A Pharm Midterm Weeks 1 and 2

2. The patient is to receive oral guaifenesin (Mucinex) twice a day. Today, the nurse was busy and gave the medication 2 hours after the scheduled dose was due. What type of problem does this represent? a. "Right time" problem b. "Right dose" problem c. "Right route" problem d. "Right medication" problem

ANS: A "Right time" is correct because the medication was given more than 30 minutes after the scheduled dose was due. "Dose" is incorrect because the dose is not related to the time the medication administration is scheduled. "Route" is incorrect because the route is not affected. "Medication" is incorrect because the medication ordered will not change.

10. A patient is undergoing major surgery and asks the nurse about a living will. He states, "I don't want anybody else making decisions for me. And I don't want to prolong my life." The patient is demonstrating which ethical term? a. Autonomy b. Beneficence c. Justice d. Veracity

ANS: A Autonomy includes self-determination, or the ability to act on one's own, including making one's own decisions about health care. Veracity is defined as the duty to tell the truth. Justice is the ethical principle of being fair or equal in one's actions. Beneficence is the ethical principle of doing or actively promoting good.

2. The patient is asking the nurse about current U.S. laws and regulations of herbal products. According to the Dietary Supplement and Health Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994, which statement is true? a. Medicinal herbs are viewed as dietary supplements. b. Herbal remedies are held to the same standards as drugs. c. Producers of herbal products must prove therapeutic efficacy. d. Herbal remedies are protected by patent laws.

ANS: A Current U.S. laws view herbal products as dietary supplements and do not hold them to the same efficacy standards as drugs. The other options do not correctly reflect current U.S. laws regarding herbal supplements.

9. The patient is experiencing chest pain and needs to take a sublingual form of nitroglycerin. Where does the nurse instruct the patient to place the tablet? a. Under the tongue b. On top of the tongue c. At the back of the throat d. In the space between the cheek and the gum

ANS: A Drugs administered via the sublingual route are placed under the tongue. Drugs administered via the buccal route are placed in the space between the cheek and the gum; oral drugs are swallowed. The other options are incorrect.

3. The nurse is administering parenteral drugs. Which statement is true regarding parenteral drugs? a. Parenteral drugs bypass the first-pass effect. b. Absorption of parenteral drugs is affected by reduced blood flow to the stomach. c. Absorption of parenteral drugs is faster when the stomach is empty. d. Parenteral drugs exert their effects while circulating in the bloodstream.

ANS: A Drugs given by the parenteral route bypass the first-pass effect. Reduced blood flow to the stomach and the presence of food in the stomach apply to enteral drugs (taken orally), not to parenteral drugs. Parenteral drugs must be absorbed into cells and tissues from the circulation before they can exert their effects; they do not exert their effects while circulating in the bloodstream.

5. Which activity best reflects the implementation phase of the nursing process for the patient who is newly diagnosed with hypertension? a. Providing education on keeping a journal of blood pressure readings b. Setting goals and outcome criteria with the patient's input c. Recording a drug history regarding over-the-counter medications used at home d. Formulating nursing diagnoses regarding deficient knowledge related to the new treatment regimen

ANS: A Education is an intervention that occurs during the implementation phase. Setting goals and outcomes reflects the planning phase. Recording a drug history reflects the assessment phase. Formulating nursing diagnoses reflects analysis of data as part of planning.

11. The nurse is trying to give a liquid medication to a 2-year-old child and notes that the medication has a strong taste. Which technique is the best way for the nurse to give the medication to this child? a. Give the medication with spoonfuls of ice cream. b. Add the medication to the child's bottle. c. Tell the child you have candy for him. d. Add the medication to a cup of milk.

ANS: A Ice cream or another nonessential food disguises the taste of the medication. The other options are incorrect. If the child does not drink the entire contents of the bottle, medication is wasted and the full dose is not administered. Using the word candy with drugs may lead to the child thinking that drugs are actually candy. If the medication is mixed with a cup of milk, the child may not drink the entire cup of milk, and the distasteful drug may cause the child to refuse milk in the future.

2. A member of an investigational drug study team is working with healthy volunteers whose participation will help to determine the optimal dosage range and pharmacokinetics of the drug. The team member is participating in what type of study? a. Phase I b. Phase II c. Phase III d. Phase IV

ANS: A Phase I studies involve small numbers of healthy volunteers to determine optimal dosage range and the pharmacokinetics of the drug. The other phases progressively involve volunteers who have the disease or ailment that the drug is designed to diagnose or treat.

7. When reviewing the various schedules of controlled drugs, the nurse knows that which description correctly describes Schedule II drugs? a. Drugs with high potential for abuse that have accepted medical use b. Drugs with high potential for abuse that do not have accepted medical use c. Medically accepted drugs that may cause moderate physical or psychological dependence d. Medically accepted drugs with limited potential for causing physical or psychological dependence

ANS: A Schedule II drugs are those with high potential for abuse but that have accepted medical use. Drugs that have high potential for abuse but do not have accepted medical use are Schedule I drugs. Medically accepted drugs that may cause moderate physical or psychological dependence are Schedule III drugs. Medically accepted drugs with limited potential for causing physical or psychological dependence are Schedule IV and V drugs.

6. A patient with a new prescription for a diuretic has just reviewed with the nurse how to include more potassium in her diet. This reflects learning in which domain? a. Cognitive b. Affective c. Physical d. Psychomotor

ANS: A The cognitive domain refers to problem-solving abilities and may involve recall and knowledge of facts. The affective domain refers to values and beliefs. The term physical does not refer to one of the learning domains. The psychomotor domain involves behaviors such as learning how to perform a procedure.

