37-41 post test qs (1/3)
Typically, medivac helicopters fly at speeds between: Select one: A. 120 and 140 mph. B. 130 and 150 mph. C. 150 and 200 mph. D. 100 and 120 mph.
B. 130 and 150 mph.
A portable oxygen cylinder should have a minimum capacity of ____ of oxygen. Select one: A. 250 L B. 500 L C. 750 L D. 1,000 L
B. 500 L
In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ______ period of self-sufficiency. Select one: A. 48-hour B. 72-hour C. 96-hour D. 24-hour
B. 72-hour
Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when the EMT is determining whether or not to declare a multiple-casualty incident and activate the incident command system? Select one: A. What will happen if there are more than two patients that require emergency care? B. How many paramedics are able to respond to the scene and provide advanced care? C. How long will it take for additional resources to arrive at the scene once requested? D. How many seriously injured patients can be effectively cared for in my ambulance?
B. How many paramedics are able to respond to the scene and provide advanced care?
Which of the following statements regarding the use of the warning lights and siren on the ambulance is correct? Select one: A. It is generally acceptable to increase your speed if lights and siren are in use. B. If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand. C. If the patient is stable, you may use the warning lights without the siren. D. Warning lights and siren should be avoided, even if the patient is unstable.
B. If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand.
Which of the following statements regarding hazardous materials is correct? Select one: A. A package or truck need only contain small quantities of a hazardous chemical before it must bear a placard or label. B. Some substances are not hazardous by themselves, but become toxic when mixed with another chemical. C. Most hazardous materials are odorless and colorless, even when a substantial leak or spill has occurred. D. Identifying the presence of a hazardous material is generally very easy because of the consistent use of placards.
B. Some substances are not hazardous by themselves, but become toxic when mixed with another chemical.
According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient has a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, you should: Select one: A. assign an immediate category. B. assess for a distal pulse. C. look for posturing. D. assess neurologic status.
B. assess for a distal pulse.
Following proper decontamination, a 30-year-old male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should: Select one: A. perform a rapid assessment to locate critical injuries. B. begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation. C. administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. ask a firefighter what the patient was exposed to
B. begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation
The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called: Select one: A. sterilization. B. cleaning. C. disinfection. D. high-level disinfection
B. cleaning.
A supervisor who has more than seven people reporting to him or her: Select one: A. should regularly report to the incident commander (IC) to inform him or her of the functions that his or her team is performing. B. has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person. C. is more beneficial to the overall effort than a supervisor with fewer personnel because his or her team can accomplish more tasks. D. should assign a specific task to each person reporting to him or her and regularly follow up to ensure that the tasks were carried out.
B. has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person.
The LEAST practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is: Select one: A. on the ambulance stretcher. B. in the driver's compartment. C. near the side or rear door. D. inside the jump kit.
B. in the driver's compartment.
The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident: Select one: A. is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry. B. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated. C. determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone. D. should be performed by the most experienced EMT.
B. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.
Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then: Select one: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. observe the scene for safety hazards. C. carefully assess the mechanism of injury. D. determine if additional units are needed. .
B. observe the scene for safety hazards.
At a very large incident, the __________ section is responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the incident commander on routine EMS calls. Select one: A. finance B. operations C. logistics D. planning
B. operations
Upon arrival at a search-and-rescue incident, the EMS crew should _________. Select one: A. split up and request a search grid B. prepare the equipment to carry to the patient C. provide the incident commander with the crew's names and certification level(s) D. begin searching for the patient
B. prepare the equipment to carry to the patient
You are en route to an emergency call when you approach a slow-moving vehicle on a two-way road. You can see oncoming traffic in the other lane. The driver has his windows up and does not realize that you are behind him. You should: Select one: A. use your public address system to alert the driver. B. remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass. C. pass the driver on the right-hand shoulder. D. quickly pass the vehicle on the left side.
B. remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass.
While staged at the scene of a structure fire, the EMT should _________. Select one: A. stay with the incident commander B. remain with the ambulance C. locate the safety officer D. assess firefighters for signs of fatigue
B. remain with the ambulance
Extrication is defined as: Select one: A. using heavy equipment to access a patient. B. removal from a dangerous situation or position. C. dismantling an automobile to remove a victim. D. immobilizing a patient before moving him or her.
