP in which either the SNMP agent or manager defines a community string (password), and the other device must send that same password value in SNMP messages, or the messages are ignored. See also read-only community, read-write community, and notification community.

GRE tunnel

A site-to-site VPN idea, in which the endpoints act as if a point-to-point link (the tunnel) exists between the sites, while actually encapsulating packets using GRE standards.

Application programming interface (API)

A software mechanism that enables software components to communicate with each other.

Virtual switch (vSwitch)

A software-only virtual switch inside one host (one hardware server), to provide switching features to the virtual machines running on that host.

E-LAN

A specific carrier/Metro Ethernet service defined by MEF (MEF.net) that provides a service much like a LAN, with two or more customer sites connected to one E-LAN service in a full mesh, so that each device in the E-LAN can send Ethernet frames directly to every other device.

E-Line

A specific carrier/metro Ethernet service defined by MEF (MEF.net) that provides a point-to-point topology between two customer devices, much as if the two devices were connected using an Ethernet crossover cable.

E-Tree

A specific carrier/metro Ethernet service defined by MEF (MEF.net) that provides a rooted multipoint service, in which the root site can send frames directly to all leaves, but the leaf sites can send only to the root site.

PPP over Ethernet (PPPoE)

A specific protocol designed to encapsulate PPP frames inside Ethernet frames, for the purpose of delivering the PPP frames between two devices, effectively creating a point-to-point tunnel between the two devices.

ICMP-Echo operation

A specific type of IP SLA probe in which the probe message is a standard ICMP Echo Request (that is, the same message sent by a ping command).

Which of the following are true about EIGRP routes? (Choose three answers.)

A successor route is the route with the best (lowest) metric. A feasible successor route will be due to an RD of the neighbor being lower than the local FD for a specific network. The method used for identifying a feasible successor prevents loops from forming if the feasible successor route is ever used.

Link-local address

A type of unicast IPv6 address that represents an interface on a single data link. Packets sent to a link-local address cross only that particular link and are never forwarded to other subnets by a router. Used for communications that do not need to leave the local link, such as neighbor discovery.

Local username

A username (with matching password), configured on a router or switch. It is considered local because it exists on the router or switch, and not on a remote server.

Variance

A value used in routing protocol decisions by EIGRP. EIGRP computes its metric in a way such that for different routes, the calculated metric seldom results in the exact same value. The variance value is multiplied with the lower metric when multiple routes to the same subnet exist. If the product is larger than the metrics for other routes, the routes are considered to have "equal" metric, allowing multiple routes to be added to the routing table.

Forwarding plane

A synonym for data plane.

Customer premises equipment (CPE)

A telco term that refers to equipment on-site at the telco customer site (the enterprise's site) that connects to the WAN service provided by the telco.

Listening state

A temporary STP port state that occurs immediately when a blocking interface must be moved to a forwarding state. The switch times out MAC table entries during this state. It also ignores frames received on the interface and doesn't forward any frames out the interface.

Composite metric

A term in EIGRP for the result of the calculation of the EIGRP metric for a route.

Balanced hybrid

A term that, over the years, has been used to refer to the logic behind the EIGRP routing protocol. More commonly today, this logic is referred to as advanced distance vector logic.

Provider edge (PE)

A term used by service providers, both generally and also specifically in MPLS VPN networks, to refer to the SP device in a point of presence (PoP) that connects to the customer's network, and therefore sits at the edge of the SP's network.

Customer edge (CE)

A term used by service providers, both generally and also specifically in MPLS VPN networks, to refer to the customer device that connects to the SP's network, and therefore sits at the edge of the SP's network.

Central office (CO)

A term used by telcos to refer to a building that holds switching equipment, into which the telco's cable plant runs, so that the telco has cabling from each home and business into that building.

Point of presence (PoP)

A term used for a service provider's (SP) perspective to refer to a service provider's installation that is purposefully located relatively near to customers, with several spread around major cities, so that the distance from each customer site to one of the SP's PoPs is short.

Stateless DHCP

A term used in IPv6 to contrast with stateful DHCP. Stateless DHCP servers do not lease IPv6 addresses to clients. Instead, they supply other useful information, such as DNS server IP addresses, but with no need to track information about the clients (state information).

Stateful DHCP

A term used in IPv6 to contrast with stateless DHCP. Stateful DHCP keeps track of which clients have been assigned which IPv6 addresses (state information).

User network interface (UNI)

A term used in a variety of WAN standards, including carrier/Metro Ethernet, that defines the standards for how a customer device communicates with a service provider's device over an access link.

Multipoint

A topology with more than two devices in it (in contrast to a point-to-point topology, which has exactly two devices). Without any further context, the term multipoint does not define whether all devices in the topology can send messages directly to each other (full mesh) or not (partial mesh).

Leased line

A transmission line reserved by a communications carrier for a customer's private use. A leased line is a type of dedicated line.

Serial link (leased Line)

A transmission line reserved by a communications carrier for a customer's private use. A leased line is a type of dedicated line.

RESTful API

A turn of phrase that means that the API uses REST.

Representational State Transfer (REST)

A type of API that allows two programs that reside on separate computers to communicate, with the messages used to move requests and data across the network using HTTP messages Get, Post, Put, and Delete.

Multipoint GRE

A type of GRE tunnel in which more than two devices can be part of the same tunnel, sending packets directly to each other over the same tunnel, and using one subnet for all devices connected to the tunnel.

Serial cable

A type of cable with many different styles of connectors used to connect a router to an external CSU/DSU on a leased-line installation.

TCAM (ternary content-addressable memory)

A type of physical memory, either in a separate integrated circuit or built into an ASIC, that can store tables and then be searched against a key, such that the search time happens quickly and does not increase as the size of the table increases. TCAMs are used extensively in higher-performance networking devices as the means to store and search forwarding tables in Ethernet switches and higher-performance routers.

Flash memory

A type of read/write permanent memory that retains its contents even with no power applied to the memory and that uses no moving parts, making the memory less likely to fail over time.

IP SLA operation

A type of test generated by a Cisco router IP SLA feature. The test can generate many different types of test messages, which causes the IP SLA feature on the router to send a particular type of packet, and wait to receive a response, for the purpose of measuring something about the behavior of the network.

Classless routing

A variation of the IPv4 forwarding (routing) process that defines the particulars of how the default route is used. The default route is always used for packets whose destination IP address does not match any other routes.

SNMPv2c

A variation of the second version of SNMP. SNMP Version 2 did not originally support communities; the term SNMPv2c refers to SNMP version 2 with support added for SNMP communities (which were part of SNMPv1).

EIGRP for IPv6

A version of EIGRP that supports advertising routes for IPv6 prefixes instead of IPv4 subnets.

Multilink interface

A virtual interface created by Multilink PPP as the Layer 3 interface used in MLPPP configurations.

Tunnel interface

A virtual interface in a Cisco router used to configure a variety of features, including generic routing encapsulation (GRE), which encapsulates IP packets into other IP packets for the purpose of creating VPNs.

Which MEF-defined Metro Ethernet service has been previously referenced by the name Virtual Private Wire Service?

E-Line

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

An Internet-standard protocol for managing devices on IP networks. It is used mostly in network management systems to monitor network-attached devices for conditions that warrant administrative attention.

An engineer is considering configuring an ACL on Router R1. The engineer could use ACL A, which would be enabled with the ip access-group A out command on interface G0/1, or ACL B, which would be enabled with the ip access-group B in command on that same interface. R1's G0/1 interface uses IPv4 address 1.1.1.1. Which of the answers are true when comparing these options? (Choose two answers.)

ACL B creates more risk of filtering important overhead traffic than ACL A. A ping 1.1.1.1 command on R1 would bypass ACL A even if enabled.

Which DSCP Assured Forwarding value provides the worst drop and worst queue performance?

AF13

Where does the majority of the switching logic occur on a Cisco switch?

ASIC

When configuring interfaces to be part of the same EtherChannel, which of the following should you configure identically? (Choose four answers.)

Access VLAN on an access port Speed Duplex Allowed VLANs on a trunk

ACL

Access control list. A list configured on a router to control packet flow through the router, such as to prevent packets with a certain IP address from leaving a particular interface on the router.

Which of the following is not considered a security benefit of using Internet VPNs?

Accounting

Consider the diagram and the partial running-configuration output from R4. ! ! ipv6 router eigrp 1 ! ipv6 unicast-routing ! interface Loopback0 ip address 4.4.4.4 255.255.255.255 ! ! interface Serial1/0 ipv6 address FE80::4 link-local ipv6 address 2001:DB8:6783:34::4/64 ! interface GigabitEthernet2/0 ipv6 address FE80::4 link-local ipv6 address 2001:DB8:6783:45::4/64 ! What additional configuration is required to enable EIGRPv6 for Subnets 34 and 45?

Add EIGRP statements in interface configuration mode for S1/0 and G2/0.

Database Description

An OSPF packet type that lists brief descriptions of the LSAs in the OSPF LSDB.

Link-State Request

An OSPF packet used to ask a neighboring router to send a particular LSA.

Link-State Update

An OSPF packet used to send an LSA to a neighboring router.

An enterprise uses a dual-stack model of deployment for IPv4 and IPv6, using EIGRP as the routing protocol for both. Router R1 has IPv4 and IPv6 addresses on its G0/0 and S0/0/0 interfaces only, with EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 enabled on both interfaces. Which of the following answers is a valid way to configure R1 so that it enables EIGRP for IPv6 on the exact same interfaces as EIGRP for IPv4 in this case?

Adding the ipv6 eigrp asn interface subcommand to interfaces G0/0 and S0/0/0

Examine the following excerpt from a show command on Router R1: EIGRP-IPv4 Neighbors for AS(1) H Address Interface Hold Uptime SRTT RTO Q Seq (sec) (ms) Cnt Num 1 10.1.4.3 Se0/0/1 13 00:05:49 2 100 0 29 0 10.1.5.2 Se0/0/0 12 00:05:49 2 100 0 39 Which of the following answers is true about this router based on this output?

Address 10.1.5.2 identifies a working neighbor based on that neighbor's interface IP address on the link between R1 and that neighbor.

ARP

Address Resolution Protocol. An Internet protocol used to map an IP address to a MAC address. Defined in RFC 826.

Which of the following packet header fields can be filtered using IPv6 extended access control lists?

All of the other answers are correct.

Which options are true about implementing standard ACLs? (Choose two answers.)

All standard ACLs have a default deny action. Place them as close to the destination as possible.

Backup designated router

An OSPF router connected to a multiaccess network that monitors the work of the designated router (DR) and takes over the work of the DR if the DR fails.

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; if SW1 was configured to monitor the transmitted traffic on VLAN 4, which options are correct? (Choose two answers.) SW1 ... ! interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport access vlan 1 ! interface FastEthernet0/2 switchport access vlan 1 ! interface FastEthernet0/3 switchport access vlan 2 ! interface FastEthernet0/4 switchport access vlan 3 ! interface FastEthernet0/5 switchport access vlan 4 ! interface FastEthernet0/6 switchport access vlan 4 ! interface FastEthernet0/7 switchport access vlan 5 ! interface FastEthernet0/8 switchport access vlan 6 ! interface FastEthernet0/9 switchport access vlan 7 ! interface FastEthernet0/10 switchport access vlan 4 ! interface FastEthernet0/11 switchport mode trunk !

All transmitted traffic from interfaces FastEthernet0/5, FastEthernet0/6, and FastEthernet0/10 would be monitored. The transmitted traffic for VLAN 4 on the FastEthernet0/11 interface would be monitored.

An engineer plans to connect three switches (SW1, SW2, and SW3) in a lab. Before connecting the switches, he starts by configuring all three switches as VTP servers, with matching VTP domain name and password. He then configures some VLANs on each switch so that switch SW3 has a revision number of 10, switch SW2 has a revision number of 6, and switch SW1 has a revision number of 8. Only then does the engineer connect the switches with trunks: first SW1 to SW2, then SW2 to SW3, and then SW3 to SW1. Switch SW1 is elected the STP root switch in VLAN 1. Which answer most accurately states which VLAN configuration database is used, and why?

All use SW3's database because SW3 has the highest revision number. When any two switches connect with a trunk, and both use VTP in either client or server mode, they exchange VTP messages. Then the switch with the lower revision number updates its VLAN configuration database to match the VLAN configuration database with the higher revision number. In this case, with all three switches eventually connecting to each other through some path with trunks, the highest revision number database will win.

Trunking

Also called VLAN trunking, a method (using either the Cisco ISL protocol or the IEEE 802.1Q protocol) to support multiple VLANs that have members on more than one switch.

Overlapping subnets

An (incorrect) IP subnet design condition in which one subnet's range of addresses includes addresses in the range of another subnet.

Bridge ID (BID)

An 8-byte identifier for bridges and switches used by STP and RSTP. It is composed of a 2-byte priority field followed by a 6-byte System ID field that is usually filled with a MAC address.

Question 40 : Imagine you configured OSPFv2 in a small lab network. Which of the following answers list a condition that could keep the routers in your lab from learning all the routes to all the IPv4 routes in your small lab network? (Choose two answers.)

An ACL could be blocking router advertisements. Any physical layer problem that would prevent two neighboring routers from being able to ping each other's IPv4 addresses in the subnet that exists between the two routers.

Named access list

An ACL that identifies the various statements in the ACL based on a name rather than a number.

Layer 3 EtherChannel (L3 EtherChannel)

An EtherChannel that acts as a routed port (that is, not a switched port), and as such, is used by a switch's Layer 3 forwarding logic. As a result, the Layer 3 switch lists the Layer 3 EtherChannel in various routes in the switch's IP routing table, with the switch balancing traffic across the various ports in the Layer 3 EtherChannel.

Layer 2 EtherChannel (L2 EtherChannel)

An EtherChannel that acts as a switched port (that is, not a routed port), and as such, is used by a switch's Layer 2 forwarding logic. As a result, the Layer 2 switch lists the Layer 2 EtherChannel in switch MAC address tables, and when forwarding a frame based on one of these MAC table entries, the switch balances traffic across the various ports in the Layer 2 EtherChannel.

Extended ping

An IOS command in which the ping command accepts many other options besides just the destination IP address.

Dial pool

An IOS configuration concept for some interface-related resources that can be used and then released. For PPPoE, it is used to associate the dialer interface with the physical Ethernet interface.

Classful network

An IPv4 Class A, B, or C network. It is called a classful network because these networks are defined by the class rules for IPv4 addressing.

Global routing prefix

An IPv6 prefix, which defines an IPv6 address block made up of global unicast addresses, assigned to one organization, so that that organization has a block of globally unique IPv6 addresses to use in their network.

Cable Internet

An Internet access technology that uses a cable TV (CATV) cable, normally used for video, to send and receive data.

3G/4G Internet

An Internet access technology that uses wireless radio signals to communicate through mobile phone towers, most often used by mobile phones, tablets, and some other mobile devices.

Read-only community

An SNMP community (a value that acts as a password), defined on an SNMP agent, which then must be supplied by any SNMP manager that sends the agent any messages asking to learn the value of a variable (like SNMP Get and GetNext requests).

Read-write community

An SNMP community (a value that acts as a password), defined on an SNMP agent, which then must be supplied by any SNMP manager that sends the agent any messages asking to set the value of a variable (like SNMP Set requests).

Write community

Notification community

An SNMP community (a value that acts as a password), defined on an SNMP manager, which then must be supplied by any SNMP agent that sends the manager any unsolicited SNMP notifications (like SNMP Trap and Notify requests).

Forwarding state

An STP and RSTP port state in which an interface operates unrestricted by STP.

Rapid PVST+

An STP option in Cisco switches that creates an STP instance per VLAN while using the RSTP (802.1w) protocol for those STP instances.

PVST+

An STP option in Cisco switches that creates an STP instance per VLAN while using the STP (802.1D) protocol for those STP instances.

Forward delay

An STP timer, defaulting to 15 seconds, used to dictate how long an interface stays in the listening state, and the time spent in learning state. Also called the forward delay timer.

Permit

An action taken with an ACL that implies that the packet is allowed to proceed through the router and be forwarded.

RSTP adds some concepts to STP that enable ports to be used for a role if another port on the same switch fails. Which of the following statements correctly describe a port role that is waiting to take over for another port role? (Choose two answers.)

An alternate port waits to become a root port. A backup port waits to become a designated port. With RSTP, an alternate port is an alternate to the root port when a switch's root port fails. A backup port takes over for a designated port if the designated port fails.

Integrated Services (IntServ)

An approach to QoS, different from Differentiated Services (DiffServ), in which QoS is applied per flow, with reservations made for the necessary QoS characteristics for that flow.

Differentiated Services (DiffServ)

An approach to QoS, originally defined in RFC 2475, that uses a model of applying QoS per classification, with planning of which applications and other traffic types are assigned to each class, with each class given different QoS per-hop behaviors at each networking device in the path.

Distributed control plane

An approach to architecting network protocols and products that places some control plane functions into each networking device rather than centralizing the control plane functions in one or a few devices. An example is the use of routing protocols on each router which then work together so that each router learns Layer 3 routes.

Centralized control plane

An approach to architecting network protocols and products that places the control plane functions into a centralized function rather than distributing the function across the networking devices.

TCP synchronization

An effect that happens across many TCP connections whose segments cross the same congested link. The TCP connections increase their windows, the connections send more and more traffic, the link fills, the output queues fill, tail drops occur, causing TCP windows to quickly shrink, resulting in slower data transfer for the TCP connections and an underutilized link for a short period of time. The process can repeat, with the TCP connections synchronized.

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; a trouble ticket has been opened and states that a user is having connectivity problems from their PC. Which option is the root cause of these issues? (Choose two answers.) PC1 IP address: 10.100.100.40 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.128 Gateway: 10.100.100.129 DNS Server: 172.16.1.1 R1 ... ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.100.100.129 255.255.255.128 duplex auto speed auto ! SW1 ... ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/2 ! ...

An incorrect IP address. An incorrect subnet mask.

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; a trouble ticket has been opened and states that a user is having connectivity problems from their PC. Which option is the root cause of these issues? PC1 IP address: 10.100.100.140 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Gateway: 10.100.100.10 DNS Server: 172.16.1.1 R1 ... ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.100.100.129 255.255.255.0 duplex auto speed auto ! SW1 ... ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/2 ! ...

An incorrect gateway address

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; a trouble ticket has been opened and states that a user is having connectivity problems from their PC. Which options are the root cause of these issues? (Choose two answers.) PC1 IP address: 10.100.100.140 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.128 Gateway: 10.100.100.129 DNS Server: 172.16.1.228 R1 ... ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.100.100.129 255.255.255.128 duplex auto speed auto ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 172.16.1.218 255.255.255.248 duplex auto speed auto ! SW1 ... ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/2 ! ...

An incorrect subnet mask. An incorrect IP address.

Classful routing protocol

An inherent characteristic of a routing protocol. Specifically, the routing protocol does not send subnet masks in its routing updates. This requires the protocol to make assumptions about classful networks and makes it unable to support VLSM and manual route summarization.

Classless routing protocol

An inherent characteristic of a routing protocol. Specifically, the routing protocol sends subnet masks in its routing updates, thereby removing any need to make assumptions about the addresses in a particular subnet or network. This allows the protocol to support VLSM and manual route summarization.

Virtual machine

An instance of an operating system, running on server hardware that uses a hypervisor to allocate a subset of the server hardware (CPU, RAM, disk, and network) to that VM.

ASIC (application-specific integrated circuit)

An integrated circuit (computer chip) designed for a specific purpose or application, often used to implement the functions of a networking device rather than running a software process as part of the device's OS that runs on a general-purpose processor.

Application-specific integrated circuit (ASIC)

Frame Relay

An international standard data link protocol that defines the capabilities to create a frame-switched (packet-switched) service, allowing DTE devices (usually routers) to send data to many other devices using a single physical connection to the Frame Relay service.

Router R1 has a Serial0/0/0 interface with address 2001:1:1:1::1/64, and a G0/0 interface with address 2001:2:2:2::1/64. The OSPFv3 process uses process ID 1. Which of the following OSPFv3 configuration commands enables OSPFv3 on R1's G0/0 interface and places it into area 0?

An ipv6 ospf 1 area 0 command in G0/0 interface configuration mode

ODL (OpenDaylight)

An open source SDN controller, created by an open source effort of the OpenDaylight project under the Linux foundation, built with the intent to have a common SDN controller code base from which vendors could then take the code and add further features and support to create SDN controller products.

SNMP Trap message

An unsolicited SNMP message generated by the managed device, and sent to the SNMP manager, to give information to the manager about some event or because a measurement threshold has been passed.

SNMP Inform message

An unsolicited SNMP message like a Trap message, except that the protocol requires that the Inform message needs to be acknowledged by the SNMP manager.

Host A and Host B sit in two different subnets. The path between the subnets of these two hosts runs through three different Layer 3 forwarding devices (routers and Layer 3 switches). A network engineer uses the APIC-EM Path Trace ACL Analysis tool to analyze the path used for Host A to send packets to Host B. Which part of the function is done specifically by the ACL Analysis or ACL Trace part of the tool?

Analysis of the impact of ACLs on the packets that would flow from Host A to B

R1 and R2 attach to the same Ethernet VLAN, with subnet 10.1.19.0/25, with addresses 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2, respectively, configured with the ip address interface subcommand. The routers use HSRP. The network engineer prefers to have R1 be the default router when both R1 and R2 are up. Which of the following is the likely default router setting for hosts in this subnet?

Another IP address in subnet 10.1.19.0/25 other than 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2

BGP neighbor

Another term for BGP peer. A reference to another router with which a router has formed a BGP neighbor or peer relationship.

Ethernet LAN Service

Another term for E-LAN

Ethernet Line Service

Another term for E-Line

Ethernet Tree Service

Another term for E-Tree

Northbound Interface

Another term for Northbound API.

Southbound Interface

Another term for Southbound API.

Switched virtual interface (SVI)

Another term for any VLAN interface in a Cisco switch.

WAN link

Another term for leased line.

REST API

Any API that uses Representational State Transfer (REST), which means that the two programs, on separate computers, use HTTP messages to request and transfer data.

DHCP attack

Any attack that takes advantage of DHCP protocol messages.

Virtual network function (VNF)

Any function done within a network (for example, router, switch, firewall) that is implemented not as a physical device but as an OS running in a virtualized system (for instance, a VM).

Internet access technology

Any technology that an ISP offers that allows its customer to send and receive data to/from the ISP, including serial links, Frame Relay, MPLS, Metro Ethernet, DSL, cable, and fiber Internet.

Denial of service (DoS)

Any type of attack in which the attack causes harm by denying the normal use of the network to legitimate users.

ABR

Area Border Router. A router using OSPF in which the router has interfaces in multiple OSPF areas.

Area Border Router

Area Border Router. A router using OSPF in which the router has interfaces in multiple OSPF areas.

ADSL

Asymmetric digital subscriber line. One of many DSL technologies, ADSL is designed to deliver more bandwidth downstream (from the central office to the customer site) than upstream.

Which of the following settings are required to match between two EIGRP neighbors? (Choose two answers.)

Authentication must match. Same autonomous system number must be used.

Which IEEE 802.1x device role is typically performed by a LAN switch?

Authenticator

With IEEE 802.1x, which role does a LAN switch typically play?

Authenticator

ASBR

Autonomous System Border Router. A router using OSPF in which the router learns routes via another source, usually another routing protocol, exchanging routes that are external to OSPF with the OSPF domain.

ASBR Autonomous System Border Router

What is one of the main drawbacks to using autosummarization?

Autosummarization requires networks to be contiguous

CHAP

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol. A security feature defined by PPP that allows either or both endpoints on a link to authenticate the other device as a particular authorized device.

Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)

Question 84 : Which of the following is true about PortFast and BPDU Guard?

BPDU Guard shuts down a port if a BPDU is seen on that port.

Which of the following affect the calculation of EIGRP metrics when all possible default values are used? (Choose two answers.)

Bandwidth Delay

This capture shows an EIGRP update being sent. From the circled options, which components are used, by default, to calculate the metric for a route to the subnet 10.4.0.0/24? (Choose two answers.)

Bandwidth Delay

Which of the following attributes do QoS tools manage? (Choose three answers.)

Bandwidth Delay Loss QoS tools manage bandwidth, delay, jitter, and loss.

Which of the following IEEE 802.1D port states are stable states used when STP has completed convergence? (Choose two answers.)

Blocking Forwarding Listening and learning are transitory port states, used only when moving from the blocking to the forwarding state. Discarding is not an 802.1D STP port state.