11. A patient who has advanced cancer is receiving opioid medications around the clock to keep him comfortable as he nears the end of his life. Which term best describes this type of therapy? a. Palliative therapy b. Maintenance therapy c. Empiric therapy d. Supplemental therapy

ANS: A The goal of palliative therapy is to make the patient as comfortable as possible. It is typically used in the end stages of illnesses when all attempts at curative therapy have failed. Maintenance therapy is used for the treatment of chronic illnesses such as hypertension. Empiric therapy is based on clinical probabilities and involves drug administration when a certain pathologic condition has an uncertain but high likelihood of occurrence based on the patient's initial presenting symptoms. Supplemental (or replacement therapy) supplies the body with a substance needed to maintain normal function.

6. For accurate medication administration to pediatric patients, the nurse must take into account which criteria? a. Organ maturity b. Renal output c. Body temperature d. Height

ANS: A To administer medications to pediatric patients accurately, one must take into account the body surface area (including weight and height), age, and organ maturity. The other options are incorrect; renal output and body temperature are not considerations, and height alone is not sufficient.

1. During the development of a new drug, which would be included in the study by the researcher to prevent any bias or unrealistic expectations of the new drug's usefulness? a. A placebo b. FDA approval c. Informed consent d. Safety information

ANS: A To prevent bias that may occur as a result of unrealistic expectations of an investigational new drug, a placebo is incorporated into the study. The other options are incorrect. FDA approval, if given, does not occur until after phase III. Informed consent is required in all drug studies. Safety information is not determined until the study is under way.

1. The patient is receiving two different drugs. At current dosages and dosage forms, both drugs are absorbed into the circulation in identical amounts. Thus, because they have the same absorption rates, they are a. bioequivalent. b. synergistic. c. prodrugs. d. in a steady state.

ANS: A Two drugs absorbed into the circulation in the same amount (in specific dosage forms) have the same bioavailability; thus, they are bioequivalent. A drug's steady state is the physiologic state in which the amount of drug removed via elimination is equal to the amount of drug absorbed from each dose. The term synergistic refers to two drugs, given together, with a resulting effect that is greater than the sum of the effects of each drug given alone. A prodrug is an inactive drug dosage form that is converted to an active metabolite by various biochemical reactions once it is inside the body.

1. When giving medications, the nurse will follow the rights of medication administration, which include what rights? (Select all that apply.) a. Right drug b. Right route c. Right dose d. Right diagnosis e. Right time f. Right patient g. Right documentation

ANS: A, B, C, E, F, G The Six Rights of medication administration must always include the right drug, right dose, right time, right route, right patient, and right documentation. The right diagnosis is incorrect.

1. Which statements are true regarding pediatric patients and pharmacokinetics? (Select all that apply.) a. The levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased. b. Perfusion to the kidneys may be decreased and may result in reduced renal function. c. First-pass elimination is increased because of higher portal circulation. d. First-pass elimination is reduced because of the immaturity of the liver. e. Total body water content is much less than in adults. f. Gastric emptying is slowed because of slow or irregular peristalsis. g. Gastric emptying is more rapid because of increased peristaltic activity.

ANS: A, B, D, F In children, first-pass elimination by the liver is reduced because of the immaturity of the liver, and microsomal enzymes are decreased. In addition, gastric emptying is reduced because of slow or irregular peristalsis. Perfusion to the kidneys may be decreased, resulting in reduced renal function. The other options are incorrect. In addition, remember that total body water content is greater in children than in adults.

2. Which statements are true regarding the elderly and pharmacokinetics? (Select all that apply.) a. The levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased. b. Fat content is increased because of decreased lean body mass. c. Fat content is decreased because of increased lean body mass. d. The number of intact nephrons is increased. e. The number of intact nephrons is decreased. f. Gastric pH is less acidic. g. Gastric pH is more acidic.

ANS: A, B, E, F In the elderly, levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased because the aging liver is less able to produce them; fat content is increased because of decreased lean body mass; the number of intact nephrons is decreased as the result of aging; and gastric pH is less acidic because of a gradual reduction of the production of hydrochloric acid. The other options are incorrect statements.

2. The nurse is reviewing the criteria for over-the-counter drugs. Which criteria for over-the-counter status in the United States are accurate? (Select all that apply.) a. The drug must be easy to use. b. The drug must have a low therapeutic index. c. The consumer must be able to monitor the drug's effectiveness. d. The drug must have a low potential for abuse. e. The drug must not have any interactions with other drugs.

ANS: A, C, D In the United States, criteria for over-the-counter status include the drug being easy to use, the drug having a low potential for abuse, and the consumer must be able to monitor the drug's effectiveness for the condition. The drug must have a high therapeutic index (not a low one), and the drug must have limited interactions with other drugs.

1. Which are appropriate considerations when the nurse is assessing the learning needs of a patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Cultural background b. Family history c. Level of education d. Readiness to learn e. Health beliefs

ANS: A, C, D, E Family history is not a part of what the nurse considers when assessing learning needs. The other options are appropriate to consider when the nurse is assessing learning needs.

2. The nurse is performing an admission assessment. Which findings reflect components of a cultural assessment? (Select all that apply.) a. The patient uses aspirin as needed for pain. b. The patient has a history of hypertension. c. The patient uses herbal tea to relax in the evenings. d. The patient does not speak English. e. The patient is allergic to shellfish. f. The patient does not eat pork products for religious reasons.

ANS: A, C, D, F The past use of medicines, use of herbal treatments, languages spoken, and religious practices and beliefs are components of a cultural assessment. The other options reflect components of a general medication assessment or health history.

