ZUKU VTNE practice questions
What is indicated by a clear colorless zone around a bacterial colony on a blood agar plate? A: fungal contamination B: sugar fermentation C: hemolysis D: bacteria have catalase E: no sugar fermentation
C: hemolysis -Sheep blood is used in agar bacterial culture plates & certain bacteria destroy the blood cells (hemolysis). -a clear colorless circle means complete hemolysis. A zone of greenish discoloration means incomplete hemolysis.
What organ function is creatinine used as an indirect measure of a blood chemistry panel? A: pancreatic function B: bone marrow function C: blood alanine levels D: kidney function E: liver function
D: kidney function -Creatinine is a by product of muscle metabolism, produced at a constant rate & filtered out of the bloodstream by the glomeruli in the kidneys. - Azotemia is an increase in creatinine & urea nitrogen in the blood.
Which setting is better for an x-ray of an area of the body that has high contrast between tissue & bone, such as a hip x-ray of a young dog? A: low kVP; low mAs B: high kVP; low mAs C: high kVp; high mAs D: low kVp; high mAs
D: low kVp; high mAs -use a lower kVp & higher mAs setting to increase the contrast between bone (white) & soft tissue (black) in the finished radiograph. -kVp affects the scale of contrast on an x-ray. the scale of contrast refers to the # of shades of gray that you can see. -Generally increasing kVp decreases the contrast seen in the final image.
What side effect is often seen in horses tranquilized with acepromazine? A: diarrhea B: collapse C: vomiting D: penis protrusion E: hives
D: penis protrusion -acepromazine can cause penis protrusion in large animals, especially horses. this side effect is useful when sedating geldings for sheath cleaning. - remember that GIANT breeds & SIGHT hounds can be very sensitive to ace.
Which animal is most vulnerable to severe spinal cord damage when handled improperly? A: boa constrictor B: Ferret C: cat D: rabbit E: hamster
D: rabbit - rabbits have extremely powerful hind legs. Restraint without proper control of the hind legs may lead to broken back (or severe spinal cord damage) if the rabbit thrashes and kicks too much.
What does it indicate if a mare in labor has sweat around her shoulders? A: neonatal distress B: colic C: dystocia D: this is not indicative of anything E: foaling within 30 minutes
E: foaling within 30 minutes -if sweat is seen around the shoulders, it indicates that the mare will enter stage 2 labor and should be foaling within 30 minutes. During stage 1 labor, mares exhibit certain behaviors that indicate that parturition is impending. However, stage 1 labor can last for hours and mares can halt it if they feel threatened.
How long after birth does gut closure typically occur in calves & foals? (when protective maternal antibodies can no longer be absorbed from the gut into the bloodstream) A: 18-24 hours B: 9-12 hours C: 1-3 hours D: 15-18 hours E: 3-6 hours
A: 18-24 hours - during this time, a newborn can absorb maternal immunoglobulins (IgM, igG) in colostrum from the gut directly into the bloodstream. -specialized enterocytes absorb the immunoglobulins by pinocytosis & move them to the blood. These cells are shed & replaced with mature enterocytes within 24 hours. - Failure of passive transfer (FPT) leads to greatly increased risk of bacterial & viral infection & death before weaning.
Hematocrit is another name for what lab measurement? A: packed cell volume (PCV, %) B: mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC, g/dl) C: total solids (TS, g/dl) D: hemoglobin (Hb, g/dl) E: RBC count
A: packed cell volume (PCV, %)
What organism causes "rabbit syphilis"? A: Cheyletiella yasguri B: Encephalitozoon spp C: Treponema paraluis-cuniculi D: Pasteurella multocida E: Francisella tularensis
C: Treponema paraluis-cuniculi
What is another name for thrombocyte? A: macrophage B: lymph node epithelial cell C: basophil D: red blood cell parasite E: platelet
E: platelet
which of the following statements about propofol is correct? A: causes apnea if given rapidly B: long acting hypnotic agent C: provides good visceral analgesia D: acts on alpha-2 receptors E: contraindicated with hepatic dysfunction
A: causes apnea if given rapidly - propofol is a short-acting agent. Has little to no analgesic effects. Can be given safely to patients with hepatic & renal disease.
Which one of the following choices best describes how an image is produced with digital radiography? A: a detector panel converts x-rays into electrical signals; an analog image is created which is then digitalized. B: technetium 99 is administered to a patient; photon emission is detected & recorded with a gamma scintillation camera C: a transducer emits a short pulse of sound into the patient; the sound that is reflected back creates an image D: radio waves are used to generate images by disrupting hydrogen nuclei in tissues E: an x-ray beam passes transaxially through a small segment of the patient; an image is created by measuring x-ray attenuation at sequential sites
A: a detector panel converts x-rays into electrical signals; an analog image is created which is then digitalized.