Which statements are correctly describing an attribute of the stated routing protocol?

Both EIGRP and RIPv2 are considered distance vector (DV) protocols.

An engineer compares the output of the show vtp status command on two neighboring switches. One switch, SW1, acts as VTP server, while the other, SW2, acts as a VTP client. What items in the command output confirm that synchronization has completed? (Choose two answers.)

Both list the same "last updater" IP address and timestamp. Both list the same configuration revision number. VTP synchronization causes two neighboring VTP server and/or client switches to update the switch with the configuration database that has the lower revision number to use the newer database from the neighbor that has the higher revision number. Once completed, the show vtp status command on both switches will list the same revision number. Because both use the same configuration database, both will list the same information about the "last updater," which is this command's method of referring to the VTP server that last changed the configuration. The two incorrect answers list text that does not occur in the output of the show vtp status command.

An enterprise uses a dual-stack model of deployment for IPv4 and IPv6, using OSPF as the routing protocol for both. Router R1 has IPv4 and IPv6 addresses on its G0/0 and S0/0/0 interfaces only, with OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 enabled on both interfaces for area 0 and the router ID explicitly set for both protocols. Comparing the OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 configuration, which of the following statements is true?

Both protocols use the router-id router-id router subcommand.

Which of the following are true about OSPFv2 and OSPFv3? (Choose three answers.)

Both use path cost as their metric. Default reference bandwidth is 100 Mbps. OSPF uses multicast messages to maintain neighbor relationships.

BPDU

Bridge protocol data unit. The generic name for Spanning Tree Protocol messages.

Routers A and B use EIGRP. How does router A watch for the status of router B so that router A can react if router B fails?

By using EIGRP Hello messages, with A needing to receive periodic Hello messages to believe B is still working.

Which of the following controllers (if any) from Cisco uses a mostly centralized control plane model?

Cisco Open SDN Controller

Refer to the diagram; which option is the term used to reference the devices indicated with a green arrow?

Question 95 : What is the name of the Cisco feature that is used to improve the IP matching process by building two optimized lookup tables?

CEF

What authentication method is considered more secure when using PPP?

CHAP

Which authentication type is typically used by the ISP when using PPPoE?

CHAP

Which of the following PPP authentication protocols authenticates a device on the other end of a link without sending any password information in clear text?

CHAP

Consider the following excerpt from the output of a show interfaces command on an interface configured to use PPP: Serial0/0/1 is up, line protocol is down Hardware is GT96K Serial Internet address is 192.168.2.1/24 A ping of the IP address on the other end of the link fails. Which of the following are reasons for the failure, assuming that the problem listed in the answer is the only problem with the link? (Choose two answers.)

CHAP authentication failed. The router on the other end of the link has been configured to use HDLC.

Which DSCP marking group was created to be backward compatible with Internet Protocol Precedence (IPP) values?

Internetwork Operating System (IOS)

Cisco operating system software that provides the majority of a router's or switch's features, with the hardware providing the remaining features.

Which of the following statements is true about IPv6 ACLs?

Cisco router interfaces can have both IPv4 and IPv6 ACLs applied inbound and outbound on a single interface.

Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client

Cisco software product used as client software on user devices to create a client VPN. Commonly referred to as the Cisco VPN client.

Three redundant IPv6 routes exist on R1 to reach IPv6 subnet 9 (2009:9:9:9::/64), a subnet connected to Router R9's G0/0 interface. R1's current successor route uses R2 as the next hop, with feasible successor routes through Routers R3 and R4. Then, another engineer makes changes to the configuration in the network, resulting in R1 having no routes to reach subnet 9. Which of the answers lists one configuration that would result in R1 having no routes at all to subnet 9?

Change R1's EIGRP ASN to some other number, but otherwise keep the same configuration.

You are the administrator of the network shown in the figure. Routers A and C have been configured as shown in the figure, but router B does not have any routing protocol configuration yet. A colleague has suggested the configuration shown in the exhibit for router B, claiming that it will allow all three routers to then exchange routes. Which of the following answers best describes which lines of the suggested configuration need to be changed for the configuration to work, or whether the configuration does not actually need changes? 1) router eigrp 501 2) network 192.168.50.0 3) network 10.0.0.0

Change line 1.

You are the administrator of the network that is pictured in the figure. The WAN links and EIGRP have just been enabled for the first time. A user at location A (the LAN on the left) reports that he is unable to reach users at location B (the LAN on the right). Which of the following answers offers a working solution to the problem shown in the figure? (Choose two answers.)

Change the IP addresses on the link between routers A and B to use a subnet of network 10.0.0.0 Disable EIGRP autosummarization on both A and B.

You are the administrator of the network pictured next. The WAN links and EIGRP have just been enabled for the first time. A user at location A reports that she is unable to reach users at location B. What can you do to fix this problem?

Change the autonomous system on router B to 1.

CSU/DSU

Channel service unit/data service unit. A device that connects a physical circuit installed by the telco to some CPE device, adapting between the voltages, current, framing, and connectors used on the circuit to the physical interface supported by the DTE.

An engineer configures a switch to put interfaces G0/1 and G0/2 into the same Layer 2 EtherChannel. Which of the following terms is used in the configuration commands?

Channel-group

PortFast enables you to set ports on your switch to be placed in a forwarding state once the host device is plugged in. What Cisco feature enables you to detect switches or any other networking devices that could cause problems on links with PortFast enabled?

Cisco BPDU Guard

CIDR

Classless interdomain routing. An RFC-standard tool for global IP address range assignment. CIDR reduces the size of Internet routers' IP routing tables, helping deal with the rapid growth of the Internet. The term classless refers to the fact that the summarized groups of networks represent a group of addresses that do not confirm to IPv4 classful (Class A, B, and C) grouping rules.

What is the primary reason to use PPP between a Cisco router and a third-party router?

Compatibility

Review the following partial output from the running-configuration on R4, along with the provided topology diagram. ipv6 unicast-routing ! interface Serial1/0 ipv6 address FE80::4 link-local ipv6 address 2001:DB8:6783:34::4/64 ipv6 ospf 1 area 0 ! ! interface GigabitEthernet2/0 mac-address 0000.4444.4444 ipv6 address FE80::4 link-local ipv6 address 2001:DB8:6783:45::4/64 ipv6 ospf 1 area 0 ! Which of the following should be added to add Subnet 34 and 45 to area 0 in an IPv6 only network?

Configure a router ID in OSPFv3 router configuration mode.

Your company recently acquired another company, and has asked you to configure the local WAN connection to their location. Because the new company had their own policy when they previously implemented their network, multiple different vendors were used throughout their network. The CSU/DSU and appropriate cables are in place. Before performing any configuration, the following command was issued: R3#show interfaces ser0/0/1 Serial0/0/1 is up, line protocol is down Hardware is GT96K Serial MTU 1500 bytes, BW 1544 Kbit/sec, DLY 20000 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation HDLC, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) CRC checking enabled Last input 00:02:01, output 00:02:00, output hang never Last clearing of "show interface" counters never Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0 Queueing strategy: weighted fair Based on the output, which of the following additional components must be configured on your local router (R3) to enable connectivity with the remote router? (Choose two answers.)

Configure an IP address Specify the encapsulation

Which of the following are not valid configuration elements for a Cisco IOS router that is going to use PPPoE in conjunction with a DSL connection?

Configure an IP address on the Ethernet interface of the router that connects the DSL services.

A router uses EIGRP to learn routes and adds those to the IPv4 routing table. That action is an action that occurs as part of which plane of the switch?

Control plane

Refer to the exhibit; which APIC-EM ACL analysis tool error type is this an example of? ip access-list extended thisacl permit tcp host 192.168.1.1 any eq www permit tcp any host 172.16.1.1 eq www

Correlation rule

What options are not true about DSL and cable WAN access?

DSL is asymmetrical, whereas cable data services are normally symmetrical (up and down speeds being the same).

What is the field that is used on modern systems that allows an IP packet to be marked with a specific QoS value?

DSCP

You are building a small test network at the central office to test various encapsulation techniques before deploying them on the WAN. Which cable combinations, used together, would work between the two routers in the diagram?

DTE on one router, DCE on the other, with no CSU/DSU required

What is the name of the protocol used on Cisco switches that provides a mechanism to negotiate the state of a VLAN trunk?

DTP The Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is used on Cisco switches to negotiate the state of a VLAN trunk. The default administrative mode of a switch port is dependent on the switch model. Typically they are configured with an administrative mode of dynamic desirable or dynamic auto. When in dynamic desirable mode, the switch will actively attempt to form a trunk with a connected neighbor; if the neighbor is configured with an administrative mode of dynamic desirable, dynamic auto, or as a static trunk, a trunk will form between the switches. When configured as dynamic auto, the switch will passively negotiate with a neighbor, but only if the neighbor initiates the negotiation; this happens if the neighbor is configured with an administrative mode of dynamic desirable or as a static trunk.

DCE

Data circuit-terminating equipment. Also refers to data communications equipment. From a physical layer perspective, the device providing the clocking on a WAN link, usually a CSU/DSU, is the DCE. From a packet-switching perspective, the service provider's switch, to which a router might connect, is considered the DCE.

A Layer 2 switch examines a frame's destination MAC address and chooses to forward that frame out port G0/1 only. That action is an action that occurs as part of which plane of the switch?

Data plane

A network uses an SDN architecture with switches and a centralized controller. Which of the following terms describes a function or functions expected to be found on the switches but not on the controller?

Data plane functions

DTE

Data terminal equipment. From a Layer 1 perspective, the DTE synchronizes its clock based on the clock sent by the DCE. From a packet-switching perspective, the DTE is the device outside the service provider's network, usually a router.

Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)

Defined in IEEE 802.1w. Defines an improved version of STP that converges much more quickly and consistently than STP (802.1d).

In a router running a recent IOS version (at least version 15.0), an engineer needs to delete the second line in ACL 101, which currently has four commands configured. Which of the following options could be used? (Choose two answers.)

Delete the entire ACL and reconfigure the three ACL statements that should remain in the ACL. Delete one line from the ACL by entering ACL configuration mode for the ACL and then deleting only the second line based on its sequence number.

Which Metro Ethernet terms are referencing the same service type? (Choose three answers.)

E-Line, point-to-point E-Tree, hub-and-spoke E-LAN, full mesh

Learn

Describes how switches discover MAC addresses by examining the source MAC addresses of frames they receive. They add each new MAC address, along with the port number of the port on which it learned of the MAC address, to an address table.

Which of the following would be in a forwarding state in STP? (Choose two answers.)

Designated ports The root port on a nonroot switch

An enterprise uses Cisco IOS routers and DSL connections to local ISPs for their retail locations. The ISPs require the use of PPPoE. The following output listed comes from one such router (R1). Which of the following answers are true about the configuration on Router R1 and its current PPPoE state? (Choose two answers.) R1# show pppoe session 1 client session Uniq ID PPPoE RemMAC Port VT VA State SID LocMAC VA-st Type N/A 1 0200.0000.3333 Gi0/0 Di1 Vi1 UP 0200.0000.3003 UP

Dialer interface 1 and virtual-access 1 are bound together. The PPPoE session is currently working.

DS0

Digital signal level 0. A 64-Kbps line or channel of a faster line inside a telco whose origins are to support a single voice call using the original voice (PCM) codecs.

DS1

Digital signal level 1. A 1.544-Mbps line from the telco, with 24 DS0 channels of 64 Kbps each, plus an 8-Kbps management and framing channel. Also called a T1.

DS3

Digital signal level 3. A 44.736-Mbps line from the telco, with 28 DS1 channels plus overhead. Also called a T3.

What is the name of the algorithm that is used by OSPF to process the best path based on the information in the LSDB?

Dijkstra

What is the name of the method that can be used to overcome advertising multiple prefixes to an ISP using a single route?

Discard route

DNS

Domain Name System. An application layer protocol used throughout the Internet for translating hostnames into their associated IP addresses.

Refer to the diagram; which Internet edge design is shown?

Dual multihomed

Which of the following routing protocols use a metric that is, by default, at least partially affected by link bandwidth? (Choose two answers.)

EIGRP OSPF

When configuring a serial interface, what is the purpose of the bandwidth command?

It is used in EIGRP to calculate metrics.

What is the name of the protocol that is used by IEEE 802.1x devices to communicate with the authenticator and authentication server?

EAP

Which DSCP value is suggested to be used for packets that need low latency, low jitter, and low loss?

Which public cloud WAN connection options do not offer the ability to easily migrate between providers? (Choose two answers.)

MPLS VPN Ethernet VPN

The figure and exhibit show a router with its EIGRP configuration. All interfaces on the router are in an "up/up" state. Which of the following statements is true about EIGRP operations on this router? (Choose two answers.) router eigrp 9 network 192.168.3.0 network 192.168.2.0

EIGRP is active on Fast Ethernet 0/1. EIGRP is active on Fast Ethernet 0/0.

The exhibit shows the output of a show ip protocols command on a router. Which of the following statements can you prove based on the information in the command output? HICKORY#show ip protocols Routing Protocol is "eigrp 100" Outgoing update filter list for all interfaces is Incoming update filter list for all interfaces is Default networks flagged in outgoing updates Default networks accepted from incoming updates EIGRP metric weight K1=1, K2=0, K3=1, K4=0, K5=0 EIGRP maximum hopcount 100 EIGRP maximum metric variance 1 Redistributing: eigrp 100 Automatic network summarization is in effect Automatic address summarization: 192.168.22.0/24 for Serial1/0, Serial1/1 192.168.2.0/24 for FastEthernet0/0 Summarizing with metric 20512000 Routing for Networks: 192.168.2.0 192.168.22.0 Routing Information Sources: Gateway Distance Last Update (this router) 5 00:00:13 192.168.2.101 90 00:00:03 192.168.2.200 90 00:00:03 Distance: internal 90 external 170 HICKORY#

EIGRP on this router autosummarizes network 192.168.22.0.

What is the name of the MetroE concept that defines which user devices can communicate with each other?

EVC

Which statements are true about the implementation of VLANs without inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two answers.)

Each VLAN will be it its own broadcast domain. Each VLAN will only be able to communicate with members in the same VLAN.

Refer to the diagram; which options are true about this configuration? (Choose two answers.)

Each customer router would learn the routes from all other customer routers. Each customer router would form a neighborship with the provider edge routers.

What are the minimum commands required to establish serial connectivity between a new Cisco router and a third-party router?

Encapsulation PPP

You have been asked to explain the benefits of adding IPsec VPNs to your existing WAN connections, which handles packets through the providers networks between your headquarters office and your remote sites. What are the benefits? (Choose three answers.)

Encryption Data Integrity Authentication

EIGRP

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol. An advanced version of IGRP developed by Cisco. Provides superior convergence properties and operating efficiency and combines the advantages of link-state protocols with those of distance vector protocols.

What are the two primary methods used to ensure there is a hostname-to-IP address lookup available for a newly deployed cloud application?

Enterprise DNS Cloud-managed DNS

Which BGP neighbor state is used when a peering is considered stable?

Established

Which of the following features is true of eBGP but not iBGP?

Exchanges routes between an ISP and an enterprise

A customer at Host A has called the help desk indicating that Server 1 in Subnet 5 cannot be reached. What can you do to verify the forward and return connectivity between Subnet 12 and Subnet 5? (Choose two answers.)

Extended ping from R1 Extended traceroute from R1

With what IPv6 destination prefix does a DHCPv6 Solicit address begin?

FF02::/16

Which two multicast addresses should be explicitly permitted when you want to ensure that IPv6 routers are able to inform hosts about local network characteristics and allow IPv6 hosts to request this same information?

FF02::1 FF02::2

The following output shows the last lines of output of a show spanning-tree command extracted from a Cisco switch running IOS: SW1# show spanning-tree vlan 10 ! lines omitted Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type ------------------- ---- --- --------- -------- ----------------------- Fa0/1 Desg FWD 100 128.1 P2p Edge Fa0/2 Desg FWD 19 128.2 Shr Gi0/1 Desg FWD 4 128.25 P2p Gi0/2 Root FWD 4 128.26 P2p The answers all mention an interface and the state listed in the Type column of the output, along with a reason why that port should be listed as that type of STP port. Which answers list what could be a correct reason for the interface to be listed as that type of STP port? (Choose two answers.)

Fa0/2 is Shr because Fa0/2 uses half duplex. Gi0/2 is P2p because the switch had no reason to make it Shr or P2p Edge. This question requires that you work through the reasons why a port is listed as a particular type of STP port per the Type column in the output of the show spanning-tree vlan 10 command. To begin, keep in mind that a port must have PortFast enabled to be listed as an edge port. That configuration requires either the spanning-tree portfast interface subcommand or through setting the switch to use PortFast as a default with the spanning-tree portfast default global command. Answer A shows a type that includes "edge" and the reason listed has nothing to do with PortFast, so that answer is incorrect.

The figure and exhibit show a router's interfaces and the associated configuration. On which interfaces is OSPF not active? router ospf 2 network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Fast Ethernet 0/0

If the following interfaces were administratively configured with a bandwidth command that matched the maximum physical speed of the link, which interfaces would have equal OSPF default costs? (Choose two answers.)

FastEthernet GigabitEthernet

FTP

File Transfer Protocol. An application protocol, part of the TCP/IP protocol stack, used to transfer files between network nodes. FTP is defined in RFC 959.

ACL 1 has three statements, in the following order, with address and wildcard mask values as follows: 1.0.0.0 0.255.255.255, 1.1.0.0 0.0.255.255, and 1.1.1.0 0.0.0.255. If a router tried to match a packet sourced from IP address 1.1.1.1 using this ACL, which ACL statement does a router consider the packet to have matched?

First

Neighbor table

For OSPF and EIGRP, a list of routers that have reached neighbor status.

Virtual MAC address (vMAC)

For any FHRP protocol, a MAC address that the FHRP uses to receive frames from hosts.

Virtual IP address

For any FHRP protocol, an IP address that the FHRP shares between multiple routers so that they appear as a single default router to hosts on that subnet.

Zero subnet

For every classful IPv4 network that is subnetted, the one subnet whose subnet number has all binary 0s in the subnet part of the number. In decimal, the 0 subnet can be easily identified because it is the same number as the classful network number.

Delivery header

GRE term to refer to the outer unencrypted IP header used to encapsulate the data (often an encrypted payload packet).

Which of the following RSTP port states have the same name and purpose as a port state in traditional 802.1D STP? (Choose two answers.)

Forwarding Learning RSTP uses port states forwarding, learning, and discarding. Forwarding and learning perform the same functions as the port states used by traditional 802.1D STP.

Hub-and-spoke

From a topology perspective, any topology that has a device that can send messages to all other devices (the hub), with one or more spoke devices that can send messages only to the hub. Also called point-to-multipoint.

Point-to-multipoint (hub-and-spoke)

Point-to-point

From a topology perspective, any topology that has two and only two devices that can send messages directly to each other.

Full mesh

From a topology perspective, any topology that has two or more devices, with each device being able to send frames to every other device.

Reported distance

From one EIGRP router's perspective, the metric for a subnet as calculated on a neighboring router and reported in a routing update to the first router.

Reverse route

From one host's perspective, for packets sent back to the host from another host, the route over which the packet travels.

Forward route

From one host's perspective, the route over which a packet travels from that host to some other host.

Which of the following OSPF neighbor states is expected when the exchange of topology information is complete between two OSPF neighbors?

Full

Management plane

Functions in networking devices and controllers that control the devices themselves, but that do not impact the forwarding behavior of the devices like control plane protocols do.

Control plane

Functions in networking devices and controllers that directly control how devices perform data plane forwarding, but excluding the data plane processes that work to forward each message in the network.

Data plane

Functions in networking devices that are part of the process of receiving a message, processing the message, and forwarding the message.

Router R1 has a router-on-a-stick (ROAS) configuration with two subinterfaces of interface G0/1: G0/1.1 and G0/1.2. Physical interface G0/1 is currently in a down/down state. The network engineer then configures a shutdown command when in interface configuration mode for G0/1.1, and a no shutdown command when in interface configuration mode for G0/1.2. Which answers are correct about the interface state for the subinterfaces? (Choose two answers.)

G0/1.2 will be in a down/down state. G0/1.1 will be in an administratively down state.

Which technology is used by ERSPAN to send traffic between configured switches?

GRE

Refer to the exhibit; which of the interfaces shown are likely connected to another switch? (Choose two answers.) SW1#show mac address-table Mac Address Table ------------------------------------------- Vlan Mac Address Type Ports ---- ----------- -------- ----- 10 fa16.3e28.800a DYNAMIC Gi0/1 10 fa16.3ec6.800a DYNAMIC Gi0/2 10 fa16.3ee2.65fd DYNAMIC Gi1/0 20 fa16.3e28.8014 DYNAMIC Gi0/1 20 fa16.3e3a.52e1 DYNAMIC Gi1/1 20 fa16.3ec6.8014 DYNAMIC Gi0/2 30 fa16.3e28.801e DYNAMIC Gi0/1 30 fa16.3eab.7008 DYNAMIC Gi1/2 30 fa16.3ec6.801e DYNAMIC Gi0/2 40 fa16.3e28.8028 DYNAMIC Gi0/1 40 fa16.3e85.e4cf DYNAMIC Gi1/3 40 fa16.3ec6.8028 DYNAMIC Gi0/2 Total Mac Addresses for this criterion: 12 SW1#

Gi0/1 Gi0/2

Refer to the diagram; which of SW3's ports will become its root port and what will be its root cost?

Gi0/1, 8

Cisco Prime

Graphical user interface (GUI) software that utilizes SNMP and can be used to manage your Cisco network devices. The term Cisco Prime is an "umbrella" term that encompasses many different individual software products.

Which of the following are true about HDLC encapsulation?

HDLC is the Cisco default encapsulation type on serial interfaces.

Question 74 : R3 has a static route configured that points toward the service provider. What command could you use to have R3 advertise an OSPFv3 default route to the internal network, regardless of whether R3 had its default static route?

Have R3 use the command default-information originate always in OSPFv3 router configuration mode.

Which timers are used by EIGRP to maintain the status of a neighbor? (Choose two answers.)

Hello Interval Hold Timer

Which of the following are required for neighbors in OSPFv3? (Choose three answers.)

Hello and Dead Intervals must match. Authentication must match. ACLs must not filter the OSPF inbound packets from the neighbor.

HDLC

High-level Data Link Control. A bit-oriented synchronous data link layer protocol developed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO). Derived from synchronous data link control (SDLC), HDLC specifies a data encapsulation method on synchronous serial links using frame characters and checksums.

Which of the following may be connectivity problems for a device on an IPv6 network? (Choose two answers.)

Host having a different prefix length as their default router Two devices that share the same link-local address in the same network

The following text lists output taken from Router R3, which is using HSRP. Subnet 10.1.12.0 uses mask 255.255.255.0. Based on the output of this command, which of the following answers is true? R3# show standby brief Interface Grp Pri P State Active Standby Virtual IP Gi0/0 1 105 Active local 10.1.12.1 10.1.12.2

Hosts with a default router setting of 10.1.12.2 are sending their packets to Router R3.

Question 90 : In the virtualization world, the ___________ manages and allocates the host hardware for each VM.

Hypervisor

Refer to the exhibit; which options are true? (Choose three answers.) R1 ... ! ip sla 1 icmp-echo 10.10.10.2 frequency 10 ip sla 2 icmp-echo 172.16.2.1 source-ip 172.16.1.1 frequency 10 ! ... R1#show ip sla summary IPSLAs Latest Operation Summary Codes: * active, ^ inactive, ~ pending ID Type Destination Stats Return Last (ms) Code Run ----------------------------------------------------------------------- *1 icmp-echo 10.10.10.2 RTT=1 OK 9 seconds ago *2 icmp-echo 172.16.2.1 RTT=2 OK 7 seconds ago R1#

IP SLA entry 1 will send another Echo Request in 1 second. An ICMP Echo Request and Reply packet for IP SLA entry 2 takes 2 ms. The ICMP Echo Request packet arriving on the device configured with the 172.16.2.1 will have a source IP address of 172.16.1.1.

Which of the following QoS marking fields could remain with a packet while being sent through four different routers, over different LAN and WAN links? (Choose two answers.)

IPP DSCP

Which cloud service model gives a customer complete control over the virtual hardware components, including processor performance, network connectivity, how much memory and storage space is required, and potentially the operating system that is preinstalled?

IaaS

Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be purchased and then used to later install your own software applications?