1. The nurse is conducting a class for senior citizens about the use of over-the-counter (OTC) drugs. Which statements are true regarding the use of OTC drugs? (Select all that apply.) a. Use of OTC drugs may delay treatment of serious ailments. b. Drug interactions with OTC medications are rare. c. OTC drugs may relieve symptoms without addressing the cause of the problem. d. OTC drugs are indicated for long-term treatment of conditions. e. Patients may misunderstand product labels and use the drugs improperly.

ANS: A, C, E It is true that use of OTC drugs may delay treatment of serious ailments; OTC drugs may relieve symptoms without addressing the cause of the problem, and patients may misunderstand product labels and use the drugs improperly. These statements should be included when teaching patients about their use. In contrast, drug interactions with OTC medications are not rare and may indeed occur with prescription medications and other OTC drugs. Normally, OTC drugs are intended for short-term treatment of minor ailments.

1. The nurse is reviewing medication errors. Which situation is an example of a medication error? a. A patient refuses her morning medications. b. A patient receives a double dose of a medication because the nurse did not cut the pill in half. c. A patient develops hives after having started an IV antibiotic 24 hours earlier. d. A patient complains of severe pain still present 60 minutes after a pain medication was given.

ANS: B A medication error is defined as a preventable adverse drug event that involves inappropriate medication use by a patient or health care provider. The other options are not preventable. The patient's refusing to take medications and complaining of pain after a medication is given are patient behaviors, and the development of hives is a possible allergic reaction.

3. During a nursing assessment, which question by the nurse allows for greater clarification and additional discussion with the patient? a. "Are you allergic to penicillin?" b. "What medications do you take?" c. "Have you had a reaction to this drug?" d. "Are you taking this medication with meals?"

ANS: B Asking "What medications do you take?" is an open-ended question that will encourage greater clarification and additional discussion with the patient. The other options are examples of closed-ended questions, which prompt only a "yes" or "no" answer and provide limited information.

9. An 83-year-old woman has been given a thiazide diuretic to treat mild heart failure. She and her daughter should be told to watch for which problems? a. Constipation and anorexia b. Fatigue, leg cramps, and dehydration c. Daytime sedation and lethargy d. Edema, nausea, and blurred vision

ANS: B Electrolyte imbalance, leg cramps, fatigue, and dehydration are common complications when thiazide diuretics are given to elderly patients. The other options do not describe complications that occur when these drugs are given to the elderly.

4. The prescriber has written admission orders, and the nurse is transcribing them. The nurse is having difficulty transcribing one order because of the prescriber's handwriting. Which is the best action for the nurse to take at this time? a. Ask a colleague what the order says. b. Contact the prescriber to clarify the order. c. Wait until the prescriber makes rounds again to clarify the order. d. Ask the patient what medications he takes at home.

ANS: B If a prescriber writes an order that is illegible, the nurse should contact the prescriber for clarification. Asking a colleague is not useful because the colleague did not write the order. Waiting for the prescriber to return is incorrect because it would delay implementation of the order. Asking the patient about medications is incorrect because this question will not clarify the current order written by the prescriber.

14. The nurse will be injecting a drug into the fatty tissue of the patient's abdomen. Which route does this describe? a. Intradermal b. Subcutaneous c. Intramuscular d. Transdermal

ANS: B Injections into the fatty subcutaneous tissue under the dermal layer of skin are referred to as subcutaneous injections. Injections under the more superficial skin layers immediately underneath the epidermal layer of skin and into the dermal layer are known as intradermal injections. Injections into the muscle beneath the subcutaneous fatty tissue are referred to as intramuscular injections. Transdermal drugs are applied to the skin via an adhesive patch.

12. During a busy night shift, a new nurse administered an unfamiliar medication without checking it in a drug handbook. Later that day, the patient had a severe reaction because he has renal problems, which was a contraindication to that drug. The nurse may be liable for a. medical negligence. b. nursing negligence. c. nonmaleficence. d. autonomy.

ANS: B Negligence is the failure to act in a reasonable and prudent manner or failure of the nurse to give the care that a reasonably prudent (cautious) nurse would render or use under similar circumstances. In this case, nursing negligence applies to nurses, not medical negligence. Nonmaleficence is defined as the duty to do no harm; autonomy is defined as the right to make one's own decisions, or self-determination.

8. The nurse is reviewing facts about pharmacology for a review course. The term legend drug refers to which item? a. Over-the-counter drugs b. Prescription drugs c. Orphan drugs d. Older drugs

ANS: B The term legend drug refers to prescription drugs, which were differentiated from over-the-counter drugs by the 1951 Durham-Humphrey Amendment. Orphan drugs are drugs that are developed for rare diseases. The other options are not examples of legend drugs.

5. During an assessment, the patient tells the nurse that he eats large amounts of garlic for its cardiovascular benefits. Which drug or drug class, if taken, would have a potential interaction with the garlic? a. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) b. Insulin c. Antilipemic drugs d. Sedatives

ANS: B The use of garlic may interfere with hypoglycemic drugs. The other options are incorrect because acetaminophen, antilipemic drugs, and sedatives do not have interactions with garlic.

7. A patient wants to take the herb gingko to help his memory. The nurse reviews his current medication list and would be concerned about potential interactions if he is taking a medication from which class of drugs? a. Digitalis b. Anticoagulants c. Sedatives d. Immunosuppressants

ANS: B The use of gingko increases the risk of bleeding with anticoagulants (warfarin, heparin) and antiplatelets (aspirin, clopidogrel). The other concerns do not occur with gingko supplements.

