A&P Final Exam
Which of the following muscles functions to expel urine or semen in males?
bulbospongiosus
While volunteering in an outpatient clinic for underprivileged families in your neighborhood, you observe the nurse assessing an infant. The mother had complained about the baby not eating and having several episodes of diarrhea lasting three days. You know the nurse suspects possible dehydration when she
checks the anterior fontanel for depression.
The anatomical term for the buccal region is the
cheek
At a(n) ________ synapse, a neurotransmitter is released to stimulate the postsynaptic membrane.
chemical
Which of the following is a structural component of cell membranes?
cholesterol
Which of the following is not present in bone?
chondroitin sulfate
What type of integral protein allows water and small ions to pass through the plasma membrane? (Module 3.3C)
channel protein
Water molecules and small ions enter a cell through
channels formed by integral proteins.
Which of the following lipids are produced in response to cellular injury or disease?
leukotrienes
Which muscles make up the pelvic diaphragm? (Module 10.11A)
levator ani (iliococcygeus and pubococcygeus), coccygeus, and external anal sphincter
The hyoid bone is suspended by
ligaments.
Powerful hip muscles attach posteriorly to the femur along the
linea aspera.
Simple columnar epithelia are found
lining the gallbladder.
Transitional epithelium is found
lining the urinary bladder.
Which gastrointestinal organ is responsible for bile secretion and regulation of blood nutrient composition?
liver
Unlike cartilage, bone
living connective
All of the following originate on the scapula except the
pectoralis major.
The anatomical term for the thumb is
pollex.
The effect that a neurotransmitter has on the postsynaptic membrane does not depend on the
the strength of the action potential.
The elbow joint is extremely stable because
the ulna and humerus interlock
All of the following are true of lumbar vertebrae except that
the vertebral bodies are delicate.
Identify the various types of epithelial intercellular connections. (Module 4.4A)
tight junctions, adhesion belts, gap junctions, and desmosomes
The rapid rise and fall in force produced by a muscle fiber after a single action potential is a(n)
twitch
Which surface feature(s) along the ilium mark(s) attachment sites for large hip muscles?
gluteal lines
Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of
facets for the articulation of ribs.
Simple cuboidal epithelium is found
forming the kidney tubules.
Which muscles enable you to extend your neck? (Module 10.9B)
splenius capitis and spinalis cervicis
When a protein-releasing factor recognize a stop codon, the process is called
termination.
Magnesium atoms have two electrons in the outermost shell. As a result, you would expect magnesium to form ions with a charge of
+2
The adult skeleton contains ________ major bones.
206
The femur can withstand ________ times the body's weight without breaking
10 to 15
Calculate the area in blue. All numbers are in centimeters (cm). If you need help, scan the QR code in the upper right corner on the opposite page. (Module 1.3A)
10.24 square centimeters
Explain the link between anatomy and physiology. (Module 1.8B)
Anatomy is the study of internal and external body structures; physiology is the study of how living organisms perform their vital functions.
________ neurons are small and have no anatomical features that distinguish dendrites from axons.
Anaxonic
The delicate connective tissue that surrounds the skeletal muscle fibers and ties adjacent muscle fibers together is the
endomysium
The lining of the medullary cavity is called the
endosteum
The hydrolysis of ATP yields ADP, a phosphate ion, and
energy.
What is the survival rate of a localized malignant melanoma that is detected and removed in the early stages of the cancer?
Above 95%
Contrast fast fibers with slow fibers in terms of diameter, glycogen reserves, myoglobin content, and relative abundance of mitochondria. (Module 9.14A)
Compared with slow fibers, fast fibers have a larger diameter, larger glycogen reserves, less myoglobin, and relatively fewer mitochondria.
All fatty acids contain a functional group at one end called the ________ group.
carboxyl
Intercalated discs and striations are characteristic of ________ tissue.
cardiac muscle
Name the effectors of the ANS. (Module 11.1C)
cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, glands, and adipose tissue
Which organ system transports nutrients, metabolic wastes, gases, and defense cells?
cardiovascular
During the synthesis of proteins, amino acids are assembled in the proper sequence because each tRNA molecule that brings them to the ribosome has a(n) ________ that binds to a complementary codon in the mRNA.
anticodon
Which of the following is a type of secretion in which some cytoplasm is lost with the product?
apocrine
The ________ glands in the axilla become active at the time of puberty.
apocrine sweat
Deodorants are used to mask the effects of secretions from which type of skin gland?
apocrine sweat glands
The genetically programmed death of cells is called
apoptosis.
When comparing slow fibers to fast fibers, slow fibers
appear dark red.
Which division of the skeleton has the greater range of motion?
appendicular
DNA mutation and development of cancerous cells are less dangerous in epithelial tissue than in connective tissue because epithelia
are avascular.
All of the following are true concerning enzymes except that they
are consumed during the reaction.
All of the following are true of IPSPs (inhibitory postsynaptic potentials) except
are graded depolarizations.
Elements that have atoms with full outer shells of electrons
are inert gases.
The trabeculae of spongy bone
are organized along stress lines.
Generally, cells with a very brief interphase and lacking a G0 phase
are stem cells.
Carbohydrate molecules
are the body's most readily available source of energy.
Each of the following is an example of dense connective tissue except
areolar connective tissue.
Bursae can be found in all of the following areas except
around blood vessels.
In compact bone, the osteons are
arranged in concentric lamellae.
Name the major components of a typical vertebra.
articular processes, vertebral arch, and vertebral body
All of the following are true of the sacrum except that it
articulates with the second and third lumbar vertebrae.
The location where two bones meet is called a joint, or an
articulation.
The glial cells in the central nervous system that form scar tissue after central nervous system injury are the
astrocytes
The largest and most numerous neuroglia in the CNS that absorb and recycle neurotransmitters are the
astrocytes
Which glial cell protects the CNS from chemicals and hormones circulating in the blood? (Module 11.4C)
astrocytes
The first cervical vertebra is better known as the
atlas
While standing in the anatomical position,
back refers to dorsal
Wch type of synovial joint permits the greatest range of motion?
ball-and-socket
Melanin is produced by melanocytes within the stratum
basale.
A(n) ________ removes hydrogen ions, and a(n) ________ releases hydrogen ions.
base; acid
The quadriceps group includes all of the following except the
biceps femoris.
Neurons that have one axon and one dendrite, with the soma in between, are called
bipolar
Which type of cells recycle the calcium and phosphate stored there?
bone cells
During appositional growth,
bones grow wider.
Through the action of osteoclasts,
bony matrix is dissolved.
Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a(n)
cartilage model.
All of the following are connective tissue proper, except
cartilage.
Which of the following ligaments assists in stabilizing the shoulder joint?
both coraco-acromial and coracoclavicular
The surface of articular cartilage is
both slick and smooth.
If the permeability of sodium ions increases in an axon,
both the inward movement of sodium ions will increase and the membrane potential will depolarize.
Which of the following is formed by intramembranous ossification?
both the roof of the skull and the clavicle
Identify the muscle labeled "6."
brachialis
Which of the following does not move the pectoral girdle?
brachialis
Which of the following muscles does not have an action that is antagonistic to the action of the brachialis muscle?
brachioradialis
Ions with a + charge are called
cations
Name the structural components of a typical neuron. (Module 11.2A)
cell body, axon, and dendrites
The structure labeled "2" is a - Neuron
cell body.
Some cells contain large numbers of mitochondria while others have relatively few or none. This suggests that
cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a high energy demand
List the common characteristics shared by all living things. (Module 1.7A)
cells, organization, responsiveness, regulation, growth, development, reproduction, and metabolism
Name the simplest level of organization that includes the smallest living units in the body.
cellular level
What is the smallest living level of organization?
cellular level
Oxygen is required in biological systems for
cellular respiration
The ________ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord.
central
The cylindrical shaped organelle with nine groups of microtubule triplets is called
centrioles.
Milk is produced by ________ glands.
ceruminous
In which region of the vertebral column would you find a vertebra with a large foramen and two smaller foramina within the transverse processes?
cervical
he four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth. Which of the following are the secondary curves, those that do not appear until several months later?
cervical and lumbar
Which type of synapse is most common in the nervous system?
chemical
Which process employs exocytosis?
chemical synapse
If you were contracting and relaxing your masseter, what would you probably be doing? (Module 10.7C)
chewing or eating
A muscle that inserts on the body of the mandible is probably involved in
chewing.
In cells that are not dividing, chromosomes uncoil to form a tangle of fine fibers known as
chromatin.
A muscle that controls the diameter of an opening is a ________ muscle.
circular
In a ________ muscle, the fascicles are concentrically arranged around an opening.
circular
The two little girls who hold and move the rope in jump-rope are performing what action?
circumduction
In appositional growth, successive layers of what structure are added to the outer surface of the bone?
circumferential lamellae
Which of the following is most commonly fractured in a fall?
clavicle
The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the
clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum.
Which of these constitutes the pectoral girdle?
clavicles and scapulae
The five vertebral regions are the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and
coccygeal.
The levator ani inserts on the
coccyx
Which of the following is a not characteristic of the female pelvis?
coccyx points anteriorly
A unit in messenger RNA consisting of a set of three consecutive nucleotides is termed a(n)
codon.
The dominant fiber type in most dense connective tissue is
collagen
The names of the muscles can indicate all of the following except
collagen content of the muscle.
The three types of protein fibers in connective tissue are
collagen, reticular, and elastic.
Branches that may occur along an axon are called
collateral branches
A ________ fracture produces shattered bone fragments.
comminuted
Identify the bone containing the cribriform plate. What is significant about this structure
ethmoid; it forms the floor of the cranium and the roof of the nasal cavity and olfactory foramina run through it
Which of the following is a chemical messenger coordinating local cellular activities?
eukotrienes
A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole of the foot outward is known as
eversion.
Chemical reactions that release energy are called
exergonic
Chemical reactions that yield energy, such as heat, are said to be
exergonic.
Cells that are specialized for secretion
exhibit polarity.
When a muscle is stimulated repeatedly at a high rate, eliminating a relaxation phase, the amount of tension gradually increases to a steady maximum tension. This is called
complete tetanus.
An open, or ________, fracture projects through the skin.
compound
What are epidermal derivatives?
Epidermal derivatives are accessory structures that originate from the epidermis during embryonic development, including hair follicles, sebaceous and sweat glands, and nails.
Define the word eponym. (Module 1.19B)
Eponym is a term denoting an anatomical structure or clinical condition that is named after a person.
What is the general function of an excitable membrane? (Module 9.5C)
Excitable membranes permit rapid communication between different parts of a cell.
________ is when a vesicle fuses to the plasma membrane and discharges its contents to the extracellular environment.
Exocytosis
Describe exocytosis. (Module 3.17C)
Exocytosis occurs when a vesicle forms inside the cell, encloses a large volume of intracellular fluid and contents, and then fuses with the plasma membrane to release it outside the cell.
Our understanding of how the human body works is based on a knowledge of which level(s) of organization? (Module 1.10C)
Knowledge about each level contributes to our total understanding of how the body works.