IaaS

R1 and R2 attach to the same Ethernet VLAN, with subnet 10.1.19.0/25, with addresses 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2, respectively, configured with the ip address interface subcommand. The routers use an FHRP. Host A and host B attach to the same LAN and have correct default router settings per the FHRP configuration. Which of the following statements is true for this LAN?

If one router fails, both hosts will use the one remaining router as a default router.

R1 and R2 attach to the same Ethernet VLAN, with subnet 10.1.19.0/25, with addresses 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2, respectively, configured with the ip address interface subcommand. Host A refers to 10.1.19.1 as its default router, and host B refers to 10.1.19.2 as its default router. The routers do not use an FHRP. Which of the following is a problem for this LAN?

If one router fails, the host that uses that router as a default router cannot send packets off-subnet.

MaxAge

In STP, a timer that states how long a switch should wait when it no longer receives Hellos from the root switch before acting to reconverge the STP topology. Also called the MaxAge timer.

When a route is removed from the network, what does EIGRP do? (Choose two answers.)

If there is a feasible successor, that route immediately replaces the failed route. A query may be sent to EIGRP neighbors asking about the missing network.

Imagine a switch with three configured VLANs. How many IP subnets are required, assuming that all hosts in all VLANs want to use TCP/IP? Although a subnet and a VLAN are not equivalent concepts, the devices in one VLAN are typically in the same IP subnet and vice versa.

Blocking state

In 802.1D STP, a port state in which no received frames are processed and the switch forwards no frames out the interface, with the exception of STP messages.

Adjacency table

In Cisco IOS CEF, a table that keeps a copy of the outgoing data link headers that a router will then add to a packet before forwarding the packet, for the purpose of reducing the per-packet processing done by the router.

Maximum paths

In Cisco IOS, a reference to the number of equal cost routes (paths) to reach a single subnet that IOS will add to the IP routing table at the same time.

Low latency queue

In Cisco queuing systems, a queue from which the queue scheduling algorithm always takes packets next if the queue holds any packets. This scheduling choice means that packets in this queue spend little time in the queue, achieving low delay (latency) as well as low jitter.

Priority queue

In Cisco queuing systems, another term for a low latency queue (LLQ).

AutoQoS

In Cisco switches and routers, an IOS feature that configures a variety of QoS features with useful settings as defined by the Cisco reference design guide documents.

Router ID (RID)

In EIGRP and OSPF, a 32-bit number, written in dotted decimal, that uniquely identifies each router.

Feasible successor

In EIGRP, a route that is not the best route (successor route) but that can be used immediately if the best route fails, without causing a loop. Such a route meets the feasibility condition.

Feasible distance

In EIGRP, the metric of the best route to reach a subnet.

Successor

In EIGRP, the route to reach a subnet that has the best metric and should be placed in the IP routing table.

Feasibility condition

In EIGRP, when a router has learned of multiple routes to reach one subnet, if the best route's metric is X, the feasibility condition is another route whose reported distance is < X.

Root port

In STP, the one port on a nonroot switch in which the least-cost Hello is received. Switches put root ports in a forwarding state.

Root bridge (root switch.)

In STP, the switch that wins the election by virtue of having the lowest bridge ID, and, as a result, sends periodic Hello BPDUs (default, 2 seconds).

Root switch

In STP, the switch that wins the election by virtue of having the lowest bridge ID, and, as a result, sends periodic Hello BPDUs (default, 2 seconds).

Hello timer

In STP, the time interval at which the root switch should send Hello BPDUs.

Discontiguous network

In IPv4, an internetwork design in which packets being forwarded between two subnets of a single classful network must pass through the subnets of another classful network.

Dual stack

In IPv6, a mode of operation in which a host or router runs both IPv4 and IPv6.

Subnet prefix

In IPv6, a term for the prefix that is assigned to each data link, acting like a subnet in IPv4.

Registry prefix

In IPv6, the prefix that describes a block of public, globally unique IPv6 addresses assigned to a Regional Internet Registry by ICANN.

Site prefix

In IPv6, the prefix that describes a public globally unique IPv6 address block that has been assigned to an end-user organization (for example, an enterprise or government agency). The assignment usually is made by an ISP or Internet registry.

ISP prefix

In IPv6, the prefix that describes an address block that has been assigned to an ISP by some Internet registry.

Bandwidth profile

In Metro Ethernet, a contractual definition of the amount of traffic that the customer can send into the service, and receive out of the service. Includes a concept called the committed information rate (CIR), which defines the minimum amount of bandwidth (bits/second) the SP will deliver with the service.

Fully adjacent

In OSPF, a characterization of the state of a neighbor in which the two neighbors have reached the full state.

Reference bandwidth

In OSPF, a configurable value for the OSPF routing process, used by OSPF when calculating an interface's default OSPF cost metric, calculated as the interface's bandwidth divided by the reference bandwidth.

2-way state

In OSPF, a neighbor state that implies that the router has exchanged Hellos with the neighbor and that all required parameters match.

Full state

In OSPF, a neighbor state that implies that the two routers have exchanged the complete (full) contents of their respective LSDBs.

Internal router

In OSPF, a router with all interfaces in the same non-backbone area.

Dead Interval

In OSPF, a timer used for each neighbor. A router considers the neighbor to have failed if no Hellos are received from that neighbor in the time defined by the timer.

Network LSA

In OSPF, a type of LSA that a designated router (DR) creates for the network (subnet) for which the DR is helping to distribute LSAs.

Router LSA

In OSPF, a type of LSA that a router creates to describe itself and the networks connected to it.

Designated router

In OSPF, on a multiaccess network, the router that wins an election and is therefore responsible for managing a streamlined process for exchanging OSPF topology information between all routers attached to that network.

Link-state database (LSDB)

In OSPF, the data structure in RAM of a router that holds the various LSAs, with the collective LSAs representing the entire topology of the network.

LSA (link-state advertisement)

In OSPF, the name of the data structure that resides inside the LSDB and describes in detail the various components in a network, including routers and links (subnets).

Link-state advertisement (LSA)

In OSPF, the name of the data structure that resides inside the LSDB and describes in detail the various components in a network, including routers and links (subnets).

Interface bandwidth

In OSPF, the numerator in the calculation of an interface's default OSPF cost metric, calculated as the interface bandwidth divided by the reference bandwidth.

Multiarea

In OSPFv2 and OSPFv3, a design that uses multiple areas.

Backbone area

In OSPFv2 and OSPFv3, the special area in a multiarea design, with all nonbackbone areas needing to connect to the backbone area, area 0.

Summary LSA

In OSPFv2, a type of LSA, created by an Area Border Router (ABR), to describe a subnet in one area in the database of another area.

Interarea prefix LSA

In OSPFv6, a type of LSA similar to the Type 3 summary LSA in OSPFv2, created by an Area Border Router (ABR), to describe an IPv6 prefix in one area in the database of another area.

Delay

In QoS, the amount of time it takes for a message to cross a network. Delay can refer to one-way delay (the time required for the message to be sent from the source host to the destination host) or two-way delay (the delay from the source to the destination host and then back again).

Disabled port

In STP, a port role for nonworking interfaces—in other words, interfaces that are not in a connect or up/up interface state.

Learning state

In STP, a temporary port state in which the interface does not forward frames, but it can begin to learn MAC addresses from frames received on the interface.

Broadcast domain

In a LAN, which of the following terms best equates to the term VLAN? A VLAN is a set of devices in the same Layer 2 _________ _________. A subnet often includes the exact same set of devices, but it is a Layer 3 concept. A collision domain refers to a set of Ethernet devices, but with different rules than VLAN rules for determining which devices are in the same collision domain.

SPAN source VLAN

In a SPAN monitor session, the configuration that tells a switch to copy frames sent in that VLAN, and to then send those copied frames to the SPAN destination defined by that same SPAN session.

SPAN source port

In a SPAN monitor session, the configuration that tells a switch to copy frames sent or received on a particular port, and to then send those copied frames to the SPAN destination defined by that same SPAN session.

SPAN destination port

In a SPAN monitor session, the configuration that tells the switch out which port to forward frames copied based on that same SPAN session's source ports or source VLANs.

Single point of failure

In a network, a single device or link which, if it fails, causes an outage for a given population of users.

End of Row (EoR) switch

In a traditional data center design with servers in multiple racks, and the racks in multiple rows, a switch placed in a rack at the end of the row, intended to be cabled to all the Top of Rack (ToR) switches in the same row, to act as a distribution layer switch for the switches in that row.

Top of Rack (ToR) switch

In a traditional data center design with servers in multiple racks, and the racks in multiple rows, a switch placed in the top of the rack for the purpose of providing physical connectivity to the servers (hosts) in that rack.

Virtual CPU (vCPU)

In a virtualized server environment, a CPU (processor) core or thread allocated to a virtual machine (VM) by the hypervisor.

Virtual NIC (vNIC)

In a virtualized server environment, a network interface card (NIC) used by a virtual machine, which then connects to some virtual switch (vSwitch) running on that same host, which in turn connects to a physical NIC on the host.

Host

In a virtualized server environment, the term used to refer to one physical server that is running a hypervisor to create multiple virtual machines.

Which of the following describes a valid difference between stateful DHCP with IPv6 and IPv4?

In an IPv6 environment, the DHCP server does not provide the default gateway.

Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)

In an Internet edge design at an enterprise, one or more subnets set aside as a place to locate servers that should allow users in the Internet to initiate connections to those servers. The devices in the DMZ typically sit behind a firewall.

Designated port

In both STP and RSTP, a port role used to determine which of multiple interfaces on multiple switches, each connected to the same segment or collision domain, should forward frames to the segment. The switch advertising the lowest-cost Hello BPDU onto the segment becomes the DP.

Trunk

In campus LANs, an Ethernet segment over which the devices add a VLAN header that identifies the VLAN in which the frame exists.

Committed information rate (CIR)

In carrier/Metro Ethernet, the concept of the committed amount of bandwidth (typically measured in bits/second) that the SP commits to deliver over a particular EVC; the SP may deliver more bits/second than the CIR, but it commits to the amount defined by the CIR.

Multithreading

In computer architecture, a process of maximizing the use of a processor core by sharing an individual core among multiple programs, taking advantage of the typical idle times for the core while it waits on various other tasks like memory reads and writes.

Integrity

In data transfers, means that the network administrator can determine that the information has not been tampered with in transit.

Neighbor

In routing protocols, another router with which a router decides to exchange routing information.

What of the following rules does an OSPF router follow with regard to the selection of a router ID when the OSPF process starts? (Choose three answers.)

In the absence of a specified router ID, the highest IP on a loopback is used. The highest IP on a nonloopback interface is the last choice for use as router ID in OSPF. An administratively configured router ID is used as the first choice.

NBI (Northbound API)

In the area of SDN, a reference to the APIs that a controller supports that gives outside programs access to the services of the controller; for instance, to supply information about the network or to program flows into the network. Also called a Northbound Interface.

SBI (Southbound API)

In the area of SDN, a reference to the APIs used between a controller and the network elements for the purpose of learning information from the elements and for programming (controlling) the forwarding behavior of the elements. Also called a Southbound Interface.

Infinity

In the context of IP routing protocols, a finite metric value defined by the routing protocol that is used to represent an unusable route in a routing protocol update.

IP Precedence (IPP)

In the original definition of the IP header's Type of Service (ToS) byte, the first 3 bits of the ToS byte, used for marking IP packets for the purpose of applying QoS actions.

Type of Service (ToS)

In the original definition of the IP header, a byte reserved for the purpose of QoS functions, including holding the IP Precedence field. The ToS byte was later repurposed to hold the DSCP field.

Where is the VTP domain stored on a switch?

In the vlan.dat file

Where is the VTP mode stored on a switch?

In the vlan.dat file

Which is an unsolicited message from an SNMP agent that requires acknowledgement from a Network management station (NMS)?

Inform

Switch SW1 sends a frame to switch SW2 using 802.1Q trunking. Which of the answers describes how SW1 changes or adds to the Ethernet frame before forwarding the frame to SW2?

Inserts a 4-byte header and does not change the MAC addresses 802.1Q defines a 4-byte header, inserted after the original frame's destination and source MAC address fields. The insertion of this header does not change the original frame's source or destination address. The header itself holds a 12-bit VLAN ID field, which identifies the VLAN associated with the frame.

ISDN

Integrated Services Digital Network. A communication protocol offered by telephone companies that permits telephone networks to carry data, voice, and video.

A Layer 3 switch has been configured to route IP packets between VLANs 1, 2, and 3 using SVIs, which connect to subnets 172.20.1.0/25, 172.20.2.0/25, and 172.20.3.0/25, respectively. The engineer issues a show ip route connected command on the Layer 3 switch, listing the connected routes. Which of the following answers lists a piece of information that should be in at least one of the routes?

Interface VLAN 2

Which of the following configuration settings does not have a separate IPv4/EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6/EIGRP for IPv6 setting, instead using one setting that both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 use?

Interface bandwidth

IGRP

Interior Gateway Routing Protocol. An old, no-longer-supported interior gateway protocol (IGP) developed by Cisco.

Which public cloud WAN connection options do not offer the ability to have reliable QoS? (Choose two answers.)

Internet Internet VPN

ICMPv6

Internet Control Message Protocol for IPv6, used for a variety of purposes, including the Echo Request/Reply messages used by the ping command, and also including Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP).

Which of the following statements is true about ICMP Echo-based IP SLA?

It can collect and aggregate historical statistics.

R1#show int ser 0/3/0 Serial0/3/0 is down, line protocol is down Hardware is GT96K Serial MTU 1500 bytes, BW 1544 Kbit/sec, DLY 20000 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation HDLC, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) CRC checking enabled Last input never, output never, output hang never Last clearing of "show interface" counters never Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0 Based on the output shown, what is true about interface serial 0/3/0?

It has a physical layer problem.

R4#show ip eigrp topology IP-EIGRP Topology Table for AS(1)/ID(10.45.0.4) Codes: P - Passive, A - Active, U - Update, Q - Query, R - Reply, r - reply Status, s - sia Status P 10.15.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 28416 via 10.45.0.5 (28416/28160), GigabitEthernet2/0 P 10.12.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 28672 via 10.45.0.5 (28672/28416), GigabitEthernet2/0 via 10.24.0.2 (64512/2816), Serial3/0 P 10.2.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 28160 via Connected, FastEthernet4/0 P 10.1.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 30976 via 10.45.0.5 (30976/30720), GigabitEthernet2/0 via 10.24.0.2 (67072/28416), Serial3/0 P 10.4.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 28416 via 10.45.0.5 (28416/28160), GigabitEthernet2/0 P 10.24.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 64256 via Connected, Serial3/0 P 10.45.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 2816 via Connected, GigabitEthernet2/0 From the output provided, what does the number 2816 associated with the network of 10.12.0.0/24 represent? (Choose two answers.)

It is R4's RD for the route through R2 It is the FD on R2

Which options are correct when referencing OSPF? (Choose three answers.)

It uses the Dijkstra algorithm. It uses the 224.0.0.5 multicast address. It uses IP protocol type 89.

Refer to the diagram; if R1 is the OSPF DR and R2 is the OSPF BDR, which of the options are true about R3 (assuming the configuration is correct)? (Choose two answers.)

It would be listed as a DRother router. It would be in the 2-way state.

What is the name of the feature that manages multiple links between two nodes and load balances data-link frames across those multiple links by fragmenting each frame into pieces?

MLPPP

Router on a Stick (ROAS)

Jargon to refer to the Cisco router feature of using VLAN trunking on an Ethernet interface, which then allows the router to route packets that happen to enter the router on that trunk and then exit the router on that same trunk, just on a different VLAN.

OSPF super backbone

Jargon used to refer to how when an MPLS VPN customer uses OSPF, that the MPLS VPN service acts as if it were part of OSPF backbone area 0, with that part of area 0 being called the super backbone.

Which QoS options are recommended by Cisco when designing for a voice network? (Choose two answers.)

Jitter < 30 ms Loss < 1%

KVM (Red Hat)

Kernel-Based Virtual Machine (KVM), a server virtualization/hypervisor product from the Red Hat company.

OSPF utilizes _________ to organize topology information.

LSAs

An engineer hears about DHCP snooping and decides to implement it. The network includes devices that act primarily as Layer 2 switches, multilayer switches (that is, they perform both Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching), and routers. Which of the following are the devices on which DHCP snooping could be implemented? (Choose two answers.)

Layer 2 switches Multilayer switches

LAPF

Link Access Procedure Frame Bearer Services. Defines the basic Frame Relay header and trailer. The header includes DLCI, FECN, BECN, and DE bits.

LACP

Link Aggregation Control Protocol is a messaging protocol defined by the IEEE 802.3ad standard which enables two neighboring devices to realize that they have multiple parallel links connecting to each other, and then to decide which links can be combined into an EtherChannel.

Which OSPF message type is used to actually send the LSAs between neighbors?

Link-State Update

Which of the following are included in the output of the command show ipv6 eigrp neighbors? (Choose three answers.)

Link-local addresses of neighbors Local interface used to connect to each neighbor Hold time remaining for each neighbor

Which of the following are transitory IEEE 802.1D port states used only during the process of STP convergence? (Choose two answers.)

Listening Learning Listening and learning are transitory port states, used only when moving from the blocking to the forwarding state. Discarding is not an 802.1D STP port state. Forwarding and blocking are stable states.

EUI-64

Literally, a standard for an extended unique identifier that is 64 bits long. Specifically for IPv6, a set of rules for forming a 64-bit identifier, used as the interface ID in IPv6 addresses, by starting with a 48-bit MAC address, inserting FFFE (hex) in the middle, and inverting the seventh bit.

What is true about load balancing and EIGRPv6 learned routes? (Choose three answers.)

Load balancing for equal-cost successor routes is on by default. The variance command in EIGRPv6 allows some of the feasible successor routes within the range the variance provides to be used for forwarding some traffic. The maximum number of equal-cost paths for EIGRPv6 can be controlled with the maximum-paths command.

Look at the diagram and the output in the exhibit. Your manager wants to utilize all the throughput the network has to offer, and wants to know more about R2, and its routing decisions to reach the network of 10.4.0.0/24, and why load balancing isn't enabled. What can you tell him? R2#show ip protocols Routing Protocol is "ospf 1" Outgoing update filter list for all interfaces is not set Incoming update filter list for all interfaces is not set Router ID 10.24.0.2 Number of areas in this router is 1. 1 normal 0 stub 0 nssa Maximum path: 4 Routing for Networks: 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 Reference bandwidth unit is 100 mbps Routing Information Sources: Gateway Distance Last Update 10.15.0.1 110 00:00:40 10.45.0.5 110 00:00:30 10.45.0.4 110 00:00:30 Distance: (default is 110) R2#show ip ospf neighbor Neighbor ID Pri State Dead Time Address Interface 10.45.0.4 0 FULL/ - 00:00:30 10.24.0.4 Serial3/0 10.15.0.1 1 FULL/BDR 00:00:31 10.12.0.1 GigabitEthernet1/0 R2#show ip route ospf 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 7 subnets O 10.15.0.0 [110/2] via 10.12.0.1, 00:00:49, GigabitEthernet1/0 O 10.2.0.0 [110/4] via 10.12.0.1, 00:00:39, GigabitEthernet1/0 O 10.1.0.0 [110/2] via 10.12.0.1, 00:00:49, GigabitEthernet1/0 O 10.4.0.0 [110/3] via 10.12.0.1, 00:00:39, GigabitEthernet1/0 O 10.45.0.0 [110/3] via 10.12.0.1, 00:00:39, GigabitEthernet1/0

Load balancing is on, but only for equal cost paths

Question 7 : An enterprise uses Cisco IOS routers and DSL connections to local ISPs for their retail locations. The ISPs require the use of PPPoE. A network engineer connects to the console of one router at a retail office, issues the show pppoe session command, and the router just returns a command prompt, with no lines of output. If you knew the problem was related to the configuration on the local router, which one of the four following areas would be the best area to recommend for your colleagues to investigate in their next troubleshooting step?

Look at the commands on the physical Ethernet interface

Which congestion management solution was designed specifically for voice and video that has specialized low delay, jitter, and loss requirements?

Low Latency Queuing

Question 65 : __________ means that the QoS tool changes one or more header fields, setting a value in the header.

Marking

Barney is a host with IP address 10.1.1.1 in subnet 10.1.1.0/24. Which of the following are things that a standard IP ACL could be configured to do? (Choose two answers.)

Match the exact source IP address. Match all IP addresses in Barney's subnet with one access-list command without matching other IP addresses.

Which option is not one of the requirements for VTP to work between two switches?

Matching VTP mode

Which of the following are available methods of classifying packets in DiffServ on Cisco routers? (Choose three answers.)

Matching the IP DSCP field Matching the 802.1p CoS field Matching fields with an extended IP ACL

MTU

Maximum transmission unit. The maximum packet size, in bytes, that a particular interface can handle.

Question 5 : R1 and R2 are routers that connect to the same VLAN. Which of the answers list an item that can prevent the two routers from becoming EIGRP for IPv6 neighbors? (Choose two answers.)

Mismatched ASNs One passive router interface (used on this link)

1 and R2 are routers that connect to the same VLAN. Which of the answers list an item that can prevent the two routers from becoming OSPFv3 neighbors? (Choose three answers.)

Mismatched Hello timers Equal router IDs One passive router interface (used on this link)

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; an engineer is attempting to configure VTP to operate between two switches but is not having success. What would be the reason that VTP is not functioning? SW1 SW1#show running-config Building configuration... Current configuration : 3079 bytes ! ! Last configuration change at 02:37:04 UTC Sat Apr 23 2016 ! version 15.2 service timestamps debug datetime msec service timestamps log datetime msec no service password-encryption service compress-config ! hostname SW1 ! boot-start-marker boot-end-marker ! ! ! no aaa new-model ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! no ip domain-lookup ip cef no ipv6 cef ! ! ! spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst spanning-tree extend system-id ! vlan internal allocation policy ascending ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet0/2 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet0/3 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet1/0 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet1/1 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet1/2 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet1/3 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! ip forward-protocol nd ! no ip http server no ip http secure-server ! ! ! ! ! ! control-plane ! line con 0 logging synchronous line aux 0 line vty 0 4 ! ! end SW1#show vtp status VTP Version capable : 1 to 3 VTP version running : 2 VTP Domain Name : SEAN VTP Pruning Mode : Disabled VTP Traps Generation : Disabled Device ID : fa16.3e36.20a6 Feature VLAN: -------------- VTP Operating Mode : Server Maximum VLANs supported locally : 1005 Number of existing VLANs : 7 Configuration Revision : 2 MD5 digest : 0xDE 0xF7 0x39 0x4F 0xB7 0x36 0xE8 0x66 0xAD 0xD1 0x08 0x0A 0xC4 0x85 0x31 0xBC SW1# SW2 SW2#show running-config Building configuration... Current configuration : 2754 bytes ! ! Last configuration change at 02:37:47 UTC Sat Apr 23 2016 ! version 15.2 service timestamps debug datetime msec service timestamps log datetime msec no service password-encryption service compress-config ! hostname SW2 ! boot-start-marker boot-end-marker ! ! ! no aaa new-model ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! no ip domain-lookup ip cef no ipv6 cef ! ! ! spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst spanning-tree extend system-id ! vlan internal allocation policy ascending ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet0/2 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet0/3 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! ip forward-protocol nd ! no ip http server no ip http secure-server ! ! ! ! ! ! control-plane ! line con 0 logging synchronous line aux 0 line vty 0 4 ! ! end SW2#show vtp status VTP Version capable : 1 to 3 VTP version running : 2 VTP Domain Name : SEAN VTP Pruning Mode : Enabled VTP Traps Generation : Disabled Device ID : fa16.3e28.5060 Feature VLAN: -------------- VTP Operating Mode : Server Maximum VLANs supported locally : 1005 Number of existing VLANs : 5 Configuration Revision : 0 MD5 digest : 0x6F 0xEB 0x9E 0x81 0xBA 0xA9 0xA0 0x29 0x82 0x26 0xD4 0x14 0x6D 0x72 0x0B 0xCB *** MD5 digest checksum mismatch on trunk: Gi0/1 *** SW2#

Mismatched VTP passwords.