9. Nurses have the ethical responsibility to tell the truth to their patients. What is this principle known as? a. Justice b. Veracity c. Beneficence d. Autonomy

ANS: B Veracity is defined as the duty to tell the truth. Justice is the ethical principle of being fair or equal in one's actions. Beneficence is the ethical principle of doing or actively promoting good. Autonomy is self-determination, or the ability to make one's own decisions.

1. The nurse can prevent medication errors by following which principles? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess for allergies after giving medications. b. Use two patient identifiers before giving medications. c. Do not give a medication that another nurse has drawn up in a syringe. d. Minimize the use of verbal and telephone orders. e. Use trade names instead of generic names to avoid confusion.

ANS: B, C, D Measures that prevent medication errors include using two patient identifiers, giving only medications that you have drawn up or prepared, and minimizing the use of verbal and telephone orders. Assessment for allergies should be done before medications are given. Generic names should be used to avoid the many sound-alike trade names of medications.

1. The nurse is reviewing the concept of drug polymorphism. Which factors contribute to drug polymorphism? (Select all that apply.) a. The number of drugs ordered by the physician b. Inherited factors c. The patient's diet and nutritional status d. Different dosage forms of the same drug e. The patient's health beliefs and practices f. The patient's drug history g. The various available forms of a drug

ANS: B, C, E Inherited factors, diet and nutritional status, and health beliefs and practices are some of the factors that contribute to drug polymorphism. The other options are not factors that contribute to drug polymorphism.

6. The medication order reads, "Give ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg, 30 minutes before beginning chemotherapy to prevent nausea." The nurse notes that the route is missing from the order. What is the nurse's best action? a. Give the medication intravenously because the patient might vomit. b. Give the medication orally because the tablets are available in 4-mg doses. c. Contact the prescriber to clarify the route of the medication ordered. d. Hold the medication until the prescriber returns to make rounds.

ANS: C A complete medication order includes the route of administration. If a medication order does not include the route, the nurse must ask the prescriber to clarify it. The intravenous and oral routes are not interchangeable. Holding the medication until the prescriber returns would mean that the patient would not receive a needed medication.

5. When reviewing pharmacology terms for a group of newly graduated nurses, the nurse explains that a drug's half-life is the time it takes for a. the drug to cause half of its therapeutic response. b. one half of the original amount of a drug to reach the target cells. c. one half of the original amount of a drug to be removed from the body. d. one half of the original amount of a drug to be absorbed into the circulation.

ANS: C A drug's half-life is the time it takes for one half of the original amount of a drug to be removed from the body. It is a measure of the rate at which drugs are removed from the body. The other options are incorrect definitions of half-life.

8. The nurse is administering drugs to neonates and will consider which factor that may contribute the most to drug toxicity? a. The lungs are immature. b. The kidneys are small. c. The liver is not fully developed. d. Excretion of the drug occurs quickly.

ANS: C A neonate's liver is not fully developed and cannot detoxify many drugs. The other options are incorrect. The lungs and kidneys do not play major roles in drug metabolism. Renal excretion is slow, not fast, because of organ immaturity, but this is not the factor that contributes the most to drug toxicity.

12. The nurse administered a sleeping pill to an elderly patient at bedtime. Two hours later, the patient was irritable, restless, and unable to sleep. The nurse describes the patient's response as which type of reaction? a. Allergic reaction b. Mutagenic effect c. Idiosyncratic reaction d. Teratogenic reaction

ANS: C An idiosyncratic reaction is not the result of a known pharmacologic property of a drug or of a patient allergy but instead occurs unexpectedly in a particular patient. Such a reaction is a genetically determined abnormal response to normal dosages of a drug. An allergic reaction (also known as a hypersensitivity reaction) involves the patient's immune system. Mutagenic effects are permanent changes in the genetic composition of living organisms and consist of alterations in chromosome structure, the number of chromosomes, or the genetic code of the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) molecule. Teratogenic effects of drugs or other chemicals result in structural defects in the fetus.

2. When given an intravenous medication, the patient says to the nurse, "I usually take pills. Why does this medication have to be given in the arm?" What is the nurse's best answer? a. "The medication will cause fewer adverse effects when given intravenously." b. "The intravenous medication will have delayed absorption into the body's tissues." c. "The action of the medication will begin sooner when given intravenously." d. "There is a lower chance of allergic reactions when drugs are given intravenously."

ANS: C An intravenous (IV) injection provides the fastest route of absorption. The IV route does not affect the number of adverse effects, nor does it cause delayed tissue absorption (it results in faster absorption). The IV route does not affect the number of allergic reactions.

2. The nurse is transcribing a verbal medication order. Which is the proper notation of the dose of the drug ordered? a. Digoxin .125 mg b. Digoxin .1250 mg c. Digoxin 0.125 mg d. Digoxin 0.1250 mg

ANS: C Digoxin 0.125 mg illustrates the correct notation with a leading zero before the decimal point. Omitting the leading zero may cause the order to be misread, resulting in a large drug overdose. Digoxin .125 mg and digoxin .1250 do not have the leading zero before the decimal point. Digoxin 0.1250 has a trailing zero, which also is incorrect.

1. Drug transfer to the fetus is more likely during the last trimester of pregnancy for which reason? a. Decreased fetal surface area b. Increased placental surface area c. Enhanced blood flow to the fetus d. Increased amount of protein-bound drug in maternal circulation

ANS: C Drug transfer to the fetus is more likely during the last trimester as a result of enhanced blood flow to the fetus. The other options are incorrect. Increased fetal surface area, not decreased, is a factor that affects drug transfer to the fetus. The placenta's surface area does not increase during this time. Drug transfer is increased because of an increased amount of free drug, not protein-bound drug, in the mother's circulation.