Describe the action of the external oblique. (Module 10.10C)
compresses abdomen, depresses ribs, flexes or bends spine
In females, what is the action of the bulbospongiosus? (Module 10.11B)
compresses and stiffens clitoris; narrows vaginal opening
The fracture of vertebrae subjected to extreme vertical stress is called a ________ fracture.
compression
Functions of astrocytes include all of the following except
conducting action potentials.
What physiological process occurs in the structure labeled "7"?
conduction of the action potential toward the triad
The joints that connect the four fingers with the metacarpal bones are ________ joints.
condylar
The radiocarpal joint is a(n) ________ joint.
condylar
The smooth, rounded articular process of a bone is termed a
condyle.
Which type of tissue fills internal spaces of the body?
connective
All of the following are true of epidermal ridges except that they
contain increased numbers of free nerve endings.
An action potential traveling along the entire length of an axon demonstrates ________ propagation.
continuous
Characteristics of epithelia include all of the following except
contraction.
The start of each gene begins with a(n) ________ segment.
control
Which of the following is not a recognized function of skeletal muscle?
controlled involuntarily
A fan-shaped muscle with a broad origin and fascicles that attach to a common site is a ________ muscle.
convergent
The frontal and parietal bones articulate at the ________ suture.
coronal
The suture that forms the articulation of the parietal bones with the frontal bone is the ________ suture.
coronal
What process is the insertion site for the temporalis muscle?
coronoid process
Which of the following is not associated with the radius?
coronoid process
Vertebrosternal ribs are directly connected to the sternum by
costal cartilages.
Which of the following terms could be used with a muscle that is associated with the ribs?
costalis
When atoms complete their outer electron shell by sharing electrons, they form
covalent bonds.
Which of the following is not a property of synovial joints?
covered by a serous membrane
The bony compartment that houses the brain is called the
cranium.
The inferior nasal conchae
create turbulence in the nasal passageways.
Red blood cell shrinkage is to ________ as cell bursting is to ________.
crenation; hemolysis
A prominent ridge, as seen on the pelvis, is a
crest.
Each of the following structures is associated with the sphenoid bone except the
cribriform plate.
The stabilizing falx cerebri membrane attaches to which structure?
crista galli
A membrane that stabilizes the position of the brain is attached to the
crista galli.
Each of the following landmarks is associated with the occipital bone, except the
crista galli.
The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the femur and maintain the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles are the ________ ligaments.
cruciate
Which of the four tissue membranes is relatively waterproof and usually dry? (Module 4.15D)
cutaneous
The two components of the integumentary system are the
cutaneous membrane and accessory structures.
Identify to which division, axial or appendicular, the following muscles belong: deltoid, external oblique, gluteus maximus, pectoralis major, platysma, and rectus femoris.
deltoid = appendicular; external oblique = axial; gluteus maximus = appendicular; pectoralis major = appendicular; platysma = axial; rectus femoris = appendicular
The surface feature present along the lateral border of the shaft of the humerus is the
deltoid tuberosity.
Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system?
direct long-term functions, such as growth
The wrist is ________ to the elbow.
distal
The weight of the body is supported by the
distal metatarsals and calcaneus.
The clavicle articulates with the scapula
distally with the acromion.
In a molecule of oxygen gas, two pairs of electrons are shared equally by two oxygen atoms. The type of bond that is formed is an example of a
double nonpolar covalent bond.
While standing erect, the direction of caudal is
downward
From what structure does merocrine secretion occur?
eccrine sweat gland
Before the mRNA transcribed from a gene can be used to translate into a protein, it must be
edited to remove introns and transported into the cytoplasm.
A cell or organ that responds to commands of the control center in negative feedback is termed a(n)
effector
Which connective tissue fiber is characteristic of the cartilage supporting the ear? (Module 4.13A)
elastic
In a(n) ________ synapse, current flows directly between cells.
electrical
The sum of the electrical and chemical forces acting on an ion is known as its ________ gradient.
electrochemical
A fracture at the ankle involving both lower leg bones is often called a ________ fracture.
Pott's
Describe the different states of matter in terms of shape and volume. (Module 2.5A)
Solids have a fixed volume and shape, liquids have a constant volume but no fixed shape, and gases have neither a constant volume nor a fixed shape.
________ cells are all of the cells of the body except the reproductive cells (sperm and oocytes).
Somatic
________ bone does not contain capillaries, but receives nutrients through its canaliculi
Spongy
________ bone reduces the weight of the skeleton and reduces the load on muscles.
Spongy
During ionization, water molecules disrupt the ionic bonds of a salt to produce a mixture of ions. These ions can carry a current and so are called
electrolytes.
A(n) ________ is a pure substance composed of atoms.
element
Which of the following movements would you associate with chewing food?
elevation
Identify and describe the general functions of the exocrine glands found in the skin.
Sweat glands and sebaceous glands; the glands help with thermoregulation, excrete wastes, and lubricate hairs and the epidermis.
Describe synaptic fatigue. (Module 11.12C)
Synaptic fatigue occurs in an axon terminal when neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft faster than they can be reabsorbed or recycled.
Describe why table salt is a compound. (Module 2.4A)
Table salt is a compound because it is made up of more than one element in a fixed proportion.
What is translation? (Module 3.12A)
Taking the mRNA sequence and producing a protein.
________ attach skeletal muscles to bones, and ________ connect one bone to another.
Tendons; ligaments
________ hairs are coarse pigmented hairs.
Terminal
What characteristic of phospholipids accounts for their packing into a double layer? (Module 3.3D)
That they are amphipathic, containing a hydrophobic end and a hydrophilic end.
Which of the following statements about the action potential is false?
The rapid depolarization phase is caused by the entry of potassium ions.
Define line of action. (Module 10.15B)
The line of action is the line of force produced when a muscle contracts.
In the hydrolysis of a triglyceride, what are the reactants and the products? (Module 2.15D)
The reactants are a triglyceride and three water molecules; the products are a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids.
Relate an enzyme's structure to its reaction specificity. (Module 2.18B)
The reaction specificity relates to the unique shape of the active site to which only a complementary shape can bind.
Explain why the propagation of action potentials along electrically excitable membranes occurs in only one direction. (Module 9.5D)
The refractory period prevents it from propagating back in the direction from which it began.
During intramembranous ossification, bone replaces which type of tissue?
embryonic, or fibrous connective tissue
What effect would decreasing the concentration of extracellular potassium ions have on the resting membrane potential of a neuron? (Module 11.7C)
The resting membrane potential would become more negative because more potassium ions would leave the cell through potassium leak channels.
Which type of burn usually requires skin grafting? Why?
Third-degree burns because the tissue damage is so great that the tissue cannot repair itself.
The mRNA sequence that is complementary to the sequence ATC on DNA is
UAG.
Why does exposure to sunlight or sunlamps darken skin?
UV radiation stimulates melanocytes to produce more melanin.
The reaction A + B + energy → AB is an example of a(n)
endergonic reaction.
Chemical reactions that absorb energy are called
endergonic.
Directing long-term changes in the activities of other organ systems is the major function of the ________ system.
endocrine
Glands that secrete hormones into the interstitial fluid are ________ glands.
endocrine
Two types of vesicular transport are
endocytosis and exocytosis.
The intake of small membrane vesicles from the extracellular fluid is called
endocytosis.
Individual muscle cells are surrounded by what connective tissue?
endomysium
The lining of the heart and blood vessels is called
endothelium.
Secretions through a duct might provide ________, whereas ductless secretions act as ________.
enzymes; hormones
A sample of bone has lamellae that are not arranged in osteons. Is the sample more likely from the epiphysis or from the diaphysis?
epiphysis
List the major parts of a long bone.
epiphysis, metaphysis, diaphysis, and medullary cavity
Examination of a tissue sample reveals groups of cells united by junctional complexes and interlocking membranes. The cells have one free surface and lack blood vessels. The tissue is most likely ________ tissue.
epithelial
The tissue that always has a "top" and a "bottom" is ________ tissue.
epithelial
Which type of tissue covers exposed surfaces of the body?
epithelial
What is the relative percentage of body weight from each of the four tissue types? (Module 4.16A)
epithelial 3%, connective 45%, muscle 50%, and nervous 2%
What two types of tissues contribute to the formation and maintenance of the basement membrane? (Module 4.4D)
epithelial and connective tissue
hile playing softball, Gina is struck in the superior medial portion of her left zygomatic bone by a wild pitch. Which of the following complaints would you expect her to have?
a black eye
The effects of aging on the skin include
a decline in the activity of sebaceous glands.
When two monosaccharides undergo a dehydration synthesis,
a disaccharide is formed.
What is a tissue? (Module 4.1B)
a group of similar cells and their cell products
A thickened area of scar tissue that is covered by a shiny, smooth epidermal surface is called
a keloid.
In living cells, complex metabolic reactions proceed in a series of steps called
a metabolic pathway.
Which of the following motor units would produce the greatest tension?
a motor unit in a back muscle
Which of the following muscles would contract more forcefully?
a muscle receiving 20 to 25 action potentials per second
In an aqueous solution, sodium ions would move toward
a negative terminal.
Every amino acid has a central carbon atom to which all of the followings are attached except
a phosphate group.
A fibrin clot that is formed over a skin wound is called
a scab.
Which of the following tissues covers and protects exposed surface areas of the body?
epithelial tissue
Close examination of an organ reveals a lining of several layers of cells. The layers do not contain any blood vessels and one surface of the cells is open to the internal cavity of the organ. This tissue is probably
epithelium.
At the base of a nail, keratinized skin called the cuticle is also called the
eponychium.
Jack gets into a fight and is punched in the nose. Which of the following bones might be fractured?
ethmoid bone
The skeletal muscle complex known as the triad consists of
a transverse tubule and two terminal cisternae.
bstrate molecules bind to enzymes at the ________ sites.
active
During digestion, the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) in the stomach contents increases to many times that in cells lining the stomach. Which transport process could be responsible? (Module 3.16D)
active transport
During the recovery period, the body's need for oxygen is increased because
additional oxygen is required to restore energy reserves consumed during exercise.
Damage to the pectoralis major would interfere with a person's ability to
adduct the humerus.
When a person does jumping jacks, which limb movements are necessary?
adduction and abduction
The muscle that adducts the thumb is the
adductor pollicis
Name the intrinsic muscles of the thumb. (Module 10.18A)
adductor pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis
Adenosine is formed by combining
adenine and ribose
The purines found in DNA are ________ and ________.
adenine; guanine
The most abundant high-energy compound in cells is
adenosine triphosphate
What product is formed from the addition of a phosphate group to ADP?
adenosine triphosphate
Rickets can be prevented by
adequate sunlight and dietary intake of cholecalciferol.
Cells that store fat are called
adipocytes
What is the most common type of cells in the subcutaneous layer?
adipocytes
Which type of loose connective tissue contains primarily lipids? (Module 4.11C)
adipose tissue
When electrons are transferred from one atom to another, and the two atoms unite as a result of the opposite charges,
an ionic bond is formed.
After heavy exercise, if energy reserves in a muscle are depleted, ________ occurs.
an oxygen debt
During mitosis, chromatids separate into daughter chromosomes during
anaphase.
A person facing forward with hands at the sides and palms facing forward is in the ________ position
anatomical
Neurons that are rare, small, and lack features that distinguish dendrites from axons are called
anaxonic
Microfilaments
anchor the cytoskeleton to the plasma membrane.
