......
B
After the crystal violet step in the gram stain gram positive bacteria appear _______, and gram negative bacteria appear _______. A. Pink;Purple B. Pink;Pink C. Purple,Purple D. Blue;Purple
A
All immunoglobulins have antibody function A. True B. False
B
Also called "infectious hepatitis", which hepatitis is the most common among adults and children? A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. None of the above
E
Neisseria gonorrhoeae's infectious process is most significantly dependent on A. Portal of entry B. Antigen variation C. Portal of exit D. Exotoxins E. Adherence
D
Papain cleaves an antibody into ________ fragments. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 8
C. Chemical
Primary treatment of sewage is mainly A. Physical B. Biological C. Chemical D. A & b
B. 25-30% of the BOD
Primary treatment removes A. 40-60% of BOD B. 25-30% of the BOD C. 99% of the BOD D. 5%
C
Rheumatic fever is a disease caused by what genus of bacteria? A. Clostridium B. Staphylococcus C. Streptococcus D. Bacillus
A
Rheumatic fever presents symptoms in all of the following areas of the body except: A. Joints B. Heart C. Brain D. Inner ear
B. Biological
Secondary treatment of sewage is mainly A. Physical B. Biological C. Chemical D. None
B
The most common form of anthrax infection is: A. Cutaneous B. Respiratory C. Gastrointestinal D. Woolsorters disease
B
The purpose of alcohol in the gram stain is to A. Fix the dye to the bacteria B. Decolorize the gram negative bacteria C. Kill the bacteria D. Dissolve the phospholipid membrane of the gram positive organism
B
The recent emergence of ________ in Syria is mainly due to the presence of its disease causing organism in the water supply. A. HIV B. Polio C. Pneumonia D. Diptheria E. Influenza
D
The recipient cell of a conjugation interaction of genetic exchange between two bacteria is called A. Origin of replication B. F+ C. F- D. Conjugatee Bacterium
B
22. While Koch's postulates focused on animal research for studying the infectious process of bacteria, a more humane movement uses __________ to make these same conclusions. A. Stem cell research B. Very educated guesses C. More expensive microscopes D. Characteristics of bacterial nucleic acids
A
. Which of the following is characteristic of macrophages? A. CD4 B. CD6 C. CD14 D. CD16
B
. Which of the following is not a possible target for an antimicrobial that is to alter bacterial ribosomes but not affect human ribosomes? A. 30S Subunit B. 40S subunit C. 50S subunit D. 70S Ribosome
A
. Which route of entry is most susceptible to viral infection? A. Respiratory tract B. Digestive Tract C. Skin D. Neural tissue
A
1. A patient has been diagnosed with a very common opportunistic infection associated with AIDS. From the material we discussed in class, what is the likely identity of this organism A. Clostridium dificile B. Neisseria mengitidis C. Pneumocystis carinii D. Staph aureus E. Pseudomembranous colitis
D
12. The classic example of acid fast bacteria are all members of the genus_______ A. Streptococcus B. Staphylococcus C. Neisseria D. Mycobacterium
B
16. Penicillin inhibits the formation of peptidoglycan, suggesting that this drug would be most effective against___________ A. Gram Positive bacteria B. Gram Negative bacteria
A
17. Antimicrobials like penicillin are able to fight gram positive organisms by what mechanism? A. Hydrolyzing the peptidoglycan bonds B. Disrupting DNA synthesis C. Targeting the 30s ribosome D. Interfering with peptidoglycan synthesis
D
28. Which form of E coli causes infant diarrhea? A. EPEC B. ETEC C. EHEC D. EIEC
C
33. Which of the following is false concerning Bacillus anthracis A. Respiratory infections by this bacteria are the most severe B. It has toxins called Lethal Factor and Elongation Factor C. Without a capsule, this bacteria cannot cause disease D. Its capsule is made of protein
B
35. Which form of genetic exchange requires direct contact between two bacteria? A. Transformation B. Conjugation C. Transduction D. Conduction
C
5. The outer membrane of Gram negative cells is more permeable than the plasma membrane because A. LPS is larger than most membrane phospholipids B. Lipoproteins stretch the outer membrane C. Porin proteins establish holes in the outer membrane D. The core polysaccharide spans the lipid bilayer
A
7. The proper sequence of reagents in the Gram stain procedure is A. Crystal Violet, Iodine, Ethanol, Safranin B. Iodine, Crystal Violet, Safranin, Ethanol C. Safranin, Iodine, Crystal Violet, Ethanol D. Crystal Violet, Ethanol, Iodine, Safranin