B. removal from a dangerous situation or position.
When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should: Select one: A. increase your speed to create more distance. B. slow down and allow the driver to pass you. C. stop the ambulance and confront the driver. D. slam on the brakes to frighten the tailgater.
B. slow down and allow the driver to pass you.
The EMT's role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to: Select one: A. direct the search effort from a centralized location. B. stand by at the command post until the person is located C. report to a location where the patient will be carried. D. accompany search team members and provide care.
B. stand by at the command post until the person is located
When determining the exact location and position of the patient(s) in a wrecked vehicle, you and your team should routinely consider all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. hazards that pose a risk to rescuers. B. the make and model of the vehicle. C. the position of the crashed vehicle. D. the possibility of vehicle instability.
B. the make and model of the vehicle.
Command functions under the incident command system include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. liaison officer. B. triage officer. C. public information officer D. safety officer.
B. triage officer.
If you properly assess and stabilize a patient at the scene, driving to the hospital with excessive speed: Select one: A. increases the patient's chance for survival. B. will decrease the driver's reaction time. C. is often necessary if the patient is critical. D. is allowable according to state law.
B. will decrease the driver's reaction time.
The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _____ years or who appear to weigh less than _____. Select one: A. 6; 70 lb B. 7; 90 lb C. 8; 100 lb D. 5; 50 lb
C. 8; 100 lb
Which of the following MOST accurately describes a mass-casualty incident? Select one: A. An incident that involves more than five critically injured or ill patients B. An incident where patients have been exposed to hazardous materials C. An incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system's available resources D. An incident in which at least half of the patients are critically injured
C. An incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system's available resources
Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies? Select one: A. Inhaled bronchodilator B. Oral glucose C. DuoDote Auto-Injector D. Vacuum splint
C. DuoDote Auto-Injector
Which of the following duties or responsibilities does NOT fall within the realm of the medical branch of the incident command system? Select one: A. Treatment B. Transport C. Extrication D. Triage
C. Extrication
Which of the following statements regarding trench rescue is correct? Select one: A. A trench deeper than 10 feet should be shored prior to entry. B. Most deaths involving cave-ins are caused by head injury. C. Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse. D. Rescue vehicles should park at least 250 feet from the scene.
C. Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse.
A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed. Select one: A. IV B. II C. I D. III
C. I
Which of the following statements regarding the unified command system is correct? Select one: A. The unified command system is one in which one person is in charge, even if multiple agencies respond to a disaster or mass-casualty incident. B. Ideally, the unified command system is used for short-duration, limited incidents that require the services of a single agency from one jurisdiction. C. Under the unified command system, plans are drawn up in advance by all cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making. D. In a unified command system, there are separate ICs for fire, police, EMS, and any other agencies that respond to the incident.
C. Under the unified command system, plans are drawn up in advance by all cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making.
You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should: Select one: A. proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder. B. have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call. C. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit. D. quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards.
C. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit.
Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must: Select one: A. be easily identifiable by their bright green color. B. undergo hydrostatic testing on a weekly basis. C. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min. D. hold a minimum capacity of 1,500 L of oxygen.
C. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min.
Upon arriving at the scene of a possible hazardous materials (HazMat) incident involving several patients, you should: Select one: A. rope off the entire perimeter. B. retrieve all critical patients. C. carefully assess the situation. D. divert traffic away from the scene.
C. carefully assess the situation.
Historically, the weak point at most major incidents has been: Select one: A. incident briefing. B. lack of personnel. C. communications D. accountability.
C. communications
The use of special tools to remove an entrapped patient from a vehicle is known as _________. Select one: A. vehicle stabilization B. incident management C. complex access D. simple access
C. complex access
The purpose of a jump kit is to: Select one: A. manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance. B. facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact. C. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care. D. carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director.
C. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care
Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, EXCEPT: Select one: A. completing a detailed written report. B. informing the dispatcher of your arrival. C. giving a verbal report to the clerk. D. restocking any disposable items you used
C. giving a verbal report to the clerk
You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should: Select one: A. perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety. B. limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only. C. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety. D. treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place.
C. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: Select one: A. request law enforcement for traffic control. B. begin triage to determine injury severity. C. immediately request additional resources. D. call medical control for further direction.
C. immediately request additional resources.
The MOST common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at: Select one: A. stop signs. B. stop lights. C. intersections. D. railroad crossings.