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; an engineer is attempting to configure VTP to operate between two switches but is not having success. What would be the reason that VTP is not functioning? (Choose two answers.) SW1 SW1#show running-config Building configuration... Current configuration : 3079 bytes ! ! Last configuration change at 02:37:04 UTC Sat Apr 23 2016 ! version 15.2 service timestamps debug datetime msec service timestamps log datetime msec no service password-encryption service compress-config ! hostname SW1 ! boot-start-marker boot-end-marker ! ! ! no aaa new-model ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! no ip domain-lookup ip cef no ipv6 cef ! ! ! spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst spanning-tree extend system-id ! vlan internal allocation policy ascending ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet0/2 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet0/3 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet1/0 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet1/1 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet1/2 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet1/3 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! ip forward-protocol nd ! no ip http server no ip http secure-server ! ! ! ! ! ! control-plane ! line con 0 logging synchronous line aux 0 line vty 0 4 ! ! end SW1#show vtp status VTP Version capable : 1 to 3 VTP version running : 1 VTP Domain Name : SEAN VTP Pruning Mode : Disabled VTP Traps Generation : Disabled Device ID : fa16.3e36.20a6 Feature VLAN: -------------- VTP Operating Mode : Server Maximum VLANs supported locally : 1005 Number of existing VLANs : 7 Configuration Revision : 2 MD5 digest : 0xDE 0xF7 0x39 0x4F 0xB7 0x36 0xE8 0x66 0xAD 0xD1 0x08 0x0A 0xC4 0x85 0x31 0xBC SW1# SW2 SW2#show running-config Building configuration... Current configuration : 2754 bytes ! ! Last configuration change at 02:37:47 UTC Sat Apr 23 2016 ! version 15.2 service timestamps debug datetime msec service timestamps log datetime msec no service password-encryption service compress-config ! hostname SW2 ! boot-start-marker boot-end-marker ! ! ! no aaa new-model ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! no ip domain-lookup ip cef no ipv6 cef ! ! ! spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst spanning-tree extend system-id ! vlan internal allocation policy ascending ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet0/2 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! interface GigabitEthernet0/3 media-type rj45 negotiation auto ! ip forward-protocol nd ! no ip http server no ip http secure-server ! ! ! ! ! ! control-plane ! line con 0 logging synchronous line aux 0 line vty 0 4 ! ! end SW2#show vtp status VTP Version capable : 1 to 3 VTP version running : 2 VTP Domain Name : SEAN VTP Pruning Mode : Enabled VTP Traps Generation : Disabled Device ID : fa16.3e28.5060 Feature VLAN: -------------- VTP Operating Mode : Server Maximum VLANs supported locally : 1005 Number of existing VLANs : 5 Configuration Revision : 0 MD5 digest : 0xDE 0xF7 0x39 0x4F 0xB7 0x36 0xE8 0x66 0xAD 0xD1 0x08 0x0A 0xC4 0x85 0x31 0xBC SW2#

Mismatched VTP versions No trunk configured between SW1 and SW2

OSPF routers can hear Hellos from another router, but not form neighbor relationships. Which of the following definitely prevent neighbor relationships from being formed? (Choose two answers.)

Mismatched subnet numbers Mismatched Hello intervals

Analog modem

Modulator-demodulator. A device that converts between digital and analog signals so that a computer may send data to another computer using analog telephone lines. At the source, a modem converts digital signals to a form suitable for transmission over analog communication facilities. At the destination, the analog signals are returned to their digital form.

Modem

What is the name of the feature that allows an EtherChannel to exist between two different remote switches?

Multichassis EtherChannel

If spanning tree is disabled, what are the potential issues with a redundant Layer 2 network design? (Choose three answers.)

Multiple (duplicate) frames being seen Broadcast storms MAC database instability

What is the name of the Cisco feature that allows for the identification of protocols that are traditionally hard to classify because of their operation?

NBAR

When configuring a device to utilize SLAAC, which source will provide the IPv6 prefix information?

NDP

Which two IPv6 messages are implicitly allowed at the end of all IPv6 access lists to ensure IPv6 NDP works correctly?

NS NA

Refer to the diagram; assuming a default trunking configuration, what is the term that is used to reference the VLAN that will be used to transport the traffic between the hosts in the default VLAN?

Native

Examine the output. Which of the following statements are true based on the output of this show command from Router R1? (Choose two answers.) R1# show ip bgp summary BGP router identifier 2.2.2.2, local AS number 101 BGP table version is 1, main routing table version 1 Neighbor V AS MsgRcvd MsgSent TblVer InQ OutQ Up/Down State/PfxRcd 1.1.1.1 4 201 2 2 1 0 0 00:00:37 1

Neighbor 1.1.1.1 is an eBGP peer. R1 has a neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 201 command configured.

The implicit rules at the bottom of IPv6 ACLs are there to permit which of the following packets?

Neighbor Solicitation (NS) and Neighbor Advertisement (NA) messages

Network Management Station (NMS)

Network Management Station. The device that runs network management software to manage network devices. SNMP is often the network management protocol used between the NMS and the managed device.

Network analyzer

Network management software that captures LAN frames (often frames directed to it by a switch SPAN session) for the purpose of then analyzing the contents of those frames for a network engineer.

What is the name of the Cisco virtualization offering that can be used to completely replace the functionality of the VMware vSwitch?

Nexus 1000v

Routers R1 and R2 connect to the same Ethernet VLAN using their Gigabit Ethernet 1/0 interfaces, respectively. No problems exist on the VLAN. Next, examine the configurations shown in the exhibit. Can R1 ping the loopback (Lo2) on R2, and why or why not? R1#show running-config ! no ip domain lookup ip domain name lab.local ipv6 unicast-routing ipv6 cef ! interface Loopback1 ip address 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.255 ! ! interface GigabitEthernet1/0 no ip address ipv6 address 2001:12:12::/64 eui-64 ipv6 ospf 1 area 0 ! ! ipv6 router ospf 1 log-adjacency-changes ! R2#show running-config ! no ip domain lookup ip domain name lab.local ipv6 unicast-routing ipv6 cef ! ! interface Loopback0 ip address 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.255 ! ! interface Loopback2 no ip address ipv6 address 2001:2:2::2/64 ! ! interface GigabitEthernet1/0 no ip address ipv6 address 2001:12:12::2/64 ipv6 ospf 1 area 0 ! ! ipv6 router ospf 1 log-adjacency-changes !

No, R1 cannot ping the R2 loopback because OSPFv3 is not enabled under the loopback interface.

Refer to the diagram; if an engineer were to configure a new VLAN on SW1, would the VLAN be automatically created on SW3?

No, because of the VTP version mismatch.

What is the correct order for the spanning-tree algorithm? A: Elect a designated port for each segment. B: Elect a root port for each nonroot switch. C: Root ports and designated ports transition to the forwarding state. D: Elect a root bridge.

None of the answers provided are the correct order

An enterprise router (R1) has a working eBGP peer relationship with ISP router R2. Both routers use the default setting of no auto-summary. Examine the following output from R1. Based on that output, which of the following answers, when added to R1's BGP configuration, causes R1 to advertise a BGP route to Router R2? R1# show ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 longer-prefixes 200.1.1.0/24 is variably subnetted, 3 subnets, 3 masks C 200.1.1.0/27 is directly connected, Loopback1 L 200.1.1.1/32 is directly connected, Loopback1 O 200.1.1.32/28 [110/2] via 10.1.1.1, 03:11:00, GigabitEthernet0/2

None of the other answers causes R1 to advertise a route to R2.

Question 1 : Refer to the diagram; what is the name of the feature that can be implemented on the Layer 2 switches shown that would allow communications from the devices in VLAN 10 to VLAN 20?

None, because a Layer 3 device is required

On which switch would you always find a root port?

Nonroot switch

NVRAM

Nonvolatile RAM. A type of random-access memory (RAM) that retains its contents when a unit is powered off.

In a controller-based network architecture, what is the name of the interface that is used to communicate between the controller and programs wanting to control the flow of traffic?

Northbound Interface

Refer to the exhibit; what would be the reaction of the DHCP snooping feature if an unauthorized DHCP server was connected to interface GigabitEthernet1/2? SW1#show ip dhcp snooping binding MacAddress IpAddress Lease(sec) Type VLAN Interface ------------------ --------------- ---------- ------------- ---- -------------------- FA:16:3E:85:20:0D 10.10.10.4 86336 dhcp-snooping 1 GigabitEthernet1/2 FA:16:3E:EE:5F:1A 10.10.10.5 86368 dhcp-snooping 1 GigabitEthernet1/3 FA:16:3E:40:99:B4 10.10.10.3 86173 dhcp-snooping 1 GigabitEthernet1/1 Total number of bindings: 3 SW1#

Nothing; it would not send any DHCP server messages to an untrusted interface.

Question 41 : What is used as an identifier for each variable in the MIB in the SNMP framework?

OID

Which of the following routing protocols is considered to use link-state logic?

OSPF

Which options do not prevent a directly connected OSPF speaker from becoming a neighbor?

OSPF Process ID mismatch

Question 1 : Which of the following are differences between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3? (Choose two answers.)

OSPFv2 uses LSAs, while OSPFv3 uses LSAs but with differences. OSPFv2 can advertise IPv4 routes, while OSPFv3 can advertise both IPv4 and IPv6 routes.

Which statement about OSPFv3 is correct?

OSPFv3 requires a 32-bit router ID value.

OID

Object identifier. Used to uniquely describe a MIB variable in the SNMP database. This is a numeric string that identifies the variable uniquely and also describes where the variable exists in the MIB tree structure.

Which DHCP messages are blocked by the DHCP snooping feature when a switch port is configured as untrusted? (Choose two answers.)

Offer Acknowledgements

Deencapsulation

On a computer that receives data over a network, the process in which the device interprets the lower-layer headers and, when finished with each header, removes the header, revealing the next-higher-layer PDU.

Default gateway/default router

On an IP host, the IP address of some router to which the host sends packets when the packet's destination address is on a subnet other than the local subnet.

Dual homed

One design of the Internet edge in which the enterprise connects to one ISP, but with two or more links to that one ISP.

Dual multihomed

One design of the Internet edge in which the enterprise connects to two or more ISPs, and with two or more links to each ISP.

Resource pooling

One of the five key attributes of a cloud computing service as defined by NIST, referring to the fact that the cloud provider treats its resources as a large group (pool) of resources that its cloud management systems then allocate dynamically based on self-service requests by its customers.

Rapid elasticity

One of the five key attributes of a cloud computing service as defined by NIST, referring to the fact that the cloud service reacts to requests for new services quickly, and it expands (is elastic) to the point of appearing to be a limitless resource.

On-demand self-service

One of the five key attributes of a cloud computing service as defined by NIST, referring to the fact that the consumer of the server can request the service, with the service being created without any significant delay and without waiting on human intervention.

Subinterface

One of the virtual interfaces on a single physical interface.

VTP client mode

One of three VTP operational modes for a switch with which switches learn about VLAN numbers and names from other switches, but which does not allow the switch to be directly configured with VLAN information.

VTP transparent mode

One of three operating characteristics (modes) in VTP. Switches in transparent mode can configure VLANs, but they do not tell other switches about the changes, and they do not learn about VLAN changes from other switches; however, they can pass VTP messages between other switches that use VTP server and client modes.

VTP server mode

One of three sets of operating characteristics (modes) in VTP. Switches in server mode can configure VLANs, tell other switches about the changes, and learn about VLAN changes from other switches.

PortChannel

One term Cisco switches use to reference a bundle of links that are, in some respects, treated like a single link. Other similar terms include EtherChannel and Channel-group.

Channel-group

One term Cisco switches use to reference a bundle of links that are, in some respects, treated like a single link. Other similar terms include EtherChannel and PortChannel.

ICMP Echo Reply

One type of ICMP message, created specifically to be used as the message received by the ping command to test connectivity in a network. The ping command expects to receive these messages from other hosts, after the ping command first sends an ICMP Echo Request message to the host.

ICMP Echo Request

One type of ICMP message, created specifically to be used as the message sent by the ping command to test connectivity in a network. The ping command sends these messages to other hosts, expecting the other host to reply with an ICMP Echo Reply message.

Which QoS options are recommended by Cisco when designing for a voice network? (Choose two answers.)

One-way delay < 150 ms Jitter < 30 ms

Which QoS options are recommended by Cisco when designing for a video network? (Choose two answers.)

One-way delay < 400 ms Jitter < 50 ms

OSPF

Open Shortest Path First. A popular link-state IGP that uses a link-state database and the Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm to calculate the best routes to reach each known subnet.

What is the name of the protocol that has been developed by the ONF that is used to communicate between an SDN controller and the network devices it controls?

OpenFlow

Which protocol is not used by APIC-EM on its Southbound Interface?

OpenFlow

Which option is not one of the most commonly deployed virtualization vendors and products?

Oracle XenSpace

In the EIGRP topology table, which of the following codes are accurate? (Choose two answers.)

P = Passive, indicating that no computations are being performed for that destination A = Active, indicating that computations are being performed for that destination

Tail drop

Packet drops that occur when a queue fills, another message arrives that needs to be placed into the queue, and the networking device tries to add the new message to the tail of the queue but finds no room in the queue, resulting in a dropped packet.

Time interval (shaper)

Part of the internal logic used by a traffic shaping function, which defines a short time period in which the shaper sends packets until a number of bytes are sent, and then the shaper stops sending for the rest of the time interval, with a goal of averaging a defined bit rate of sending data.

Which of the following topology terms most closely describe the topology created by a Metro Ethernet Tree (E-Tree) service? (Choose two answers.)

Partial mesh Hub and Spoke

Which of the following are LACP modes that you can use with EtherChannel configuration? (Choose two answers.)

Passive Active

PAP

Password Authentication Protocol. A PPP authentication protocol that allows PPP peers to authenticate one another, characterized by the weak authentication it uses by sending the username and password as clear text values.

Carrier Ethernet

Per MEF documents, the term for what was formerly called Metro Ethernet, generally referring to any WAN service that uses Ethernet links as the access link between the customer and the service provider.

How can the read-only SNMP function be restricted (efficiently) based on IP address of the requesting SNMP management station?

Place an ACL on the same line when configuring the RO community string.

PPP

Point-to-Point Protocol. A data link protocol that provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over synchronous and asynchronous circuits.

Which cloud service is owned and operated by a third party and allows people from a variety of different companies to request and use its resources?

Public cloud

A queuing system has three queues serviced with round robin scheduling and one low latency queue that holds all voice traffic. Round robin queue 1 holds predominantly UDP traffic, while round robin queues 2 and 3 hold predominantly TCP traffic. The packets in each queue happen to have a variety of DSCP markings per the QoS design. In which queues would it make sense to use a congestion avoidance (drop management) tool? (Choose two answers.)

Queue 2 Queue 3

Which option(s) is/are not one of the manageable QoS characteristics of network traffic? (Choose two answers.)

Queue size Clock rate

An engineer is tasked with figuring out why multiple trouble tickets have been logged by users who are unable to connect to their internal resources during high-demand daytime hours. The engineer logs into the users' common router and finds that it has been configured with LLQ. What could be causing this problem?

Queue starvation.

The following output was gathered on router R2 in the figure. R2 is already using OSPFv2. R2# show ip ospf interface brief Interface PID Area IP Address/Mask Cost State Nbrs F/C Se3/0 1 0 10.24.0.2/24 64 P2P 1/1 Gi1/0 1 0 10.12.0.2/24 1 DR 0/0 Next, from R1, which is not yet configured for OSPFv2, the following output was gathered. R1# show ip int brief Interface IP-Address OK? Method Status Protocol GigabitEthernet1/0 10.15.0.1 YES NVRAM up up FastEthernet2/0 10.12.0.1 YES NVRAM up up FastEthernet2/1 10.1.0.1 YES NVRAM up up Finally, after issuing the commands above, you decide to configure OSPF and include each interface in the OSPF process. You issue the following commands: R1(config)# router ospf 1 R1(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 After a few minutes, there is still no OSPF adjacency with R2. Why?

R1 and R2 are on different subnets

Question 3 : An enterprise uses a site-to-site GRE tunnel that runs over the Internet between two routers (R1 and R2). R1 uses tunnel interface 22. The tunnel has a source of 1.1.1.1 and a destination of 2.2.2.2. All the answers list facts that could be true, but which of the following must be true when Router R1's tunnel 22 is in an up/up state?

R1 has a working (up/up) interface with address 1.1.1.1.

Review the topology diagram. Network 10.123.0.0/24 is the backbone area. Network 10.12.0.0/24 is area 1, and network 10.34.0.0/29 is in area 2. Which of the following are true? (Choose three answers.)

R1 is a backbone router. R1 is an ABR. R1 and R3 would have the same LSA information about the backbone area.

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; which options are true? (Choose two answers.) R1#show standby brief P indicates configured to preempt. | Interface Grp Pri P State Active Standby Virtual IP Fa0/0 15 100 P Standby 172.16.1.2 local 172.16.1.5 R1#

R1 is configured to preempt. R2 is configured with a higher priority or IP address.

The user at Host A is using SLAAC and can ping remote devices based on an IPv6 address, both internal and on the Internet, but cannot reach any server based on hostname. Users in other subnets can reach servers by name. What item is likely causing the failure with Host A? (Choose two answers.)

R1 is not configured as a stateless DHCP server or a DHCP relay. The stateless DHCP server is not configured to hand out options such as DNS.

Refer to the diagram; which statements would be true about the advertisements from R1 to R2, assuming they were running an older distance vector routing protocol like RIP? (Choose three answers.)

R1 would advertise all appropriate routes periodically. R1 wouldn't advertise some routes because of split horizon. R1 would only advertise the 10.10.10.0/24 and 20.20.20.0/24 networks to R2.

R1, R2, R3, and R4 have their Fast Ethernet 0/0 interfaces attached to the same VLAN. A network engineer has typed a configuration for each router by using a word processor. He will later copy and paste the configuration into the routers. Examine the following exhibit, which lists configuration for the four routers, as typed by the network engineer. Assuming that all four routers can ping each other's LAN IP addresses after the configuration has been applied, choose the routers that will be able to form a neighbor relationship with the other routers on the LAN. (You can assume that, if not shown in the exhibit, all other related parameters are still set to their defaults.) (Choose two answers.) !!! Configuration on R1 !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! interface fastethernet 0/0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! router ospf 0 network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 !!! Configuration on R2 !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! interface fastethernet 0/0 ip address 10.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 ! router ospf 1 network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 !!! Configuration on R3 !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! interface fastethernet 0/0 ip address 10.1.1.3 255.255.255.0 ! router ospf 3 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.0 area 0 !!! Configuration on R4 !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! interface fastethernet 0/0 ip address 10.1.1.4 255.255.255.0 ! router ospf 2 network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0

R2 R4

Two routers, R1 and R2, are configured to be part of an HSRP group. R1's configuration includes the standby 1 priority 1 command, and R2's configuration includes the standby 1 priority 2 command. R1 powers up. An hour later, R2 powers up. Which of the following answers is true about which router is now the HSRP active router?

R2 is active only if R2 is also configured with standby 1 preempt.

Refer to the exhibit; which options are true about the OSPF configuration? (Choose two answers.) R2#show ip ospf interface FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up Internet Address 20.20.20.1/24, Area 0, Attached via Network Statement Process ID 10, Router ID 20.20.20.1, Network Type BROADCAST, Cost: 1 Topology-MTID Cost Disabled Shutdown Topology Name 0 1 no no Base Transmit Delay is 1 sec, State BDR, Priority 1 Designated Router (ID) 20.20.20.2, Interface address 20.20.20.2 Backup Designated router (ID) 20.20.20.1, Interface address 20.20.20.1 Timer intervals configured, Hello 10, Dead 40, Wait 40, Retransmit 5 oob-resync timeout 40 Hello due in 00:00:01 Supports Link-local Signaling (LLS) Cisco NSF helper support enabled IETF NSF helper support enabled Index 1/1, flood queue length 0 Next 0x0(0)/0x0(0) Last flood scan length is 1, maximum is 2 Last flood scan time is 0 msec, maximum is 0 msec Neighbor Count is 1, Adjacent neighbor count is 1 Adjacent with neighbor 20.20.20.2 (Designated Router) Suppress hello for 0 neighbor(s) FastEthernet0/1 is up, line protocol is up Internet Address 10.10.10.2/24, Area 0.0.0.2, Attached via Interface Enable Process ID 10, Router ID 20.20.20.1, Network Type BROADCAST, Cost: 1 Topology-MTID Cost Disabled Shutdown Topology Name 0 1 no no Base Enabled by interface config, including secondary ip addresses Transmit Delay is 1 sec, State DR, Priority 1 Designated Router (ID) 20.20.20.1, Interface address 10.10.10.2 Backup Designated router (ID) 10.10.10.1, Interface address 10.10.10.1 Timer intervals configured, Hello 10, Dead 40, Wait 40, Retransmit 5 oob-resync timeout 40 Hello due in 00:00:03 Supports Link-local Signaling (LLS) Cisco NSF helper support enabled IETF NSF helper support enabled Index 1/2, flood queue length 0 Next 0x0(0)/0x0(0) Last flood scan length is 2, maximum is 2 Last flood scan time is 0 msec, maximum is 0 msec Neighbor Count is 1, Adjacent neighbor count is 1 Adjacent with neighbor 10.10.10.1 (Backup Designated Router) Suppress hello for 0 neighbor(s) R2#

R2 is configured in two OSPF areas: 0 and 2. R2's F0/1 is configured using OSPF interface configuration.

Question 72 : Refer to the diagram and exhibit; which options are true? (Choose two answers.) R2#show standby brief P indicates configured to preempt. | Interface Grp Pri P State Active Standby Virtual IP Fa0/0 15 150 Standby 172.16.1.1 local 172.16.1.5 R2#

R2 is using a non-default priority. The standby 15 ip 172.16.1.5 command is configured on R1.

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; which is true about the operation of the HSRP, assuming R2 was powered on first? R1 ! interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 192.168.1.65 255.255.255.192 standby 10 ip 172.16.1.70 standby 10 priority 200 standby 15 preempt ! R2 ! interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 192.168.1.66 255.255.255.192 standby 10 ip 172.16.1.70 standby 10 priority 150 !

R2 would be the HSRP active router.

Question 68 : Consider the topology diagram and the following command from R1 and its output: R1# traceroute Protocol [ip]: ipv6 Target IPv6 address: 2001:db8:6783:5::5 Source address: 2001:db8:6783:12::1 Insert source routing header? [no]: Numeric display? [no]: Timeout in seconds [3]: Probe count [3]: Minimum Time to Live [1]: Maximum Time to Live [30]: Priority [0]: Port Number [0]: Type escape sequence to abort. Tracing the route to 2001:DB8:6783:5::5 1 2001:DB8:6783:123::3 44 msec 20 msec 24 msec 2 2001:DB8:6783:34::4 52 msec 52 msec 52 msec 3 * * * What is the likely cause of this output from traceroute? (Choose two answers.)

R4 does not have a route to 2001:db8:6783:5::/64. R5 does not have a route to 2001:db8:6783:12::/64.

Refer to the exhibit; if routers R2, R3, and R4 were operating and connected without issues for a month (assume they came up at the exact same time) and R1 is placed onto the same link, which of the devices will become the DR and which will become the BDR for the link? R1 ... interface Loopback0 ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 172.16.1.193 255.255.255.0 ! router ospf 10 network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 ! ... R2 ... interface Loopback0 ip address 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 172.16.1.129 255.255.255.0 ! router ospf 10 network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 ! ... R3 ... interface Loopback0 ip address 10.10.10.3 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 172.16.1.65 255.255.255.0 ! router ospf 10 network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 ! ... R4 ... interface Loopback0 ip address 10.10.10.4 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! router ospf 10 network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 ! ...

R4 is the DR, R3 is the BDR.

OSPF has been configured in a single area. All the serial interfaces have a cost of 64, Fast Ethernet interfaces have an OSPF cost of 10, and the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces have a cost of 1. Which of the following is true?

R5's cost to reach 10.1.0.0/24 is 14.

Refer to the diagram; which options are not true about the OSPF routers shown? (Choose two answers.)

R9 is a backbone router. R2 is an ABR.

Which two multicast addresses are not implicitly allowed by Cisco IOS and are required for IPv6 routers to inform hosts about local network characteristics and by IPv6 hosts to request this same information?

RA RS

Which AAA protocols are typically used on Cisco devices to communicate to a remote server for local device authentication? (Choose two answers.)

RADIUS TACACS+

In the topology shown, all routers are running EIGRP autonomous system 7 on all interfaces. For network 10.5.0.0/24, what are the FD and RD (from R1's perspective)? (Choose two answers.)

RD is R3's best metric for 10.5.0.0/24. FD is R1's best metric for 10.5.0.0/24.

Which of the following interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three answers.)