C
A 50-year-old woman develops gastric ulcers. A biopsy specimen is taken. Assuming that a bacterial pathogen may be involved, what organism are you most likely to find in this sample? A. Vibrio cholerae B. EHEC C. Helicobacter pylori D. Staph aureus
C
A patient comes into the clinic complaining that in the last couple hours, they feel like they may be getting sick. When you ask what their symptoms are, they respond with vague symptoms such as aches and discomfort from no apparent origin. The patient is most likely experiencing what phase of the infectious process? Discuss A. Incubation phase B. Acme C. Prodromal phase D. Convalescence period E. Decline Phase
D
B-lactamase, responsible for penicillin resistance is located in _______________ A. The cell wall of gram positive organisms B. The periplasmic space of gram positive organisms C. The nucleus of gram negative organisms D. None of the above
C. Fungi
BLANK are multicellular, eukaryotic organisms that get their nutrition from absorption. A. Protists B. Plants C. Fungi
C. Antigens
Cell mediated immune system involves A. Special lymphocytes called t cells B. B cells and antibodies in the blood and lymph C. Antigens D. Skin and mucous membranes
D
Diptheria toxin is an _________ that binds to the ________ subunit of the diptheria toxin receptor. A. Exotoxin; A B. Exotoxin; B C. Endotoxin; A D. Endotoxin; B
A
Each of the following statements concerning class II MHC proteins is correct EXCEPT: A. They are made of a long alpha chain and short beta chain B. They have a high degree of polymorphism C. They are involved in antigen presentation by macrophages D. They have a binding site for CD4 proteins
E. Developing the process of vaccination
Edward Jenner is credited with which of the following? A. Applying germ theory to medical practices such as surgery B. Discovering the antibiotic properties of pcn C. Creating steps to link a specific bacteria to a specific disease D. Discovering the process of fermentation E. Developing the process of vaccination
B
Gram positive cells A. Have thick, homogeneous cell walls. B. Have large amounts of teichoic acids. C. Do not have an outer membrane. D. All of the above are true
A
Gram positive organisms will appear what color after decolorization? A. Purple B. Pink C. Clear D.
D
HLA matching in allocation is necessary in ____________ transplants A. Liver B. Kidney C. Bone Marrow D. All of the above E. 2 of the above
B
Histamine released by mast cells leads to all of the following symptoms except A. Capillary dilation B. Increased mucus secretion C. Airway constriction D. High fever
A
How long does it take for a bacterial population to double (in minutes) if 100 generations were found after 4 hours. Discuss A. 15 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 2.4 minutes D. 400 minutes
C. Phagocytes
Humoral immune system involves A. B cells and antibodies in the blood and lymph B. Specialized lymphocytes called t cells C. Phagocytes D. Antigens
B
I. How do viruses penetrate the host cell? Discuss A. Porins B. Engulfment (endocytosis) C. Ion channels D. They are lipid soluble
B
IFifth's disease, a viral infection that causes rash and is generally found in daycares is caused by what type of virus? A. Herpes virus B. Poxvirus C. Picornavirus D. Parvovirus
B
If each of the identical heavy chains of IgG have a mass of 50kD and each of the identical light chains have a mass of 25kD, when IgG is cleaved by papain, what would be the mass of one of the Fab regions. A. 100kD B. 25kD C. 50kD D. 12.5kD
D
If you innoculate an agar plate at 5PM with 20 bacteria and at 10PM you measure that there are 13000 bacteria, how many generations have occurred? A. 4.67 B. 9.345 C. 18.690 D. 2
A
IgE molecules attach to A. Mast cells via their variable region B. Mast cells via their constant region C. T helper cells by their variable region D. Plasma cells by their constant region
A
IgG is an example of _________________ A. An Immunoglobulin Class B. An Immunoglobulin Subclass C. A cytokine D. A Cell receptor
C
IgM is a pentamer and has how many antigen binding sites? A. 10 B. 5 C. 2.5 D. 2
D
Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis a) vancomycin b) Isoniazid c) chloroquine d) erythromycin e) rifampin
A
Invasion is a key factor in an organisms ability to cause disease. Which of these microorganisms invades transcellularly (i.e. across the cell membrane to the other side)? A. Shigella sonnei B. E coli C. Yersinia pestis D. Salmonella enterica