12. The nurse is preparing to give an injection to a 4-year-old child. Which intervention is age-appropriate for this child? a. Give the injection without any advanced preparation. b. Give the injection, and then explain the reason for the procedure afterwards. c. Offer a brief, concrete explanation of the procedure at the patient's level and with the parent or caregiver present. d. Prepare the child in advance with details about the procedure without the parent or caregiver present.

ANS: C For a 4-year-old child, offering a brief, concrete explanation about a procedure just beforehand, with the parent or caregiver present, is appropriate. The other options are incorrect for any age group.

5. When taking a telephone order for a medication, which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Verify the order with the charge nurse. b. Call back the prescriber to review the order. c. Repeat the order to the prescriber before hanging up the telephone. d. Ask the pharmacist to double-check the order.

ANS: C For telephone or verbal orders, repeat the order back to the prescriber before hanging up the telephone. The other options are incorrect.

3. During discharge patient teaching, the nurse reviews prescriptions with a patient. Which statement is correct about refills for an analgesic that is classified as Schedule C-III? a. No prescription refills are permitted. b. Refills are allowed only by written prescription. c. The patient may have no more than 5 refills in a 6-month period. d. Written prescriptions expire in 12 months.

ANS: C Schedule C-III medications may be refilled no more than five times in a 6-month period. The patient should be informed of this regulation. No prescription refills are permitted for Schedule C-II drugs. Requiring refills by written prescription only applies to Schedule C-II drugs. Schedule C-III prescriptions (written or oral) expire in 6 months.

5. The nurse is aware that confusion, forgetfulness, and increased risk for falls are common responses in an elderly patient who is taking which type of drug? a. Laxatives b. Anticoagulants c. Sedatives d. Antidepressants

ANS: C Sedatives and hypnotics often cause confusion, daytime sedation, ataxia, lethargy, forgetfulness, and increased risk for falls in the elderly. Laxatives, anticoagulants, and antidepressants may cause adverse effects in the elderly, but not the ones specified in the question.

5. For which cultural group must the health care provider respect the value placed on preserving harmony with nature and the belief that disease is a result of ill spirits? a. Hispanics b. Asian Americans c. Native Americans d. African Americans

ANS: C Some Native Americans believe in preserving harmony with nature and that disease is a result of ill spirits. The groups listed in the other options do not typically reflect these practices.

8. The nurse is performing an assessment of a newly admitted patient. Which is an example of subjective data? a. Blood pressure 158/96 mm Hg b. Weight 255 pounds c. The patient reports that he uses the herbal product ginkgo. d. The patient's laboratory work includes a complete blood count and urinalysis.

ANS: C Subjective data include information shared through the spoken word by any reliable source, such as the patient. Objective data may be defined as any information gathered through the senses or that which is seen, heard, felt, or smelled. A patient's blood pressure, weight, and laboratory tests are all examples of objective data.

10. The nurse is administering medications to the patient who is in liver failure resulting from end-stage cirrhosis. The nurse is aware that patients with liver failure would most likely have problems with which pharmacokinetic phase? a. Absorption b. Distribution c. Metabolism d. Excretion

ANS: C The liver is the organ that is most responsible for drug metabolism. Decreased liver function most strongly affects the metabolism of a drug. Liver function does not affect the absorption and distribution of a drug. Excretion is affected only because decreased liver function may not transform drugs into water-soluble substances for elimination via the kidneys, but that is not the best answer for this question.

7. When the nurse considers the timing of a drug dose, which factor is appropriate to consider when deciding when to give a drug? a. The patient's ability to swallow b. The patient's height c. The patient's last meal d. The patient's allergies

ANS: C The nurse must consider specific pharmacokinetic/pharmacodynamic drug properties that may be affected by the timing of the last meal. The patient's ability to swallow, height, and allergies are not factors to consider regarding the timing of the drug's administration.

7. During an admission assessment, the nurse discovers that the patient does not speak English. Which is considered the ideal resource for translation? a. A family member of the patient b. A close family friend of the patient c. A translator who does not know the patient d. Prewritten note cards with both English and the patient's language

ANS: C The nurse should communicate with the patient in the patient's native language if at all possible. If the nurse is not able to speak the patient's native language, a translator should be made available so as to prevent communication problems, minimize errors, and help boost the patient's level of trust and understanding of the nurse. In practice, this translator may be another nurse or health care professional, a nonprofessional member of the health care team, or a layperson, family member, adult friend, or religious leader or associate. However, it is best to avoid family members as translators, if possible, because of issues with bias, misinterpretation, and potential confidentiality issues.

6. A patient calls the clinic to ask about taking cranberry dietary supplement capsules because a friend recommended them. The nurse will discuss which possible concern when a patient is taking cranberry supplements? a. It may increase the risk for bleeding if the patient is taking anticoagulants. b. It may increase the risk of toxicity of some psychotherapeutic drugs. c. It may reduce elimination of drugs that are excreted by the kidneys. d. Cranberry may increase the intensity and duration of effects of caffeine.

ANS: C The use of cranberry decreases the elimination of many drugs that are renally excreted. The other concerns do not occur with cranberry supplements.

2. The nurse is developing a care plan for a patient who will be self-administering insulin injections. Which statement reflects a measurable goal? a. The patient will know about self-administration of insulin injections. b. The patient will understand the principles of self-administration of insulin injections. c. The patient will demonstrate the proper technique of self-administering insulin injections. d. The patient will comprehend the proper technique of self-administering insulin injections.