RIPv2 EIGRP OSPF

RAM

Random-access memory. A type of volatile memory that can be read and written by a microprocessor.

Examine the configuration shown. Which statement is not true about this configuration? R1(config)# ip access-list standard ACL_PROTECTSNMP R1(config-std-nacl)# permit host 10.10.10.101 R1(config-std-nacl)# exit R1(config)# snmp-server community V011eyB@11!!! RO ACL_PROTECTSNMP R1(config)# snmp-server location Atlanta R1(config)# snmp-server contact George Burdell R1(config)# end R1#

Read-write access to the MIB is permitted.

Refer to the exhibit; which APIC-EM ACL analysis tool error type is this an example of? ip access-list extended thisacl permit tcp any 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq www permit tcp any any eq www

Redundant rule

What is the name of the protocol that is used by EIGRP to send update messages between neighbors?

Reliable Transport Protocol

Which of the following are true about VPNs? (Choose two answers.)

Remote-access and site-to-site VPNs are often used as a less-expensive option to traditional WANs. IPsec provides authentication, data integrity, and confidentiality.

RFC

Request For Comments. A document used as the primary means for communicating information about the TCP/IP protocols. Some RFCs are designated by the Internet Architecture Board (IAB) as Internet standards, and others are informational. RFCs are available online from numerous sources, including www.rfc-editor.org.

Which of the following distance vector features prevents routing loops by advertising an infinite metric route when a route fails?

Route poisoning

An engineer connects to Router R1 and issues a show ip ospf neighbor command. The status of neighbor 2.2.2.2 lists FULL/BDR. What does the BDR mean?

Router 2.2.2.2 is a backup designated router.

An engineer configures a point-to-point GRE tunnel between two Cisco routers, called A and B. The routers use public IP addresses assigned by ISPs, and private addresses from network 10.0.0.0. Which of the following answers accurately describes where the addresses could be referenced in the GRE configuration?

Router A's private address on an ip address command on Router A's tunnel interface

Two routers using OSPFv2 have become neighbors and exchanged all LSAs. As a result, Router R1 now lists some OSPF-learned routes in its routing table. Which of the following best describes how R1 uses those recently learned LSAs to choose which IP routes to add to its IP routing table?

Run some SPF math against the LSAs to calculate the routes.

The example shows an excerpt from the show ipv6 route ospf command on a router (R1). Which of the answers are correct about the interpretation of the meaning of the output of this command? (Choose two answers.) R1# show ipv6 route ospf OI 2001:DB8:1:4::/64 [110/129] via FE80::FF:FE00:1, Serial0/0/1

S0/0/1 is an interface on R1. OI means that the route is an interarea OSPF route.

Which implementations of SNMP includes authentication, data integrity, and encryption?

SNMPv3

Question 89 : A collection of SPAN rules is referred to as a ____________.

SPAN session

Question 1 : A colleague mentions using a client VPN. Which of the following protocols or technologies would you expect your colleague to have used?

SSL

Which of the following VPN features provides encryption and authentication services, but only for applications accessible from the user's web browser?

SSL

Refer to the diagram; which of the switches shown will become the STP root bridge, assuming default parameters are used?

SW1

SW3#show spanning-tree vlan 1 VLAN0001 Spanning tree enabled protocol rstp Root ID Priority 24577 Address 0019.0617.6600 Cost 19 Port 24 (FastEthernet0/22) Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Bridge ID Priority 32769 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 1) Address 0018.b974.5280 Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Aging Time 300 sec All switches are running rapid spanning-tree. SW1 and SW4 have been administratively configured with a spanning tree cost of 4 on each of their interfaces, with all other switch ports using default costs. Based on the partial output provided, which of the following port roles are accurate in regard to VLAN 1? (Choose three answers.)

SW1 FA0/23 will be a root port SW3 Fa0/22 will be a root port SW4 Fa0/21 will be a root port

Examine the output. The output comes from the show spanning-tree vlan 10 command taken from a Cisco Catalyst 2960 switch named SW1. Which of the following statements regarding SW1 is true, based on the output in the exhibit? (Choose two answers.) SW1# show spanning-tree vlan 10 VLAN0010 Spanning tree enabled protocol ieee Root ID Priority 32778 Address 1bb3.9dbb.0e80 Cost 4 Port 25 (GigabitEthernet0/1) Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Bridge ID Priority 32778 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 10) Address fccf.3ccb.cc80 Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Aging Time 300 sec Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type ------------------- ---- --- --------- -------- -------------------------------- Gi0/1 Root FWD 4 128.25 P2p Gi0/2 Altn BLK 4 128.26 P2p

SW1 uses STP instead of RSTP in VLAN 10. SW1 is not the root switch.

In the figure, in VLAN 1, all switches have default 802.1d STP settings, and all trunks are up. Which statements are true regarding the behavior of STP in this network, for VLAN 1, after the STP topology has stabilized? (Choose two answers.)

SW1 will create Hello messages regularly based on its Hello timer. SW3's fa0/1 interface will be in a forwarding state.

The figure shows a LAN with three switches, a router using 802.1Q trunking, and VLANs 11 and 13. Subnet 10.1.1.0/24 is on VLAN 11, and subnet 10.1.3.0/24 is on VLAN 13. The STP topology has converged for each VLAN, with SW3 blocking on fa0/1 for VLAN 11, and SW2 blocking on fa0/1 for VLAN 13. Assume that the PCs and router have complete and full information in their ARP tables and that all three switches have current and valid MAC address table entries for the MAC addresses of the PCs and the router. Under those conditions, which of the following statements best describes the MAC address tables used in each VLAN? (Choose two answers.)

SW1's MAC table for VLAN 11 lists PC2's MAC with interface fa0/2. SW1's MAC table for VLAN 11 lists R1's MAC with interface fa0/2.

Two neighboring LAN switches are connected with an operational 802.1Q trunk. Switch SW1 has been configured with the vtp mode client, vtp domain fred, and vtp version 2 commands. SW1 has no other VTP configuration commands configured. Which answer lists a possible reason why switch SW2, on the other end of the trunk, is not synchronizing its VLAN database with switch SW1? (Choose two answers.)

SW2 has a vtp password G0BeeZ command configured. SW2 has a vtp domain Fred command configured.

SW1#show spanning-tree vlan 1 VLAN0001 Spanning tree enabled protocol ieee Root ID Priority 24577 Address 0018.b974.5280 Cost 37 Port 25 (FastEthernet0/23) Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Bridge ID Priority 32769 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 1) Address 0019.060c.9080 Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Aging Time 300 sec Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type ------------------- ---- --- --------- -------- -------------------------------- Fa0/21 Altn BLK 19 128.23 P2p Fa0/23 Root FWD 19 128.25 P2p Fa0/24 Altn BLK 19 128.26 P2p All the ports in the topology are Fast Ethernet. Which of the following statements is true?

SW2 is not using spanning-tree defaults.

The exhibit shows the output from commands that are issued on SW1 and SW2 in the figure. SW3 and SW4 have priority values of 40,000 and 40,001, respectively. Which of the following statements regarding STP operation is true? (Choose two answers.)

SW2 is the root switch. If the current root were to fail, Hellos would be sent by the new root every 3 seconds.

The figure shows a LAN with three switches, a router using 802.1Q trunking, and VLANs 11 and 13. Subnet 10.1.1.0/24 is on VLAN 11, and subnet 10.1.3.0/24 is on VLAN 13. The STP topology has converged for each VLAN, with SW1 blocking on fa0/2 for VLAN 11, and SW2 blocking on fa0/3 for VLAN 13. Assume that the PCs and router have complete and full information in their ARP tables, and that all three switches have current and valid MAC address table entries for the MAC addresses of the PCs and the router. Under those conditions, which of the following statements best describes the MAC address tables used in each VLAN? (Choose three answers.)

SW2's MAC table for VLAN 13 lists R1's MAC with interface fa0/11. A frame that R1 forwards to PC3 passes over the trunk from SW2 to SW1. When PC2 pings PC3, the ICMP Echo request passes through SW1 at some point.

The figure shows a LAN with three switches, a router using 802.1Q trunking, and VLANs 11 and 13. Subnet 10.1.1.0/24 is on VLAN 11, and subnet 10.1.3.0/24 is on VLAN 13. The STP topology has converged for each VLAN, with SW3 blocking on fa0/1 for VLAN 11, and SW2 blocking on fa0/1 for VLAN 13. Assume that the PCs and router have complete and full information in their ARP tables, and that all three switches have current and valid MAC address table entries for the MAC addresses of the PCs and the router. Under those conditions, which of the following statements best describes the MAC address tables used in each VLAN? (Choose three answers.)

SW2's MAC table for VLAN 13 lists R1's MAC with interface fa0/11. SW2's MAC table for VLAN 13 lists PC3's MAC with interface fa0/3. A frame that R1 forwards to PC1 passes over the trunk from SW2 to SW1.

In the figure, in VLAN 1, all switches have mostly default 802.1d STP settings, and all trunks are up. The only nondefault setting is that the port cost of SW2's fa0/1 interface has been changed to 1. Which statements are true regarding the behavior of STP in this network, for VLAN 1, when the STP topology has stabilized? (Refer to the exhibit for information related to the figure.) (Choose two answers.)

SW2's fa0/3 will become a designated port. SW2 sends a Hello to SW3, out SW2's fa0/3, with cost 1.

The exhibit shows a diagram of a small switched network, with all switches acting as layer 2 switches in VLAN 10. The diagram notes the switch chosen as root switch, with each root port noted with the letters RP and each designated port noted with the letters DP. All three switches use RSTP, and they might also have other RSTP configuration settings not noted in the question. Which of the following statements about RSTP states and roles in this network are true?

SW2's port Gi0/1 must be in an alternate port role.

Refer to the diagram; which of the switches shown will become the STP root bridge?

SW3

Refer to the exhibit; switch SW3 is receiving only two hello BPDUs, both of which identify the same root switch, received on the two interfaces listed. SW3 has no STP-related configuration commands. The hello received on Fa0/13 lists root cost 10, and the hello received on Gi0/1 lists root cost 20. Which of the following is true about STP on SW3? SW3#show interface status Port Name Status Vlan Duplex Speed Type Fa0/13 connected 1 a-half a-100 10/100BaseTX Gi0/1 connected 1 a-full a-10001000BaseTX SW3#

SW3 will choose Gi0/1 as its root port.

Question 78 : In the figure, in VLAN 1, all switches have default 802.1d STP settings, and all trunks are up. Which statements are true regarding the behavior of STP in this network for VLAN 1 after the STP topology has stabilized? (Choose two answers.)

SW3's fa0/2 interface will be its root port. SW4's interface Fa0/1 will become the designated port on the link between SW1 and SW4.

Look at the diagram and the exhibit. If you disable SW3's Fa0/19 and Fa0/22 interfaces, which of the following will occur? (Choose two answers.) Output from SW1 SW1#show spanning-tree vlan 1 VLAN0001 Spanning tree enabled protocol ieee Root ID Priority 16385 Address 0019.0617.6600 Cost 19 Port 25 (FastEthernet0/23) Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Bridge ID Priority 20481 (priority 20480 sys-id-ext 1) Address 0019.060c.9080 Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Aging Time 15 sec Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type ------------------- ---- --- --------- -------- -------------------------------- Fa0/19 Desg FWD 19 128.21 P2p Fa0/21 Desg FWD 19 128.23 P2p Fa0/23 Root FWD 19 128.25 P2p Fa0/24 Altn BLK 19 128.26 P2p Output from SW2 SW2#show spanning-tree vlan 1 VLAN0001 Spanning tree enabled protocol ieee Root ID Priority 16385 Address 0019.0617.6600 This bridge is the root Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Bridge ID Priority 16385 (priority 16384 sys-id-ext 1) Address 0019.0617.6600 Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Aging Time 15 sec Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type ------------------- ---- --- --------- -------- -------------------------------- Fa0/22 Desg FWD 18 128.24 P2p Fa0/23 Desg FWD 19 128.25 P2p Fa0/24 Desg FWD 19 128.26 P2p Output from SW3 SW3#show spanning-tree vlan 1 VLAN0001 Spanning tree enabled protocol ieee Root ID Priority 16385 Address 0019.0617.6600 Cost 19 Port 24 (FastEthernet0/22) Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Bridge ID Priority 24577 (priority 24576 sys-id-ext 1) Address 0018.b974.5280 Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Aging Time 15 sec Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type ------------------- ---- --- --------- -------- -------------------------------- Fa0/19 Altn BLK 19 128.21 P2p Fa0/22 Root FWD 19 128.24 P2p Fa0/23 Desg FWD 19 128.25 P2p Fa0/24 Desg FWD 19 128.26 P2p Output from SW4 SW4#show spanning-tree vlan 1 VLAN0001 Spanning tree enabled protocol ieee Root ID Priority 16385 Address 0019.0617.6600 Cost 38 Port 23 (FastEthernet0/21) Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Bridge ID Priority 32769 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 1) Address 001b.d450.9700 Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Aging Time 15 sec Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type ------------------- ---- --- --------- -------- -------------------------------- Fa0/21 Root FWD 19 128.23 P2p Fa0/23 Altn BLK 19 128.25 P2p Fa0/24 Altn BLK 19 128.26 P2p

SW3's new cost to the root will be 57. SW3's root port will be Fa0/23.

The exhibit shows a diagram of a small switched network. All switches use layer 2 switching and no layer 3 switching. The diagram identifies the root switch (switch SW1), and all root ports (RP) and designated ports (DP) for VLAN 10. All switches have the spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst command configured. The answers list ports that are neither root port nor designated port. Choose the answer that lists an RSTP port role that is meaningful for that port in this topology. (Choose three answers.)

SW4's F0/2 could be an RSTP backup port. SW4's G0/1 could be an RSTP alternate port. SW3's F0/4 could be an RSTP alternate port.

Which cloud service model provides access to an application that is built, monitored, and offered by the cloud provider?

SaaS

A company has a small/medium-sized network with 15 routers and 40 subnets and uses OSPFv2. Which of the following is considered an advantage of using a single-area design as opposed to a multiarea design?

Simpler planning and operations.

Which of the following represents the total cost between the device forwarding a BPDU and the switch in STP that has the lowest BID?

Sender's root cost

Which of the following VTP modes allow VLANs to be configured on a switch? (Choose two answers.)

Server Transparent VTP has three modes: server, client, and transparent. Only server and transparent mode switches can be used to configure VLANs; that is, to create the VLAN, delete the VLAN, and assign a VLAN a name. Client mode switches cannot configure VLANs. Also, there is no such mode as dynamic mode.

Two routers, R1 and R2, currently connect over a serial link. The link uses PPP, and IPv4, and the routers can ping each other. Which of the following answers lists configurations steps required to add CHAP authentication to both routers, assuming they use local usernames and passwords? (Choose two answers.)

Set the router name and create a username and password for the remote router. Enable PPP authentication.

Refer to the exhibit; which APIC-EM ACL analysis tool error type is this an example of? ip access-list extended thisacl permit tcp any any eq www permit tcp any 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq www

Shadowed rule

Review the topology. Networks 10.12.0.0/24 and 10.123.0.0/24 are both in area 0. All the other subnetworks of 10.0.0.0/8 are in area 1. Which command, if issued on R3, would show all the LSAs known by R3?

Show ip ospf database

Which of the following Internet edge designs include connections to two ISPs? (Choose two answers.)

Single multihomed Dual multihomed

Network Management System (NMS)

Software that manages the network, often using SNMP and other protocols.

VPN client

Software that resides on a PC, often a laptop, so that the host can implement the protocols required to be an endpoint of a VPN.

SNMP agent

Software that resides on the managed device and processes the SNMP messages sent by the Network Management Station (NMS).

Hypervisor

Software that runs on server hardware to create the foundations of a virtualized server environment primarily by allocating server hardware components like CPU core/threads, RAM, disk, and network to the VMs running on the server.

An enterprise uses Cisco IOS routers and DSL connections to local ISPs for their retail locations. The ISPs require the use of PPPoE. The routers at each retail site use dynamically learned public IP addresses as learned from the ISPs. Each router uses its F0/0 interface to connect to an external DSL modem, which then connects to a phone line. Which of the following is the most likely choice for configuring the router to use the IP address as assigned by the ISP?

Some dialer interface has an ip address negotiated interface subcommand.

In a controller-based network architecture, what is the name of the interface that is used to communicate between the controller and the deployed network devices?

Southbound Interface

Which of the following distance vector features prevents routing loops by causing the routing protocol to advertise only a subset of known routes, as opposed to the full routing table, under normal stable conditions?

Split horizon

What is the term that is given to the switch in a stack that controls the rest of the other switches?

Stack master

Question 50 : If a numbered ACL utilized the number 1600, which type of ACL would it be?

Standard

SLSM (Static-length subnet mask)

Static-length subnet mask. The usage of the same subnet mask for all subnets of a single Class A, B, or C network.

What are the benefits of PPP over HDLC as implemented on a Cisco router? (Choose two answers.)

Supports CHAP authentication. More compatible with non-Cisco routers.

Which of the following answers is true of TACACS+ but not true of RADIUS?

Supports ability to authorize different users to use different subsets of CLI commands.

When an ASIC needs to perform a lookup on a switch, what is the name of the special type of memory that is used to store the equivalent of the MAC address table?

TCAM

Which protocol/port is used by BGP for communications between peers?

TCP 179

BGP update

The BGP message that lists BGP path attributes and prefixes.

Best path selection

The BGP process of choosing the best route by working through an ordered list of comparisons of different BGP path attributes.

When referencing MPLS VPN Layer 3 configurations, which of the following statements are true? (Choose three answers.)

The CE router becomes a routing protocol neighbor with the PE. The provider uses MPBGP to transport customer routes. Customer routes are not redistributed into the internal provider's routing tables.

Unified Computing System (UCS)

The Cisco brand name for their server hardware products.

IP Service Level Agreement (IP SLA)

The Cisco router feature that defines a variety of measurable probe types, so that a network engineer can configure a probe, have the router generate probe messages and measure the responses, and then let the network engineer use those results for troubleshooting and for reporting.

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN)

The Cisco switch feature that allows the network engineer to configure the switch to monitor a subset of frames that the switch forwards, to copy those frames, and to send the copies out a specified destination port.

Question 73 : Refer to the diagram and exhibit; a trouble ticket has been opened and states that a user is having connectivity problems from their PC. Which option is the root cause of these issues? PC1 IP address: DHCP Subnet Mask: DHCP Gateway: DHCP DNS Server: DHCP R1 ... ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 192.168.100.1 255.255.255.0 ip helper-address 192.168.200.2 duplex auto speed auto ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 192.168.200.1 255.255.255.0 duplex auto speed auto ! R2 ... ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 192.168.200.2 255.255.255.0 duplex auto speed auto ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 172.16.1.150 255.255.255.128 duplex auto speed auto ! SW1 ... ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/2 ! ...

The DHCP relay configuration is incorrect.

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; a trouble ticket has been opened and states that a user is having connectivity problems from their PC. Which option is the root cause of these issues? PC1 IP address: DHCP Subnet Mask: DHCP Gateway: DHCP DNS Server: DHCP R1 ... ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 192.168.100.1 255.255.255.0 duplex auto speed auto ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 192.168.200.1 255.255.255.0 ip helper-address 172.16.1.229 duplex auto speed auto ! R2 ... ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 192.168.200.2 255.255.255.0 duplex auto speed auto ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 172.16.1.150 255.255.255.128 duplex auto speed auto ! SW1 ... ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/2 ! ...

The DHCP relay configuration is incorrect.

An enterprise uses a dual-stack model of deployment for IPv4 and IPv6, using EIGRP as the routing protocol for both. Router R1 has IPv4 and IPv6 addresses on its G0/0 and S0/0/0 interfaces only, with EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 enabled on both interfaces and the router ID explicitly set for both protocols. Comparing the EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 configuration, which of the following statements is true?

The EIGRP for IPv6 configuration uses the ipv6 eigrp asn interface subcommand.

Data link connection identifier (DLCI)

The Frame Relay address that identifies a VC on a particular access link.

Which of the following facts determines how often a nonroot bridge or switch sends an 802.1D STP Hello BPDU message?

The Hello timer as configured on the root switch. Nonroot switches forward Hellos received from the root; the root sends these Hellos based on the root's configured Hello timer.

IEEE 802.3

The IEEE base standard for Ethernet-like LANs.

IEEE 802.11

The IEEE base standard for wireless LANs.

IEEE 802.1s

The IEEE standard for Multiple Instances of Spanning Tree (MIST), which allows for load balancing of traffic among different VLANs.

IEEE 802.1w

The IEEE standard for an enhanced version of STP, called Rapid STP, which speeds convergence.

IEEE 802.1AD

The IEEE standard for the functional equivalent of the Cisco-proprietary EtherChannel.

IEEE 802.1D

The IEEE standard for the original Spanning Tree Protocol.

802.1Q

The IEEE standardized protocol for VLAN trunking.

Refer to the exhibit; what options are true about the output? SW1#show vlan brief VLAN Name Status Ports ---- -------------------------------- --------- ------------------------------- 1 default active Gi0/1, Gi0/2, Gi0/4, Gi0/5 Gi0/6, Gi0/7, Gi0/8, Gi0/9 Gi0/9, Gi0/10, Gi0/11, Gi0/12 100 VLAN0100 act/lshut Gi0/3 1002 fddi-default act/unsup 1003 token-ring-default act/unsup 1004 fddinet-default act/unsup 1005 trnet-default act/unsup SW1#show ip interface brief Interface IP-Address OK? Method Status Protocol GigabitEthernet0/0 unassigned YES unset up up GigabitEthernet0/1 unassigned YES unset up up GigabitEthernet0/2 unassigned YES unset up up GigabitEthernet0/3 unassigned YES unset up up GigabitEthernet1/0 unassigned YES unset up up GigabitEthernet1/1 unassigned YES unset up up GigabitEthernet1/2 unassigned YES unset up up GigabitEthernet1/3 unassigned YES unset up up Vlan100 unassigned YES unset down down SW1#show spanning-tree VLAN0001 Spanning tree enabled protocol rstp Root ID Priority 32769 Address fa16.3e21.04ea This bridge is the root Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Bridge ID Priority 32769 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 1) Address fa16.3e21.04ea Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Aging Time 300 sec Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type ------------------- ---- --- --------- -------- -------------------------------- Gi0/1 Desg FWD 4 128.3 Shr Gi0/2 Desg FWD 4 128.4 Shr Gi0/4 Desg FWD 4 128.3 Shr Gi0/5 Desg FWD 4 128.4 Shr Gi0/6 Desg FWD 4 128.3 Shr Gi0/7 Desg FWD 4 128.4 Shr Gi0/8 Desg FWD 4 128.3 Shr Gi0/9 Desg FWD 4 128.4 Shr Gi0/10 Desg FWD 4 128.3 Shr Gi0/11 Desg FWD 4 128.4 Shr Gi0/12 Desg FWD 4 128.3 Shr SW1#

The SVI is down because the VLAN is shut down.

VTP pruning

The VTP feature by which switches dynamically choose interfaces on which to prevent the flooding of frames in certain VLANs, when those frames do not need to go to every switch in the network.

An enterprise uses a Metro Ethernet WAN with an Ethernet LAN (E-LAN) service, with the company headquarters plus ten remote sites connected to the service. The enterprise uses EIGRP at all sites, with one router connected to the service from each site. Which of the following are true about the Layer 3 details most likely used with this service and design? (Choose two answers.)

The WAN uses one IP subnet. A remote site router would have ten EIGRP neighbors.

An enterprise uses an MPLS Layer 3 VPN with the company headquarters connected plus ten remote sites connected to the service. The enterprise uses EIGRP at all sites, with one router connected to the service from each site. Which of the following are true about the Layer 3 details most likely used with this service and design? (Choose two answers.)

The WAN uses ten or more IP subnets. A remote site router would have one EIGRP neighbor.

Decrypt/decryption

The ability to receive encrypted data and process it to derive the original unencrypted data.

Encrypt/encryption

The ability to take data and send the data in a form that is not readable by someone who intercepts this data.

Authentication

The ability to verify the identity of a user or a computer system on a computer network.

Which options are actions of the management plane of a networking device? (Choose two answers.)

The alert of an error occurring on an interface The configuration of a device via its VTY ports

Shortest path first (SPF) algorithm

The algorithm used by OSPF to find all possible routes, and then choose the route with the lowest metric for each subnet.

Match/action logic

The basic logic done by a networking element: to receive incoming messages, to match fields in the message, to then use logic based on those matches to take action against the message, and to then forward the message.