C. intersections.
In order to accomplish the goal of primary triage, it is important to: Select one: A. take no more than 2 minutes to determine the patient's status. B. begin life-saving care immediately upon detecting critical injuries. C. keep the triage assessment brief and the patient categories basic. D. perform a rapid assessment on all patients who appear to be unstable.
C. keep the triage assessment brief and the patient categories basic.
Unlike a multiple-casualty incident, a natural disaster: Select one: A. exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients. B. usually does not require the incident command system process. C. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days. D. is typically short-lived and does not require as much manpower.
C. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days.
When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: Select one: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. park downhill from the scene. C. position the ambulance upwind. D. ask the driver to exit the vehicle.
C. position the ambulance upwind.
The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: Select one: A. facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters. B. prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the United States. C. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents. D. educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks.
C. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents.
General guidelines for safe ambulance driving include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. assuming that other drivers will not see you. B. avoiding routes with heavy traffic congestion. C. regularly using the siren as much as possible. D. avoiding one-way streets whenever possible.
C. regularly using the siren as much as possible
Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you should ensure your own safety and then: Select one: A. begin immediate triage of any injured personnel. B. locate all injured personnel and begin treatment. C. report to the incident commander for instructions. D. apprise medical control of the tactical situation.
C. report to the incident commander for instructions.
The __________ area is where incoming ambulances meet and await further instructions at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident. Select one: A. transportation B. triage C. staging D. support
C. staging
The EMT's responsibility during search-and-rescue operations is to _________. Select one: A. direct other incoming EMS units B. assist in the search on foot C. wait at the staging area until the patient is located D. assume medical command
C. wait at the staging area until the patient is located
A disposable oxygen humidifier should be considered for ambulance services that often transport patients for ___ hour(s) or more. Select one: A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1
D. 1
Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would MOST likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph. Select one: A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 30
D. 30
Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least ____ mm Hg when the tubing is clamped. Select one: A. 100 B. 200 C. 400 D. 300
D. 300
Which of the following situations would require the use of a specialized rescue team? Select one: A. A patient in a badly damaged car, not entrapped B. A patient found floating face down in a swimming pool C. An obese patient who must be moved to the ambulance D. A patient trapped in a cave or a confined space
D. A patient trapped in a cave or a confined space
According to the START triage system, what should you do if a patient is found to have a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min? Select one: A. Assess his or her neurologic status. B. Administer high-flow oxygen. C. Triage the patient as delayed. D. Assess for bilateral radial pulses.
D. Assess for bilateral radial pulses.
Which of the following activities occurs in the warm zone? Select one: A. Medical monitoring B. Command C. Personnel staging D. Decontamination
D. Decontamination
Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored: Select one: A. based on recommendations of the health department. B. as directed by the EMS system's medical director. C. in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft. D. according to the urgency and frequency of their use.
D. according to the urgency and frequency of their use.
When a rehabilitation area is established at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, it should: Select one: A. be mandated that responders participate in a defusing session. B. provide rehabilitative services to both responders and patients. C. be staffed by the treatment supervisor and at least one physician. D. be in a location that prevents visualization of the scene itself.
D. be in a location that prevents visualization of the scene itself.
You arrive at an accident scene to find an alternative-fuel vehicle leaking an unknown substance. You should immediately _________. Select one: A. apply retardant to the leaking fuel B. search the vehicle for occupants C. disconnect the car battery D. call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle
D. call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle
During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes. B. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital. C. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates. D. converse with the patient and provide reassurance.
D. converse with the patient and provide reassurance
A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unresponsive, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilaterally closed femur deformities. You should: Select one: A. obtain baseline vital signs and transport at once. B. stabilize her legs with long board splints. C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.
D. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance
The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40-year-old male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should: Select one: A. ask her follow-up questions about the details of the crash. B. allow her to observe the extrication and keep her calm. C. allow her to talk to her husband during the extrication. D. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene
D. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene
If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should: Select one: A. quickly jerk the steering wheel. B. slowly move the steering wheel back and forth. C. slowly pump the brakes until he or she regains vehicle control. D. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes.
D. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes
Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. turnout gear. B. safety goggles. C. face shields. D. hazardous materials gear.
D. hazardous materials gear
Aggressive ambulance driving may have a negative effect on other motorists because: Select one: A. they move to the right or drive as close to the curb as possible. B. they may become enraged and attempt to run you off the road. C. they often freeze when they see the lights in the rearview mirror. D. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle.
D. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle.
The FIRST step in the START triage system is to: Select one: A. focus on the patients who are unconscious. B. scan the area for patients with severe bleeding. C. get a quick head count of all the patients involved. D. move all walking patients to a designated area
D. move all walking patients to a designated area
Upon arrival at a trench rescue operation, you should _________. Select one: A. park as close to the incident as possible B. determine if rescuers are operating safely C. assist with the rescue operation D. park at least 500 feet from the incident
D. park at least 500 feet from the incident
For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following information, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. nature of the call. B. caller's phone number. C. location of the patient(s). D. patient's medical history
D. patient's medical history
The development of an incident action plan is the responsibility of the: Select one: A. logistics section. B. finance section. C. operations section. D. planning section.
D. planning section.
A critical function of the safety officer is to: Select one: A. brief responders during the demobilization phase of an incident. B. determine the most efficient approach to extricate a victim. C. monitor emergency responders for signs of stress and anxiety. D. stop an emergency operation whenever a rescuer is in danger.
D. stop an emergency operation whenever a rescuer is in danger.
Situational awareness is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. performing an initial scan of the scene in order to identify hazards that will pose an immediate threat to you and your crew. B. predicting the presence of certain hazards at the scene after receiving initial information from the dispatcher. C. an ongoing process of information gathering and scene evaluation to determine appropriate strategies and tactics. D. the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact.
D. the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact
After primary triage, the triage supervisor should communicate all of the following information to the medical branch officer, EXCEPT: Select one: A. recommendations for movement to the treatment area. B. the total number of patients that have been triaged. C. the number of patients in each triage category. D. the recommended transport destination for each patient.
D. the recommended transport destination for each patient.
Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash at night, you find that the safest place to park your ambulance is in a direction that is facing oncoming traffic. You should: Select one: A. quickly access the patient. B. place a flare near the crash. C. turn all warning lights off. D. turn your headlights off
D. turn your headlights off
A medical transport helicopter is incoming and you are responsible for setting up the landing zone (LZ). You should: Select one: A. use yellow caution tape to mark of the LZ perimeter. B. place four flares 100 feet apart in an "X" pattern. C. ask bystanders to stand at all four corners of the LZ. D. use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ.
D. use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ.
The main objective of traffic control at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is to: Select one: A. prevent curious onlookers from observing the scene. B. facilitate a route for the media to access the scene. C. get oncoming traffic past the scene as soon as possible. D. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash.
D. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash
Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot. Select one: A. 100 lb B. 150 lb C. 50 lb D. 200 lb
A. 100 lb
Which of the following is probably NOT a multiple-casualty incident? Select one: A. A motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances B. An apartment fire with one patient and the possibility of others trapped in the building C. A rollover crash of a school bus with eight children who have injuries of varying severity D. A loss of power to a hospital or nursing home with ventilator-dependent patients
A. A motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances
Which of your senses can be safely used to identify a HazMat incident? Select one: A. Sight and sound B. Sound and smell C. Smell and sight D. Sight and touch
A. Sight and sound
In which of the following situations would the EMTs MOST likely utilize a police escort? Select one: A. The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area. B. The weather is treacherous and there are numerous roads washed out. C. The EMTs are transporting a critical pediatric patient through traffic. D. The call is dispatched as an unresponsive patient with CPR in progress.
A. The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area.
Which of the following statements regarding the rapid extrication technique is correct? Select one: A. The rapid extrication technique is indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his or her vehicle. B. It involves rapidly removing a patient from his or her vehicle after immobilizing him or her with a short backboard. C. The only indication for performing a rapid extrication is if the patient is not entrapped and is in cardiac arrest. D. Rapid extrication involves the use of heavy equipment to disentangle a patient from his or her crashed vehicle.
A. The rapid extrication technique is indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his or her vehicle.
According to the START triage system, which of the following patients should be triaged as an immediate priority (red tag)? Select one: A. Unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min B. Conscious, in severe pain, with radial pulses present C. Conscious with a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min D. Apneic, despite manually opening the airway
A. Unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min
When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: Select one: A. after receiving approval from the incident commander. B. after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables. C. only if the patient has experienced a major injury. D. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized.
A. after receiving approval from the incident commander.
You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: Select one: A. ask the patient if he can unlock the door. B. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door. C. request the rescue team to extricate him. D. break the window and unlock the door.
