A&P 2: Blood
White blood cells that release histamine at site of an injury are
0 blow basophils.0
Red blood cells (RBCs) are removed from the circulation after about __________.
120 days
White blood cells that are increased in allergic individuals?
2 engine - eosinophils 2
A typical adult hematocrit is
45
Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood?
45 percent
The total volume of blood in the body of a 76-kg man is approximately ________ liters.
5.3 - or about 8% of body mass
Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume.
55; 92
what are blood components?
60 NEVER neutrophils-1st line of defense 30 LET lymphocytes - b-bone, t thalamus -helper, suppressive, cell mediated 8 MY monocyte - macrophage shows info to lymphocyte 2 ENGINE eosinophil - warm, wheezes, weird diseases 0 BLOW - basophil - allergy
A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count?
60 never neutrophils
most numerous WBCs in a differential count of a healthy individual are
60 never neutrophils -60.
Non-specific immunity, such as phagocytosis, is a function of which blood cells?
60 never neutrophils, 8 my monocytes 2 engine eosinophils,
During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of
60 never neutrophils.
most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are
60 never neutrophils.
Except for __________, the following statements about PH of blood are true?
7.35-7.45 - pH is slightly alkaline. 7.5-7.8 alkalosis-agitated and dizzy moderate vomit rids the body of stomach acid 7.0-7.3 acidosis-disoriented and fatigued, from severe vomiting, that empties alkaline smalintestinal contents, diabetes, brain damage, impaired breathing, lung and kidney disease
________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most time outside blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells.
8 my Monocytes - 8
Which of the following is not true of monocytes 8 my ?
8 my monocytes are not about same size as basophils
what is erythropoietin?
A hormone that controls rate of erythrocyte production
Which ABO blood type is considered to be the universal recipient?
AB
________ is a condition in which oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced.
Anemia
what are the blood antigens?
Antigen: A substance that the body recognizes as foreign; it stimulates the immune system to release antibodies or use other means to mount a defense against it. Most antigens are foreign proteins.
what is plasma?
Approximately 90% water; liquid part of blood. Over 100 different substances are dissolved into straw-colored fluid--electrolytes, nutrients, hormones, respiratory fluid, plasma proteins, etc. Plasma proteins are mostly made by liver.
A person who lacks agglutinogen A but has agglutinogen B would have blood type __________.
B
All of the following are true of neutrophils, except that they are A) also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes. B) important in coagulation. C) phagocytic. D) granular leukocytes. E) active in fighting bacterial infections.
B- not important in coagulation
Which of the following scenarios could result in HDN (hemolytic disease of the newborn)?
B-negative female pregnant with an AB-positive baby
what is Hematopoiesis?
Blood cell formation; occurs in red bone. In adults, this tissue is primarily found in flat bones of skull or pelvis, ribs, sternum, and proximal epiphyses of femur and humerus.
what is hematopoiesis?
Blood cell formation; occurs in red bone. In adults, this tissue is primarily found in flat bones of skull or pelvis, ribs, sternum, and proximal epiphyses of femur and humerus.
Which of the statements below is an incorrect or false statement?
Blood typing for the Kell, Lewis, and Duffy factors is always done before a blood transfusion.
________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
Coagulation
A patient has a suspected electrolyte imbalance, what blood test would reveal an electrolyte imbalance?
Comprehensive Medical Panel (CMP)
Choose the incompatible transfusion.
Donate type B blood to a recipient with type O blood.
An infected wound contains typically contains A) dead neutrophils. B) tissue fluids. C) pus. D) cellular debris. E) All of the answers are correct
E
Which of the following statements about blood is false?
F - The normal pH of blood is 6.8 to 7.0. T -Normal blood PH is 7.35 -7.45
AB blood type is the universal blood recipient because of that type's lack of agglutinogens.
False
Basophils increase in number when parasitic invasion occurs.
False
Diapedesis is the process by which red blood cells move into tissue spaces from the interior of blood capillaries.
False
A genetically engineered hormone that stimulates production of neutrophils is
G-CSF (Neupogen).