What is an intussusception? A: a segment of intestine invaginates into the lumen of an adjacent segment of intestine B: A form of euthanasia using carbon monoxide C: A form of early embryonic reabsorption in rabbits and rodents under stress D: A hereditary form of megaesophagus E: Using an oxygen scrubber to separate exhaled anesthetic gasses from oxygen in a closed circuit
A: a segment of intestine invaginates into the lumen of an adjacent segment of intestine -Intussusception usually follows the normal direction of peristalsis with the intussusceptum (proximal bowel, closer to the mouth) telescoping into the more distal intussiscipiens (closer to the rectum) -Whipworm infection has been suggested as one cause of cecocolic intussusception in dogs
how many cc of 5% ultra-mycin should you give PO for 44 lb. dog, if the dose is 50 mg/kg? A: 20 ml B: 4 ml C: 15 ml D: 10 ml E: 40 ml
A: 20 ml - a cc is cubic centimeter, which is the same volume as a milliliter (ml). - the weight of the dog in kg is 44 lbs/2.2kg= 20 kg - the dose of ultra-mycin for a 20 kg dog is 20 kg x 50 mg/kg= 1000 mg - a 5% solution contains 50 mg ultra-mycin per ml of sterile water. - the dose of ultra-mycin in ml= 1000mg/50 mg= 20 ml
By what age should a dog have all its permanent teeth, & how many teeth are in the k-9 adult dental formula? A: 42 by 7 months B: 44 by 20 months C: 36-44 by 5 years D: 32 by 4 years E: 30 by 7 months
A: 42 by 7 months - Ruminants have 32 by 4 years, horses 36-44 by 5 years, cats 30 by 7 months, & pigs 44 by 20 months.
Which anesthetic breathing system has the lowest fresh gas flow rate during maintenance of anesthesia? A: Closed system B: Semi-closed system C: Partial rebreathing D: Nonrebreathing E: Open system
A: Closed system -Closed anesthetic rebreathing system only provides enough fresh gas flow to meet an animal's metabolic needs, about 5-10 ml/kg/min (depending on animal size; flow is lower for larger animals and higher for smaller animals).
feline injection site sarcomas are primarily associated with which 2 vaccines? A: FeLV & rabies vaccines B: Rabies and feline panleukopenia vaccines C: feline panleukopenia & FIV vaccines D: FeLV & feline calici/herpes vaccines E: feline calici/herpes & panleukopenia vaccines
A: FeLV & rabies vaccines -an estimated 1 to 10 in 10,000 cats develop injection site sarcomas following vaccination with FeLV & rabies vaccines.
Why are atropine or glycopyrrolate (anti-cholinergics) often given as a premed to dogs & cats before inducing anesthesia with ketamine or tiletamine (dissociative anesthetics)? A: decreases salivation B: increases airway secretions C: slows the heart rate D: lowers body temp E: helps keeps eyes closed
A: decreases salivation -Anti-cholinergics like atropine & glycopyrrolate are given as premeds to DECREASE salivation, DECREASE airway secretions, & INCREASE heart rate. They do NOT affect whether eyes are open or closed, but they do DILATE the pupils. -Remember that many anesthetic drugs (like opiates, barbiturates, & gas anesthetic) promote bradycardia & some dissociative anesthetics (like ketamine, tiletamine) cause excessive salivation.
What image problems are avoided with proper bisecting radiograph technique of teeth? A: elongation B: overlap of soft tissues C: decreased contrast D: increased scatter
A: elongation -a tooth may appear artificially foreshortened or elongated if this technique is not used. Generally preferred for maxillary teeth, mandibular canines, and incisors (the rostral mandibular teeth)
which of the following dog breeds is classified as brachycephalic? A: english bull dog B: golden retriever C: great dane D: greyhound
A: english bull dog
what is the effect of a high ratio grid on an x-ray exposure? A: fewer x-rays reach the film B: loss of film resolution C: more x-rays pass through to the animal D: less mAs needed E: darker x-rays
A: fewer x-rays reach the film
Which animal cannot normally regurgitate or vomit? A: horse B: cow C: pig D: ferret
A: horse - vomiting is an ominous sign if you ever see it in a horse.
the next appointment is a dog with a case of conjunctivitis. what is the health problem? A: inflammation of the eyes B: sinus infection C: inner ear infection D: epiglottal inflammation
A: inflammation of the eyes -look for reddening an swelling. conjunctivitis can be caused by irritants or infections.
There are 3 kinds of ultrasonic scaler; magnetorestrictive, piezoelectric & sonic. What is the advantage of a piezoelectric scaler over the other 2 kinds? A: least traumatic B: no pitting of enamel C: quieter D: no heat build-up
A: less traumatic - piezoelectric scalers are the least traumatic. Sonic dental scalers do not build up heat like the other 2 kinds of scalers. -in order to avoid overheating or pitting damage to the tooth & enamel, do not apply ultrasonic scalers more than 5secs. (this is a general rule, & may depend on the kind of machine you use).
which term describes inflammation of the testicle? A: orchitis B: phimosis C: phlebitis D: cryptorchid
A: orchitis -Orchitis: inflammation of 1 or both testicles characterized by pain & sensitivity to touch. -Phimosis: a condition where the penis cannot be extruded because of a small constricted preputial orifice. -Phlebitis: inflammation of the veins & may be associated with formation of blood clots. Cryptorchid: animals have an undescended testicle.