Policing rate

The bit rate at which a policer compares the bit rate of packets passing through a policing function, for the purpose of taking a different action against packets that conform (are under) to the rate versus those that exceed (go over) the rate.

Shaping rate

The bit rate at which a shaper compares the bit rate of packets passing through the shaping function, so that when the rate is exceeded, the shaper enables the queuing of packets, resulting in slowing the bit rate of the collective packets that pass through the shaper, so the rate of bits getting through the shaper does not exceed the shaping rate.

Which of the following are true about serial encapsulation on a Cisco IOS router? (Choose three answers.)

The command show interface serial 0/1/0 can show the current encapsulation being used. Cisco HDLC is proprietary and should not be used when connecting to non-Cisco devices over a serial link. The HDLC extensions allow multiprotocol support of upper-layer protocols such as IPX, IPv6, and IPv4 on routers that support those protocols.

Administrative mode (a.k.a trunking administrative mode)

The configured trunking setting on a Cisco switch interface, as configured with the switchport mode command.

Which of the following statements is true regarding how OSPF derives the cost of an interface? (Choose three answers.)

The cost can be set to 50 for serial 0/0 using the ip ospf cost 50 interface subcommand on s0/0. On a serial interface with a default bandwidth setting, the OSPF cost is 64. Assuming that the setting previously used the default, the auto-cost reference-bandwidth 1000 configuration command would increase the previously calculated OSPF costs by a factor of 10.

Question 7 : 802.1w RSTP serves as an improved protocol in comparison to the older 802.1D STP. Which of the following answers lists a feature of RSTP that does not exist in STP?

The criteria used by switches to determine a port to act in the backup port role

Trunking operational mode

The current behavior of a Cisco switch interface for VLAN trunking.

MIB (Management Information Base)

The data structures defined by SNMP to define a hierarchy (tree) structure with variables at the leaves of the tree, so that SNMP messages can reference the variables.

Management Information Base (MIB)

The data structures defined by SNMP to define a hierarchy (tree) structure with variables at the leaves of the tree, so that SNMP messages can reference the variables.

Which options are correct about HSRP versions? (Choose three answers.)

The default HSRP version is 1. HSRP version 2 uses the 0000.0C9F.Fxxx virtual MAC address format. HSRP version 1 uses the 224.0.0.2 multicast address.

Which options are correct about HSRP versions? (Choose two answers.)

The default HSRP version is 1. HSRP version 2 uses the 224.0.0.102 multicast address.

vlan.dat

The default file used to store a Cisco switch's VLAN configuration database.

WAN edge

The device (typically a router) at enterprise sites that connects to private WAN links, therefore sitting at the edge of the WAN.

Clock source

The device to which the other devices on the link adjust their speed when using synchronous links.

Round-trip delay

The elapsed time from sending the first bit of data at the sending device until the last bit of that data is received on the destination device, plus the time waiting for the destination device to form a reply, plus the elapsed time for that reply message to arrive back to the original sender.

One-way delay

The elapsed time from sending the first bit of data at the sending device until the last bit of that data is received on the destination device.

Router R1 has four routes to subnet 2. The one successor route has a metric of 100, and the one feasible successor route has a metric of 350. The other routes have metrics of 450 and 550. R1's EIGRP configuration includes the variance 5 command. Choose the answer that refers to the highest-metric route to subnet 2 that will be visible in the output of the show ip route eigrp command on R1.

The feasible successor route (metric 350)

Priority Code Point (PCP)

The formal term for the 3-bit field in the 802.1Q header intended for marking and classifying Ethernet frames for the purposes of applying QoS actions. Another term for Class of Service (CoS).

Two switches are connected by four Fast Ethernet trunks. Four VLANs exist, with members of each VLAN on each of the two switches. The network engineer would like to have the switches treat all 4 trunks as a single 400 Mbps trunk, with some of the traffic being forwarded over each of the links between the switches. Which of the following statements is true of such a configuration? (Choose two answers.)

The four trunks can be placed into the same EtherChannel to achieve this goal. The show spanning-tree command will list the combined four links with an abbreviation of Po for PortChannel.

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; an engineer is reviewing an ACL configuration that has been written by another engineer and is intended to be applied on R2's Gi0/1 interface inbound. Which options are true? (Choose three answers.) access-list 101 permit tcp 10.100.150.128 0.0.0.63 host 172.30.45.100 eq telnet access-list 101 deny tcp 10.100.150.128 0.0.0.63 172.30.45.96 0.0.0.31 eq telnet access-list 101 deny tcp 10.100.150.128 0.0.0.127 172.30.45.96 0.0.0.31 eq 22 access-list 101 permit tcp 10.100.150.128 0.0.0.127 host 172.30.45.100 eq 22 access-list 101 deny tcp 10.100.150.128 0.0.0.127 host 172.30.45.100 eq http access-list 101 permit tcp any 172.30.45.96 0.0.0.63 eq http access-list 101 permit ip any any

The fourth line will have no effect. The sixth line is using the wrong destination wildcard mask. The first and second lines are using the wrong source wildcard mask.

Switch abstraction

The fundamental idea of what a switch does, in generalized form, so that standards protocols and APIs can be defined that then program a standard switch abstraction; a key part of the OpenFlow standard.

Regional Internet Registry (RIR)

The generic term for one of five current organizations that are responsible for assigning the public, globally unique IPv4 and IPv6 address space.

An enterprise has 1000 small retail locations and a central site. The enterprise uses Internet access links to each retail store and DMVPN to securely create a VPN back to the central site. Which of the following answers is true about the operation and configuration of DMVPN?

The hub router needs less than 10 tunnel interfaces.

Synchronous

The imposition of time ordering on a bit stream. Practically, a device tries to use the same speed as another device on the other end of a serial link. However, by examining transitions between voltage states on the link, the device can notice slight variations in the speed on each end and can adjust its speed accordingly.

Class of Service (CoS)

The informal term for the 3-bit field in the 802.1Q header intended for marking and classifying Ethernet frames for the purposes of applying QoS actions. Another term for Priority Code Point (PCP).

Security level

The level of SNMPv3 security applied by the SNMP agent, specifically either noauth, auth, or priv.

Examine the following extract from the show spanning-tree command on a Cisco switch: Bridge ID Priority 32771 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 3) Address 0019.e86a.6f80 Which of the following answers is true about the switch on which this command output was gathered?

The information is about the STP instance for VLAN 3. Cisco switches use the extended system ID format for BIDs by default, in which the priority field is broken down into a base priority value (32,768 in this case) plus the VLAN ID. The priority of this switch allows it to be capable of being the root switch, but the command output does not supply enough information to know whether this switch is currently root.

Consider the following excerpt from the output of a show command: Serial0/0/1 is up, line protocol is up Hardware is GT96K Serial Internet address is 192.168.2.1/24 MTU 1500 bytes, BW 1544 Kbit, DLY 20000 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation PPP, LCP Open Open: CDPCP, IPCP, loopback not set Which of the following are true about this router's S0/0/1 interface? (Choose two answers.)

The interface is using PPP. The link should be able to pass PPP frames at the present time.

Which options are true regarding the configuration of a GRE tunnel source? (Choose three answers.)

The interface specified must have an IP address configured. The IP address specified must exist on the local router. The interface must be in the up/up state.

What effect would the following have on a high-speed serial interface? R1(config-if)#no encapsulation

The interface uses HDLC.

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; an engineer is checking the work of a co-worker who is responsible for developing the ROAS configuration of R1. Which options are true of the potential configuration of R1? (Choose two answers.) ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 encapsulation dot1q 1 ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 no shutdown ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.100 encapsulation dot1q 20 ip address 20.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.200 encapsulation dot1q 40 ip address 30.30.30.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0.300 encapsulation dot1q 30 native ip address 40.40.40.1 255.255.255.0 !

The interfaces handling the VLAN 30 and 40 traffic have their assignment commands reversed. The physical interface has a command that is invalid.

A LAN design uses a Layer 3 EtherChannel between two switches SW1 and SW2, with Port-Channel interface 1 used on both switches. SW1 uses ports G0/1, G0/2, and G0/3 in the channel. Which of the following are true about SW1's configuration to make the channel be able to route IPv4 packets correctly? (Choose two answers.)

The ip address command must be on the port-channel 1 interface. The port-channel 1 interface must be configured with the no switchport command.

An engineer wants to set the OSPFv3 router ID for Router R1. Which of the following answers could affect R1's choice of OSPFv3 router ID?

The ip address command on interface Serial0/0/1

An engineer migrates from a more traditional OSPFv2 configuration that uses network commands in OSPF configuration mode to instead use OSPFv2 interface configuration. Which of the following commands configures the area number assigned to an interface in this new configuration?

The ip ospf command in interface configuration mode

Refer to the exhibit; the message shown was given on a Cisco 2960 switch configured in lanbase routing mode. What is likely the reason for its display? SW1#show ip route ^ % Invalid input detected at '^' marker. SW1

The ip routing command has not been issued.

Hyperthreading

The name of Intel's multithreading technology.

The figure illustrates a small LAN, with some of the trunking-related information shown in the exhibit. All switches are 2960 switches, which default to an administrative setting of dynamic auto in regards to trunking. The desired goal is for trunking to work between each pair of switches. Which of the following statements is true regarding trunking? Assume that all commands shown in the answers are used in interface configuration mode unless otherwise noted, and that all configuration uses default settings unless otherwise implied by the exhibit. (Choose two answers.)

The link between SW2 and SW4 will not trunk. SW1's fa0/2 interface, connecting SW1 to SW2, trunks as long as the trunking mode is not set to access mode on SW1's fa0/2 interface.

Distance vector

The logic behind the behavior of some interior routing protocols, such as RIP and IGRP. Distance vector routing algorithms call for each router to send its entire routing table in each update, but only to its neighbors. Distance vector routing algorithms can be prone to routing loops but are computationally simpler than link-state routing algorithms. Also called Bellman-Ford routing algorithm.

PPPoE session

The logical connection between two PPPoE endpoints, used to track the state of the ability of each endpoint to send PPPoE frames to the other endpoint.

Which options are actions of the control plane of a networking device? (Choose two answers.)

The lookup of a MAC/IP address pair The calculation of the best route for a packet

Boot field

The low-order 4 bits of the configuration register in a Cisco router. The value in the boot field in part tells the router where to look for a Cisco IOS image to load.

Wildcard mask

The mask used in Cisco IOS ACL commands and OSPF and EIGRP network commands.

Which options would be used by or are actions of the data plane of a networking device? (Choose two answers.)

The matching of a packet to forward based on the existing routing table The discard of a packet because of an ACL rule

Refer to the exhibit; which options are true? (Choose three answers.) R1#show ip sla history Point by point History Entry = Entry number LifeI = Life index BucketI = Bucket index SampleI = Sample index SampleT = Sample start time (milliseconds) CompT = RTT (milliseconds) Sense = Response return code Entry LifeI BucketI SampleI SampleT CompT Sense TargetAddr 1 1 89 1 6222413 4 1 10.10.10.2 1 1 90 1 6232413 3 1 10.10.10.2 1 1 91 1 6242414 1 1 10.10.10.2 1 1 92 1 6252415 3 1 10.10.10.2 1 1 93 1 6262414 4 1 10.10.10.2 1 1 94 1 6272413 4 1 10.10.10.2 1 1 95 1 6282413 3 1 10.10.10.2 1 1 96 1 6292413 3 1 10.10.10.2 1 1 97 1 6302413 1 1 10.10.10.2 1 1 98 1 6312413 2 1 10.10.10.2 2 1 89 1 6225913 2 1 172.16.2.1 2 1 90 1 6235913 3 1 172.16.2.1 2 1 91 1 6245913 3 1 172.16.2.1 2 1 92 1 6255913 3 1 172.16.2.1 2 1 93 1 6265913 2 1 172.16.2.1 2 1 94 1 6275913 5 1 172.16.2.1 2 1 95 1 6285913 4 1 172.16.2.1 2 1 96 1 6295913 4 1 172.16.2.1 2 1 97 1 6305913 2 1 172.16.2.1 2 1 98 1 6315913 3 1 172.16.2.1 R1#

The maximum round-trip time for IP SLA entry 2 was 5 ms. All the operations listed were successful. Both operations shown have run 98 times.

TCP window

The mechanism in a TCP connection used by each host to manage how much data the receiver allows the sender to send to the receiver.

Site-to-site VPN

The mechanism that allows all devices at two different sites to communicate securely over some unsecure network like the Internet, by having one device at each site perform encryption/decryption and forwarding for all the packets sent between the sites.

Refer to the exhibit; what does the '151' in the route learned by OSPF signify? R2#show ip route Codes: L - local, C - connected, S - static, R - RIP, M - mobile, B - BGP D - EIGRP, EX - EIGRP external, O - OSPF, IA - OSPF inter area N1 - OSPF NSSA external type 1, N2 - OSPF NSSA external type 2 E1 - OSPF external type 1, E2 - OSPF external type 2 i - IS-IS, su - IS-IS summary, L1 - IS-IS level-1, L2 - IS-IS level-2 ia - IS-IS inter area, * - candidate default, U - per-user static route o - ODR, P - periodic downloaded static route, H - NHRP, l - LISP a - application route + - replicated route, % - next hop override, p - overrides from PfR Gateway of last resort is not set 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks C 10.10.10.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1 L 10.10.10.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1 172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks O 172.16.1.1/32 [110/151] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:07, GigabitEthernet0/1 S 172.16.1.128/26 [1/0] via 192.168.1.2 192.168.1.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks C 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/2 L 192.168.1.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/2 R2#

The metric

Which of the following are true about EIGRP? (Choose three answers.)

The metric calculation is based on the lowest bandwidth and the sum of the delays in the path (by default). Uses hello messages with neighbors. EIGRP messages use the multicast address of 224.0.0.10.

Assured Forwarding (AF)

The name of a grid of 12 DSCP values, and a matching grid of per-hop behavior as defined by DiffServ. AF defines four queuing classes, and three packet drop priorities within each queuing class. The text names of the 12 DSCP values follow a format of AFXY, where X is the queuing class, and Y is the drop priority.

Expedited Forwarding (EF)

The name of a particular DSCP value, as well as the term for one per-hop behavior as defined by DiffServ. The value, decimal 46, is marked for packets to which the networking devices should apply certain per-hop behaviors, like priority queuing.

Low Latency Queuing (LLQ)

The name of a queuing system that can be enabled on Cisco routers and switches by which messages sensitive to latency and jitter are placed in a queue that is always serviced first, resulting in low latency and jitter for those messages.

Class Selector (CS)

The name of eight DSCP values that all end with binary 000, for the purpose of having eight identifiable DSCP values whose first 3 bits match the eight values used for the older IP Precedence field. Originally used for backward compatibility with IP Precedence, but today the values are often used as just more values to use for packet marking.

Dijkstra Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm

The name of the algorithm used by link-state routing protocols to analyze the LSDB and find the least-cost routes from that router to each subnet.

VLAN configuration database

The name of the collective configuration of VLAN IDs and names on a Cisco switch.

The output of the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors command from R2 lists one neighbor. Which of the following answers is correct about the meaning of the output of the command in this example? R2# show ipv6 eigrp neighbors EIGRP-IPv6 Neighbors for AS(1) H Address Interface Hold Uptime SRTT RTO Q Seq (sec) (ms) Cnt Num 0 Link-local address: Gi0/0 11 06:46:11 1 100 0 30 FE80::FF:FE22.2222

The neighbor's link-local address on its common link must be FE80::FF:FE22:2222.

Routers R1, R2, and R3 are internal routers in areas 1, 2, and 3, respectively. Router R4 is an ABR connected to the backbone area (0) and to areas 1, 2, and 3. Which of the following answers describes the configuration on Router R4, which is different from the other three routers, that makes it an ABR?

The network router subcommands refer to multiple areas, including the backbone.

EIGRP for IPv4 named mode

The newer method to configure EIGRP for IPv4 as compared to classic mode, which enables EIGRP on interfaces directly with interface subcommands, and uses address families within EIGRP router configuration mode.

OpenFlow

The open standard for Software Defined Networking (SDN) as defined by the Open Networking Foundation (ONF), which defines the OpenFlow protocol as well as the concept of an abstracted OpenFlow virtual switch.

Metro Ethernet

The original term used for WAN service that used Ethernet links as the access link between the customer and the service provider.

Problem isolation

The part of the troubleshooting process in which the engineer attempts to rule out possible causes of the problem, narrowing the possible causes until the root cause of the problem can be identified.

Quality of Service (QoS)

The performance of a message, or the messages sent by an application, in regard to the bandwidth, delay, jitter, or loss characteristics experienced by the message(s).

Think about a policing function that is currently working, and also think about a shaping function that is also currently working. That is, the current bit rate of traffic exceeds the respective policing and shaping rates. Which statements are true about these features? (Choose two answers.)

The policer may or may not be discarding packets. The shaper is definitely queuing packets to slow down the sending rate.

Refer to the exhibit; which statements are true about the output displayed? (Choose three answers.) SW2#show etherchannel summary Flags: D - down P - bundled in port-channel I - stand-alone s - suspended H - Hot-standby (LACP only) R - Layer3 S - Layer2 U - in use N - not in use, no aggregation f - failed to allocate aggregator M - not in use, minimum links not met m - not in use, port not aggregated due to minimum links not met u - unsuitable for bundling w - waiting to be aggregated d - default port A - formed by Auto LAG Number of channel-groups in use: 1 Number of aggregators: 1 Group Port-channel Protocol Ports ------+-------------+-----------+----------------------------------------------- 1 Po1(SU) LACP Gi0/1(P) Gi0/2(s) SW2#

The port channel displayed is operational. The port channel is only operational using a single interface. This is a Layer 2 port channel.

Refer to the exhibit; which statements are true about the output displayed? (Choose three answers.) SW1#show etherchannel summary Flags: D - down P - bundled in port-channel I - stand-alone s - suspended H - Hot-standby (LACP only) R - Layer3 S - Layer2 U - in use N - not in use, no aggregation f - failed to allocate aggregator M - not in use, minimum links not met m - not in use, port not aggregated due to minimum links not met u - unsuitable for bundling w - waiting to be aggregated d - default port A - formed by Auto LAG Number of channel-groups in use: 1 Number of aggregators: 1 Group Port-channel Protocol Ports ------+-------------+-----------+----------------------------------------------- 1 Po1(SU) PAgP Gi0/1(w) Gi0/2(P) SW1#

The port channel displayed is operational. This is a Layer 2 port channel. The port channel is only operational using a single interface.

Layer 2 switch SW2 connects to several devices: a Layer 2 switch (SW1), a router, a DHCP server, and three PCs (PC1, PC2, and PC3). All PCs are expected to use DHCP to lease their IP addresses. A network engineer implements DHCP snooping on switch SW2. Unknown to the engineer, a malicious attacker is using PC3. Which of the following is the most likely DHCP snooping trust state configuration on SW2 for the ports connected to the listed devices? (Choose two answers.)

The port connected to switch SW1 is trusted. The port connected to PC1 is untrusted.

Examine the output taken from a router using IP SLA. Which of the following answers list a fact that can be confirmed based on this output? (Choose two answers.) R3# show ip sla summary IPSLAs Latest Operation Summary Codes: * active, ^ inactive, ~ pending ID Type Destination Stats Return Last (ms) Code Run ----------------------------------------------------------------------- *1 icmp-echo 10.1.1.1 RTT=384 OK 54 seconds ago

The probe sends ICMP Echos to address 10.1.1.1. The output confirms that an Echo Reply was received back as well.

Queuing

The process by which networking devices hold packets in memory while waiting on some constrained resource; for example, when waiting for the outgoing interface to become available when too many packets arrive in a short period of time.

VTP synchronization

The process by which switches that use VTP exchange VTP messages and realize that one switch now has an updated VLAN configuration database (one that has a higher revision number), resulting in messages that allow the rest of the switches to learn the contents of that updated configuration database.

Marking

The process of changing one of a small set of fields in various network protocol headers, including the IP header's DSCP field, for the purpose of later classifying a message based on that marked value.

Classification

The process of examining various fields in networking messages in an effort to identify which messages fit into certain predetermined groups (classes).

Clocking

The process of supplying a signal over a cable, either on a separate pin on a serial cable or as part of the signal transitions in the transmitted signal, so that the receiving device can keep synchronization with the sending device.

Refer to the exhibit; which statements are true about the input shown? (Choose three answers.) SW2#show etherchannel port-channel Channel-group listing: ---------------------- Group: 1 ---------- Port-channels in the group: --------------------------- Port-channel: Po1 (Primary Aggregator) ------------ Age of the Port-channel = 0d:00h:06m:36s Logical slot/port = 16/0 Number of ports = 2 HotStandBy port = null Port state = Port-channel Ag-Inuse Protocol = LACP Port security = Disabled Ports in the Port-channel: Index Load Port EC state No of bits ------+------+------+------------------+----------- 0 00 Gi0/1 Passive 0 0 00 Gi0/2 Active 0 Time since last port bundled: 0d:00h:00m:15s Gi0/2 Time since last port Un-bundled: 0d:00h:01m:09s Gi0/2 SW2#

The remote interface connected to SW2's Gi0/1 interface must be configured as active. The Dynamic EtherChannel protocol configured is LACP. The Port Channel (EtherChannel) link is operational.

Examine the exhibit. According to the command output, choose the statements that correctly describe how EIGRP will react when the route to 10.1.5.0/24 through 10.1.4.2 fails: R1#show ip eigrp topology IP-EIGRP Topology Table for AS(1)/ID(10.1.6.1) ! Lines omitted for brevity P 10.1.5.0/24, 2 successors, FD is 2681856 via 10.1.4.2 (2681856/2169856), Serial0/0 via 10.1.8.1 (2973451/2579243), Serial0/2 via 10.1.6.3 (2681856/2169856), Serial0/1

The route to 10.1.5.0/24 pointing to next-hop 10.1.4.2 will be removed from the routing table.

An engineer is asked a question about the following command, specifically what the effect of this command would be when the first method shown denies the authentication request. What would be the next action taken by the Cisco IOS router? aaa authentication login default group radius group tacacs+ local

The router would refuse the login request.

A router has been configured with the global command snmp-server community textvalue1 RO textvalue2. Which of the following statements are true about the meaning of this command? (Choose two answers.)

The router's read-only community is textvalue1. The router filters incoming SNMP messages using IPv4 ACL textvalue2.

Refer to the exhibit; which options are correct when referencing these two OSPF routers exchanging route information? (Choose three answers.) Router 1 LSA 1 LSA 3 LSA 5 LSA 6 LSA 7 LSA 10 Router 2 LSA 2 LSA 3 LSA 5 LSA 7 LSA 8 LSA 10 LSA 11

The routers would use a Link-State Request packet to ask for missing LSAs. Router 2 would request only the 1 and 6 LSAs from Router 1. Router 1 would request only the 2, 8, and 11 LSAs from Router 2.

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; an engineer is reviewing an ACL configuration that has been written by another engineer and is intended to be applied on R1's Gi0/1 interface inbound. Which options are true? (Choose two answers.) access-list 101 permit tcp any any eq 22 access-list 101 deny tcp any 10.20.30.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22 access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.100.64 0.0.0.31 any eq www access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.100.64 0.0.0.15 10.20.30.0 0.0.0.255 eq telnet access-list 101 permit tcp any 10.20.30.0 0.0.0.255 eq telnet access-list 101 deny tcp any any eq telnet access-list 101 permit ip any any

The second line will have no effect. The third line is using the wrong wildcard mask.

An engineer is attempting to resolve a recurring HSRP problem on a local LAN; it is reported that when engineers work on the primary router, the secondary router doesn't work correctly because users are unable to connect to devices off the local network. When the engineer views the status of HSRP on the primary router, it shows it is active and that the secondary router is passive with the correct configuration. What could be the problem?

The secondary router is configured with the wrong virtual IP address.

Which 2960 commands list the STP interface's status (forwarding or blocking) on interface fa0/1? (Choose two answers.)

The show spanning-tree command The show spanning-tree interface fastethernet 0/1 command

APIC-EM (Application Policy Infrastructure Controller - Enterprise Module)

The software that plays the role of controller in an enterprise network of Cisco devices, in its first version as of the publication of this book, which leaves the distributed routing and switching control plane as is, instead acting as a management and automation platform. It provides robust APIs for network automation, and uses CLI (Telnet and SSH) plus SNMP southbound to control the existing routers and switches in an enterprise network.