Identify the muscle labeled "7."
anconeus
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the male pelvis?
angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees
In an aqueous solution, cations are attracted toward
anions
Ions with a negative charge are called
anions
The integrating center for the negative feedback loop that regulates body temperature is the
brain
Which of the following ligaments is not associated with the hip joint?
anterior cruciate ligament
Lymphocytes can develop into cells that secrete defense proteins against disease. Some of these cells are termed plasma cells, while their proteins are called
antibodies.
An alternative term for the forehead is
frons.
Which of these is not one of the bones of the face?
frontal
Identify the bones of the orbital complex.
frontal, sphenoid, zygomatic, palatine, maxilla, lacrimal, and ethmoid
The cranium (or braincase) is formed by the ________ bones.
frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital
Name the complex — nasal, orbital, or both — where you find each of the following bones: frontal, maxilla, palatine, and nasal bones.
frontal: both; maxilla: both; palatine: both; nasal: nasal
If the epidermis, dermis, and part of hypodermis are burned, it is classified as
full thickness.
Because the anatomy and physiology of the body's structures are interrelated, it is often said that "form determines ________."
function
Vitamin D3 formed within the skin has all of these effects on other organ systems except that it
functions in the activation of plasma cells by the lymphatic system.
Neuron cell bodies in the PNS are clustered together in masses called
ganglia
Tom is having difficulty plantar flexing and everting his foot. Which muscle is most likely involved in this problem?
fibularis longus
The joint between the occipital bone of the skull and the first cervical vertebra (atlas) is which part of which class of lever system? (Module 10.2C)
first-class lever; fulcrum
What types of phagocytic cells are present in connective tissue proper? (Module 4.11E)
fixed and free macrophages, neutrophils, and eosinophils
Two classes of macrophages include
fixed macrophages and free macrophages
Which cytoskeletal structure is found only in males? (Module 3.4D)
flagella
A rib is an example of a ________ bone.
flat
Identify the six broad categories for classifying a bone according to shape.
flat, sutural, long, irregular, sesamoid, short
Nodding your head "yes" is an example of
flexion and extension
Which movements are possible at hinge joints?
flexion and extension
Contraction of the muscle that is attached to the radial tuberosity results in
flexion of the forearm.
Integral membrane proteins that connect electrical synapses are called
gap junctions.
The three familiar states of matter listed in order from the least to most thermal energy are
gas, liquid, solid.
Identify the muscle labeled "27."
gastrocnemius
Name the muscles involved in extending the ankle. (Module 10.21A)
gastrocnemius, fibularis brevis, fibularis longus, plantaris, soleus, tibialis posterior
The triplet codes needed to specify a specific polypeptide chain are found in the
gene.
The functional units of DNA that contain the instructions for making one or more proteins are
genes.
In assessing a stroke patient, you ask her to stick out (protract) her tongue. You note that it deviates to one side. You suspect that damage to the neural control of the ________ muscle has occurred.
genioglossus
List the muscles of the tongue. (Module 10.8A)
genioglossus, hyoglossus, palatoglossus, styloglossus
Which term does not describe cells with abnormal growth and division?
germ cells
Excessive growth hormone prior to puberty could result in
gigantism.
he appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the upper and lower extremities and their supporting elements, called
girdles.
The shoulder joint, or ________ joint, permits the greatest range of motion of any joint.
glenohumeral
The scapula articulates with the humerus at its ________ cavity.
glenoid
Which structures provide most of the stability for the shoulder joint?
glenoid labrum, rotator cuff muscles, and associated tendons and ligaments
The glenoid fossa is rimmed by the fibrocartilaginous
glenoid labrum.
Describe the types of motion possible at a synovial joint.
gliding, angular, circumduction, and rotation
During the Cori cycle, in the liver,
glucose is produced from lactate.
The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is
glucose.
Which of the following is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain?
glutamate
Which of the following muscles pulls on the iliotibial tract?
gluteus maximus
Name the muscles that compose the gluteal group. (Module 10.19A)
gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, tensor fasciae latae
The muscle that inserts on the iliotibial tract and gluteal tuberosity of the femur is the
gluteus maximus.
polysaccharide that is formed in muscle cells to store glucose is
glycogen.
) A carbohydrate is attached to a diglyceride in which type of lipid?
glycolipids
Dense connective tissue is to a suture as a periodontal ligament is to a(n)
gomphosis
The ligamentum nuchae
helps to hold the head in an upright position.
While on a school skiing trip in Colorado, Heidi falls and breaks her tibia and fibula in a Pott's fracture. What would you expect as a prominent part of her clinical assessment several hours after the fall?
hematoma
The greater the degree of sustained depolarization at the axon hillock, the ________ (higher or lower) the frequency of action potentials generated. (Module 11.14C)
higher
A joint that permits only flexion and extension is a ________ joint.
hinge
The ankle joint is an example of a ________ joint.
hinge
The elbow joint is an example of a ________ joint.
hinge
Which of the following is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?
hip
Tom stumbles and injures his hallux. What part of his anatomy is injured?
his foot
Give the term for the "study of tissues." (Module 4.1A)
histology
Describe the secretory method and functions of sebum.
holocrine; sebum lubricates hair and skin, protects the keratin of the hair shaft, and inhibits bacterial growth
The central principle of physiology is
homeostasis
The maintenance of a constant internal environment in an organism is termed
homeostasis
The tendency for physiological systems to stabilize internal conditions is called
homeostasis
The largest and strongest articulation at the elbow is the
humero-ulnar joint.
Which bone articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity?
humerus
Identify the two rounded projections on either side of the elbow, and state to which bone they belong.
humerus; lateral and medial epicondyles
What type of tissue occurs at the structure labeled "3"?
hyaline cartilage
Which type of connective tissue is found between the ribs and the sternum, or supporting the trachea?
hyaline cartilage
The weakest bond between two atoms is the ________ bond
hydrogen
Which element commonly has only a proton as its nucleus?
hydrogen
Diffusion of a substance across the cell membrane is influenced by all of the following except
hydrolysis of ATP.
Molecules that do not readily dissolve in water are called
hydrophobic.
In bone, the calcium phosphate forms crystals of
hydroxyapatite.
Which of the following functional groups of organic compounds link molecules through dehydration synthesis?
hydroxyl group
Which of the following muscles has its origin on the hyoid and inserts on the tongue?
hyoglossus
Bending at the neck to look up at the starts would ________ the neck.
hyperextend
An extension past the anatomical position is known as
hyperextension
If the membrane potential of a neuron is -80 mV, it is
hyperpolarized during the refractory period
"Spikes" form on a dehydrating blood cell when it is placed in a(n) ________ solution.
hypertonic
A solution that contains a lower osmotic pressure than the cytoplasm of a cell is called
hypotonic
Hemolysis may occur when a blood cell is placed into a(n) ________ solution
hypotonic
The skin swells and puckers during a long bath. This suggests that bath water is a(n) ________ fluid.
hypotonic
The greater sciatic notch is a feature on the
ilium.
The largest component coxal bone is the
ilium.
The sacrum articulates with the
ilium.
When homeostatic mechanisms fail, an individual will experience the symptoms of
illness or disease.
All of the following can be true about osmotic pressure except
it forces solutes toward the higher water concentration.
The end of a muscle that is attached to the point that moves when the muscle contracts is called the
insertion
Protection from environmental hazards is a function of the ________ system.
integumentary
Damage to which of the following muscles would interfere most with the ability to breathe?
intercostals
Name each meatus found in the temporal bone.
internal acoustic meatus and external acoustic meatus
The ________ passes through the ________.
internal jugular vein; jugular foramen
Which of the following are not types of neuroglia?
interneurons
________ monitor the internal environment.
interoceptors
The stage in a cell's life cycle in which the cell performs its normal functions and prepares for division is called
interphase.
All of the following are characteristics of nucleus, except
it packages and sorts products.
The shallow indentation on the superior surface of the manubrium is called the
jugular notch.
The epithelial tissue that covers skin is classified as
keratinized stratified squamous.
Which of the following organs is located between the peritoneum and the body wall?
kidney
The anatomical name for the patellar region is the
kneecap
The small bones that form the medial wall of the eye socket are the
lacrimal bones.
Which of these would not lead to increased oxygen consumption?
lactic acidosis
The space occupied by an osteocyte is called a
lacuna.
The movement of rotating a limb outward is called
lateral (external) rotation.
The pectoralis major muscle inserts on the greater tubercle of the humerus. When it contracts, it does not provide
lateral motion at the shoulder.
The procerus originates on the
lateral nasal cartilages.
The eye muscles include all of the following muscles except
lateral oblique.
Which leg movement would be impaired by injury to the obturator muscles? (Module 10.19B)
lateral rotation at the hip
Identify the muscle labeled "6."
latissimus dorsi
Na+ and K+ both use ________ to passively diffuse across the plasma membrane.
leak channels
Which muscles enable you to shrug your shoulders? (Module 10.14B)
levator scapulae
A(n) ________ is a rigid structure that moves on a fixed point.
lever
The widest intervertebral discs are found in the ________ region.
lumbar
Which of the following is not a part of the pelvis?
lumbar vertebrae
Interstitial fluid that enters a lymphatic vessel is termed
lymph
Which of the following organelles damages pathogens?
lysosomes
A molecule of ________ contains all the codons needed to produce a particular polypeptide.
mRNA
Messenger RNA is vital to the cell because
mRNA can leave the nucleus, and DNA cannot leave the nucleus.
Cells that engulf bacteria or cell debris within loose connective tissue are
macrophages.
The Na+/K+ ion pump is responsible for
maintaining the sodium/potassium concentration gradients constant.
What is the main function of mesenchymal cells?
make new connective tissue cells
You would find pseudostratified columnar epithelium lining the
male reproductive tract.
The most dangerous type of skin cancer is termed
malignant melanoma
Muscles located entirely within an organ are called
intrinsic
A common injury to the ankle occurs by excessive turning of the sole inward, termed
inversion.
Membrane-bound proteins that use metabolic energy to move ions across the plasma membrane are called
ion pumps.
All of the following are true of the hypodermis except it
is attached to the dermis by a basement membrane.
All of the following are characteristics of synovial membrane except that it
is avascular.
The costal groove
is located on the interior surface and marks the path of blood vessels.
All of the following are characteristics of the epidermis except that it
is vascularized.
The coccygeus extends from the sacrum and coccyx to which structure? (Module 10.11C)
ischial spine
After a fracture of the diaphysis has healed, the thickened region that results is called the
external callus.
EPSPs (excitatory postsynaptic potentials) occur when
extra sodium ions enter a cell.
Superficial muscles that position or stabilize an organ are called
extrinsic
The synchronous contraction of a single motor unit is known as a(n)
fasciculation
Large-diameter, densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria are characteristics of
fast fibers.
Which type of cells are spherical and contain energy molecules?
fat cells
Usually found outside the capsule, ________ protect the articular cartilages and act as
fat pads
The largest bone of the lower limb is the
femur
Which bone articulates with the coxal bone at the acetabulum?
femur
Which of these bones was not formed by the fusion of several bones?
femur
Identify the bones of the lower limb.
femur, tibia, fibula, patella, tarsal bones, metatarsal bones, and phalanges
The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the
femur.