During post-surgical recovery from a routine ovariohysterectomy in a dog, the patient becomes apneic. What does this mean? A: patient stopped breathing B: body temp dropped C: heart murmur developed D: straining to defecate
A: patient stopped breathing - apnea is the absence of breathing. You may see apnea when inducing anesthesia in an animal with propofol (esp. if given rapidly or at a high dose). - dyspnea is difficulty breathing.
which instrument is used to cut or bite away small pieces of bone? A: rongeur B: backhaus forceps C: trocar D: kirschner pins E: littauer scissors
A: rongeur - they may look like heavy duty needle holders, but the inside of each half of the nose is scooped out & has sharp edges for biting away chunks of bone.
what is the most common malignant oral tumor in cats? A: squamous cell carcinoma B: transitional cell carcinoma C: osteosarcoma D: fibrosarcoma E: melanoma
A: squamous cell carcinoma - squamous cell carcinoma is by far the most common oral malignant tumor in cats & the 2nd most common in dogs. It takes a biopsy to confirm diagnosis. - malignant melanoma is the most common oral malignant tumor in dogs.
What does a "zone of inhibition" indicate when using the Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion method? A: the antibiotic prevents bacterial growth B: the discs inhibits fungal spread across the corneal surface C: need to reinoculate the culture plate D: radiographic evidence that dog needs surgical therapy for intervertebral disc disease E: catheter was placed subcutaneously rather than intravenously
A: the antibiotic prevents bacterial growth
What are the 3 most important factors to remember for radiation safety? A: time, distance, shielding B: power, restraint, x-ray tube length C: positioning, angle of tungsten target, temperature of filament. D: kVP setting, focal-film distance, grid type
A: time, distance, shielding
When is the best time to refill the vaporizer in an anesthetic machine in a small animal clinic? A: when the fewest people are in the clinic B: when the CO2 absorbent granules are completely purple C: after each surgery D: depends on the type of breathing circuit E: whenever the fill volume is below 50%
A: when the fewest people are in the clinic
Which of the following intravenous solutions are hypotonic? A: lactated ringers solution, Normosol-R B: 0.45% saline, 5% dextrose C: Hetastarch, Vetastarch D: 5% dextrose in 0.9% saline E: Plasmalyte 148, Normosol-M
B: 0.45% saline, 5% dextrose
the total amount of water in the body, or the total body water (TBW) is approximately 60% of the body weight in healthy animals. Which one of the following choices most correctly describes the distribution of the total body water? A: 1/5 intravascular, 4/5 extravascular B: 2/3 intracellular, 1/3 extracellular C: 1/2 tissue, 1/2 plasma D: 1/3 intravascular, 1/3 interstitial, 1/3 plasma E: 1/4 interstitial, 3/4 extracellular
B: 2/3 intracellular, 1/3 extracellular
Hemoglobin concentration is roughly what % of RBC packed cell volume (PCV) in most normal pets and domestic animals? A: 25% of PCV B: 33% of PCV C: 50% of PCV D: 10% of PCV
B: 33% of PCV -normal animal hemoglobin (Hb, g/dl) is about 1/3 (33%) of the PCV in normal dogs, cats, horses, cows, sheep, goats and pigs. -Ex: if a cat has a PCV of 30% , the Gb will roughly be 10 g/dl.
Which choice might explain why a radiograph comes out very light and washed out? A: high milliampere-seconds B: focal distance is too long C: prolonged exposure time D: high kilovoltage
B: focal distance is too long -too LONG a local distance from the x-ray tube to the patient (fewer x-rays reach the film) can underexpose a radiograph. -An underexposed radiograph (i.e., very light, washed out) may also occur if mAs or kVp are set too LOW.
Where would a cat (or dog) be likely to encounter arsenic around the house? A: De-icer crystals B: Ant baits C: silver-polish D: snail killer E: anti-mildew paint
B: Ant baits - ant baits contain inorganic arsenic and are sometimes eaten by pets, specially cats. Expect GI presentation- vomiting, diarrhea, hematochezia, weakness, prostration.
For anesthetics, what does MAC, (Minimum Alveolar Concentration) measure? A: Anesthetic fat solubility B: Measure of anesthetic potency C: Speed of expected induction D: the rate of metabolism through the kidneys E: Minimum safe concentration
B: Measure of anesthetic potency
Which one of the following has been demonstrated to result in improved quality of life for feline immunodeficiency virus-infected cats with clinical signs? A: Amrinone B: Zidovudine C: Griseofulvin D: Melphalan E: Amantadine
B: Zidovudine - if clinical sings are present, zidovudine (AZT) has been shown to improve quality of life of cats with FIV. - frequently cats have no clinical signs, especially early in the course of the disease: when clinical signs do occur, the include stomatitis, signs related to lymphoma, neurologic disorders, and refractory opportunistic infections.
Which is the correct definition of leukopenia? A: an increase in platelets B: A decrease in WBCs C: Decrease in % of neutrophils D: increased erythrocytes E: increase in lymphocyte numbers
B: a decrease in WBCs -Leukopenia is a decrease of the total # of WBCs. Leukocytosis is an increase of the total number of WBCs.
When evaluating feline reticulocytes on a complete CBC, which kind of reticulocytes are counted? A: punctate B: aggregate C: spherocytic D: Poikilocytic E: target cells
B: aggregate -in cats only aggregate retics can accurately interpret regenerative status.
Which of the following choices are effects of acepromazine in dogs & cats? A: muscle relaxation, analgesia B: anti-emesis, vasodilation C: sedation, piloerection D: anti-arrhythmic, hypertension E: increase blood pressure, muscle tremors.