APIC (Application Policy Infrastructure Controller)

The software that plays the role of controller, controlling the flows that the switches create to define where frames are forwarded, in a Cisco data center that uses the Application Centric Infrastructure (ACI) approach, switches, and software.

Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC)

OpFlex

The southbound protocol used by the Cisco ACI controller and the switches it controls.

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; which statements are true about the input shown? SW2#show spanning-tree VLAN0001 Spanning tree enabled protocol rstp Root IDPriority32769 Addressfa16.3e76.4a5a This bridge is the root Hello Time2 secMax Age 20 secForward Delay 15 sec Bridge IDPriority32769(priority 32768 sys-id-ext 1) Addressfa16.3e76.4a5a Hello Time2 secMax Age 20 secForward Delay 15 sec Aging Time300 sec InterfaceRole Sts CostPrio.Nbr Type ------------------- ---- --- --------- -------- -------------------------------- Gi0/0Desg FWD 4128.1Shr Edge Po1Desg FWD 3128.65Shr SW2#

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid STP.

Examine the output. The output is taken from switch SW1, a Cisco Catalyst 2960 switch that uses RSTP. Which of the following answers list facts that must have been true when the output in the exhibit was collected? (Choose two answers.) SW1# show spanning-tree vlan 10 VLAN0010 Spanning tree enabled protocol rstp ! lines omitted for brevity Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type ------------------- ---- --- --------- -------- -------------------------------- Fa0/1 Desg FWD 19 128.12 P2p Edge Fa0/2 Desg FWD 19 128.18 Shr Gi0/1 Desg FWD 4 128.25 P2p Gi0/2 Root FWD 4 128.26 P2p

The spanning-tree portfast interface subcommand exists under port F0/1. Port F0/2 currently operates at half duplex.

The exhibit shows the output from commands that are issued on SW1 and SW2 in the figure. Assume that all STP parameters not implied by the text in the exhibit are default values, except for priority, where SW3 has a configured priority of 28,672. Which of the following commands would immediately change the topology of the spanning tree? (Choose three answers.) !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!Output from SW1!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! SW1#show spanning-tree vlan 1 VLAN0001 Spanning tree enabled protocol ieee Root ID Priority 24577 Address 000a.b7dc.b780 This bridge is the root Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Bridge ID Priority 24577 (priority 24576 sys-id-ext 1) Address 000a.b7dc.b780 Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Aging Time 300 Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type ---------------- ---- --- --------- -------- -------------------------------- Fa0/2 Desg FWD 19 128.2 P2p Fa0/3 Desg FWD 19 128.3 P2p Fa0/4 Desg FWD 19 128.4 P2p !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!Output from SW2!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! SW2#show spanning-tree vlan 1 VLAN0001 Spanning tree enabled protocol ieee Root ID Priority 24577 Address 000a.b7dc.b780 Cost 19 Port 1 (FastEthernet0/1) Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Bridge ID Priority 36865 (priority 36864 sys-id-ext 1) Address 0011.92b0.f500 Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Aging Time 300 Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type ---------------- ---- --- --------- -------- -------------------------------- Fa0/1 Root FWD 19 128.1 P2p Fa0/3 Altn BLK 19 128.3 P2p Fa0/4 Altn BLK 19 128.4 P2p

The spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 20480 global configuration command on SW2 The spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on SW3 The spanning-tree cost 1 command on SW2 under interface fa0/1

Clock rate

The speed at which a serial link encodes bits on the transmission medium.

AR (Access rate)

The speed at which bits are sent over an access link.

Bandwidth

The speed at which bits can be sent and received over a link.

A network engineer takes four 2960-X switches and creates a switch stack using either FlexStack or FlexStack-Plus stacking from Cisco. Now consider data plane functions, such as frame forwarding; control plane functions, such as STP and VTP; and management plane functions, such as Telnet and SSH support. Once the stack is cabled and working, which of the following is true about how the stack of four switches works?

The stack acts as one switch for data plane, control plane, and management plane functions.

Topology database

The structured data that describes the network topology to a routing protocol. Link-state and balanced hybrid routing protocols use topology tables, from which they build the entries in the routing table.

Which option describes the way that metrics work with OSPF?

The sum of all interface cost settings for all links in a destination subnet divided by a reference bandwidth

An engineer is tasked with creating a new VLAN on a VTP-enabled switch, but when he attempts the vlan 501, he is given an error message; which option indicates a possible reason for this error message?

The switch is configured in VTP client mode.

Question 33 : If two nonroot switches were connected together in a three-switch topology, the connection between the two switches would result in a parallel path. Which of the following would occur in STP?

The switch with the lowest root cost would become designated, and the other switch would block.

Circuit switching

The switching system in which a dedicated physical circuit path must exist between the sender and the receiver for the duration of the "call." Used heavily in the telephone company network.

Refer to the exhibit; assuming the switch is a 2960, which statements are true about the input shown? (Choose three answers.) SW1#show interfaces gigabitethernet0/2 switchport Name: Gi0/2 Switchport: Enabled Administrative Mode: dynamic desirable Operational Mode: static access Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: negotiate Operational Trunking Encapsulation: native Negotiation of Trunking: On Access Mode VLAN: 5 (Voice) Trunking Native Mode VLAN: 1 (default) Administrative Native VLAN tagging: enabled Voice VLAN: 10 (Data) Administrative private-vlan host-association: none Administrative private-vlan mapping: none Administrative private-vlan trunk native VLAN: none Administrative private-vlan trunk Native VLAN tagging: enabled Administrative private-vlan trunk encapsulation: dot1q Administrative private-vlan trunk normal VLANs: none Administrative private-vlan trunk associations: none Administrative private-vlan trunk mappings: none Operational private-vlan: none Trunking VLANs Enabled: ALL Pruning VLANs Enabled: 2-1001 Capture Mode Disabled Capture VLANs Allowed: ALL Protected: false Appliance trust: none SW1#

The switchport voice vlan 10 command is configured on the Gi0/2 interface. The switchport access vlan 5 command is configured on the Gi0/2 interface. The switchport mode dynamic desirable command is configured on the Gi0/2 interface.

Refer to the diagram; which commands are used to configure the connection connecting to host C? (Choose two answers.)

The switchport voice vlan 5 command is configured on SW2's Fa0/1 interface. The switchport access vlan 10 command is configured on SW2's Fa0/1 interface.

System ID Extension

The term for the formatting applied to the original 16-bit STP priority field to break it into a 4-bit priority field and a 12-bit VLAN ID field.

IPsec

The term referring to the IP Security protocols, which is an architecture for providing encryption and authentication services, usually when creating VPN services through an IP network.

SNMPv3

The third version of SNMP, with the notable addition of several security features as compared to SNMPv2c, specifically message integrity, authentication, and encryption.

Round Trip Time (RTT)

The time it takes a message to go from the original sender to the receiver, plus the time for the response to that message to be sent back.

Convergence

The time required for routing protocols to react to changes in the network, removing bad routes and adding new, better routes so that the current best routes are in all the routers' routing tables.

Question 31 : In the figure, the current STP state information is listed, with F for Forwarding and B for Blocking. SW1 is the current root. Assume that all STP parameters are using default values. Next, the network administrator configures a priority value of 61440 on SW1. Assuming that SW2 wins the new root election, which of the following statements is true about STP convergence? (Choose three answers.)

The time spent in the listening state is defined by the Forward Delay timer. Interfaces in a forwarding state before the change that need to stay in a forwarding state after SW2 becomes root will not transition to another STP state SW2 interface fa0/3 will be in a learning state for 15 seconds.

Consider the topology and the results of the show command issued on R1: R1# show ipv6 eigrp topology EIGRP-IPv6 Topology Table for AS(1)/ID(1.1.1.1) Codes: P - Passive, A - Active, U - Update, Q - Query, R - Reply, r - reply Status, s - sia Status P 2001:DB8:6783:34::/64, 1 successors, FD is 2170112 via FE80::3 (2170112/2169856), GigabitEthernet2/0 P 2001:DB8:6783:45::/64, 1 successors, FD is 2170368 via FE80::3 (2170368/2170112), GigabitEthernet2/0 P 2001:DB8:6783:192::/64, 1 successors, FD is 3072 via FE80::3 (3072/2816), GigabitEthernet2/0 P 2001:DB8:6783:5::/64, 1 successors, FD is 2170624 via FE80::3 (2170624/2170368), GigabitEthernet2/0 P 2001:DB8:6783:12::/64, 1 successors, FD is 2816 via Connected, GigabitEthernet1/0 P 2001:DB8:6783:123::/64, 1 successors, FD is 2816 via Connected, GigabitEthernet2/0 Based on this, which of the following are true? (Choose three answers.)

There is no RD for Subnet 12. The RD for Subnet 45 is 2170112. The RD for Subnet 5 is 2170368.

Which options are true regarding the configuration of a GRE tunnel destination? (Choose three answers.)

There must be a route to the destination IP address in the local routing table. The route used to the tunnel destination can be a default route. There must be a successful lookup of a configured destination hostname when configured.

Refer to the exhibit; an engineer is checking the work of a peer by reviewing a text file of a future configuration. Which options are true about this configuration? interface dialer 5 ip address negotiated mtu 1492 encapsulation ppp ppp chap hostname username ppp chap password password dialer pool 10 interface GigabitEthernet0/0 no ip address pppoe enable pppoe-client dial-pool-number 10

This configuration would work correctly with a PPPoE server.

Refer to the exhibit; an engineer is checking the work of a peer by reviewing a text file of a future configuration. Which options are true about this configuration? (Choose two answers.) interface dialer 5 ip address negotiated mtu 1492 ppp chap hostname username ppp chap password password dialer pool 5 interface GigabitEthernet0/0 encapsulation ppp no ip address pppoe enable pppoe-client dial-pool-number 10

This configuration wouldn't work correctly with a PPPoE server because of the mismatch with the dialer pool and the pppoe client pool number. This configuration wouldn't work correctly with a PPPoE server because of the incorrect encapsulation command on both interfaces.

Review the diagram and the partial output from the running-configuration from R3. ! interface Loopback0 ip address 3.3.3.3 255.255.255.255 ! interface GigabitEthernet1/0 ipv6 address FE80::3 link-local ipv6 address 2001:DB8:6783:192::3/64 ipv6 ospf 1 area 0 ! interface GigabitEthernet2/0 ipv6 address FE80::3 link-local ipv6 address 2001:DB8:6783:123::3/64 ipv6 ospf 1 area 0 ! interface Serial3/0 ipv6 address FE80::3 link-local ipv6 address 2001:DB8:6783:34::3/64 ipv6 ospf 1 area 1 ! From the diagram and the partial output from R3, which of the following are true? (Choose two answers.)

This is a multi-area OSPF topology. R3 is an ABR.

Examine the following first seven lines of output from the show spanning-tree command on a Cisco switch: SW1# show spanning-tree vlan 5 VLAN0005 Spanning tree enabled protocol rstp Root ID Priority 32773 Address 1833.9d7b.0e80 Cost 15 Port 25 (GigabitEthernet0/1) Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Which of the following answers is true about the switch on which this command output was gathered?

This switch uses RSTP. The first set of messages list the root's MAC address (1833.9d7b.0e80). These lines also list the cost to reach the root (15) rather than the phrase 'this bridge is the root'. Those facts combine to rule out two answers. Second, the "protocol rstp" near the top of the output positively identifies that the switch is using RSTP, as configured with the spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration command.

Keyboard, video, mouse (KVM)

Three components of a typical desktop computer that are typically not included in a modern server because the server is installed and managed remotely.

Which statements are common valid reasons why an engineer may want to implement VLANs on a network? (Choose three answers.)

To reduce the workload of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) To reduce the demand on the switch's processor To increase security for devices within the same VLAN

Forward

To send a frame toward its ultimate destination by way of an internetworking device.

What is the name of the IPv6 packet field that is used for marking DSCP values?

Traffic Class

Refer to the exhibit; which statements are true about the input shown? (Choose two answers.) SW1#show interface trunk Port Mode Encapsulation Status Native vlan Gi0/1 desirable 802.1q trunking 20 Port Vlans allowed on trunk Gi0/1 1-4,11-4094 Port Vlans allowed and active in management domain Gi0/1 1,11-20,40-70,100-150 Port Vlans in spanning tree forwarding state and not pruned Gi0/1 1,11-20 SW1#show interface gigabitethernet0/1 switchport Name: Gi0/1 Switchport: Enabled Administrative Mode: dynamic desirable Operational Mode: trunk Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q Operational Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q Negotiation of Trunking: On Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default) Trunking Native Mode VLAN: 20 (VLAN0020) Administrative Native VLAN tagging: enabled Voice VLAN: none Administrative private-vlan host-association: none Administrative private-vlan mapping: none Administrative private-vlan trunk native VLAN: none Administrative private-vlan trunk Native VLAN tagging: enabled Administrative private-vlan trunk encapsulation: dot1q Administrative private-vlan trunk normal VLANs: none Administrative private-vlan trunk associations: none Administrative private-vlan trunk mappings: none Operational private-vlan: none Trunking VLANs Enabled: 1-4,11-4094 Pruning VLANs Enabled: 2-1001 Capture Mode Disabled Capture VLANs Allowed: ALL Protected: false Appliance trust: none SW1#

Traffic on VLAN 20 will not be tagged when crossing the trunk. Traffic on VLAN 10 will not be allowed to cross the trunk.

Which QoS feature is typically used inbound to a network to limit the amount of traffic that is allowed to flow in?

Traffic policing

Which QoS feature is typically used outbound to an ISP to reduce the amount of traffic that is dropped by exceeding the purchased rate?

Traffic shaping

Out-of-band

Traffic that does not share the same network paths with user data traffic. Network management traffic is often sent OOB.

Which VTP mode tells a switch to not learn the VLAN configuration but to relay VTP traffic out other enabled interfaces?

Transparent

Two switches are connected using a crossover cable. Using the combinations of configurations listed here (one on each end of the crossover cable on each switch), which of the following are accurate? (Choose two answers.)

Trunk and dynamic auto will end up in a trunk being formed. Dynamic desirable and dynamic auto will end up in a trunk being formed.

Which of the following are true? (Choose two answers.)

Trunks carry traffic for multiple VLANs only if those VLANs exist on the switch and are allowed on the trunked interfaces. Multiple Layer 2 interfaces can be bound together to increase the overall throughput.

Which type of interface needs to be created when configuring a GRE tunnel?

Tunnel

SNMP manager

Typically a Network Management System (NMS), with this term specifically referring to the use of SNMP and the typical role of the manager, which retrieves status information with SNMP Get requests, sets variables with the SNMP Set requests, and receives unsolicited notifications from SNMP agents by listening for SNMP Trap and Notify messages.

What is the name of the Cisco product that offers a number of rack-mountable server configurations intended to be used in data centers?

UCS

Refer to the diagram; what is the term that is used to reference the link indicated with the green arrows?

UNI

Which of the following fields cannot be compared based on an extended IP ACL? (Choose two answers.)

URL Filename for FTP transfers

10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 10 subnets D 10.2.0.0 [90/30976] via 10.15.0.5, 00:00:16, FastEthernet2/0 [90/28928] via 10.12.0.2, 00:00:16, GigabitEthernet1/0 D 10.4.0.0 [90/30720] via 10.15.0.5, 00:00:16, FastEthernet2/0 [90/29184] via 10.12.0.2, 00:00:16, GigabitEthernet1/0 D 10.24.0.0 [90/2170112] via 10.12.0.2, 00:00:16, GigabitEthernet1/0 D 10.23.0.0 [90/3072] via 10.12.0.2, 00:00:16, GigabitEthernet1/0 D 10.45.0.0 [90/3584] via 10.12.0.2, 00:00:16, GigabitEthernet1/0 D 10.34.0.0 [90/3328] via 10.12.0.2, 00:00:16, GigabitEthernet1/0 Based on the partial output provided, which of the following statements is true?

Unequal-cost load balancing will be used.

What does asymmetric mean, with regard to ADSL?

Upload speed is slower than download speed.

Host1 and Host2 connect to ports F0/1 and F0/2 on a LAN switch, respectively, so that frames sent by Host1 to Host2 will enter switch port F0/1 and exit switch port F0/2. All FastEthernet ports on the switch are access ports in VLAN 5. A network analyzer connects to port F0/9. A network engineer wants to use SPAN to direct traffic to the network analyzer. Which one answer is the best answer for what traffic to direct to the analyzer with SPAN, if the goal is to gather all traffic sent between Host1 and Host2, but to avoid gathering multiple copies of the same frames?

Use a SPAN source port of F0/2 for both directions of traffic.

SNMP Get message

Used by SNMP to read from variables in the MIB.

SNMP Set message

Used in SNMP to set the value in variables of the MIB. These messages are the key to an administrator configuring the managed device using SNMP.

Refer to the exhibit; which options are true about the command shown? (Choose three answers.) snmp-server group group-name v3 auth write v1default

Users in this group will not use encryption. Users in this group will have read/write access. The networks the users in this group access this device from will not be limited by an ACL.

Which options are true about TACACS+? (Choose three answers.)

Uses TCP Uses port 49 Encrypts the entire packet

Which options are true about the RADIUS? (Choose three answers.)

Uses UDP Uses ports 1645 and 1812 Doesn't encrypt the entire packet

Which of the following answers is most accurate about access link options for an MPLS network?

Uses a wide variety of Layer 1 and Layer 2 networking technologies

IPv6 access control lists are configured in which of the following ways?

Using ACL names to uniquely identify each ACL

Which of the following ways could remove the need for spanning tree in a two switch network? (Choose two answers.)

Using EtherChannel to combine multiple parallel segments into one logical link No Layer 2 parallel paths in the network

A Network Management Station (NMS) is using SNMP to manage some Cisco routers and switches with SNMPv2c. Which of the following answers most accurately describes how the SNMP agent on a router authenticates any SNMP Get requests received from the NMS?

Using either the read-write or read-only community string

Which of the following are allowed when configuring Local SPAN sessions? (Choose two answers.)

Using more than one SPAN source port in one SPAN session Using an EtherChannel port as a SPAN source port

An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service, and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which one option has the most issues if the company chooses one cloud provider but then later wants to change to use a different cloud provider instead?

Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider

An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service, and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which options provide good security by keeping the data private while also providing good QoS services? (Choose two answers.)

Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider Using an intercloud exchange

How are directly connected networks added to EIGRP for IPv6 in an IPv6 router?

Using the ipv6 eigrp asn interface subcommand to add individual interfaces to EIGRP for IPv6.

A switch has just arrived from Cisco. The switch has never been configured with any VLANs, but VTP has been disabled. An engineer gets into configuration mode and issues the vlan 22 command, followed by the name Hannahs-VLAN command. Which of the following are true? (Choose two answers.)

VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show vlan brief command. VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show running-config command. The configured VTP setting of VTP transparent mode means that the switch can configure VLANs, so the VLAN is configured. In addition, the VLAN configuration details, including the VLAN name, show up as part of the running-config file.

Refer to the diagram; what is the name of the process that is used to enable communications between the devices in the same VLAN across multiple switches?

VLAN tagging

Each virtual OS instance that exists on a server is referred to as a ___________

Switches SW1 and SW2 connect through an operational trunk. The engineer wants to use VTP to communicate VLAN configuration changes. The engineer configures a new VLAN on SW1, VLAN 44, but SW2 does not learn about the new VLAN. Which of the following configuration settings on SW1 and SW2 would be a potential root cause why SW2 does not learn about VLAN 44? (Choose two answers.)

VTP domain names of larry and LARRY, respectively VTP passwords of bob and BOB, respectively

An engineer has successfully configured a Layer 3 switch with SVIs for VLANs 2 and 3. Hosts in the subnets using VLANs 2 and 3 can ping each other with the Layer 3 switch routing the packets. Next week, the network engineer receives a call that those same users can no longer ping each other. If the problem is with the Layer 3 switching function, which of the following could have caused the problem? (Choose two answers.)

VTP on the switch removing VLAN 3 from the switch's VLAN list A shutdown command issued from VLAN 2 configuration mode

What is the name of the feature that is used to dynamically limit the VLANs that are allowed on specific trunks based on configured downstream access port VLAN configuration?

VTP pruning

Data integrity

Verifying that the packet was not changed as the packet transited the Internet.

VoIP

Voice over IP. The transport of voice traffic inside IP packets over an IP network.

Inferior Hello

When STP compares two or more received Hello BPDUs, a Hello that lists a numerically larger root bridge ID than another Hello or a Hello that lists the same root bridge ID but with a larger cost.

BGP update source

When running BGP in a router, the interface IP address used to form the TCP connection for the BGP peer relationship with another router.

Broadcast subnet

When subnetting a Class A, B, or C network, the one subnet in each classful network for which all subnet bits have a value of binary 1. The subnet broadcast address in this subnet has the same numeric value as the classful network's networkwide broadcast address.

Trust boundary

When thinking about a message as it flows from the source device to the destination device, the trust boundary is the first device the message reaches for which the QoS markings in the message's various headers can be trusted as having an accurate value, allowing the device to apply the correct QoS actions to the message based on the marking.

What is true about the command switchport nonegotiate?

When used, if a connected switch is using dynamic desirable or dynamic auto, it will not form a trunk.

NHRP server

When using Next Hop Resolution Protocol, a router that collects and distributes the public and private IP address pairs registered to it from NHRP clients.

NHRP client

When using Next Hop Resolution Protocol, a router that registers its public and private IP addresses by informing the NHRP server of the addresses it uses. The NHRP client also asks the NHRP server to inform the client of the public/private address pairs of other routers.

Backup port

With 802.1w RSTP, a port role in which the port acts as a backup to one of the switch's ports acting as a designated port. If the switch's designated port fails, the switch will use the backup port to immediately take over as the designated port.

Alternate port

With 802.1w RSTP, a port role in which the port acts as an alternative to a switch's root port, so that when the switch's root port fails, the alternate port can immediately take over as the root port.

Point-to-point port

With 802.1w RSTP, a port type in which the switch believes the port is connected to a single other device, specifically another switch.

Point-to-point edge port

With 802.1w RSTP, a port type in which the switch believes the port is connected to a single other device, specifically one that is not another switch.