A hormone that stimulates production of granulocytes and monocytes is
GM-CSF
what is hemostasis?
If a blood vessel breaks, a series of reactions is set to accomplish hemostasis (stopping of blood) Hemostasis involves three major phases: Platelet plug formation, Vascular spasms occur, Coagulation events occur.
what is hemoglobin?
Iron-bearing protein, transports bulk of oxygen carried in blood. RBC's lack mitochondria, so do not use any oxygen they transport, RBC's outnumber white blood cells by about 1000 to 1 - major factor contributing to blood viscosity. decomposes into 4 polypeptide "global" chains surrounding a heme group: heme ->iron and biliverdin -> biliverdin -> bilirubin
When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum cause clumping (agglutination) of donor cells on a slide, the blood type is ________.
O
Which blood type is generally called the universal donor?
O
Which of the following represents a difference between extrinsic and intrinsic blood clotting pathways?
One is faster than the other.
what is platelet plug formation?
Platelets are repelled by an intact endothelium, but when it's broken so that underlying collagen fibers are exposed, platelets become "sticky" and cling to damaged site. Anchored platelets release chemicals that attract more platelets to site, and as more and more platelets pile up, a small mass called a platelet plug is formed.
Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is false?
Red cells are about 18 μm in diameter.
________ are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation.
Reticulocytes
A total WBC count and a differential WBC count have been ordered for Mrs. Johnson. What information is obtained from the differential count that the total count does not provide?
The differential count determines the relative proportion of individual leukocyte types. The total WBC count indicates an increase or decrease in number of WBCs.
Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean?
There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.
Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?
They are nucleated.
what are some bleeding disorders?
Thrombocytopenia: Results from insufficient number of circulating platelets. Hemophilia: Includes several different hereditary bleeding disorders that result from lack of any of factors needed for blood clotting.
What are functions of blood?
Transports everything that must be carried from one place to another within the body--nutrients, wastes (headed for elimination for the body), and body heat--through blood vessels.
A person with type B blood could receive blood from a person with either type B or type O blood.
True
Hemorrhagic anemias result from blood loss.
True
how are white blood cells are divided?
Wbc divided in two groups: granulocytes and lymphocytes.
A person with an extremely high count of neutrophils is likely suffering ________.
a bacterial infection
The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if
a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal.
What part of hemoglobin molecule is eventually metabolized to stercobilin in feces?
a portion of the heme group
what are lymphocytes/agranulocytes? monos limpios
aka mononuclear leukocytes, Lack visible cytoplasmic granules. Their nuclei are closer to norm. ● Lymphocytes: Large dark purple nucleus that occupies most of the cell volume. Tend to reside in lymphatic tissues, play a role in immune response. ● Monocytes: Largest of WBC's. When they migrate into tissues, they change into macrophages with huge appetites, important in fighting chronic infections such as tuberculosis.
Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones?
albumin
most abundant proteins in blood plasma?
albumins
Which of these is not one of the formed elements of blood?
antibodies
A person exhibiting suppression of immunity, clotting disorder as well as low oxygen carrying capacity is likely suffering which of the following?
aplastic anemia
what is blood? components of blood?
blood is only fluid tissue-connective tissue formed elements 45% plasma 55%
What part of the body does erythropoietin (EPO) target to increase erythropoiesis?
bone marrow
Red blood cells carry __________ to the lungs and __________ to the tissues.
carbon dioxide; oxygen
function of hemoglobin is to
carry dissolved blood gases.
function of red blood cells is to
carry oxygen to the cells and then carry away carbon dioxide.
During fibrinolysis __________
clots slowly dissolve
what is agglutination?
clumping of foreign cells, induced by cross-linking of antigen-antibody complexes. This process leads to clotting of small blood vessels throughout body.