All of the following are fixed cells of connective tissue proper, except
fibroblasts
In a penetrating wound, ________ divide to produce mobile cells that repair the dermis.
fibroblasts
Which of the following connective tissue cells produces collagen?
fibroblasts
A herniated disc is an injury of the pads of cartilage between the vertebrae in which the cartilage bulges from normal position. What type of cartilage is affected?
fibrocartilage
Syndesmosis is to ligament as symphysis is to
fibrocartilage
The type of cartilage found in the intervertebral discs is ________ cartilage.
fibrous
The lateral bulge at your ankle is a projection from the
fibula.
Which of these is not an intrinsic muscle of the foot?
flexor digitorum longus
Name the muscles involved in flexing the toes. (Module 10.21B)
flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus
Identify the intrinsic muscle that flexes the great toe. (Module 10.22B)
flexor hallucis brevis
When opposing the thumb, which muscle is active?
flexor pollicis longus
Ribs that have no connection to the sternum are called
floating ribs.
Blood belongs to which of the following types of connective tissue?
fluid connective tissue
You witness your friend Greg in a fist-fight. He is hit in the jaw and when you look at him, his face appears misaligned. You drive him to the emergency department and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken
mandible.
The lower jaw articulates with the temporal bone at the
mandibular fossa.
The medullary cavity of bones contains
marrow.
Which is larger: an element's atomic number or mass number? (Module 2.2A)
mass number
The ________ muscle acts to elevate the mandible and close the jaw.
masseter
Which of the following is not primarily a muscle of facial expression?
masseter
What type of cells contain histamine and heparin?
mast cells
A point of attachment for muscles that rotate or extend the head is the
mastoid process.
The prominent bulge just posterior and inferior to the external auditory meatus is the
mastoid process.
The sternocleidomastoid inserts on the
mastoid process.
Cancer cells
may exhibit metastasis.
In the anatomical position, the ulna is located ________ to the radius.
medial
The heart is ________ to the lungs.
medial
The movement of rotating a limb toward the anterior surface of the body is called
medial (internal) rotation.
Which muscles have their origin on the lateral pterygoid plates and their insertion on the medial surface of the ramus of the mandible? (Module 10.7B)
medial and lateral pterygoids
Which of the following is located closest to the jugular notch?
medial end of clavicle
Medial rotation of the eyeball is performed by the ________ muscle.
medial rectus
Pam's daughter is born cross-eyed. As she grows, the problem does not improve. Her physician suggests cutting an eye muscle to bring the eyes into a more normal position. Which muscle will the doctor cut?
medial rectus
Muscles located close to the midline of the body may be called
medialis.
Cellular membrane potential is measured in
millivolts
Which of the following organelles produces 95% of cell ATP?
mitochondria
Most of the ATP required to power cellular operations is produced in the
mitochondria.
Each of the following is a function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum except
modification of protein.
H2O is an example of a(n)
molecular formula
All of the following are correct regarding DNA except
molecular shape varies with hydrogen bonding along the length of the strand.
List the three structural classes of carbohydrates, and give an example of each. (Module 2.14C)
monosaccharides (glucose), disaccharides (sucrose), and polysaccharides (starch)
Breathing faster and deeper eliminates more carbon dioxide from the body than normal breathing. Under these circumstances,
more carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood in the lungs.
When acetylcholine binds to receptors at the motor end plate, the end plate membrane becomes
more permeable to sodium ions.
During activities requiring aerobic endurance,
most of the muscle's energy is produced in mitochondria.
Lumbar vertebrae are ________ massive and ________ mobile.
most; least
Receptors for acetylcholine are located on the
motor end plate
A single motor neuron together with all the muscle fibers it innervates is called a(n)
motor unit.
The sodium-potassium ion exchange pump
moves sodium and potassium opposite to the direction of their electrochemical gradients.
Which of the following movements is a good example of flexion?
moving the hand toward the shoulder
Which of the following membranes line cavities that communicate with the exterior of the body?
mucous
Unicellular exocrine glands secrete
mucus
Specific proteins are manufactured through the interaction of ________ and ________.
multiple enzymes; three types of RNA
Tissue that is specialized for contraction is ________ tissue.
muscle
Which type of tissue contracts to produce movements?
muscle
Neurons and ________ have electrically excitable membranes that propagate action potentials.
muscle cells
Which of the following cell types is long, slender and makes contractions?
muscle cells
Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for
muscle contraction.
In an isotonic contraction,
muscle tension exceeds the load and the muscle lifts the load.
In which of the following are the four tissue types arranged correctly from the highest to lowest percentage of body weight?
muscle, connective, epithelial, nervous
The superior and inferior temporal lines mark the points of attachment for
muscles that close the mouth.
In which of the following would the motor units have the fewest muscle fibers?
muscles that control the eyes
The ________ originate in the pelvic region and usually insert on the femur.
muscles that move the thigh
To produce a contraction similar to the one in graph (b), the muscle
must be stimulated again before it has relaxed from the previous stimulation.
Name the type of cell that assists the discharge of merocrine secretions, and list the glands in which such cells are present.
myoepithelial cell; apocrine and eccrine sweat glands, mammary glands, lacrimal glands, and salivary glands
Name the proteins that make up a thick filament. (Module 9.4B)
myosin and titin
Cross-bridges are portions of
myosin molecules
The nail body covers the
nail bed.
All of the following are derived from epithelial columns except
nails.
A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's pelvic outlet.
narrower
Each of the following bones is a component of the orbital complex except the ________ bone.
nasal
The narrow region between the head and diaphysis of a long bone is called the
neck
Tissue that is specialized for the conduction of electrical impulses is ________ tissue.
neural
The same ________ can have different effects depending on the properties of the ________.
neurotransmitter; receptor
A solution containing equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is
neutral.
People who are engaged in repetitive hand movements such as typing or playing the piano may suffer wrist pain, especially during palmar flexion. All of the following are true concerning this condition except that it
never causes muscle weakness.
The tiny gaps between adjacent Schwann cells are called
nodes.
Lateral to the coronoid process, the radial ________ accommodates the head of the radius in the radioulnar joint.
notch
The nucleus is surrounded by the
nuclear envelope.
Transfer of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytosol occurs through
nuclear pores.
Molecules that store and process genetic information are
nucleic acids.
The components of ribosomes are synthesized by
nucleoli.
Which organelle is most prominent in cells that make large amounts of protein?
nucleolus
Histones are found in
nucleosomes.
What is the individual subunit of nucleic acid called?
nucleotide
Which organelle is visible under light microscope?
nucleus
Which of the following is improperly matched?
nursemaid's elbow — iliofemoral ligament
The opening in the diaphysis through which blood vessels provide oxygen to osteons is named the ________ foramen.
nutrient
The foramen magnum is found in the ________ bone.
occipital
Identify the bones of the cranium.
occipital bone, frontal bone, sphenoid, ethmoid, and the paired parietal and temporal bones
In which bone is the foramen magnum located, and what is significant about this opening?
occipital; surrounds the connection between the brain and the spinal cord
Which of the following movements is a good example of depression?
opening the mouth
The "kissing muscle" that purses the lips is the
orbicularis oris.
Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are classified as
organic molecules.
Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the most complex to the simplest?
organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular
The lacunae of osseous tissue contain
osteocytes.
The most abundant cell type in bone is
osteocytes.
Stem cells that can differentiate into osteoblasts are important in
osteogenesis.
What is the functional unit of compact bone? (Module 4.14C)
osteon
The chemical behavior of an atom is determined by the
outermost electron shell.
Which of the following organs is not contained within the abdominal cavity?
ovary
By weight, which element is the most plentiful in the human body?
oxygen
What basic reactants do mitochondria absorb from the cytosol to synthesize ATP? (Module 9.12A)
oxygen, ADP, phosphate ions, and organic substrates
Cyanosis signifies that a patient has
oxygen-starved skin
The ________ of a solution is the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration expressed in moles per liter.
pH
Of the list below, which has the highest concentration of hydroxide ions?
pH 14
Define pH. (Module 2.12A)
pH is a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution.
Which has the greater concentration of hydrogen ions, a substance with a pH of 5 or a substance with a pH of 4?
pH of 4 is greater.
Which pH is closest to normal blood pH?
pH of 7
Name the primary vertebral ligaments.
paired ligamenta flava, posterior longitudinal ligament, interspinous ligament, supraspinous ligament, and anterior longitudinal ligament
Which muscles elevate the soft palate? (Module 10.8B)
palatal muscles
The muscle that elevates the tongue is the
palatoglossus
During an inflammatory response to injury, which of the following is least likely in the region of the injury?
pale, cold skin
Which intrinsic muscle does not originate on a carpal bone?
palmar interosseus
Most of the skeletal muscles in the body are ________ muscles.
parallel
Muscles with fibers that run parallel to the long axis of the body are called
parallel
In relationship to the diaphysis of a long bone, the osteons are
parallel.
The nasal complex includes the bones that enclose the nasal cavity and the ________ sinuses.
paranasal
A cut parallel to the midsagittal plane would produce a ________ section.
parasagittal
Identify the hormone that stimulates the release of calcium ions from bone matrix. Explain its mechanism of action.
parathyroid hormone; increases osteoclast break down of bone matrix
Identify the sesamoid bone of the lower limb.
patella
The ligament that provides support to the front of the knee joint is the ________ ligament.
patellar
All of these muscles produce lateral rotation at the hip except the
pectineus
Which of the following is not part of the axial division of the skeletal system?
pectoral girdle
Which of the following terms refers to the foot?
pedal
The space enclosed by the true pelvis is called the
pelvic inlet.
The quadrants of the abdominopelvic region include all of the following except the
pelvic quadrant.
The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of the
pelvis.
Muscles with fibers that run at an angle to the long axis of the body are called
pennate
Skeletal muscles in which the fascicles form a common angle with the tendon are ________ muscles.
pennate
Blood is distributed from the surface of a bone to deeper central canals through channels known as
perforating canals.
The thoracic cavity contains the
pericardial and pleural cavities.
Which of the following structures is located within the mediastinum?
pericardial sac
Cartilage is separated from surrounding tissues by a fibrous
perichondrium
The cytoplasm that surrounds the nucleus of a neuron is called the
perikaryon
Nerves and blood vessels that service the muscle fibers are located in the connective tissues of the
perimysium
If a surgeon makes an incision just inferior to the diaphragm, which body cavity will be opened? (Module 1.22C)
peritoneal portion of the abdominopelvic cavity
The serous membrane covering the stomach and most of the intestines is called the
peritoneum
The ________ of a membrane indicates how easy it is for substances to cross.
permeability
Channels
permit the passage of water and small solutes.
Which of the following organelles neutralizes toxic compound during cell metabolism?
peroxisome
Which of the following is not one of the forms of fascicle organization?
perpendicular
The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the
perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the vomer bone.
Some white blood cells engulf bacteria and bring them into the cell. What is this process called? (Module 3.17D)
phagocytosis
A defense cell engulfing a bacterium illustrates
phagocytosis.