ANS: C The word demonstrate is a measurable verb, and measurable terms should be used when developing goals and outcome criteria statements. The other options are incorrect because the terms know, understand, andcomprehend are not measurable terms.

3. The patient wants to take the herb valerian to help him rest at night. The nurse would be concerned about potential interactions if he is taking a medication from which class of drugs? a. Digitalis b. Anticoagulants c. Sedatives d. Immunosuppressants

ANS: C Valerian may cause increased central nervous system depression if used with sedatives. Digitalis, anticoagulants, and immunosuppressants do not have interactions with valerian.

1. Which drugs would be affected by the first-pass effect? (Select all that apply.) a. Morphine given by IV push injection b. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets c. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) elixir d. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) tablets e. Transdermal nicotine patches f. Esomeprazole (Nexium) capsules g. Penicillin given by IV piggyback infusion

ANS: C, D, F Orally administered drugs (elixirs, tablets, capsules) undergo the first-pass effect because they are metabolized in the liver after being absorbed into the portal circulation from the small intestine. IV medications (IV push and IV piggyback) enter the bloodstream directly and do not go directly to the liver. Sublingual tablets and transdermal patches also enter the bloodstream without going directly to the liver, thus avoiding the first-pass effect.

4. The nurse is assigned to a patient who is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement best illustrates an outcome criterion for this patient? a. The patient will follow instructions. b. The patient will not experience complications. c. The patient will adhere to the new insulin treatment regimen. d. The patient will demonstrate correct blood glucose testing technique.

ANS: D "Demonstrating correct blood glucose testing technique" is a specific and measurable outcome criterion. "Following instructions" and "not experiencing complications" are not specific criteria. "Adhering to new regimen" would be difficult to measure.

Chapter 61. Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the patient who has just received a prescription for a new medication? a. Noncompliance related to new drug therapy b. Impaired memory related to new drug therapy c. Lack of knowledge regarding newly prescribed drug therapy d. Deficient knowledge related to newly prescribed drug therapy

ANS: D A patient who has a limited understanding of newly prescribed drug therapy may have the nursing diagnosis of deficient knowledge. Noncompliance is incorrect because that term implies that the patient does not follow a recommended regimen, which is not the case with a newly prescribed drug. Impaired memory is not appropriate in this situation. "Lack of knowledge" is not a nursing diagnosis.

4. When monitoring the patient receiving an intravenous infusion to reduce blood pressure, the nurse notes that the patient's blood pressure is extremely low, and the patient is lethargic and difficult to awaken. This would be classified as which type of adverse drug reaction? a. An adverse effect b. An allergic reaction c. An idiosyncratic reaction d. A pharmacologic reaction

ANS: D A pharmacologic reaction is an extension of a drug's normal effects in the body. In this case, the antihypertensive drug lowered the patient's blood pressure levels too much. The other options do not describe a pharmacologic reaction. An adverse effect is a predictable, well-known adverse drug reaction that results in minor or no changes in patient management. An allergic reaction (also known as a hypersensitivity reaction) involves the patient's immune system. An idiosyncratic reaction is unexpected and is defined as a genetically determined abnormal response to normal dosages of a drug.

8. The nurse is teaching a 16-year-old patient who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes about blood glucose monitoring and the importance of regulating glucose intake. When developing a teaching plan for this teenager, which of Erikson's stages of development should the nurse consider? a. Trust versus mistrust b. Intimacy versus isolation c. Industry versus inferiority d. Identity versus role confusion

ANS: D According to Erikson, the adolescent (12 to 18 years of age) is in the identity versus role confusion stage of development. Trust versus mistrust reflects the infancy stage; intimacy versus isolation reflects the young adulthood stage; and industry versus inferiority reflects the school-age stage of development.

6. The nurse is assessing an elderly Hispanic woman who is being treated for hypertension. During the assessment, what is important for the nurse to remember about cultural aspects? a. The patient should be discouraged from using folk remedies and rituals. b. The nurse will expect the patient to value protective bracelets and "root workers" as healers. c. The nurse will remember that the balance among body, mind, and environment is important for this patient's health beliefs. d. The nurse's assessment needs to include gathering information regarding religious practices and beliefs regarding medication, treatment, and healing.

ANS: D All beliefs need to be considered clearly so as to prevent a conflict from arising between the goals of nursing and health care and the dictates of a patient's cultural background. Assessing religious practices and beliefs is part of a thorough cultural assessment. The other options are incorrect. The nurse should not ignore a patient's cultural practices. The concept of balance among body, mind, and environment and the valuing of protective bracelets and root workers reflect beliefs or practices that usually do not apply to the Hispanic cultural group.

10. An elderly patient with a new diagnosis of hypertension will be receiving a new prescription for an antihypertensive drug. The nurse expects which type of dosing to occur with this drug therapy? a. Drug therapy will be based on the patient's weight. b. Drug therapy will be based on the patient's age. c. The patient will receive the maximum dose that is expected to reduce the blood pressure. d. The patient will receive the lowest possible dose at first, and then the dose will be increased as needed.

ANS: D As a general rule, dosing for elderly patients should follow the admonition, "Start low, and go slow," which means to start with the lowest possible dose (often less than an average adult dose) and increase the dose slowly, if needed, based on patient response. The other responses are incorrect.