The complex process that leads to formation of fibrin from fibrinogen is called __________.
coagulation
what are granulocytes? pimply ben
cytoplasmic Granule-containing WBC's, lobed nucleus, consisting of several rounded nuclear areas, connected by thin strands of nuclear material ● Neutrophils: multilobed nucleus and fine granules, respond to both acid and basic (alkaline) stains, avid phagocytes at sites of acute infection. ● Eosinophils: Blue-red nucleus; number increases rapidly during allergic reaction and infections by parasitic worms. ● Basophils: Most rare of the WBC's; contain large histamineand heparin-containing granules
Platelets are
cytoplasmic fragments of large cells
2 engine Eosinophils function in:
destroying antibody-labeled antigens
level of erythropoietin in blood would rise due to all of the following, except
during periods of fasting.
Which leukocyte might you expect to find in higher quantities in a person experiencing allergies?
eosinophil
Which of the following leukocyte is NOT correctly matched with its function?
eosinophil: bacterial macrophage
what are formed elements of blood?
erythrocytes leukocytes platelets
what are formed elements of blood? _________. A) red blood cells B) white blood cells C) platelets D) All of these are formed elements of blood
erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets
Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron?
ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin
A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation?
fibrinogen
Serum can't coagulate because the __________ has been removed.
fibrinogen
Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis?
fibrinolysis
A hematocrit provides information on
formed elements abundance/volume in blood.
Each hemoglobin molecule contains
four iron atoms
Which of the following is not a functional characteristic of WBCs?
granulosis
Higher viscosity of blood will increase the amount of stress placed on heart while it is pumping. Viscosity of blood is highest when ________
hematocrit, volume percentage (vol%) of red blood cells in blood, is highest
The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the
hematocrit.
Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that
hemoglobin level is normal.
Abnormally low levels of erythrocytes caused by excessive bleeding is called______.
hemorrhagic anemia
Excess iron is stored in liver and spleen as
hemosiderin and ferritin.
Which of these descriptions best matches the term colony stimulating factor?
hormone that regulates blood cell formation
Thyroid-binding globulin is an example of which kind of plasma protein?
hormone-binding
Which of the following does NOT stimulate erythrocyte production?
hyperventilating
A person who has a low blood volume is said to be
hypovolemic.
Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?
hypoxia of EPO-producing cells
Hemolytic disease of the newborn will not be possible in which of the following situations listed below?
if the father is Rh-
Plasma proteins essential in body defense ?
immunoglobulins
In which of situations would you expect blood level of bilirubin to be elevated?
in alcoholic with damaged liver
An obstruction in blood flow to kidneys would ultimately result in
increased erythropoiesis
Plasma is closest in composition to
interstitial fluid, 90% water
Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of
iron.
What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?
kidney
Which of the following is not true of neutrophils - 60 first line of defense?
less abundant than lymphocytes-30 let
Which of the following is NOT a functional characteristic of leukocytes?
leukocytosis
Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins?
liver
Which type of leukocyte is responsible for antibody production?
lymphocytes
what are Platelets pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in bone marrow called?
megakaryocytes.
Blood is a type of connective tissue. What primary germ layer is responsible for producing both blood and phagocytic brain glial cells?
mesoderm
Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein?
metalloprotein
Which of the following is not a characteristic that contributes to erythrocyte gas transport functions?
mitotically active
On a blood smear slide prepared using Wright's stain, you observe a large cell with a U-shaped nucleus and pale blue cytoplasm. This cell is most likely a(n) __________.
monocyte
agranular leukocyte (agranulocyte) is capable of phagocytosis is __________.
monocyte
People that have a single allele (gene copy) for sickle cell anemia are typically not sick from the disease and are said to be carriers of sickle cell trait. These people will more often live in the malaria belt of sub-Saharan Africa. The most likely explanation for this is ________.
people with sickle cell trait have a better chance of surviving malaria
Surgical removal of the stomach could cause
pernicious anemia
what are vascular spasms and function?
plugged platelets also release serotonin which causes blood vessel to go into spasms. This narrows the blood vessel so that only little amounts of blood can pass through and clotting can occur.
Suppose that an individual injects himself with erythropoietin in order to raise his level of endurance, an act that is usually illegal in competitive sports. Which of the following could result?
polycythemia
Except for the amount of __________, plasma and interstitial fluid differ little in composition
protein
The formed elements are largely produced within the __________.
red bone marrow
All the circulating red blood cells in an adult originate in the
red bone marrow.