Which structural component of the plasma membrane is mostly responsible for isolating a cell from its external environment? (Module 3.3A)
phospholipids
The bumpy bone on the medial side of your wrist is actually the ________ bone.
pisiform
The hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica contains the ________ gland.
pituitary
The intercarpal articulations are ________ joints.
plane
The joints between vertebrae are examples of ________ joints.
plane
Which type of joint is found between the carpal bones?
plane
Identify the types of synovial joints.
plane, hinge, pivot, condylar, saddle, and ball-and-socket joint
The three major subdivisions of extracellular fluid found in the body are
plasma, lymph, and interstitial fluid.
The anterior muscle that inserts widely on the periosteum of the mandible and the skin of the cheek is the
platysma
Which cavities in the body are lined by serous membranes? (Module 4.15A)
pleural, peritoneal, and pericardial
Of the following clinical conditions affecting skeletal muscle, which is caused by a virus?
polio
Identify the muscle whose origin is on the lateral condyle of the femur. (Module 10.20C)
popliteus
The muscle that medially rotates and flexes (unlocks) the knee joint is the
popliteus
If a response increases a disturbance, the system is classified as a ________ feedback system.
positive
Are the wrist extensors located on the anterior surface or the posterior surface of the forearm? (Module 10.16B)
posterior surface
The anterior fontanel is
posterior to the frontal bone and anterior to the parietal bones.
Which of the following is an ion that is more concentrated inside the cell than outside?
potassium
Kinetic energy is stored as ________ energy when a spring is stretched.
potential
The separation of plus and negative charges across the membrane creates a ________ difference, or voltage.
potential
The intrinsic muscles of the hand originate
primarily on the carpal and metacarpal bones, and insert on the phalanges.
A sequence of amino acids bonded together in a linear chain is called a
primary structure.
The advantage of having many nuclei in a skeletal muscle fiber is the ability to
produce large amounts of the muscle proteins needed for muscle contraction.
All of the following are true of perspiration produced by merocrine sweat glands except that it
produces the body odor characteristic of "sweating."
All of the following are part of the inflammation response except
production of collagenous framework
Many gyms feature weightlifting machines called "adductor machines" that are used to strengthen the thighs. If you were to work out on one of these, what would you be doing?
pulling both thighs inward toward a center point, bringing your knees together
Adenine and guanine are
purines represented by A and G
Ribosomes are composed of protein and
rRNA.
Which ligaments stabilize the medial and lateral surfaces of the elbow joint?
radial collateral ligament and ulnar collateral ligament
Fast muscle fibers can adapt to aerobic metabolism by generating more mitochondria in response to
repeated, exhaustive stimulation.
If potassium channels were blocked, the ________ phase of the action potential would not occur normally.
repolarization
Mitosis is to somatic cells as meiosis is to ________ cells.
reproductive
Describe the basic processes in humans and other animals. (Module 1.7C)
respiration, digestion, circulation, and excretion
The sacrum does not protect organs in the ________ system.
respiratory
Which organ system removes carbon dioxide from the bloodstream?
respiratory
The layer of the skin that contains bundles of collagen and elastic fibers responsible for the strength of the skin is the ________ layer.
reticular
The framework or stroma of organs such as the spleen, liver, and lymph nodes is made up of ________ tissue.
reticular connective
The zygomaticus major muscle acts to
retract and elevate the corner of the mouth.
Muscles of the rotator cuff include all of the following except the
rhomboid
The muscle that adducts and rotates the scapula downward is the
rhomboid
Reflection of the trapezius muscle exposes the
rhomboid minor and levator scapulae muscles.
What is the term for rRNA?
ribosomal ribonucleic acid
The floating ribs are
ribs 11-12 and also called vertebral ribs.
While performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an unconscious person, you are careful to position your hands correctly to avoid damage to the
ribs and xiphoid process.
Look at the woman standing. On which wrist is her bracelet found? (Module 1.4A)
right
The urinary bladder is found in the ________ quadrant and the ________ quadrant.
right lower; left lower
The right pleural cavity contains the
right lung
Quincy suffers a hit to the skull that fractures the right superior lateral surface of his cranium. Which bone is fractured?
right parietal bone
The liver is primarily located in the ________ quadrant.
right upper
After death, muscle fibers run out of ATP and calcium begins to leak from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. This results in a condition known as
rigor mortis.
Which of the structural representations of glucose shown below is more common in the body? (Module 2.14B)
ring form
All of the following are structural classifications of synovial joints except
rolling
Nail production occurs at the nail
root.
Each of the following statements concerning hair is true except
scalp hairs grow constantly throughout life.
Name the carpal bones.
scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate
The coracoid process is a part of which bone?
scapula
The three sides of this bone form a broad triangle.
scapula
Name the bones of the pectoral girdles.
scapula and clavicle
Which of the following is a holocrine exocrine gland?
sebaceous
Contracting the gastrocnemius muscles to elevate the body on the toes involves a ________ lever.
second-class
All of the following are correct regarding protein denaturation except
secondary structure becomes nonfunctional.
Merocrine sweat glands
secrete a watery fluid directly onto the surface of the skin.
Epithelial cells exhibit modifications that adapt them for
secretion.
Cell membranes are said to be ________ because they allow some substances to pass but not others.
selectively permeable
Each of the following is associated with the temporal bone, except the
sella turcica.
Which division of the PNS brings information to the CNS? (Module 11.1B)
sensory
Are unipolar neurons in a tissue sample of the PNS more likely to have a sensory or a motor function? (Module 11.3C)
sensory function
The mediastinum
separates the pleural cavities, and contains the pericardial cavity.
Which of the following is important in emotional states?
serotonin
Adhesions of abdominopelvic organs due to friction occur when ________ is/are damaged.
serous membranes
The reduction of friction between the parietal and visceral surfaces of an internal cavity is the function of
serous membranes.
Which of the following is not a function of membrane proteins?
serve as cell nutrients
A shortage of cholesterol in the body could interfere with the formation of
sex hormones.
A factor that does not increase the stability of the hip joint include
shallow socket.
The carpal bones are examples of ________ bones.
short
Since each myofibril is attached at either end of the muscle fiber, when sarcomeres shorten, the muscle fiber
shortens
The joint that permits the greatest range of mobility of any joint in the body is the ________ joint.
shoulder
Name the type of synovial joint for each of the following: shoulder, elbow, ankle, and thumb.
shoulder: ball-and-socket; elbow: hinge; ankle: plane; thumb: saddle.
Which of the following activities or sensations is not monitored by interoceptors?
sight
Which of the following lists contains only trace elements?
silicon, fluorine,
A gland formed by cells arranged in a blind round pocket with a single unbranched duct would be called
simple alveolar (acinar).
Merocrine sweat glands are classified as
simple coiled tubular
The body's most delicate type of epithelium is the ________ epithelium.
simple squamous
The epithelial cells that are flat, thin and have one layer are called
simple squamous.
If one pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms, a ________ occurs.If one pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms, a ________ occurs.
single polar covalent bond
A chamber within a bone normally filled with air is a
sinus.
Which organ system provides support, protection of soft tissue, mineral storage, and blood formation?
skeletal
Of the following tissues, which has the least ability to regenerate after injury?
skeletal muscle
Which muscle types are voluntary, and which are involuntary? (Module 9.1B)
skeletal muscle is voluntary, and cardiac and smooth muscles are involuntary
Gap junctions can be found in all of the following tissues except
skeletal muscle.
The substance called sebum is commonly known as
skin oil.
The structural explanation of how a muscle fiber contracts is called the
sliding filament theory.
The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ________ fiber.
slow
The muscle tissue that shows no striations is ________ muscle.
smooth
Synthesis of lipids and glycogen takes place at the
smooth ER.
Which organelle synthesizes lipids and carbohydrates?
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Which type of muscle tissue regulates blood vessel diameter? (Module 4.17A)
smooth muscle tissue
When cholinergic receptors are stimulated with acetylcholine,
sodium ions enter the postsynaptic neuron.
In order to maintain cellular homeostasis, an exchange pump ejects ________ ions from the cell and imports ________ ions.
sodium; potassium
The principal cations in our body fluids are ________ and ________.
sodium; potassium
A(n) ________ is a homogeneous mixture containing a solvent and a solute.
solution
The ________ nervous system controls the skeletal muscles.
somatic
The buildup of depolarization when EPSPs arrive at several places on the neuron is called ________ summation.
spatial
Summation that results from the cumulative effect of multiple synapses at multiple places on the neuron is designated
spatial summation.
Identify the three basic components of connective tissue. (Module 4.10A)
specialized cells, protein fibers, and ground substance
The "Turkish saddle" is a feature of which bone?
sphenoid
A skull bone that could be described as looking like a bat with wings extended is the
sphenoid.
Identify the bone containing the optic canals, and cite the structures using this passageway.
sphenoid; optic nerve and the ophthalmic artery
Which bone contains the sella turcica? What structure is found within the sella turcica depression?
sphenoid; pituitary gland
The ________ extends the neck.
spinalis cervicis
When you run your finger down the middle of a person's spine, what part of each vertebra are you feeling just beneath the skin?
spinous processes
A ________ fracture is produced by twisting stresses applied to the bone.
spiral
The type of bone that is adapted to withstand stresses that arrive from many directions is ________ bone.
spongy
Which of the following movements is a good example of abduction?
spreading the fingers
Name the sutures that mark the boundaries of each parietal bone.
squamous, coronal, and lambdoid sutures
Which of the following are large polysaccharides and major dietary source of energy?
starch
Special cells called ________ cells maintain tissues by unending cycles of cell division.
stem
Skin can regenerate effectively even after considerable damage has occurred because
stem cells persist in both epithelial and connective-tissue components of the skin even after injury.
Which joint attaches the pectoral girdle and upper limb to the axial skeleton?
sternoclavicular joint
Which of the following is an axial muscle?
sternocleidomastoid
Which of the following does not originate or insert on the hyoid bone?
sternothyroid
Which bone(s) include(s) a manubrium?
sternum
Examination of a sample of glandular cells reveals an extensive network of smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Which of the following is the likeliest product of these cells?
steroid hormones
Which of the following is a structural component of digestive secretions in bile?
steroids
Which of the following is a structural component of hormones?
steroids
Which of the following is not a function that membrane proteins perform?
stiffening the membrane
Epidermal growth factor exerts all of the following effects on the epidermis except
stimulating melanin production.
Which of the following substances would be most acidic?
stomach secretions, pH = 1
Which of the following best describes the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
storage and release site for calcium ions
The ________ epithelium is found in the large pancreatic ducts.
stratified columnar
The ducts of sweat glands and mammary glands are covered by ________ epithelium.
stratified cuboidal
All of the following types of epithelium can be found where absorption or secretion takes place except
stratified squamous.
From what layer of skin are melanosomes released?
stratum basale
In which layer of skin are keratinocytes produced?
stratum basale
The layer of dividing cells at the base of the epidermis is the
stratum basale
) Dandruff is caused by excessive shedding of cells from the outer layer of skin on the scalp.
stratum corneum
Identify the five layers of the epidermis (from superficial to deep).
stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
Insensible perspiration takes place in the
stratum corneum.
The tough "horny" superficial layer of the epidermis is known as the
stratum corneum.