9. A 60-year-old patient is on several new medications and expresses worry that she will forget to take her pills. Which action by the nurse would be most helpful in this situation? a. Teaching effective coping strategies b. Asking the patient's prescriber to reduce the number of drugs prescribed c. Assuring the patient that she will not forget once she is accustomed to the routine d. Assisting the patient with obtaining and learning to use a calendar or pill container

ANS: D Calendars, pill containers, or diaries may be helpful to patients who may forget to take prescribed drugs as scheduled. The nurse must ensure that the patient knows how to use these reminder tools. Teaching coping strategies is a helpful suggestion but will not help with remembering to take medications. Asking the prescriber to reduce the number of drugs that are prescribed is not an appropriate action by the nurse. Assuring the patient that she will not forget is false reassurance by the nurse and inappropriate when education is needed.

4. The nurse is setting up a teaching session with an 85-year-old patient who will be going home on anticoagulant therapy. Which educational strategy would reflect consideration of the age-related changes that may exist with this patient? a. Show a video about anticoagulation therapy. b. Present all the information in one session just before discharge. c. Give the patient pamphlets about the medications to read at home. d. Develop large-print handouts that reflect the verbal information presented.

ANS: D Developing large-print handouts addresses altered perception in two ways. First, by using visual aids to reinforce verbal instructions, one addresses the possibility of decreased ability to hear high-frequency sounds. By developing the handouts in large print, one addresses the possibility of decreased visual acuity. Showing a video does not allow discussion of the information; furthermore, the text and print may be small and difficult to read and understand. Presenting all the information in one session before discharge also does not allow for discussion, and the patient may not be able to hear or see the information sufficiently. Because of the possibility of decreased short-term memory and slowed cognitive function, giving pamphlets to read may not be appropriate.

8. When administering a new medication to a patient, the nurse reads that it is highly protein bound. Assuming that the patient's albumin levels are normal, the nurse would expect which result, as compared to a medication that is not highly protein bound? a. Renal excretion will be faster. b. The drug will be metabolized quickly. c. The duration of action of the medication will be shorter. d. The duration of action of the medication will be longer.

ANS: D Drugs that are bound to plasma proteins are characterized by longer duration of action. Protein binding does not make renal excretion faster, does not speed up drug metabolism, and does not cause the duration of action to be shorter.

6. When administering drugs, the nurse remembers that the duration of action of a drug is defined as the time a. it takes for a drug to elicit a therapeutic response. b. needed to remove a drug from circulation. c. it takes for a drug to achieve its maximum therapeutic response. d. period when a drug's concentration is sufficient to cause a therapeutic response.

ANS: D Duration of action is the time during which drug concentration is sufficient to elicit a therapeutic response. The other options do not define duration of action. A drug's onset of action is the time it takes for the drug to elicit a therapeutic response. A drug's peak effect is the time it takes for the drug to reach its maximum therapeutic response. Elimination is the length of time it takes to remove a drug from circulation.

1. The nurse is writing a nursing diagnosis for a plan of care for a patient who has been newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Which statement reflects the correct format for a nursing diagnosis? a. Anxiety b. Anxiety related to new drug therapy c. Anxiety related to anxious feelings about drug therapy, as evidenced by statements such as "I'm upset about having to test my blood sugars." d. Anxiety related to new drug therapy, as evidenced by statements such as "I'm upset about having to test my blood sugars."

ANS: D Formulation of nursing diagnoses is usually a three-step process. "Anxiety" is missing the "related to" and "as evidenced by" portions of defining characteristics. "Anxiety related to new drug therapy" is missing the "as evidenced by" portion of defining characteristics. The statement beginning "Anxiety related to anxious feelings" is incorrect because the "related to" section is simply a restatement of the problem "anxiety," not a separate factor related to the response.

4. A patient has been selected as a potential recipient of an experimental drug for heart failure. The nurse knows that when informed consent has been obtained, it indicates that the patient a. has been informed of the possible benefits of the new therapy. b. will be informed of the details of the study as the research continues. c. will receive the actual drug during the experiment. d. has had the study's purpose, procedures, and the risks involved explained to him.

ANS: D Informed consent involves the careful explanation of the purpose of the study, the procedures to be used, and the risks involved. The other options do not describe informed consent.

3. The nurse has been monitoring the patient's progress on a new drug regimen since the first dose and documenting the patient's therapeutic response to the medication. Which phase of the nursing process do these actions illustrate? a. Nursing diagnosis b. Planning c. Implementation d. Evaluation

ANS: D Monitoring the patient's progress, including the patient's response to the medication, is part of the evaluation phase. Planning, implementation, and nursing diagnosis are not illustrated by this example.

13. The patient is complaining of a headache and asks the nurse which over-the-counter medication form would work the fastest to help reduce the pain. Which medication form will the nurse suggest? a. A capsule b. A tablet c. An enteric-coated tablet d. A powder

ANS: D Of the types of oral medications listed, the powder form would be absorbed the fastest, thus having a faster onset. The tablet, the capsule, and, finally, the enteric-coated tablet would be absorbed next, in that order.

4. The nurse is assessing a newly admitted 83-year-old patient and determines that the patient is experiencing polypharmacy. Which statement most accurately illustrates polypharmacy? a. The patient is experiencing multiple illnesses. b. The patient uses one medication for an illness several times per day. c. The patient uses over-the-counter drugs for an illness. d. The patient uses multiple medications simultaneously.

ANS: D Polypharmacy usually occurs when a patient has several illnesses and takes medications for each of them, possibly prescribed by different specialists who may be unaware of other treatments the patient is undergoing. The other options are incorrect. Polypharmacy addresses the medications taken, not just the illnesses. Polypharmacy means the patient is taking several different medications, not just one. Polypharmacy can include prescription drugs, over-the-counter medications, and herbal products.