B: anti-emesis, vasolidation - Ace is a phenothiazine that causes vasolidation while acting as an anti-emetic, sedative, muscle relaxant, & anti-arrhythmic. - 2 main mechanisms of action: (1) blocks peripheral alpha-1 receptors, which produces vasodilation & hypotension. (2) blocks dopamine receptors in the brain, which produces sedative, anti-emetic, & anti-arrhythmic effects, as well as causing muscle relaxation. - it does NOT provide analgesia or cause vasoconstriction.
What is the main difference between crystalloid & colloid types of intravenous fluids? A: the addition of proteins to a crystalloid makes it a colloid B: crystalloids are electrolytes in water, colloids are crystalloids with high molecular weight polymers added C: crystalloids prevent fluid loss out of the circulation, colloids are used for maintenance fluid therapy D: colloids are albumin and globulins, crystalloids are 5% dextrose and normal saline.
B: crystalloids are electrolytes in water, colloids are crystalloids with high molecular weight polymers added - crystalloids are used for resuscitation, replacement, & maintenance fluid therapy & quickly move out of the vascular space (examples: saline, ringers, lactated ringers, Plasmalyte, etc. Dextrose is often present in addition to electrolytes) - Colloids are used for resuscitation in addition to crystalloids & when protein levels are low to improve colloid osmotic pressure & prevent fluid loss out the circulation & edema. - crystalloids can be hypo-, iso-, or hypertonic in comparison to blood/plasma. Colloids are always isotonic.
Why are most oral antibiotics contraindicated in rabbits & hamsters? A: significant cardiovascular effects B: disrupts gram-positive gut flora C: causes excessive vomiting D: highly permeable blood-brain barrier E: highly sensitive to renal toxicity
B: disrupts gram-positive gut flora - rabbits, hamsters & other rodents are very prone to antimicrobials causing enterotoxemia. - most oral antibiotics disturb their normal gut flora, particularly the beneficial gram-positive bacteria which digest high fiber food & keep pathogenic Clostridial organisms from over-growing.
which choice lists these animals types in order of gestation length, from longest to shortest pregnancy? A: cow, horse, pig, dog, goat B: horse, cow, goat, pig, dog C: cow, horse, pig, goat, dog D: llama, pig, sheep, ferret, cat
B: horse, cow, goat, pig, dog - gestation lengths for the major animal types, in order: Llama 1 year (350d), horse 11 mo (330d), cow 9mo (280d, same as people), sheep/goats 5 mo (150d), pig 4mo (114d), dog/cat 2mo (60d), ferret 1.5 mo (42d).
what is one of the most common long-term problems associated using glucocorticoids like prednisolone in dogs? A: lupus B: hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's disease) C: hypothyroidism D: diabetes insipidus E: hypoadrenocorticism (addison's disease)
B: hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's disease)
what is another name for struvite crystals in the urine? A: urate monohydrate B: magnesium ammonium phosphate C: amorphous phosphate D: calcium carbonate E: calcium oxalate monohydrate
B: magnesium ammonium phosphate -also called triple phosphate crystals
Which one of the following therapies would be most useful to treat a dog with suspected head trauma & cerebral edema? A: phenobarbital B: mannitol or hypertonic saline IV C: sodium bicarbonate, then CSF tap D: isoproterenol
B: mannitol or hypertonic saline IV - they pull fluid out of the brain by causing an osmotic gradient between the blood & brain tissue. - analgesics and diazepam are also used in head trauma. sodium bicarbonate should NOT be given.
When are mares most likely to foal? A: morning B: overnight C: any time D: within one hour before or after sunset E: afternoon
B: overnight - every mare is unique, but the typically prefer to foal overnight when there is no audience or possible disturbance. -mares can halt stage 1 labor if they feel threatened. There are several ways to monitor for foaling that do not involve standing stall-side. These include video monitoring & the "FoalAlert" system sutured to the vulva that sends a signal when the vulvar lips open during stage 2 labor.
according to the most current AAFP recommendations, which 3 vaccines should household cats routinely receive, in addition to rabies & feline leukemia vaccinations? A: Bordatella bronchiseptica, feline immunodeficiency virus, dermatophyte B: panleukopenia, feline herpesvirus-1, calicivirus C: feline infectious peritonitis, dermatophyte, calicivirus D: feline viral rhinotracheitis, Mycoplasma felis, Chlamydophilia felis E: intranasal feline herpesvirus, feline parvovirus, pneumonitis
B: panleukopenia, feline herpesvirus-1, calicivirus
where, anatomically, do adult heartworms live? A: entire heart B: pulmonary arteries C: left ventricle D: auricles E: pulmonary veins
B: pulmonary arteries -with heartworm disease, expect to see adult heartworms living primarily in the pulmonary arteries. With high burdens, they may also fill the right ventricle.
What does right lateral recumbency mean? A: animal is on its back with right limbs extended B: animal lying on its back, head rotated to right C: Animal lying on its right side D: Animal lying on its left side E: Animal lying to the doctor's right
C: Animal lying on its right side
which color is a gram-positive bacteria on the microscopic slide? A: green B: Red C: Blue D: orange E: Pink
C: Blue - gram-positive bacteria retain crystal violet iodine complex and appear blue or purple.