C
Iodine is used in the gram stain technique and is considered a mordant, meaning that it A. Dissolves the cell wall B. Decolorizes the stain C. Fixes the dye to the cell wall D. Washes excess dye off
B
Kupffer cells are phagocytic cells that are primarily present in the ___________ A. Kidney B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Gallbladder
C. Discovering the process of fermentation
Louis Pasteur is credited with which of the following? A. Applying germ theory to medical practices such as surgery B. Discovering the antibiotic properties of pcn C. Discovering the process of fermentation D. Creating steps to link a specific bacteria to a specific disease
B
Myeloperoxidase pathways can occur without oxygen. A. True B. False
C. decreases the risk of staphylococcal infection
Table above shows the ID50 for staphylococcus aureus in sounds with and without the administration of penicillin before surgery. based on the data the administration of penicillin before surgery a. increase the risk of staphylococcal infection b. has no effect on risk of infection c. decreases the risk of staphylococcal infection
d) Stomach acidsB
The biological activity (i.e. enhanced phagocytosis, complement-mediated lysis) of an an antibody is in the _________ region A. Fc region B. Peptide bond C. Epitope D. Fab region
D. IgD
The class of immunoglobulins that binds to mast cells and basophils which participate in hypersensitivity reactions is A. IgA B. IgE C. IgM D. IgD
B. IgM
The class of immunoglobulins that can cross the placenta and is present in the greatest account (80-85%) A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE
A. IgG
The class of immunoglobulins that is a penatmer and first to appear in a response to antigen A. IgG B. IgA C. IgD D. IgM
B
The figure at the left of the figure shows a banding pattern of a DNA fragment of a known pathogen which of following patterns contains the same pathogen a) a b) b and d c) c d) d and e e) b
C
The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that A. It can be administered orally B. It provides antibody more rapidly C. Antibody persists for a longer period of time D. It contains primarily IgM
D
The majority of cytokines are of ____________ function A. Paracrine B. Autocrine C. Endocrine D. Pleiocrine
A. 10,000x
The maximum magnification using a light microscope is? A. 10,000x B. 1,000x C. 100x
A
The method of transfer of genetic material in transduction is: A. Virus B. Pili C. Relaxosome D. Fimbriae
C
The slow continuous change that occurs in the antigenic expression (without changing the subtype) of the influenza virus requiring the appropriate organizations to develop a vaccine annually is called ___________-- A. Epidemic B. Metamorphosis C. Antigenic Shift D. Antigenic Drift
C
The tick or arthropod-borne virus that is responsible for yellow fever or dengue fever is what type of virus? A. Arbovirus B. Coronovirus C. Parvovirus D. Retrovirus
D
This member of the Calcivirus family is spread through fecal-oral contamination and cases of infection are usually seen on cruise ships. A. Reovirus B. Enterovirus C. Rhabdovirus D. Norwalk virus
A
This member of the picoranoviruses that we discussed in class affects the GI tract: A. Rhinovirus B. Rhabdovirus C. Poxvirus D. Enterovirus
B. Thyroid
To become immunocompetent t cells must pass through the A. Thymus B. Thyroid C. Liver D. Galit tissue
C
What is the most common route of entry for portal of entry for a pathogen? Discuss A. Mucous membranes of the conjunctiva B. Parenteral C. Skin D. Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract
C. They have a nucleus
Which is NOT true of bacteria? A. They are prokaryotes B. They have peptidoglycan in their cell walls C. They have a nucleus D. Some use photosynthesis
A. Prokaryote
Which is a correct term for the domain of life? A. Prokaryote B. Fungi C. Archaea D. Animal
A
Which member of the lymphoid lineage is considered part of the innate immune response? A. NK cells B. Macrophages C. B-cells D. T-cells
D
Which of the following are not properly matched? A. IgG : Dimer B. IgM : Pentamer C. Serum IgA : Monomer D. IgE : Monomer
C
Which of the following concerning influenza is false? A. It involves respiratory transmission B. All animal influenza are of A subtype C. Neurominadase helps the virus attach to the cell D. H5N1 refers to "bird flu"
A. All bacteria can sporulate