The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as
reticulocytes.
what is albumin?
simple form of protein soluble in water and coagulable by heat, such as that found in egg white, milk, and (in particular) blood serum. Contributes to osmotic pressure of blood that keeps water in bloodstream; clotting proteins help stem blood loss when blood vessel is injured; and antibodies help protect body from pathogens.
Which of the following would provide no benefit to a person suffering any one of the various types of anemia?
supplemental bilirubin injection
The process of lymphopoiesis -generation of lymphocytes goes on in all organs, except
the kidney.
Most of plasma proteins required in coagulation process are produced by? __________
the liver
Most protein factors that required for clotting are synthesized by
the liver
What protein involved in coagulation provides the activation for the final step in clotting?
thrombin
A person whose platelet count is 40,000/μl is suffering from
thrombocytopenia.
An important function of thrombocytes is to __________.
transport clotting factors
Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a
viscosity about the same as water.(not)
Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate?
vitamin B12 deficiency
extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by
release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium.
Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by macrophages in the
spleen, liver, and bone marrow.
In case of hemorrhage, platelets are stored as a reserve in?
spleen.
Hemostasis is important for __________.
stoppage of bleeding
Bilirubin is created when red blood cells are recycled. How is it removed from blood stream?
through the liver
All of the following conditions impair coagulation except ________.
vascular spasm
The combination of plasma and formed elements is called
whole blood
what are platelets?
Fragments of bizarre multinucleate cells--megakaryocytes. They pinch off thousands of enucleate platelet pieces that quickly seal themselves off from surrounding fluids. Platelets are needed for clotting process, occurs in plasma when blood vessels are ruptured or broken.
what are leukocytes?
White blood cells (WBC's); far less numerous than WBC's; crucial to body defense against disease. BC's are the only complete blood cells-- contain nucleus and the usual organs. ● form protective, movable army - help defend body against damage by bacteria, viruses, parasites, and tumor cells. ● able to slip into and out of blood vessels--diapedesis. ● Leukocytosis: A total WBC above 11,000 cells/mm3. indicates bacterial or viral infection in body. ● Leukopenia: Abnormally low WBC, commonly caused by particular drugs, such as anticancer drugs or corticosteroids.
After donating 0.5 liters of blood, one would expect
an increased reticulocyte count.
During erythroblastosis fetalis, a Rh- mother's anti-Rh antibodies that have crossed the placenta will cause agglutination of the fetus's Rh+ RBCs. However, the reverse problem never happens when a Rh+ mother is pregnant with a Rh- fetus, that is, antibodies produced by the fetus cannot cause agglutination of the mother's Rh+ RBCs. This is true because ______.
antibodies that can cause this agglutination are not produced by a fetus
Which of these phases is not part of hemostasis?
erythropoiesis phase-formation of abc
The process of red blood cell production is called
erythropoiesis.
__________ stimulates production of red blood cells.
erythropoietin
Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone
erythropoietin.
Which of the following would NOT lead to a bleeding disorder?
excess calcium in the diet
Which of the following is not a cause of bleeding disorders?
excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the ________ pathway.
extrinsic
Plasma thromboplastin is a factor in the ________ pathway.
intrinsic
Loss of fibrinogen within the plasma would most likely cause which of the following?
loss of blood clotting
Which two factors below make rapid and substantial blood loss life threatening?
loss of blood pressure and loss of oxygen carrying capacity
All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except ________.
low blood viscosity
If a person is severely dehydrated you would expect to see all of the following except ________.
lower immunity
No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in ________.
monocytes
If bile ducts are blocked,
more bilirubin appears in plasma
When a person has an acute bacterial infection, such as bacterial meningitis or appendicitis, which type of leukocyte increases in number?
neutrophils
Which granulated leukocyte is most likely to be active during a bacterial infection?
neutrophils
A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and causing an appearance of large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of ________.
pernicious anemia
What erythrocyte production disorder results from an autoimmune disease associated with vitamin B12 absorption?
pernicious anemia
Which of the following is correctly matched?
pernicious anemia: results from a vitamin B12 deficiency
enzyme that dissolves fibrin is named __________.