What condition would be expected to have a positive Ortolani sign? A: cranial cruciate ruprute B: Panosteitis C: Coxofemoral luxation D: osteochondrosis dissecans (shoulder) E: hip dysplasia
C: Coxofemoral luxation - a positive ortolani sign indicates joint laxity. A click/pop heard or felt by one hand pressed over coxofemoral joint while other hand presses upward and abducts knee.
blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is used to measure the function of what, on a blood chemistry panel? A: acid-base status B: nonregenerative anemia C: kidney function & hydration D: pancreatic digestive enzyme activity E: stomach motility & gall bladder secretion
C: Kidney function & hydration. -BUN is a nonspecific measure, & increased BUN & creatinine in the blood is often referred to as azotemia. -Azotemia can be due to: (1) compromised kidney function (renal azotemia). (2) dehydration (pre-renal azotemia). (3) urinary blockage (post-renal azotemia)
What color do gram-neg bacteria appear on a gram-stained microscopic slide? A: Green B: Black C: Red D: Blue E: Orange
C: Red. - During the gram stain procedure, gram-neg bacteria lose the crystal violet iodine complex when it is washed out with alcohol, take up the secondary dye safranin, and become red (pink). -Gram-positive bacteria retain crystal violet iodine complex and appear blue or purple.
Which of the following correctly explains triage in emergency patients? A: evaluation of emergencies by species. and, gender B: When a fireman rescues a sick cat out of a tree (lol) C: Sorting of patients into groups depending on their need for immediate intervention D: tis is a type of lavage fluid that can be used in many types of wounds- sterile, clean, or contaminated. E: scheduling of patients in need of surgery- must go, should go, go if time allows
C: Sorting of patients into groups depending on their need for immediate intervention fun fact: it is from a french word that means to sort
What color is icteric serum? A: Blackish or Brown B: Cloudy C: Yellow D: White E: Red
C: Yellow - Icteric serum is yellow. Icterus is a yellow discoloration of mucous membranes, sclera and skin. Icterus is also known as jaundice, and is seen with liver disease and hemolysis. Normal serum is dogs and cats should be clear, whereas normal equine serum has a yellow tint which intensifies when they are fasted or anorexic.
Which of the following choices is a common cause of the Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern? (fast breathing, then slowing down, then no breathing, then cycle starts again) A: pulmonary hypertension & emphysema B: hypovolemia & low intracranial pressure C: brain damage, animal too deeply anesthetized D: light levels (phase 1) of inhalant anesthesia E: sever metabolic acidosis, diabetic ketoacidosis
C: brain damage, animal too deeply anesthetized -damage to resp centers of the brain can cause cheyne-stokes respiration. Cheyne-stokes occurs with increased intracranial pressure, ischemia, or direct brain damage. - C-S respiration is usually a bad sign- herniation of the brain may be imminent. Also seen in patients under anesthesia who are too deep, & is reported as a side effect of morphine in humans.
Which animal is particularly vulnerable to vitamin C deficiency (scurvy)? A: rabbit B: rat C: guinea pig D: cat
C: guinea pig. - guinea pigs get scurvy, this is why guinea pigs should not be fed rabbit pellets. - rabbits can produce vitamin C in their hind gut, & do not require dietary supplementation.
Which of the following problems is most responsive to the IV infusion of a colloid? A: hyperglobulinemia B: cardiogenic shock C: hypoproteinemia D: hemorrhagic hypotension
C: hypoproteinemia - hypoproteinemia is best treated with a colloid. a natural colloid such as albumin, plasma, or blood is best. - however, synthetic colloids are also useful to help maintain osmotic pressure & prevent fluid loss from the circulation. - synthetic colloids are solutions with high osmotic pressure due to the presence of high molecular weight compounds, usualy starches or dextrans. (examples are hetastarch, Hextend, Vet Starch, etc)
What is one of the most common short-term side effects about which you should advise an owner when dispensing glucocorticoids like prednisolone for a dog? A: ataxia B: decreased appetite C: increased drinking and urination D: diabetes mellitus E: increased itching
C: increased drinking and urination -also expect increased appetite and decreased itchiness
What lab results would you expect to find in a cat with diabetes mellitus? A: Low urine glucose: Normal blood glucose B: Increased urine glucose, decreased blood glucose C: Increased urine glucose, increased blood glucose D: Waxy casts in the urine, and increased GGT in the blood E: Increased WBCs in the urine: low blood glucose
C: increased urine glucose; increased blood glucose - typically perform a blood glucose and a urine dipstick for glucose (and ketones) first
Which of the following is consistent with a stress leukogram? A: neutrophilia, lymphocytosis, eosinopenia B: neutropenia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia C: neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia D: neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinophilia E: neutropenia, lymphocytosis, eosinophilia
C: neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia -A stress leukogram may be caused by either endogenous release of corticosteroids due to stress (like taking a big test), hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's disease) or exogenous medication with corticosteroids.
a 3y old DLH FS cat is presented with hypersalivation, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, stumbling & a temp of 105.2 F. Her pupils are normal size & responsive to light. While the vet examines the animal, she has a seizure. The owner relates that he had treated her the night before with a flea dip that had originally bought for his dog. What toxic ingredient would this cat most likely have been exposed to? A: organophosphate B: carbamate D: D-limonene
C: permethrin - Permethrin toxicity in cats is relatively common occurrence after being treated with a concentrated permethrin-containing flea product labeled for dogs. -Rx with METHOCARBAMOL, a centrally acting muscle relaxant & if needed with a seizure control (diazepam, pentobarbital, or inhalant anesthesia)
Pentobarbital is the principal active ingredient in euthanasia solutions. How does pentobarbital cause death? A: Liver failure B: oxygen depletion C: Respiratory depression D: Severe, rapid drop in blood pressure E: cardiac arrest
C: respiratory depression - pentobarbital like all barbiturates is associated most with resp. depression. When you give barbiturates to induce anesthesia, you give them SLOWLY to avoid rep. depression, and you keep rep. assistance (oxygen) on hand. if you give a euthanasia-dose of pentobarb fast IV, the animal stops breathing and simply collapses.