2. The nurse is monitoring a patient who is in the 26th week of pregnancy and has developed gestational diabetes and pneumonia. She is given medications that pose a possible fetal risk, but the potential benefits may warrant the use of the medications in her situation. The nurse recognizes that these medications are in which U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) pregnancy safety category? a. Category X b. Category B c. Category C d. Category D

ANS: D Pregnancy category D fits the description given. Category B indicates no risk to animal fetus; information for humans is not available. Category C indicates adverse effects reported in animal fetus; information for humans is not available. Category X consists of drugs that should not be used in pregnant women because of reports of fetal abnormalities and positive evidence of fetal risk in humans.

7. The nurse recognizes that it is not uncommon for an elderly patient to experience a reduction in the stomach's ability to produce hydrochloric acid. This change may result in which effect? a. Delayed gastric emptying b. Increased gastric acidity c. Decreased intestinal absorption of medications d. Altered absorption of weakly acidic drugs

ANS: D Reduction in the stomach's ability to produce hydrochloric acid is an aging-related change that results in a decrease in gastric acidity and may alter the absorption of weakly acidic drugs. The other options are not results of reduced hydrochloric acid production.

5. When the nurse teaches a skill such as self-injection of insulin to the patient, what is the best way to set up the teaching/learning session? a. Provide written pamphlets for instruction. b. Show a video, and allow the patient to practice as needed on his own. c. Verbally explain the procedure, and provide written handouts for reinforcement. d. After demonstrating the procedure, allow the patient to do several return demonstrations.

ANS: D Return demonstration allows the nurse to evaluate the patient's newly learned skills. The techniques in the other options are incorrect because those suggestions do not allow for evaluation of the patient's technique.

11. The nurse is reviewing a list of scheduled drugs and notes that Schedule C-I drugs are not on the list. Which is a characteristic of Schedule C-I drugs? a. No refills are permitted b. May be obtained over the counter with a signature c. Are available only by written prescription d. Are used only with approved protocols

ANS: D Schedule C-I drugs are used only with approved protocols. Schedule C-II drugs are available only by written prescription, and refills are not permitted. Being available over the counter with a signature may be true of Schedule C-V drugs in certain states.

1. A 25-year-old woman is visiting the prenatal clinic and shares with the nurse her desire to go "natural" with her pregnancy. She shows the nurse a list of herbal remedies that she wants to buy so that she can "avoid taking any drugs." Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "Most herbal remedies are not harmful and are safe for use during pregnancy." b. "Please read each label carefully before use to check for cautionary warnings." c. "Keep in mind that products from different manufacturers are required to contain consistent amounts of the herbal products." d. "It's important to remember that herbal remedies do not have proven safety ratings for pregnant women."

ANS: D The fact that a drug is an herbal or a dietary supplement does not mean that it can be safely administered to children, infants, or pregnant or lactating women. Many herbal products have not been tested for safety during pregnancy. Simply reading the labels may not provide enough information for use during pregnancy. Last, manufacturers of herbal products are not required to guarantee the reliability of the contents.

3. When discussing dosage calculation for pediatric patients with a clinical pharmacist, the nurse notes that which type of dosage calculation is used most commonly in pediatric calculations? a. West nomogram b. Clark rule c. Height-to-weight ratio d. Mg/kg formula

ANS: D The mg/kg formula, based on body weight, is the most common method of calculating doses for pediatric patients. The other options are available methods but are not the most commonly used. Height-to-weight ratio is not used.

4. The patient has been taking an over-the-counter (OTC) acid-reducing drug because he has had "stomach problems" for several months. He tells the nurse that the medicine helps as long as he takes it, but once he stops it, the symptoms return. Which statement by the nurse is the best advice for this patient? a. "The over-the-counter drug has helped you, so you should continue to take it." b. "The over-the-counter dosage may not be strong enough. You should be taking prescription-strength for best effects." c. "For best results, you need to watch what you eat in addition to taking this drug." d. "Using this drug may relieve your symptoms, but it does not address the cause. You should be seen by your health care provider."

ANS: D The use of OTC drugs may postpone effective management of chronic disease states and may delay treatment of serious or life-threatening disorders because these drugs may relieve symptoms without necessarily addressing the cause of the disorder. The other options do not address the need to investigate the cause of the symptoms and are incorrect.

3. When given a scheduled morning medication, the patient states, "I haven't seen that pill before. Are you sure it's correct?" The nurse checks the medication administration record and verifies that it is listed. Which is the nurse's best response? a. "It's listed here on the medication sheet, so you should take it." b. "Go ahead and take it, and then I'll check with your doctor about it." c. "It wouldn't be listed here if it were not ordered for you!" d. "Let me check on the order first before you take it."

ANS: D When giving medications, the nurse should always listen to and honor any concerns or doubts expressed by the patient. If the patient doubts an order, the nurse should check the written order and/or check with the prescriber. The other options illustrate that the nurse is not listening to the patient's concerns.

7. When reviewing the mechanism of action of a specific drug, the nurse reads that the drug works by selective enzyme interaction. This process occurs when the drug a. alters cell membrane permeability. b. enhances its effectiveness within the cell walls of the target tissue. c. is attracted to a receptor on the cell wall, preventing an enzyme from binding to that receptor. d. binds to an enzyme molecule and inhibits or enhances the enzyme's action with the normal target cell.

ANS: D With selective enzyme interaction, the drug attracts the enzymes to bind with the drug instead of allowing the enzymes to bind with their normal target cells. As a result, the target cells are protected from the action of the enzymes. This results in a drug effect. The actions described in the other options do not occur with selective enzyme interactions.