plasmin
Digesting a clot after it is formed requires activation of what plasma protein by tPA?
plasminogen
Which step in hemostasis involves activation of formed elements in the blood?
platelet plug formation
Megakaryocytes are the source of __________.
platelets
Which of these descriptions best matches function of platelets?
platelets adhere to collagen beneath endothelium
A mismatch of blood types during a transfusion is dangerous because ________.
preformed antibodies in the recipient's blood will bind and clump (agglutinate) the donated cells
The function of platelets is to assist in?
process called hemostasis
Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes?
produce antibodies in response to antigens
Which of the following would not be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia?
prolonged exposure to cold
Which of the following would you expect to have least effect on hematocrit percentage?
prolonged or excessive fever
The most abundant solute (by mass) in plasma is __________
protein
If a patient has thrombocytopenia, the best therapy is infusion of __________.
purified platelets
Blood reticulocyte counts provide information regarding ________.
rate of erythrocyte formation
An individual who is blood type AB negative can ________.
receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen
Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is
recycled to the red bone marrow
In adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in
red bone marrow.
Choose the statement that is true concerning hemoglobin.
It is composed of four protein chains and four heme groups
Which of the following is true of basophils 0 blow? A) granules contain histamine B) attract other defense cells C) granules contain heparin D) constitute about 1 percent of WBCs E) All of the answers are correct.
E
More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is
hemoglobin
The most abundant protein in blood is __________.
hemoglobin
Consider these results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal?
hemoglobin -whole blood - 10.7 g/100 ml men 14-18 g/100ml women 12-16 g/100 ml children 11.2-16.5 g/100ml values increase in polycythemia, obstructive pulmonary disease
Reticulocyte is a stage in the development of __________.
red blood cells
Granulocytes form in
red bone marrow.
In adults, only site of red blood cell production, and primary site of white blood cell formation, is
red bone marrow.
The primary source of RBCs in the adult human being is the bone marrow in the shafts of the long bones.
False
The process of fibrinolysis disposes of bacteria when healing has occurred.
False
Which statement is true?
Type A blood cannot be given to people with type B blood.
Which of the following blood count values would be a sign of anemia?
3.5 million RBC
what are antibodies?
A specialized substance produced by body that can provide immunity against a specific pathogen.
What are the ABO blood groups?
Based on type A or type B pathogens a person inherits genetically. Absence of both antigens results in type O blood, presence of both antigens results in type AB, possession of either A or B antigen creates type A blood. In ABO type blood group, antibodies are formed during infancy against the ABO antigens not present on own RBCs. Rh Blood Group: One of the eight Rh antigens (agglutinogen D) was originally identified as Rhesus monkey's. Later, this antigen was discovered in human beings. Most Americans are Rh+ meaning that their RBCs carry the Rh antigen. Hemolysis: Rupture of RBCs.
In adults, red bone marrow is located in the A) sternum and ribs. B) body of vertebrae. C) proximal epiphyses of long bones. D) iliac crest. E) All of the answers are correct
E
The yellow color that is visible in the eyes and skin in jaundice results from A) the recycling of hemoglobin. B) extensive breakdown of RBCs. C) excessive amounts of bilirubin in the plasma. D) destruction of hemoglobin. E) All of the answers are correct.
E
Which of the following is true of 2 engine eosinophils? A) constitute about 2 to 4 percent of WBCs B) allergic patients have many C) have bilobed nucleus D) granules stain with eosin dyes E) All of the answers are correct.
E
The normal RBC "graveyard" is the liver.
False
Each hemoglobin molecule can transport two molecules of oxygen.
False
Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin
False
Leukocytes move through the circulatory system by amoeboid motion.
False
The immediate response to blood vessel injury is clotting.
False
Why would there be cause for concern if a young pregnant mother is Rh-, her husband is Rh+, and this is their second child?
If the second child is Rh+ and the mother did not take RhoGAM, there is a chance that the child will develop erythroblastosis fetalis and die before birth.
Positive chemotaxis is a feedback system that signals leukocyte migration into damaged areas.
True
what are some blood clotting disorders?