Which direction is plantar? A: the bottom of the fore foot B: side of the feet, independent of front or rear C: the bottom of the hindfoot D: the top of the hind foot E: the top of the hoof
C: the bottom of the hindfoot
Which of the following patients will benefit the most from use of pre-emptive analgesia? A: cat for an amputation following hit by car B: German shepherd with osteosarcoma of the humerus C: Beagle with a fractured dew claw D: Dog presented for ovariohysterectomy E: Horse with chronic laminitis
D: Dog presented for ovariohysterectomy - A dog presented for OVH will benefit the most from the use of pre-emptive analgesia because she is not painful prior to surgery.
A 4 year old Bichon has come into the hospital for a recheck exam after being treated for a Staphylococcal skin infection. On the medical record the doctor noted that the current problem, a skin fold yeast infection, is iatrogenic. What is an iatrogenic problem. A: disease secondary to inbreeding B: Genetic or inherited to inbreeding C: Problem that gets better without any treatment D: condition caused by the diagnostics or therapy
D. Condition caused by the diagnostics or therapy. example: by overdosing a dog with glucocorticoids to control itching, you cause a hormonal imbalance and subsequent Cushing's disease.
Which part of the tooth is considered to be living tissue? A: lignum and cementum B: Sulcus and periodontal ligament C: enamel and dura mater D: dentin and pulp E: enamel and dentin
D: dentin and pulp - Dentin is formed by odontoblasts. Pulp is composed of odontoblasts and fibroblasts and is supplied by blood vessels, nerves and lymphatics.
What fresh gas flow rate is typical of a non-rebreathing anesthetic circuit? A: 50-100 ml/kg/min B: 150 ml/lb/hr C: 30-50 ml/kg/min D: 100-300 ml/kg/min E: 300-450 ml/kg/min
D: 100-300 ml/kg/min -a high flow rate will help remove exhaled gases. in general, NON-rebreathing anesthetic systems use HIGH flows, and are best for SMALL animals under 7kg.
What is the amount of expected moisture on a paper testing strip when performing Schirmer's tear test (STT) in a normal animal? A: 10-15 mm B: 0-5 mm C: 5-10 mm D: 15-25 mm E: 25-30 mm
D: 15-25 mm - One disease that causes dry eye is keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) - in a cat with KCS, look for less than 10 mm on a STT - in a dog with KCS, look for less than 15 mm on a STT
When should sponges used during surgery be counted? A: after termination of sx B: this is unnecessary C: before extubation D: Before the incision is closed E: before last skin suture placed
D: Before the incision is closed -sponges left inside the abdomen or chest can cause serious complication (severe inflammation, adhesions, sequestered masses, drainage).
What is an enterotomy? A: Incision into stomach B: Mouth C: Incision into abdomen D: Incision into intestine E: Incision into bladder
D: Incision into the intestine -Gastrotomy: incision into stomach -Laparotomy: incision into abdomen -Cystotomy: incision into bladder
What kind of problem may result in cellular casts containing WBCs in the urine sediment of a dog? A: Hypertension B: Renal hemorrhage C: Renal dysplasia D: Pyelonephritis (kidney infection) E: Glomerular leakage
D: Pyelonephritis (kidney infection) -Look for cellular casts (recognizable cell in casts) like sloughed epithelial cells, or RBC with renal hemorrhage, or WBCs with pyelonephritis (kidney infection). -Renal dysplasia is a congenital malformation of the kidneys and does not typically result in casts in the urine. -Look for hyaline casts (clear, semitransparent) with mild glomerular leakage -You may also see granular casts (common, nonspecific, made of degenerating cells) or fatty casts in some cats.
A surgical repair of a patent ductus arteriosus was performed via thoracotomy in a four month old lab puppy. In recovery the puppy is found in his cage, crying and whining. His breath are short and fast. When a tech attempts to comfort him, he tries to get away, cowers in the corner, and cries louder. Which of the following is the best explanation of this scenario? A: the patient has cerebral hypoxia, likely due to sustained hypotension B: Opioid overdose C: recovery is prolonged, staged II sings are still occurring D: This puppy is painful, pain management is inadequate E: Labs are often do this in recovery, they have low pain tolerance
D: This puppy is painful, pain management is inadequate -A thoracotomy is one of the most painful procedures performed in animals and humans. -Shallow respiration is common in patients with chest pain; hypoventilation and hypoxemia can result. Opioids can depress respiratory function, but adequate pain management will improve ventilation when it doesn't hurt so much to breathe.