A. ask the patient if he can unlock the door.
While triaging patients at the scene of a building collapse, you encounter a young child who is conscious, alert, and breathing; has bilateral radial pulses; and has a severely angulated leg, which is not bleeding. According to the JumpSTART triage system, you should: Select one: A. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients B. apply high-flow oxygen, obtain baseline vital signs, and continue triaging. C. evacuate him to a designated area and assign him a minimal (green) category. D. quickly bind his legs together to stabilize the fracture, and continue triaging
A. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients
f a technical rescue team is required at the scene, but is not present when you arrive, you should: Select one: A. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route B. remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene. C. have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene. D. don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process.
A. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route
The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent, and often inefficient, decisions regarding an incident is called: Select one: A. freelancing. B. single command. C. logistical chaos. D. undermining
A. freelancing.
Placards and labels on a storage container are intended to: Select one: A. give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container. B. advise responders of the appropriate neutralizing measures. C. provide specific information about the chemical being carried. D. broadly classify chemicals as being explosive or nonexplosive.
A. give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container.
A 33-year-old restrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining only of neck pain and left leg pain. The vehicle is stable and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his vehicle, you should: Select one: A. immobilize him with a vest-style device. B. apply a full leg splint prior to extrication. C. use the rapid extrication technique. D. maintain slight traction to his neck area.
A. immobilize him with a vest-style device.
Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means: Select one: A. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors' blind spots. B. driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 mph. C. driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient's condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway. D. remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side.
A. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors' blind spots.
Upon arrival at a motor vehicle crash, the EMT should: Select one: A. leave only the essential warning lights activated. B. turn off the ambulance and set the emergency brake. C. park at least 300 feet away from the accident scene. D. turn off the emergency flashing lights and headlights
A. leave only the essential warning lights activated.
As a triage supervisor, you: Select one: A. must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged. B. must prepare patients for transport before they leave the triage area. C. should communicate with area hospitals regarding their capabilities. D. are responsible for providing initial treatment to all patients.
A. must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged.
When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should: Select one: A. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas. B. remember that the main rotor blade is flexible and can dip as low as 5¢ to 6¢ from the ground. C. approach the aircraft from the side because this will make it easier for you to access the aircraft doors. D. carefully approach the aircraft from the rear unless a crew member instructs you to do otherwise.
A. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas.
In order to evaluate hazards present at the scene and determine the number of patients, you should: Select one: A. perform a 360-degree walk around of the scene. B. interview bystanders present at the scene. C. use the information provided by dispatch. D. request the fire department at all scenes.
A. perform a 360-degree walk around of the scene.
Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: Select one: A. perform a primary assessment. B. allow extrication to commence. C. begin treating his or her injuries. D. administer high-flow oxygen.
A. perform a primary assessment.
When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should: Select one: A. protect the cervical spine during the entire process. B. release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal. C. move him or her in one fast, continuous step. D. remove him or her using a short backboard
A. protect the cervical spine during the entire process.
At a scene with downed electrical lines, the EMT should _________. Select one: A. remain outside the danger (hot) zone B. stabilize the patient in the danger (hot) zone C. relocate the danger (hot) zone away from the patient D. enter the danger (hot) zone for patient removal only
A. remain outside the danger (hot) zone
The use of lights and siren on an ambulance: Select one: A. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way. B. is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital. C. allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance. D. legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way.
A. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way.
While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: Select one: A. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing. B. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side. C. back up and take an alternate route to the scene. D. pass the bus only after all the children have exited.
A. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.
Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is: Select one: A. surveying the area for hazards. B. requesting additional resources. C. immediately beginning triage. D. gaining access to the patient(s)
A. surveying the area for hazards.
Returning the emergency unit to service is part of the _________. A. termination phase B. support phase C. transfer phase D. hazard-control phase
A. termination phase
The reasons for rescue failure can be recalled by the mnemonic FAILURE. According to this mnemonic, the "U" stands for: Select one: A. underestimating the logistics of the incident. B. undertrained to correctly utilize equipment. C. underutilizing personnel at the scene. D. unprepared to effectively manage the scene.
A. underestimating the logistics of the incident.
A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, would be triaged with a __________ tag during a mass-casualty incident. Select one: A. yellow B. black C. red D. green
A. yellow