Thrombus: A clot develops and persists in unbroken blood vessel. If it's large enough, it can prevent blood flow in cells beyond blockage. For example, if there is thrombus in the heart, this can lead to a heart attack. Embolus: When thrombus breaks away from vessel wall and floats freely in bloodstream. This is sometimes no problem, but when it lodges in blood vessel too narrow for it to pass through, a cerebral embolus can cause a stroke.
All lymphocytes are also leukocytes.
True
All lymphocytes are leukocytes, but not all leukocytes are lymphocytes.
True
Clotting factor activation turns clotting factors into enzymes.
True
Do Mature erythrocytes lack a nucleus?
True
Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.
True
Granulocytes called neutrophils are phagocytic and are the most numerous of all white blood cell types.
True
Leukemia refers to cancerous conditions involving white blood cells.
True
Leukopenia is an abnormally low number of leukocytes.
True
Erythropoiesis is stimulated when
blood flow to the kidney declines.
common pathway in coagulation ends with __________.
conversion of soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin
The waste product bilirubin is produced from
heme molecules lacking iron
Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood?
hemocytoblast
The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is ________
hemoglobin F
You are caring for an adult patient who weighs 48 kg. What would her approximate blood volume be?
3.8 L
The blood cells involved in specific immunity are the:
30 let lymphocytes
Which of these descriptions best matches the term T 30 let lymphocytes?
30 let lymphocytes are involved in cell mediated immunity
average life span of a red blood cell is
4 months-120 days
what is a hemocytoblast?
A type of stem cell giving rise to all formed elements; resides in red bone marrow. Because a RBC is anucleate, they are unable to synthesize proteins, grow, or divide. As they age, they become more rigid and begin to fragment in 100 to 120 days. remains are eliminated by phagocytes in spleen, liver, and other body tissues. Lost cells are replaced almost continuously by division of hemocytoblasts in red bone marrow.
When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect A) a rise in hematocrit.-ratio of volume of rbc to tl blood v B) an increase in rbc production. C) release of erythropoietin: A hormone that controls rate of erythrocyte production D) drop in oxygen levels. E) All of the answers are correct.
E
Which of the following is a function of the blood? A) defense against toxins and pathogens B) transport of gases C) transport of nutrients and wastes D) transport of body heat E) All of the answers are correct.
E
what are erythrocytes?
Red blood cells (RBC's); functions primarily to ferry oxygen to all cells of the body, anucleate--lack a nucleus. ○ Contain very few organelles
what are some Bleeding Disorders?
Thrombocytopenia: Results from an insufficient number of circulating platelets. Hemophilia: Includes several different hereditary bleeding disorders that result from lack of any of factors needed for blood clotting.
what are some Blood Clotting Disorders?
Thrombus: A clot that develops and persists in an unbroken blood vessel. If it's large enough, it can prevent blood flow the cells beyond blockage. For example, if there is thrombus in the heart, this can lead to a heart attack. Embolus: When thrombus breaks away from vessel wall and floats freely in bloodstream. This is sometimes no problem, but when it lodges in a blood vessel too narrow for it to pass through, a cerebral embolus can cause a stroke.
What are Coagulation events?
Tissues release tissue factor (TF), which aids in blood clotting. PF3 is a phospholipid reacting with TF, vitamin K, calcium ions, and other clotting substances to form an activator that triggers clotting cascade. Prothrombin activator converts prothrombin to thrombin, an enzyme. Thrombin then joins fibrinogen proteins into fibrin, which trap RBC's and forms the basis of clot. Within an hour, clot forms serum, which is plasma minus proteins for clotting, and pulls ruptured edges of blood vessel closer together. *The blood clotting process usually only takes 3-6 minutes. As a rule, once the clotting cascade has started, triggering factors are rapidly inactivated to prevent widespread clotting. When gauze is placed against ruptured blood vessel, it speeds clotting process because gauze provides rough surface to which platelets can adhere, and pressure fractures cells, which will increase release of tissue factor in area.
When checking the efficiency of gas exchange, it may be necessary to draw a blood sample from
an artery.
The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the
concentration of proteins.