A splinter that penetrates to the third layer of epidermis of the palm is lodged in which layer?
stratum granulosum
Describe the functions of the cytoskeleton. (Module 3.2C)
strengthens and supports the cells and enables movement of cellular structures and materials
What term means the fibrous supporting network formed of reticular fibers? (Module 4.11D)
stroma
When placed in water, an inorganic compound dissociates 99 percent, forming hydrogen ions and anions. This compound would be a
strong acid.
What three characteristics are used to describe multicellular exocrine glands? (Module 4.9A)
structure of the duct, shape of the secretory area, and relationship between the duct and secretory areas
Anatomy is to ________ as physiology is to ________.
structure; function
The ________ of the radius helps stabilize the wrist joint.
styloid process
Ligaments that support the hyoid bone are attached to the
styloid process.
Which muscle originates on the first rib and inserts on the inferior border of the clavicle? (Module 10.14C)
subclavius
Which of the following is not a muscle of the rotator cuff?
subclavius
Which muscle originates on the anterior surface of the scapula and inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus? (Module 10.15A)
subscapularis
What are the reactants in an enzymatic reaction called? (Module 2.18A)
substrates
Name the three layers of fascia and their types of connective tissue. (Module 4.15C)
superficial fascia consists of adipose and areolar tissue; deep fascia consists of dense regular tissue; and subserous fascia consists entirely of areolar tissue
What are the four indications of inflammation that occur following an injury? (Module 4.18B)
swelling, redness, heat, and pain
The site of intercellular communication between neurons is the
synapse
Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a motor neuron at a single
synaptic cleft.
The narrow space between the synaptic terminal and the muscle fiber is the
synaptic cleft.
If the chemically gated sodium channels in the postsynaptic membrane were completely blocked,
synaptic transmission would fail.
A suture is an example of a(n)
synarthrosis
An immovable joint is a(n)
synarthrosis
Which of the following is not one of the four major types of synarthrotic joints?
syndesmosis
A ligamentous connection such as an interosseous ligament is termed a
syndesmosis.
A muscle that assists the muscle that is primarily responsible for a given action is a(n)
synergist
An epiphyseal line is an example of a
synostosis
Which structural category of joints allows for the greatest range of motion?
synovial
Which of the following is not considered to be an accessory synovial structure?
synovial membrane
AB → A + B is to decomposition as A + B → AB is to
synthesis
Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except
synthesis of vitamin C.
The reaction N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3 is an example of a(n)
synthesis reaction.
Amino acids are transferred to the ribosome to be incorporated into a growing polypeptide chain by
tRNA.
As each codon arrives at the active site of a ribosome, it attracts another molecule containing the anticodon. This molecule is called
tRNA.
The movements known as dorsiflexion and plantar flexion are limited to the
talocrural.
An example of a receptor in a negative feedback loop controlling body temperature would be
temperature sensors on the skin that detect a stimulus.
The external acoustic meatus is a foramen in which skull bone?
temporal
The zygomatic bone articulates with the ________ bone to form the zygomatic arch.
temporal
The zygomatic arch is formed by the union of processes from which two bones?
temporal and zygomatic
The styloid process, zygomatic process, and auditory ossicles are associated with the
temporal bone.
Identify the bone containing the carotid canal, and name the structure that runs through this passageway.
temporal bone; internal carotid artery
When a second EPSP arrives at a single synapse before the effects of the first have disappeared, what occurs?
temporal summation
If the concentration of sodium chloride in the interstitial fluid surrounding cells decreases and the concentration of other solutes remains constant,
the cells will swell.
What two factors limit the rate of facilitated diffusion across a plasma membrane? (Module 3.16B)
the concentration gradient of the substance and the number of carrier proteins
Which of the following is greater?
the concentration of calcium ion in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of a resting muscle
Membrane potential is
the electrical gradient of a cell.
Accessory structures of the skin include all of the following except
the epidermis.
Secondary ossification centers occur in
the epiphyses.
Identify the cell from which all the cells of your body are descendants. (Module 3.1B)
the fertilized ovum
What is human A&P? (Module 1.1A
the field of human anatomy and physiology
A high-energy bond in ATP is present between
the first and second, and the second and third, phosphate groups
If the papilla of a hair follicle is destroyed,
the follicle will lose its blood supply.
Which of the following is the insertion of the pectoralis major?
the greater tubercle of the humerus
All of the following are correct regarding hair growth cycle except that
the hair becomes club hair during regression phase.
Which of the following acts as an ATPase during the contraction cycle of muscle?
the head portion of the myosin molecule
The insertion of the flexor hallucis longus is
the inferior surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe.
The loose connective tissue component of a mucous membrane is called
the lamina propria.
Name the septa that divide the arm into anterior and posterior compartments. (Module 10.23A)
the lateral and medial intermuscular septa
If the axon terminal of a motor neuron suddenly became permeable to calcium ions,
the motor end plate will be depolarized.
The ER is connected to and continuous with what other organelle in the cell?
the nuclear envelope around the nucleus
What makes a connective tissue "loose" or "dense"? (Module 4.12A)
the packing or volume of fibers
Identify the facial bones.
the paired nasal, lacrimal, palatine, zygomatic, maxillae, and inferior nasal conchae, and the unpaired vomer and mandible
Which one of the following best defines differentiation?
the process of gradual structural and functional specialization of daughter cells
Facilitated diffusion differs from ordinary diffusion in that
the rate of molecular movement is limited by the number of available carrier molecules.
Motile cilia cover the free surface of
the respiratory tract.
During mitosis, two daughter cells form, each of which has
the same number of chromosomes as the original cell.
All of the following are structures of the cardiovascular system, except
the spleen.
What is formula weight? (Module 2.7C)
the sum of the atomic weights of the elements making up an ionic compound
Bill accidentally fractures his first distal phalanx with a hammer. Which finger is broken?
the tip of his thumb
As you proceed from the head down the vertebral column,
the vertebrae become larger and heavier.
Which property of water helps keep body temperature stabilized?
thermal inertia
All of the following are correct about integral protein, except
they are bound to the inner surface of plasma membrane.
What is the most important function of carbohydrates? (Module 2.14A)
they are the primary energy source
The most common lever systems in the body are those that have the applied force between the fulcrum and the load. These are called ________ levers.
third-class
Identify the body cavities of the trunk. (Module 1.22B)
thoracic cavity (which contains the pleural and pericardial cavities) and the abdominopelvic cavity (consisting of the peritoneal, abdominal, and pelvic cavities)
The muscle known as the diaphragm separates the ________ from the ________.
thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity
The ribs articulate with the
thoracic vertebrae.
The minimum stimulus required to trigger an action potential is known as the
threshold.
The anatomical name for the pollex is the
thumb
The pyrimidine bases found in DNA are ________ and ________.
thymine; cytosine
The medial border of the fibula is bound to the ________ by the interosseous membrane.
tibia
Your ________ is your shinbone.
tibia
The medial malleolus is found on the
tibia.
The medial surface of the knee joint is reinforced by the ________ ligament.
tibial collateral
Identify the muscle labeled "11."
tibialis anterior
A muscle that dorsiflexes the foot is the
tibialis anterior.
An antagonist to the gastrocnemius is the
tibialis anterior.
Which of the following proteins is not found as a part of thin filaments?
titin
A muscle whose name ends in the suffix "-glossus" would be found within or attached to the
tongue
The interconnecting struts and plates found in spongy bone are called
trabeculae.
The process of forming mRNA is called
transcription.
What is the term for tRNA?
transfer ribonucleic acid
Identify the epithelium that lines the urinary bladder, and describe its unusual functional characteristic. (Module 4.6B)
transitional epithelium, allows for repeated stretching and recoiling back to its original shape
Which of the following structures would you use to get the best resolution when viewing a sample?
transmission electron microscope
To which part of the vertebra do the intervertebral discs attach?
transverse process
The ribs articulate with the ________ of the vertebrae.
transverse processes
The action potential is conducted into a skeletal muscle fiber by
transverse tubules.
Muscles with fibers that run perpendicular to the long axis of the body are called
transversus
Which muscle forms the deepest layer of the abdominal wall muscles? (Module 10.10A)
transversus abdominis
Identify the largest of the superficial muscles that position the pectoral girdle. (Module 10.14A)
trapezius
Identify the muscle labeled "1."
trapezius
The muscle that inserts on the acromion and scapular spine is the
trapezius
The complex of a transverse tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae is known as a(n)
triad.
The muscle that extends the arm while doing push-ups is the
triceps brachii.
Which one of the following must be broken down to fatty acids and glycerol for use as an energy source?
triglycerides
The large proximal projection on the femur is termed the
trochanter.
A ________ is a smooth, grooved bone process shaped like a pulley.
trochlea
At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by
tropomyosin molecules.
When calcium ion binds to troponin,
tropomyosin moves into the groove between the helical actin strands.
At rest, the tropomyosin molecule is held in place by
troponin molecules.
The pelvic organs are mostly found within the
true pelvis.
A small rough bump on bone where a tendon attaches is called a
tuberosity.
Which of the following movements is a good example of supination?
turning the hand palm upward
Each thin filament consists of
two protein strands coiled helically around each other.
The distal radius articulates with the head of the ulna at the
ulnar notch.
Goblet cells are classified as
unicellular exocrine glands.
In a(n) ________ neuron, the dendrites and axon are continuous or fused.
unipolar
Neurons in which dendritic and axonal processes are continuous and the soma lies off to one side are called
unipolar
Sensory neurons of the PNS are
unipolar
Which of the following is not considered an abdominopelvic region?
upper right
Elimination of excess water, salts, and waste products are functions of the ________ system.
urinary
Each of the following muscles acts to flex the leg except the
vastus lateralis.
The vertebra prominens is another name for the ________ vertebra.
venth cervical
Which of the following bones is classified as "irregular" in shape?
vertebra
Gesturing "no" with the head does not depends on which of the following?
vertebra prominens
The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the
vertebral body.
Ribs 8 to 10 are called ________ because they do not attach directly to the sternum.
vertebrochondral ribs
Neurotransmitter for release is stored in synaptic
vesicles
Which of the following transport processes always requires metabolic energy?
vesicular transport
Which type of membrane channels are found in axons?
voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels
Of the following bones, which is unpaired?
vomer
The inferior portion of the nasal septum is formed by the
vomer.
The paranasal sinuses are located in all of the following bones except the
vomer.
Hydrophilic molecules readily associate with
water molecules
In hydrolysis reactions, compounds react with
water, causing decomposition
Describe lipids in terms of their elemental composition and solubility in water. (Module 2.15A)
water-insoluble organic compounds made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
If a second stimulus arrives before the relaxation phase has ended, a second, more powerful contraction occurs. This is called
wave summation.
The condition known as "flat feet" is due to a lower-than-normal longitudinal arch in the foot. A problem with which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition?
weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals
Which of the following does not influence the time necessary for a nerve impulse to be transmitted?
whether or not the impulse begins in the CNS
Regions of the CNS with an abundance of myelinated axons constitute the ________ matter.
white
Defense cells in blood are called
white blood cells
The three kinds of formed elements in blood are
white cells, red cells, and platelets.
Most CNS neurons lack centrioles. This observation explains
why CNS neurons cannot divide.