Which of the following choices best describes fluoroscopy? A: a scope is passed down the esophagus to asses for mucosal lesions B: a thin x-ray beam is passed transaxially through a patient; x-ray attenuation is measured at multiple sites C: a sound wave is passed through the body & then reflected back to the transducer D: a continuous x-ray image that evaluates anatomic structures in real-time E: a radionucleotide is administered to a patient; the emitted electromagnetic radiation is detected with a gamma scintillation camera
D: a continuous x-ray image that evaluates anatomic structures in real-time - it is useful for GI evaluation (e.g., barium swallow), cardiovascular studies, myelography & diagnosing tracheal collapse.
Which one of the following choices best describes the use of Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine (DICOM) in digital radiology? A: a means of converting traditional x-ray film into digital images B: a method of obtaining digital radiographs with less radiation exposure C: a mechanism that prevents artifacts from occurring on digital images D: a universal digital image format that allows sharing of images between clinics E: a technique that transforms digital images into hard copies for storage purposes
D: a universal digital image format that allows sharing of images between clinics
the owner of a newly adopted 4mo old intact kitten wants to know the main benefits of spaying her cat, besides preventing new litters of more kittens. What is a principle benefit of early spaying & neutering of a cat before 6 months of age? A: minimizes incidence of obesity in middle & older aged animals B: moderates aggression in multi-cat households C: prevents diabetes mellitus in female cats D: decreases risk of malignant mammary gland tumors
D: decreases risk of malignant mammary gland tumors
What does it mean if a cow is multiparous? A: Pregnant with twins B: Is a twin and other animal is male C: Has been pregnant, then aborted D: Has given birth more than once
D: has given birth more than once
What might happen if you push the oxygen flush button on an anesthetic machine? A: oxygen is flushed out of the system B: flow rate increases C: anesthetic gas concentration goes up in the breathing circuit D: the patient may start to wake up E: the patient will go deeper anesthetic plane
D: the patient may start to wake up -the oxygen flush sends pure oxygen into the breathing circuit, BYPASSING the vaporizer. Anesthetic gas concentration DECREASES and patients may start to wake up. - REMEMBER you should NOT hit the oxygen flush button if the pop-off valve is closed, or when using a non-rebreathing system, because you can deliver dangerously high airway pressure to the patient.
Which kind of tissue causes the most x-ray scatter? A: joints 8 cm thick or less B: thin body parts C: delicate bone, like nasal area D: thick body parts
D: thick body parts -the thicker the tissue, the more x-ray scatters. Thick body parts like thorax, abdomen, skull & joints greater than 10cm require a grid.
Which one of these contrast media is radiolucent? A: diatrizoate B: iodine C: thorium D: barium E: air
E: Air - air ( & other gases like carbon dioxide, nitrous dioxide are radiolucent [clear]). they do not absorb any x-rays so gas is seen as black on radiographs. - barium & iodine can be used as radiopaque positive contrast media. radiopaque media appear white on radiographs because of high x-ray absorption rate.
Which of the following opioids provides good analgesia of long duration for mild to moderate pain in cats and can be given IV, IM, SQ as wells as transmucosaly? A: morphine B: methadone C: Oxymorphone D: Naloxone E: Buprenorphine
E: Buprenorphine -Buprenorphine is one of the most popular and reliable opioid analgesics for use in cats with mild to moderate pain. It should not be used in patients with severe pain. Buprenorphine is a partial mu-agonist.
Which drug can reverse the effects of xylazine (an alpha2-adrenergic agonist with analgesic and sedative effects)? A: Atropine B: Propofol C: Pralidoxime D: Diazepam (Valium) E: Yohimbine
E: Yohimbine Remember: Yohimbine is also an antidote for amitraZ, the drug used to treat generalized demodicosis. Remember "X goes with Y & Y goes with Z" - Cattle are EXTREMELY SENSITIVE: cow xylazine dose is about 1/10 the dose in dogs or horses - Xylazine is used as an EMETIC in CATS (causes vomiting)
Which factor would contribute to making an x-ray film come out too gray? A: vibration in the potter-bucky diaphragm (??) B: static electricity C: prolonged exposure time D: uneven temperature in developing tanks E: excess scatter radiation
E: excess scatter radiation - too much scatter (ie: from radiographing a thick body part more than 10 cm without a grid) can cause gray films.
Which one of the following changes to the blood chemistry can occur if you leave a blood sample sitting too long prior to spinning it down & separating the serum from the cells? A: bicarbonate increases B: sodium increases C: phosphorous decreases D: potassium decreases E: glucose decreases
E: glucose decreases -if serum left sitting too long on RBCs, bicarbonate & blood glucose can DECREASE, & phosphorus & potassium can INCREASE (typically phosphorous increases are associated with hemolysis & not just prolonged contact of serum with RBCs).
Which of these is increased when an animal is responding to anemia? A: rouleaux formations B: target cells C: howell-jolly bodies D: crenation E: band cells
E: howell-jolly bodies. -howell-jolly bodies are basophilic nuclear remnants inside RBCs seen during accelerated erythopoiesis (RBC generation in the bone marrow) & post-splenectomy. -increased #s of these bodies indicated regenerative (responsive) anemia.
what would you expect to see in the plasma of a dog who just ate a can of dog food? A: hemolysis B: low glucose C: increased total proteins D: icterus E: lipemia
E: lipemia - after a meal, expect lipemic serum (milky-colored, fatty, especially common after a meal). Lipemia interferes with many biochemical tests. -Hyperlipidemia (high blood lipids) can also have metabolic causes: sudden increases in nutritional requirements (pregnancy, stress) or decreases in feed quality can cause hyperlipidemia in horses.