Which of the following is NOT true about bacterial endospores? A. All bacteria can sporulate B. Endospores can resist bad environments C. Endospores germinate in favorable environments D. Clostridium species can form endospores
B. They have peptidoglycan in their cell walls
Which of the following is NOT true of archae? A. They are prokaryotes B. They have peptidoglycan in their cell walls C. They live in extreme environments
B
Which of the following is a disadvantage of autologous transplant? A. Possibility of graft vs host disease B. Availability of a donor C. Possibility of graft rejection D. Possible transfer of malignant cells
C
Which of the following is a medication used to prevent transplant rejection? A. Rifampin B. Certolizumab C. Thymoglobulin D. Sulfanilomide
C
Which of the following is false concerning the herpes simplex virus? A. Its symptoms may manifest as chicken pox B. It travels up the peripheral nerve from its primary site of infection C. It lies dormant in the brain D. The vaccine re-educates the immune system to keep the virus from reactivating
C
Which of the following is not a member of the herpes virus family? A. HSV-1 B. Cytomegalovirus C. Poxvirus D. Epstein-Barr
E
Which of the following is not responsible for adherence? A. Lipoteichoic acid B. Protein M C. Protein A D. Protein F E. Pili
B. States that life arises from non-living matter
Which of the following is true about the theory of spontaneous generation? A. States that all cells come from pre-existing cells B. States that life arises from non-living matter C. Is believed to be true today
D
Which of the following is true concerning viruses? A. Patients always experience symptoms when the virus is replicating B. Two of the same viruses always produce the same disease C. All viruses contain an envelope D. Viruses are the smallest infectious particles
C
Which of the following is true of Streptococcus bacteria: A. Large colonies B. Catalase negative C. Gram negative D. Clustered cocci
D
Which of the following is true regarding the immune system? A. Natural killer cells are antigen specific B. T-cells play a predominant role in humoral immunity C. Antibodies can be considered an opsonin D. An epitope is a site on an antibody recognized by an antigen
C
Which of these are false concerning cytokines? A. T-cells require IL-2 for growth B. IL-2 is a cytokine associated with the adaptive immune system C. They are antigen specific D. Macrophages secrete IL-1 when presenting antigen to T-cells
C
Which of these is not a cytokine associated with the adaptive immune system? A. IL-5 B. IL-4 C. TGF D. IL-12
C
Which of these is not an antigen presenting cell? A. Dendritic cells B. Macrophages C. B-cells D. Mast cells E. All of the above are APC's F. 3 of the above are APC's
C
Which of these is not of the myeloid lineage? A. Macrophage B. Dendritic cell C. Basophil D. Plasma cell
C
Which of these is only found in gram negative organisms? A. Endotoxins B. Exotoxins C. Pili D. Cell wall
D
Which of these is true concerning virulence factors? A. A vaccine for Gonorrhea is possible because of the small amount of antigenic variation of the causative organism B. Exotoxins and endotoxins are released when the cell dies C. Lipid A is an endotoxin D. Protein A protects the bacteria by bind to IgG and activating complement
A
Which of these virulence factors do not have an antiphagocytic effect? A. Coagulase produced by staphylococcus bacteria B. Protein A, a component of Staph aureus C. The capsule of Bacillus anthracis D. Pili of Neisseria gonorrhoea
C
Which virus is responsible for over 50% of respiratory infections in the US? A. Arbovirus B. Rheovirus C. Orthomyxovirus D. Rhabdovirus
A
While some antibiotics target protein synthesis of bacteria (Chloramphenicol, tetracycline, erythromycin, streptomycin), others attempt to inhibit nucleic acid synthesis. What is an example of this kind of medication? A. Penicillin B. Sulfanilomide C. Quinolones D. Polymyxin B
D
You innoculate your agar plate with 4 bacteria. After 5 generations, how many bacteria are now on the plate assuming that no bacteria die? A. 32 B. 78 C. 20 D. 128
B. A negative stain
You want to know if a bacteria has a capsule. What do you use to identify it? A. A flagella stain B. A negative stain C. Simple stain
C
_________ helps diptheria toxin (from Corynebacterium diptheriae) bind to its receptor on the cell. A. CD3 B. CD6 C. CD9 D. CD12
A
____________ secrete antibodies A. T-cells B. Macrophages C. Plasma cells D. Cytokines