Which of the following describes the action of the corrugator supercilii?
wrinkles the brow
The common term for the carpal region is the
wrist
Tina falls and fractures her pisiform bone. What part of her body was injured?
wrist
The temporalis muscle passes through the
zygomatic arch.
When the arrector pili muscles contract,
"goose bumps" are formed.
Explain two key concepts of the sarcomere length-tension relationship. (Module 9.9B)
(1) The greater the zone of overlap, the greater the tension the muscle can develop; and (2) there is an optimum range of actin and myosin overlap that will produce the greatest amount of tension.
What type of section would separate (1) the two eyes? (2) the nose and two ears? (3) the neck and naval? (Module 1.21B)
(1) sagittal (or mid-sagittal, if along midline); (2) frontal; (3) transverse, or horizontal
How many nuclei do most body cells contain? (Module 3.8B)
1
Each hand has ________ phalangeal bones.
14
If an isotope of oxygen has 8 protons, 10 neutrons, and 8 electrons, its mass number is
18
A skeletal muscle fiber can contract until it has shortened by about
30 percent.
The leverage of the biceps brachii applies its force six times closer to the fulcrum (elbow joint) than the resistance. This means it will need to exert ________ kg of force to support a load of 6 kg.
36
In Figure 3-1, which structure is related to glycocalyx?
4
Where are the myosin molecules located?
5
Why does a pennate muscle generate more tension than does a parallel muscle of the same size? (Module 10.2A)
A pennate muscle generates more tension because a pennate muscle contains more muscle fibers than a parallel muscle.
What kind of bond forms during the dehydration synthesis of two amino acids, and which functional groups are involved? (Module 2.17B)
A peptide bond forms between the amino group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of the other amino acid
Describe a person in the anatomical position. (Module 1.20A)
A person in anatomical position is standing erect, facing the observer, arms at the sides with the palms facing forward, and the feet together.
Describe the components of a chemical synapse. (Module 11.12A)
A presynaptic cell and a postsynaptic cell whose plasma membranes are separated by a narrow synaptic cleft
Define retinaculum. (Module 10.16A)
A retinaculum is a wide band of connective tissue that stabilizes tendons.
What functions are associated with a simple cuboidal epithelium and a transitional epithelium? (Module 4.6D)
A simple cuboidal epithelium is associated with secretion and absorption, and a transitional epithelium is associated with stretching.
Define suture.
A suture is a fibrous connective tissue immovable joint between the flat bones of the skull.
Describe a synapse. (Module 11.2B)
A synapse is where one neuron communicates with another cell.
Which ligament is a severely hyperextended knee more likely to damage: the ACL or the PCL?
ACL
AMP + P →
ADP
The anticodon for the triplet UCA is
AGU.
Adding a phosphate group to adenosine forms
AMP
Compare AMP with ADP. (Module 2.19B)
AMP has one phosphate group and ADP has two phosphate groups.
The endoplasmic reticulum is not responsible for ________ synthesis.
ATP
The sternum contains
All of the answers are correct.
Which of the following muscles belongs to the flexors of the knee muscle group?
All of the answers are correct.
Which of the following statements about the coccyx is true?
All of the answers are correct.
Which of these is one of the auditory ossicles?
All of the answers are correct.
Why would an elderly person be more prone to skin infections than a younger person?
All of the answers are correct.
Why can inflammation occur in any organ in the body? (Module 4.18C)
All organs have connective tissues.
Describe the all-or-none principle. (Module 11.10B)
All stimuli that bring the membrane to threshold will generate identical action potentials.
Define action potential. (Module 11.10A)
An action potential is the propagated change in membrane potential of an excitable cell.
Define apoptosis. (Module 3.18B)
Apoptosis is genetically controlled cell death.
Contrast appositional and interstitial growth of cartilage. (Module 4.13C)
Appositional growth adds new layers to the outside, and interstitial growth enlarges the cartilage from within.
Define appositional growth.
Appositional growth is an increase in bone diameter due to the addition of bone matrix at the bone's outer surface.
________ prevents damaging bone-to-bone contact within movable joints.
Articular cartilage
Where is articular cartilage found, and how is it nourished?
Articular cartilage is found covering both epiphyseal portions of articulating bone and nutrients diffuse from synovial fluid within the joint.
Define the term biology. (Module 1.1B)
Biology is the study of life.
________ neurons are short, with a cell body between dendrite and axon, and occur in special sense organs.
Bipolar
How do epithelial tissues obtain needed nutrients? (Module 4.4C)
Blood vessels travel through underlying tissues to provide nutrients.
Distinguish between the two types of supporting tissues with respect to their characteristic fibers. (Module 4.14D)
Bone contains only collagen fibers, whereas cartilage can contain collagen, elastic, and reticular fibers.
Define phalanges.
Bones that make up the fingers or toes.
Which of the labels in Figure 4-1 indicates an adhesion belt
C
Using chemical notation, write the molecular formula for glucose, a compound composed of 6 carbon (C) atoms, 12 hydrogen (H) atoms, and 6 oxygen (O) atoms. (Module 2.7D)
C6H12O6
The nucleotide sequence of three mRNA codons is AUU-GCA-CUA. What is the complementary anticodon sequence for the second codon? (Module 3.12B)
CGU
Central adiposity is strongly associated with
Cardiovascular disorders
________ is a pigment found in vegetables that can make the skin appear orange or yellow. A) Melanin
Carotene
What do the transport processes of facilitated diffusion and active transport have in common? (Module 3.16C)
Carrier proteins are used to transport materials in both processes.
Which of the following interactions between electrical and chemical gradients does not lead to the establishment of a neuron's resting potential?
Electrical forces push sodium ions out of the cell.
________ are soluble inorganic compounds whose solutions will conduct an electric current.
Electrolytes
Define electrolytes. (Module 2.11B)
Electrolytes are ions that will conduct an electrical current in a solution.
Describe the subatomic particle not in the nucleus. (Module 2.1C)
Electrons are not in the nucleus. They whirl around the nucleus creating an electron cloud.
Define endochondral ossification.
Endochondral ossification is the replacement of a cartilage model with bone.
________ secrete hormones and prohormones in the interstitial fluid, which later enters blood.
Endocrine glands
________ tissues combine to form body membranes that cover and protect other structures and tissues in the body.
Epithelia and connective
________ provide information about the external environment.
Exteroceptors
Which of the following statements is/are not true regarding human muscles?
Fast fibers are high in myoglobin.
________ are non-ossified fibrous attachments between cranial bones.
Fontanelles
What purposes do fontanelles serve?
Fontanelles permit flexibility of the skull during childbirth and allow room for the brain to enlarge during infancy and early childhood.
Which of the following does not occur when the articular cartilage is damaged?
Friction in the joint decreases.
Which phase of the cell cycle has the most variable duration?
G0 phase
A cell is actively manufacturing enough organelles to serve two functional cells. This cell is probably in what phase of interphase? (Module 3.19B)
G1
Define gated ion channels. (Module 11.8A)
Gated ion channels are channels that open or close in response to specific stimuli.
How is genetic information coded in the cell? (Module 3.8A)
Genetic information is coded by the sequence of nucleotides in DNA.
________ is the study of tissue structures.
Histology
The molecule H2 is known as
Hydrogen
Define information processing. (Module 11.6C)
Information processing is the integration of stimuli by an individual cell.
Which of the following is true of the orbital complex?
Infra-orbital foramen are formed by maxillae.
Carbon-12 (12C) is the most common form of the element carbon. How is the isotope carbon-13 (13C) similar to and different from 12C? (Module 2.2B)
Isotope 13C has the same chemical properties but has one more neutron than 12C
Which languages are the source of many modern anatomical terms? (Module 1.19A)
Latin and Greek
In a sarcomere, thick filaments are linked laterally by proteins of the
M line.
What is transcription? (Module 3.11A)
Making an RNA strand from the DNA template.
What happens to the lactate produced by skeletal muscle during peak activity? (Module 9.13C)
Most of the lactate diffuses into the bloodstream and enters the liver where it is converted to pyruvate.
Which statement about the microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle fibers is not true?
Multiple myofibrils link end-to-end along length of the muscle cell.
If a single EPSP depolarizes the initial segment from a resting membrane potential of -70 mV to -65 mV, and threshold is at -60 mV, will an action potential be generated? Explain your answer. (Module 11.13C)
No, because depolarization did not reach threshold.
Which of the following is not a component of the appendicular skeleton?
None of these; all are appendicular bones.
________ molecules are compounds that contain carbon as the primary structural atom.
Organic
What is the ratio of organic compounds to inorganic components in the composition of bone?
Organic compounds make up 33%; inorganic components make up 67%.
________ is also known as degenerative joint disease.
Osteoarthritis
Define oxygen debt (excess postexercise oxygen consumption). (Module 9.13B)
Oxygen debt is the amount of oxygen intake required to produce the ATP needed to restore the body after strenuous activity.
Distinguish between passive and active processes of membrane passage. (Module 3.13C)
Passive processes do not need ATP and active processes do need ATP.
The enzyme ________ is required for the synthesis of mRNA.
RNA polymerase
Define range of motion (ROM). (Module 8.1A)
Range of motion is the amount of movement at a joint.
How are chemical reactions represented? (Module 2.7B)
Reactions are represented by chemical equations and the arrow represents the direction of the reaction.
Describe the role of regulatory neurons. (Module 11.14A)
Regulatory neurons facilitate or inhibit the activities of presynaptic neurons by affecting the membrane of the cell body or by altering the sensitivity of axon terminals.
Define resting membrane potential. (Module 11.7A)
Resting membrane potential is the membrane potential of an unstimulated cell.
________ is a general term for pain and stiffness that affects the skeletal or muscular system.
Rheumatism
Explain why small insects can walk on the surface of a pond and why tears protect the surface of the eye from dust particles. (Module 2.5C)
The attraction of water molecules creates a surface tension barrier that prevents small objects from penetrating the water.
What are the divisions and functions of the muscular system? (Module 10.1A)
The axial division support and position the axial skeleton and the appendicular division support and move the limbs.
If the amount of chloride ion in blood plasma increases, which of the following would initially occur?
The blood osmotic pressure will increase.
If osteoclast activity exceeds osteoblast activity in a bone, how will bone mass be affected?
The bone mineral content will decrease and thus bone mass will decrease.
In endochondral ossification, what is the original source of osteoblasts?
The differentiation of cells in the inner layer of the perichondrium.
Explain the relationship between load and speed of muscle contraction. (Module 9.11A)
The greater the load on a muscle, the longer it takes for the muscle to shorten, and the less it shortens
What happens when an arrector pili muscle contracts?
The hair follicle becomes erect, producing "goose bumps."
Describe the orientations of phospholipids and glycolipids when they form a micelle
The hydrophobic tails are inside, and the hydrophilic heads form the surface of the micelle.
If the potassium permeability of a resting neuron increases above the resting permeability, what effect will this have on the transmembrane potential?
The inside of the membrane will become more negative.
What sarcomere characteristic affects the amount of tension produced when a skeletal muscle fiber contracts? (Module 9.9A)
The length of the sarcomere.
During anaerobic glycolysis, which of the following does not occur?
The mitochondria are required.
Which of the following statements is false?
The more movement a joint allows, the stronger the joint.