What is the common name for Fasciola hepatica? A: tapeworm B: hookworm C: whipworm D: coccidia E: liver fluke
E: liver fluke -fluke infestation cause disease in cattle, sheep & goats.
What is another name for struvite crystals in the urine? A: calcium oxalate monohydrate B: urate monohydrate C: calcium carbonate D: amorphous phosphate E: magnesium ammonium phosphate
E: magnesium ammonium phosphate -also called triple phosphate crystals
which teeth are best radiographed using the bisecting radiograph technique? A: temporomandibular joint (TMJ) B: maxillary cheek teeth C: mandibular molars D: mandibular premolars E: maxillary incisors
E: maxillary incisors - The bisecting radiograph technique is generally preferred for all teeth EXCEPT for the mandibular premolars 3 & 4 & the molars. -Bisecting radiograph techniques minimizes the image distortion that occurs because of an inability to place x-ray film parallel to the central axis of a tooth
Which of the following lab abnormalities is frequently seen with acetaminophen (Tylenol) toxicity in cats? A: increased RBCs (polycythemia) B: toxic neutrophils C: alkalosis D: thrombocytopenia (low platelets) E: methemoglobinuria (brown urine)
E: methemoglobinuria (brown urine) - cats are deficient in glucuronyl transferase, so they have a limited ability to metabolize acetaminophen & aspirin.
during induction of anesthesia, the vet asks the vet tech to place an ET tube. How far in should the end of the tube go for proper access to the trachea? A: level of main stem bronchi B: caudal to uvula C: just to the nasopharynx D: between the tonsils E: past the vocal folds
E: past the vocal folds
which one of the following choices may cause a radiograph to come out blurry? A: kVp too low B: static electricity C: focal-film distance too short D: mAs too high E: patient movement
E: patient movement - Blurring can be caused by poor film-screen contact, patient movement, or poor centering of the primary x-ray beam. -If the distance between the object & the film is increased, you may get distortion or magnification f the image. - static electricity tends to make linear dots or a tree pattern on a radiograph.
]You are called to help examine a 6 yr old Appaloosa gelding. The owner is concerned because the horse seems sensitive & head-shy when he has a bit in his mouth. on physical exam you not a prominent pair of wolf teeth. what, anatomically, is an equine wolf tooth? A: permanent incisor 3 (I3) B: Deciduous canine (DC) C: Deciduous premolar 1 (Dp1) D: permanent canine (c) E: permanent premolar 1 (P1)
E: permanent premolar 1 (P!) - wolf teeth are permanent FIRST PREMOLARS (P1) seen in the upper arcade of 20-60% of horses. - wolf teeth (P1) are caniform (i.e, canine like) & erupt at around 5-6 months. -mot horses that work with a bit in their mouth benefit from having the wolf teeth removed.
how can laryngospasms be prevented during anesthetic induction in cats? A: avoid inhalant anesthesia B: administer atropine 15 minutes prior to induction C: use a murphy tube D: give ace one hour prior to induction E: pretreat with topical lidocaine
E: pretreat with topical lidocaine - laryngospasms can be prevented by applying lidocaine gel or spray to the larynx before attempting intubation. Remember that topical lidocaine requires 15-20 seconds for full effect. - laryngeal spasm is a problem for cats, small ruminants, & swine. it can be associated with overzealous manipulation of the larynx either by a laryngoscope or during the intubation itself.
Which of the following choices best describes what an elevation of the peripheral neutrophil count means? A: chronic systemic inflammatory response B: recent reaction to an allergen C: chronic parasitic infestation D: chronic infection with a virus E: recent systemic inflammatory response
E: recent systemic inflammatory response -a recent systemic inflammatory response will be reflected by increased numbers of neutrophils in the blood since these cells usually spend only 5-10 hours in circulation before migrating into the tissues.
What does polychromasia (color variation) in RBCs suggest? A: acetaminophen toxicity B: it is normal in most small animals C: autoimmune hemolysis D: polycythemia E: regenerative anemia
E: regenerative anemia -in regenerative anemia, the bone marrow is responding to a need for more RBCs by releasing immature RBCs, but you need a reticulocyte count to confirm it. Immature RBCs are polychromatophilic (usually they stain a darker blue than normal RBCs).
what is a lumpectomy? A: evacuation or stomach contents B: enema removal of impacted feces C: another term for biopsy D: fine needle aspirate E: removal of a mass or lump
E: removal of a mass or lump
In temperate north america, one animal is seasonally polyestrous (multiple estrus cycles) in the winter when the weather is COLD and the other animal is seasonally polyestrus in the spring and summer when the weather is WARM. Both give birth in the spring. Which animals are these? A: cow, pig B: cow, goat C: sheep, cat D: dog, horse E: sheep, horse
E: sheep, horse. -Sheep cycle in cold weather (winter), horses cycle in warm weather (spring-summer). Sheep have a 5 month gestation, horses 11 months.