Which Cisco IOS command is required to be the first one configured when implementing AAA?

aaa new-model

Which of the following access-list commands matches all packets sent from hosts in subnet 172.16.4.0/23?

access-list 1 permit 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255

Which Cisco IOS statement could be used to match only the IP address 1.2.3.4 using ACL number 10?

access-list 10 permit 1.2.3.4

Which of the following access-list commands permit packets going from host 10.1.1.1 to all web servers whose IP addresses begin with 172.16.5? (Choose two answers.)

access-list 101 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www access-list 2523 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www

Which of the following access-list commands permits packets going to any web client from all web servers whose IP addresses begin with 172.16.5?

access-list 2523 permit tcp 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www any

Which Cisco IOS command would correctly change the OSPFv3 reference bandwidth to 10 Gbps?

auto-cost reference-bandwidth 10000

Which Cisco IOS command must be configured on a serial interface not using the full interface speed capability to ensure the EIGRP metric reflects the correct value?

bandwidth

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; an engineer is tasked with designing and configuring an ACL based on the following requirements. Which of the configurations listed in the exhibit would correctly configure R1 inbound? Permit DNS (all supported protocols) from SW1's LAN to S1 Permit Syslog from SW1's LAN to S2 Permit SNMP from SW1's LAN to SW2's LAN a. ipv6 access-list awesome_list_1 permit tcp host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 eq dns 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 permit udp host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 eq dns 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 permit udp host 2001:db8:1000:2::200 eq syslog 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 permit udp host 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 eq snmp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 b. ipv6 access-list awesome_list_1 permit tcp host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq dns permit udp host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq dns permit tcp host 2001:db8:1000:2::200 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq syslog permit tcp host 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 eq snmp c. ipv6 access-list awesome_list_1 permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 eq domain permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::200 eq syslog permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 eq snmp d. ipv6 access-list awesome_list_1 permit tcp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 eq domain permit udp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::100 eq domain permit udp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::200 eq syslog permit udp 2001:db8:1000:1::/64 host 2001:db8:1000:2::/64 eq snmp

Which Cisco IOS command is used to advertise a default route into an OSPF domain regardless of whether a default static route is configured?

default-information originate always

Which of the following configuration settings on a router does not influence which IPv4 route a router chooses to add to its IPv4 routing table when using OSPFv2?

delay

Which Cisco IOS command would be used to alter the delay for an interface to 400 ms for use with EIGRP?

delay 40

Which protocol would be used if there were multiple routes to the same destination/mask pair in the routing table from multiple sources?

eBGP

Which commands have the exact same syntax in both EIGRPv4 and EIGRPv6? (Choose three answers.)

eigrp router-id maximum-paths variance

What command is used in EIGRPv6 to set the 32-bit router ID value?

eigrp router-id in router configuration mode

Refer to the diagram; which Cisco IOS command would be configured on R1's Gi0/0.200 interface so that it handles all traffic marked for VLAN 200?

encapsulation dot1q 200

Refer to the diagram; which Cisco IOS command would be configured on R1's Gi0/0.300 interface so that it handles all non-marked traffic from VLAN 300?

encapsulation dot1q 300 native

Two routers connect with a serial link, each using its S0/0/0 interface. The link is currently working using PPP. The network engineer wants to migrate to use the Cisco-proprietary HDLC that includes a protocol type field. Which of the following commands can be used to migrate to HDLC successfully? (Choose two answers.)

encapsulation hdlc no encapsulation ppp

On R1 and R3, which partial configuration commands result in the debug output shown? (Choose three answers.) R3#debug ppp negotiation PPP protocol negotiation debugging is on R3#configure terminal R3(config)#interface serial 0/0/1 R3(config-if)#no shutdown %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0/1, changed state to up Se0/0/1 PPP: Using default call direction Se0/0/1 PPP: Treating connection as a dedicated line Se0/0/1 PPP: Session handle[A1000009] Session id[8] Se0/0/1 PPP: Phase is ESTABLISHING, Active Open Se0/0/1 LCP: O CONFREQ [Closed] id 14 len 15 Se0/0/1 LCP: AuthProto CHAP (0x0305C22305) Se0/0/1 LCP: MagicNumber 0x2E6D300D (0x05062E6D300D) Se0/0/1 LCP: I CONFREQ [REQsent] id 24 len 15 Se0/0/1 LCP: AuthProto CHAP (0x0305C22305) Se0/0/1 LCP: MagicNumber 0x34A4C235 (0x050634A4C235) Se0/0/1 LCP: O CONFACK [REQsent] id 24 len 15 Se0/0/1 LCP: AuthProto CHAP (0x0305C22305) Se0/0/1 LCP: MagicNumber 0x34A4C235 (0x050634A4C235) Se0/0/1 LCP: I CONFACK [ACKsent] id 14 len 15 Se0/0/1 LCP: AuthProto CHAP (0x0305C22305) Se0/0/1 LCP: MagicNumber 0x2E6D300D (0x05062E6D300D) Se0/0/1 LCP: State is Open Se0/0/1 PPP: Phase is AUTHENTICATING, by both Se0/0/1 CHAP: O CHALLENGE id 7 len 23 from "R3" Se0/0/1 CHAP: I CHALLENGE id 8 len 23 from "R1" Se0/0/1 CHAP: I RESPONSE id 7 len 23 from "R1" Se0/0/1 PPP: Phase is FORWARDING, Attempting Forward Se0/0/1 CHAP: Using hostname from unknown source Se0/0/1 CHAP: Using password from AAA Se0/0/1 CHAP: O RESPONSE id 8 len 23 from "R3" Se0/0/1 PPP: Phase is AUTHENTICATING, Unauthenticated User Se0/0/1 PPP: Phase is FORWARDING, Attempting Forward Se0/0/1 PPP: Phase is AUTHENTICATING, Authenticated User Se0/0/1 CHAP: O SUCCESS id 7 len 4 Se0/0/1 CHAP: I SUCCESS id 8 len 4 Se0/0/1 PPP: Phase is UP Se0/0/1 IPCP: O CONFREQ [Closed] id 1 len 10 Se0/0/1 IPCP: Address 13.0.0.3 (0x03060D000003) Se0/0/1 PPP: Process pending ncp packets Se0/0/1 IPCP: I CONFREQ [REQsent] id 1 len 10 Se0/0/1 IPCP: Address 13.0.0.1 (0x03060D000001) Se0/0/1 AAA/AUTHOR/IPCP: Start. Her address 13.0.0.1, we want 0.0.0.0 Se0/0/1 AAA/AUTHOR/IPCP: Reject 13.0.0.1, using 0.0.0.0 Se0/0/1 AAA/AUTHOR/IPCP: Done. Her address 13.0.0.1, we want 0.0.0.0 Se0/0/1 IPCP: O CONFACK [REQsent] id 1 len 10 Se0/0/1 IPCP: Address 13.0.0.1 (0x03060D000001) Se0/0/1 IPCP: I CONFACK [ACKsent] id 1 len 10 Se0/0/1 IPCP: Address 13.0.0.3 (0x03060D000003) Se0/0/1 IPCP: State is Open Se0/0/1 CDPCP: O CONFREQ [Closed] id 1 len 4 Se0/0/1 CDPCP: I CONFREQ [REQsent] id 1 len 4 Se0/0/1 CDPCP: O CONFACK [REQsent] id 1 len 4 Se0/0/1 IPCP: Install route to 13.0.0.1 Se0/0/1 CDPCP: I CONFACK [ACKsent] id 1 len 4 Se0/0/1 CDPCP: State is Open %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0/1, changed state to up

encapsulation ppp hostname username

Two routers have no initial configuration whatsoever. They are connected in a lab using a DTE cable connected to R1 and a DCE cable connected to R2, with the DTE and DCE cables then connected to each other. The engineer wants to create a working PPP link by configuring both routers. Which of the following commands are required in the R1 configuration for the link to reach a state in which R1 can ping R2's serial IP address, assuming that the physical back-to-back link physically works? (Choose two answers.)

encapsulation ppp ip address

Two routers, R1 and R2, connect to each other using three serial links. The network engineer configures these links to be part of the same multilink PPP group, along with configuring CHAP configuration, IPv4, and OSPFv2 using interface configuration. Which of the following answers list a configuration command along with the correct configuration mode for that command? (Choose two answers.)

encapsulation ppp while in multilink interface configuration mode ppp multilink while in serial interface configuration mode

Which extended ACL port number parameter indicates a direct match for a specific application/application number?

A junior-level engineer has been given the task of configuring an ACL on a router; he was told that the port that should be blocked is TCP 20. Which access-list command keyword could be used in place of this port number when configured?

ftp-data

Which extended ACL port number parameter indicates a match for a specific application/application number greater than 20?

gt 20

Refer to the diagram; which Cisco IOS statement would (from R1) configure an IP SLA - ICMP Echo probe to monitor the reachability and performance of the path between R1's LAN to R2's LAN?

icmp-echo 172.16.2.1 source-ip 172.16.1.1

Router 1 has a Fast Ethernet interface 0/0 with IP address 10.1.1.1. The interface is connected to a switch. This connection is then migrated to use 802.1Q trunking. Which of the following commands could be part of a valid configuration for Router 1's Fa0/0 interface? (Choose two answers.)

interface fastethernet 0/0.4 encapsulation dot1q 4

Refer to the diagram; which of the command(s) shown would correctly configure OSPF on R1's Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 interfaces using a process ID of 10 and an area of 0 using only interface configuration mode commands?

ip ospf 10 area 0

Which command would be used to apply an IPv6 ACL so that it controls Telnet and/or SSH CLI access to a device?

ipv6 access-class acl-name in

Which Cisco IOS command would be used to enter into IPv6 ACL configuration mode with an ACL name of 'nextlevel_acl'?

ipv6 access-list nextlevel_acl

What command enables you to implement a hello timer of 19 for autonomous system 91?

ipv6 hello-interval eigrp 91 19 in interface configuration mode

Which Cisco IOS command would be used to apply the 'nextlevel_acl' ACL to an interface inbound?

ipv6 traffic-filter nextlevel_acl in

Question 91 : It is typical for server processors to utilize a technique that allows each physical processing core to be split into a number of virtual cores; this is commonly referred to as __________.

multi-threading

Refer to the diagram and exhibit; assuming R2's configuration is complete, which option would correctly configure R1 to become an eBGP peer with R2 using AS 10 and a single command? R1 ... ! interface Loopback0 ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 192.168.1.64 255.255.255.0 ! ... R2 ... ! interface Loopback0 ip address 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 192.168.1.128 255.255.255.0 ! ...

neighbor 192.168.1.128 remote-as 10

Which Cisco IOS command is used to configure an eBGP peering?

neighbor neighbor remote-as as

Which of the following network commands, following the command router eigrp 1, tells this router to start using EIGRP on interfaces whose IP addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.100.1, and 10.1.120.1? (Choose two answers.)

network 10.0.0.0 network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255

Which of the following network commands, following the command router ospf 1, tells this router to start using OSPF on interfaces whose IP addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.100.1, and 10.1.120.1?

network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0

Routers R1 and R2 attach to the same VLAN with IP addresses 10.0.0.1 and 10.0.0.2, respectively. R1 is configured with the commands router eigrp 99 and network 10.0.0.0. Which of the following commands might be part of a working EIGRP configuration on R2 that ensures that the two routers become neighbors and exchange routes? (Choose two answers.)

network 10.0.0.2 0.0.0.0 network 10.0.0.0

Which of the following network commands, following the command router ospf 1, tells this router to start using OSPF on interfaces whose IP addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.100.1, and 10.1.120.1?

network 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

Which Cisco IOS command would be used on a switched interface to enable it to become a routed interface?

no switchport

Which security mode of SNMP Version 3 features the use of a username for the authentication method as opposed to MD5 or SHA?

noAuthNoPriv

Imagine that you are told that switch 1 is configured with the dynamic auto parameter for trunking on its Fa0/5 interface, which is connected to switch 2. You have to configure switch 2. Which of the following settings for trunking could allow trunking to work? (Choose two answers.)

on, dynamic desirable

Which Cisco IOS command is used on a 2960 router to change the switch forwarding ASIC settings to make space for IPv4 routes?

sdm prefer lanbase-routing

Which Cisco IOS command can be used to verify an existing PPPoE session by displaying information about both the configured dialer interface and any associated virtual access interface?

show interfaces dialer

What is the Cisco IOS command that can be used to display the current administrative and operational mode of a switch port?

show interfaces interface switchport

Which of the following commands identify switch interfaces as being trunking interfaces: interfaces that currently operate as VLAN trunks? (Choose two answers.)

show interfaces switchport show interfaces trunk The show interfaces switchport command lists both the administrative and operational status of each port. When a switch considers a port to be trunking, this command lists an operational trunking state of "trunk." The show interfaces trunk command lists a set of interfaces: the interfaces that are currently operating as trunks. So, both these commands identify interfaces that are operational trunks.

Which Cisco IOS command can be used on a switch to ensure that the interface connecting to a router configured as a ROAS is trunking?

show interfaces trunk

Which Cisco IOS command can be used to display which VLANs are supported over a specific configured switch trunk?

show interfaces trunk

An engineer configures an ACL but forgets to save the configuration. At that point, which of the following commands display the configuration of an IPv4 ACL, including line numbers? (Choose two answers.)

show ip access-lists show access-lists

Which Cisco IOS command can be used to list the current BGP peers on a single line along with the neighbor's ASN?

show ip bgp summary

Router R1's EIGRP process knows of three possible routes to subnet 1. One route is a successor, and one is a feasible successor. R1 is not using the variance command to allow for unequal-cost load balancing. Which of the following commands shows information about the feasible successor route, including its metric, whether as EIGRP topology information or as an IPv4 route?

show ip eigrp topology

Which IOS command always displays OSPF hello timer settings?

show ip ospf interface

Which of the following commands primarily lists counters and status information, instead of configuration settings?

show snmp

Which of the following commands list the OSPF neighbors off interface serial 0/0? (Choose two answers.)

show ip ospf neighbor show ip ospf neighbor serial 0/0

Which Cisco IOS command is used to display the number of IPv6 ACL matches that have occurred?

show ipv6 access-list

Which Cisco IOS command is used to display which interface an IPv6 ACL is applied to and in which direction?

show ipv6 interface

Which Cisco IOS command can be used to display the contents of the OSPFv3 LSDB?

show ipv6 ospf database

Router R1 has been configured as a dual-stack IPv4/IPv6 router, using interfaces S0/0/0, S0/0/1, and GigabitEthernet0/1. As a new engineer hired at the company, you do not know whether any of the interfaces are passive. Which of the following commands lets you find whether G0/1 is passive, either by the command listing that fact or by that command leaving passive interfaces out of its list of interfaces?

show ipv6 ospf interface G0/1

Which Cisco IOS command(s) can be used to display which interfaces are enabled for OSPFv3? (Choose two answers.)

show ipv6 protocols show ipv6 ospf interface

Which Cisco IOS command can be used to display the status of the PPPoE state?

show pppoe session

Which Cisco IOS command(s) would be used to verify the Layer 1 status of a PPPoE session?

show pppoe session

Which of the following commands enable you to verify the encapsulation in use on a serial interface? (Choose two answers.)

show run show interface serial 0/1/0

Which Cisco IOS command can be used on a router to view the different VLANs that have been configured into a ROAS configuration?

show vlans

Which Cisco IOS commands can be used to verify whether VTP is successfully operating between switches? (Choose two answers.)

show vtp status show vlan

Which Cisco IOS command can be used to disable the OSPF process temporarily?

shutdown

Which Cisco IOS command would be used to configure a device to send SNMPv2c Informs to an NMS with the IP address 10.10.10.100 using an SNMP notification community of 'ThiSiSaComMunItyStRing'?

snmp-server host 10.10.10.100 informs version 2c ThiSiSaComMunItyStRing

A router has been configured with the following command: snmp-server group one v3 auth write v1default. Which of the following answers lists a command that would correctly define a user to associate with this SNMPv3 group to correctly define security parameters to work with an SNMP manager?

snmp-server user fred4 one v3 auth sha pass1

Refer to the exhibit; which Cisco IOS command would be used to configure a user 'thisuser' using the parameters shown below, as needed? MD5 password 'thispass' AES 128 bit key 'thiskey' snmp-server group group-name v3 noauth write v1default access thisacl

snmp-server user thisuser group-name v3

Refer to the exhibit; which Cisco IOS command would be used to configure a user 'thisuser' using the following parameters, as needed? MD5 password 'thispass' AES 128 bit key 'thiskey' snmp-server group group-name v3 auth write v1default access thisacl

snmp-server user thisuser group-name v3 auth md5 thispass

A switch's G0/1 interface, a trunk that supports VLANs 1-10, has autonegotiated a speed of 100 Mbps. The switch currently has all default settings for STP. Which of the following actions results in the switch using an STP cost of 19 for that interface in VLAN 3? (Choose two answers.)

spanning-tree cost 19 Adding no configuration The spanning-tree cost 19 command sets the cost for all VLANs on that interface unless the cost is set by a spanning-tree cost command that lists the VLAN ID. The two commands with a port-cost parameter are incorrect; the correct keyword is simply cost. Finally, Cisco switches choose the default cost based on the current speed, not the interface's fastest possible speed. So, this interface, running at 100 Mbps, already defaults to the IEEE default cost for 100 Mbps, or 19.

On a 2960 switch, which of the following commands change the value of the bridge ID? (Choose two answers.)

spanning-tree vlan vlan-number root {primary | secondary} spanning-tree vlan vlan-number priority value You cannot set the system ID part of the bridge ID (BID). However, you can set the priority part of the BID, the first 16 bits, in two ways. One way sets it directly (spanning-tree vlan priority), whereas the other tells the switch to figure out a priority setting that either makes the switch root (spanning-tree root primary) or the backup (spanning-tree root secondary).

Which Cisco IOS command would be used to enable a router's interface into HSRP group 10 using a virtual IP address of 10.10.10.6?

standby 10 ip 10.10.10.6

Refer to the diagram; a junior network engineer has configured HSRP on R1 and R2 but the behavior is not as expected. As part of the requirements to the configuration, R1 was to always become the active router when available, but R2 has become the active router with R1 acting as the standby router. Which command could be inserted into the configuration to ensure that R1 will always become the active router when available?

standby 10 preempt

What is the Cisco IOS command that would be used to enable HSRP preemption for group 10?

standby 10 preempt

Question 56 : Refer to the diagram; which command would be used to assign the VLAN for host B?

switchport access vlan 20

Refer to the diagram; which command would be used to configure the switch ports connecting to hosts A, B, C, and D to be permanent access ports?

switchport mode access

Refer to the diagram; which command must be configured on SW1's Gi0/0 interface to ensure proper functionality?

switchport mode trunk

The link between R1 and R3, which are both Cisco routers, is not functional. The WAN circuit is being provided by a service provider. The technician working on the problem said he received some authentication error messages regarding the circuit. What configuration command enables you to isolate an authentication problem? (Choose two answers.) Output from Connect to Router1. R1#show int serial 0/0/1 Serial0/0/1 is up, line protocol is down Hardware is GT96K Serial Internet address is 13.0.0.1/24 MTU 1500 bytes, BW 1544 Kbit/sec, DLY 20000 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation PPP, LCP TERMsent, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) CRC checking enabled Last input 00:00:00, output 00:00:00, output hang never Last clearing of "show interface" counters 00:16:11 Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0 Queueing strategy: weighted fair Output queue: 0/1000/64/0 (size/max total/threshold/drops) Conversations 0/1/256 (active/max active/max total) Reserved Conversations 0/0 (allocated/max allocated) Available Bandwidth 1158 kilobits/sec 5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 2 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 2 packets/sec 1149 packets input, 25657 bytes, 0 no buffer Received 0 broadcasts, 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 0 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored, 0 abort 1152 packets output, 26580 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 0 collisions, 153 interface resets 2 unknown protocol drops 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out 142 carrier transitions DCD=up DSR=up DTR=up RTS=up CTS=up R1#show run interface ser0/0/1 Building configuration... Current configuration : 128 bytes ! interface Serial0/0/1 ip address 13.0.0.1 255.255.255.0 encapsulation ppp ppp authentication chap end R1#show ip route Codes: C - connected, S - static, R - RIP, M - mobile, B - BGP D - EIGRP, EX - EIGRP external, O - OSPF, IA - OSPF inter area N1 - OSPF NSSA external type 1, N2 - OSPF NSSA external type 2 E1 - OSPF external type 1, E2 - OSPF external type 2 i - IS-IS, su - IS-IS summary, L1 - IS-IS level-1, L2 - IS-IS level-2 ia - IS-IS inter area, * - candidate default, U - per-user static route o - ODR, P - periodic downloaded static route Gateway of last resort is not set 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 10.0.0.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0 R1#show ip int brief Interface IP-Address OK? Method Status Protocol FastEthernet0/0 10.0.0.1 YES manual up up Serial0/0/1 13.0.0.1 YES manual up down Output from R3 R3#show int serial 0/0/1 Serial0/0/1 is up, line protocol is down Hardware is GT96K Serial Internet address is 13.0.0.3/24 MTU 1500 bytes, BW 1544 Kbit/sec, DLY 20000 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation PPP, LCP Listen, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) CRC checking enabled Last input 00:00:00, output 00:00:00, output hang never Last clearing of "show interface" counters 00:15:51 Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0 Queueing strategy: weighted fair Output queue: 0/1000/64/0 (size/max total/threshold/drops) Conversations 0/1/256 (active/max active/max total) Reserved Conversations 0/0 (allocated/max allocated) Available Bandwidth 1158 kilobits/sec 5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 2 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 2 packets/sec 1141 packets input, 26421 bytes, 0 no buffer Received 0 broadcasts, 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 0 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored, 0 abort 1147 packets output, 25609 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 0 collisions, 152 interface resets 0 unknown protocol drops 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out 132 carrier transitions DCD=up DSR=up DTR=up RTS=up CTS=up R3#show run interface ser0/0/1 Building configuration... Current configuration : 108 bytes ! interface Serial0/0/1 ip address 13.0.0.3 255.255.255.0 encapsulation ppp ppp authentication chap end R3#show ip route Codes: C - connected, S - static, R - RIP, M - mobile, B - BGP D - EIGRP, EX - EIGRP external, O - OSPF, IA - OSPF inter area N1 - OSPF NSSA external type 1, N2 - OSPF NSSA external type 2 E1 - OSPF external type 1, E2 - OSPF external type 2 i - IS-IS, su - IS-IS summary, L1 - IS-IS level-1, L2 - IS-IS level-2 ia - IS-IS inter area, * - candidate default, U - per-user static route o - ODR, P - periodic downloaded static route Gateway of last resort is not set 172.16.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 172.16.0.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1 R3#show ip int brief Interface IP-Address OK? Method Status Protocol FastEthernet0/1 172.16.0.3 YES manual up up Serial0/0/1 13.0.0.3 YES manual up down

username no encapsulation

R2#show ip route eigrp 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 7 subnets D 10.15.0.0 [90/28416] via 10.12.0.1, 00:00:23, GigabitEthernet1/0 D 10.2.0.0 [90/31232] via 10.12.0.1, 00:00:23, GigabitEthernet1/0 D 10.1.0.0 [90/28416] via 10.12.0.1, 00:00:23, GigabitEthernet1/0 D 10.4.0.0 [90/30976] via 10.12.0.1, 00:00:23, GigabitEthernet1/0 D 10.45.0.0 [90/28672] via 10.12.0.1, 00:00:23, GigabitEthernet1/0 R2#show ip eigrp topology IP-EIGRP Topology Table for AS(1)/ID(10.24.0.2) Codes: P - Passive, A - Active, U - Update, Q - Query, R - Reply, r - reply Status, s - sia Status P 10.15.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 28416 via 10.12.0.1 (28416/28160), GigabitEthernet1/0 P 10.12.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 2816 via Connected, GigabitEthernet1/0 P 10.2.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 31232 via 10.12.0.1 (31232/30976), GigabitEthernet1/0 via 10.24.0.4 (66816/28160), Serial3/0 P 10.1.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 28416 via 10.12.0.1 (28416/28160), GigabitEthernet1/0 P 10.4.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 30976 via 10.12.0.1 (30976/30720), GigabitEthernet1/0 via 10.24.0.4 (67072/28416), Serial3/0 P 10.24.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 64256 via Connected, Serial3/0 P 10.45.0.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 28672 via 10.12.0.1 (28672/28416), GigabitEthernet1/0 via 10.24.0.4 (64512/2816), Serial3/0 Which command, when entered in the correct router EIGRP configuration mode, would allow the router to install an additional route to 10.2.0.0/24 in the routing table?

variance 3

A _________ is a virtual instance of a traditional networking device that a consumer can use in a cloud.

virtual network function

Switches SW1, SW2, SW3, and SW4 are configured as VTP server, client, transparent, and off, respectively, all using VTP version 1. A junior engineer has been told to try to configure the following two commands on each switch directly from the CLI: vlan 200 and vlan 2000. Which answers correctly state which commands will be rejected, on which switch? (Choose two answers.)

vlan 2000 will be rejected on SW1 (VTP server). vlan 200 will be rejected on SW2 (VTP client).

Refer to the diagram; which commands would be required to configure all of the VLANs displayed on SW1?

vlan 5,10,20

Refer to the exhibit; assuming SW1 is not connected to another switch, which commands have been configured? (Choose two answers.)

vtp domain SEAN vtp version 2

Question 13 : Refer to the exhibit; assuming SW1 is not connected to another switch, which commands have been configured? (Choose three answers.) SW1#show vtp status VTP Version capable : 1 to 3 VTP version running : 1 VTP Domain Name : WILKINS VTP Pruning Mode : Enabled VTP Traps Generation : Disabled Device ID : fa16.3e28.5060 Configuration last modified by 10.10.10.101 at 4-23-16 01:49:27 Feature VLAN: -------------- VTP Operating Mode : Client Maximum VLANs supported locally : 1005 Number of existing VLANs : 10 Configuration Revision : 1 MD5 digest : 0x97 0x49 0xD6 0xF5 0xE2 0x2C 0xCE 0x09 0xBD 0xF4 0xD9 0x87 0x8E 0x87 0xD8 0xA9 SW1#

WGU C247 - Interconnecting Network Devices

संबंधित स्टडी सेट्स

Econ exam 2

ch 13

CPCE

Business law terms chapter 12

POLS 487 Final

MGT 11A Final

MICRO Ch. 11

SCM 300 Module 4

Examples of countries at each of the DTM stages

PHI101 ALL

Rectus Femoris

Chapter 51 Test Electrical Components and Wiring.

Chapter 11 Life Insurance

Ch. 8 - C++ introduction

Final BIOL3030

Moseley Pre License State Exam Prep Questions

Building Technology [Wall]

VID251 Introduction to Winemaking - Midterm Study Questions

Cartilage

Abnormal Psych chapters 8, 9, 10