What would happen if there were no AChE in the synaptic cleft? (Module 9.6C)
The motor end plate would be continuously stimulated and continuous muscle contraction would occur.
What factors account for the local currents associated with graded potentials? (Module 11.9C)
The movement of sodium ions parallel to the inner and outer surfaces of the cell.
Describe the appearance of the appendicular muscles as you move proximally to distally. (Module 10.13B)
The muscles become smaller and more numerous.
What does the name flexor carpi radialis longus tell you about this muscle? (Module 10.3C)
The name tells that this muscle is a long muscle that lies next to the radius and flexes the wrist.
What special terms are used to describe the plasma membrane and cytoplasm of a skeletal muscle fiber? (Module 9.2C)
The plasma membrane is called the sarcolemma and the cytoplasm is called the sarcoplasm.
Describe the alveolar process.
The projecting ridge that contains the tooth sockets for the upper teeth.
Name the substrates and product in the enzymatic reaction catalyzed by RNA polymerase. (Module 3.11C)
The substrates are RNA nucleotides, and the product is a strand of mRNA.
Muscle A abducts the humerus and muscle B adducts the humerus. What is the relationship between the two muscles. (Module 10.3B)
The two muscles are antagonists to each other.
Identify the following bones as either a facial bone or a cranial bone: vomer, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, and inferior nasal conchae
The vomer and inferior nasal conchae are facial bones; the ethmoid, sphenoid, and temporal bones are cranial bones.
Why does the free edge of a nail appear white?
There are no underlying blood vessels.
Describe the structure and role of prostaglandins. (Module 2.16A)
They are a type of eicosanoid released by cells to coordinate local cellular activities and produce pain sensations.
What do cholesterol, phospholipids, and glycolipids have in common? (Module 2.16D)
They are all structural lipids that form membranes of cells.
Which of the following is correct regarding enzymes?
They are organic catalysts and are made of proteins.
What do eye-tracking studies tell us about the most effective way to learn? (Module 1.2A)
To read the text and the art together.
What are the functions of the superior and inferior retinacula of the foot? (Module 10.22A)
To stabilize the positions of the tendons descending from the leg.
Describe trace elements. (Module 2.2D)
Trace elements are present in small amounts in the body and are required for normal growth and maintenance.
What process would be affected if a cell could not synthesize the enzyme RNA polymerase? (Module 3.11D)
Transcription of RNA from DNA.
________ epithelium is found in the ureter.
Transitional
Define transverse tubules. (Module 9.3B)
Transverse tubules are tubular extensions of the sarcolemma that extend deep into the sarcoplasm contacting the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Describe the kind of bonds that hold the atoms in a water molecule together. (Module 2.4C)
Water molecule bonds are polar covalent bonds, in which unequal sharing of electrons occurs.
Can a skeletal muscle contract without shortening? Why or why not? (Module 9.11C)
Yes, because muscles can still contract during an isometric contraction when the muscle tension is equal to the load.
Epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by
a basal lamina.
In chemical notation, the symbol Ca2+ means
a calcium ion that has lost two electrons
Which of the following membrane transport mechanisms is not directly a passive process?
active transport
The most important factor in decreasing the intracellular concentration of calcium ion after contraction is
active transport of calcium back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
A process that requires cellular energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient is called
active transport.
Creatine phosphate
acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue
The ________ principle states that the size and speed of an action potential are independent of the stimulus strength.
all-or-none
An anatomical term that means the same as "ventral" is
anterior
Arthritis always involves damage to
articular cartilage
Joe suffered a hairline fracture at the base of the dens. Identify the bone and fracture site
axis; cervical
The plasma membrane of an axon is called the
axolemma.
The ________ is the part of a neuron that conducts the signal to other cells.
axon
Which part(s) of the neuron can conduct an action potential?
axon and telodendria
The axon is connected to the cell body at the
axon hillock.
The central canal of an osteon contains
blood vessels.
Chondrocytes are to cartilage as osteocytes are to
bone
Osseous tissue is also called
bone
Ten-year-old Joey jumps off the back porch, lands on his right heel, and breaks his foot. Which foot bone is most likely broken?
calcaneus
The Achilles tendon attaches to which anatomical structure?
calcaneus
Which of the following is the heel bone?
calcaneus
Identify the tarsal bones.
calcaneus, talus, navicular, cuboid, and three cuneiform bones
Which two organ systems are involved with circulation within the body? (Module 1.13A)
cardiovascular and lymphatic systems
Name the two pigments contained in the epidermis.
carotene and melanin
The bones that give the wrist a wide range of motion are the
carpals.
What kinds of molecules are involved in both active and passive processes of membrane passage? (Module 3.13D)
carrier proteins
Chondroitin sulfate is abundant in the matrix of
cartilage
The complex structures of DNA and protein found in the cell nucleus are
chromosomes.
Which of the following is an example of a nonmembranous organelle?
cilia
Which one of the following is an extension of plasma membrane?
cilia
What is the contraction in graph (d) called?
complete tetanus
Calcium ions are bound to troponin during which of the following steps.
contraction phase
The physical process by which a single animal cell separates into two cells is called
cytokinesis.
Physical evidence that supports the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction includes
decreased width of the H band during contraction.
All of the following are true of the pigment melanin except that it
decreases in concentration within cells during exposure to the sun.
The hormone calcitonin
decreases the level of calcium ion in the blood.
Which of the following refers to the dense connective tissue that surrounds a muscle and blends with the tendon?
deep fascia
Identify the muscle labeled "2."
deltoid
Name the muscle that abducts the arm. (Module 10.15C)
deltoid
During the ________ phase of action potential development, voltage-gated sodium channels are open.
depolarization
Opening of sodium channels in the axon membrane causes
depolarization and increased positive charge inside the membrane.
In the process of continuous propagation, all of the following are true except
depolarization of the axonal membrane only occurs at nodes.
Raising the potassium ion concentration in the extracellular fluid surrounding a nerve cell will have which effect?
depolarize the membrane potential
The movement of a body part downward is called
depression
Identify the two major components of the cutaneous membrane.
dermis and epidermis
Identify the muscle labeled "12."
gastrocnemius
The synarthrosis that binds the teeth to the bony sockets is a
gomphosis.
The combination of fibrin clot, fibroblasts, and extensive capillary network that is formed in injured skin is called
granulation tissue.
Which of the following features is located near the proximal end of the humerus?
greater tubercle
The infraspinatus has its insertion on the
greater tubercle of the humerus.
In a ________ fracture, one side of the shaft is split and the other side is bent.
greenstick
Regions of the CNS where neuron cell bodies dominate constitute the ________ matter.
grey
Nonpolar organic molecules are good examples of
hydrophobic compounds
Growth of cartilage by accumulation of matrix around chondrocytes is called ________ growth.
interstitial
Endocrine glands empty their products into ________ and are referred to as ________ glands, while exocrine gland secretions empty into ________ or onto surfaces.
interstitial fluid; ductless; ducts
If the sodium-potassium pumps in the plasma membrane fail to function, all of the following occur except that the
intracellular concentration of potassium ions will increase.
When you are seated, which part of the hip bone bears your body's weight?
ischial tuberosity
Which three bones fuse to make up the hip bone?
ischium, ilium, and pubis
The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers do not shorten is called
isometric
Atoms of the same element whose nuclei contain the same number of protons, but different numbers of neutrons, are called
isotopes
All of the following are correct regarding RNA except
it contains a double helix.
The type of most cells that form the strata in the epidermis are
keratinocytes.
The humerus is an example of a(n) ________ bone.
long
When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone,
long bones have reached their adult length.
Which of the following is not a spinal flexor?
longissimus
List the spinal flexor muscles. (Module 10.9A)
longus capitis, longus colli, quadratus lumborum
In dehydration reactions, compounds
lose water molecules
The muscle weakness of myasthenia gravis results from
loss of acetylcholine receptors in the end-plate membrane.
Wrinkles in elderly individuals are the result of
loss of elastic filaments in the reticular layer of the dermis.
Which cellular structure is responsible for cell autolysis?
lysosome
In describing parts of the mitochondrion, folds are to cristae as the contained fluid is to
matrix.
Which of the following best matches osteocyte?
mature bone cell
Graded potentials
may be either a depolarization or a hyperpolarization.
The epithelium that lines the body cavities is known as
mesothelium.
Which type of RNA links the genetic information in the nucleus with the cytoplasmic sites of protein synthesis? (Module 3.10D)
messenger RNA
List the three types of RNA involved in protein synthesis. (Module 3.10C)
messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA
DNA replication occurs during what two cellular processes? (Module 3.19D)
mitosis and meiosis
Nuclear division in somatic cells is known as
mitosis.
The proper distribution of a cell's genetic material to two daughter cells is accomplished by the process of
mitosis.
Neurons that have several dendrites and a single axon are called
multipolar
The most abundant class of neuron in the central nervous system is
multipolar
All of the following are organs of the endocrine system, except
muscle
Which type of tissue conducts electrical impulses?
neural
Epithelia specialized for providing sensations of smell, taste, sight, equilibrium, and hearing are known as
neuroepithelia.
Communication between axons and muscle fibers occurs at specialized synapses called
neuromuscular junctions.
The basic functional unit of the nervous system is the
neuron
All ________ function to propagate electrical signals from one place to another.
neurons
Isotopes of an element differ in the number of
neutrons in the nucleus
Which of the following is not associated with the cytoskeleton of the perikaryon?
nucleus
The pubic and ischial rami encircle the
obturator foramen.
Muscles that extend the elbow attach to the
olecranon process.
Name four different bone markings associated with the proximal portion of the ulna.
olecranon, trochlear notch, coronoid process, and radial notch
Each of the following muscles is involved in the process of chewing or manipulating food in the mouth except the
omohyoid
Where do the muscles that position each pectoral girdle originate? (Module 10.12A)
on the axial skeleton
Visceral pericardium is located
on the heart itself
The highest concentration of merocrine sweat glands is found
on the palms of the hands.
As the result of an accident, Bill suffers a dislocated jaw. This injury would involve the
ondylar process of the mandible.
Terms of anatomical direction are used to describe
one body part in relation to another
At peak levels of muscle exertion, the mitochondria can supply ________ of the energy required by the muscle.
only about one-third
Active neurons need ATP to support all of the following except the
opening of voltage-gated channels.
To pinch with a thumb and finger involves a movement called
opposition
The heart is an example of a(n)
organ
The end of a muscle that remains stationary when the muscle contracts is called the
origin
During the process of ________, an existing tissue is replaced by bone.
ossification
Cells that secrete the organic components of the bone matrix are called
osteoblasts.
Which is greater?
osteoclast activity when calcitonin is absent
Cells that are found in small depressions on the endosteal surfaces are th
osteoclasts.
What are mature bone cells in lacunae called? (Module 4.14B)
osteocytes
The structural units of mature compact bone are called
osteons.
The plasma membrane includes all of the following except
peripheral proteins.
Antibodies are produced by
plasma cells
The ________ covers the anterior surface of the neck.
platysma
The names of muscles associated with the thumb frequently include what term?
pollicis
The back of the knee joint is reinforced by ________ ligaments.
popliteal
Bones that develop within tendons are called ________ bones.
sesamoid
Which type of muscle fiber predominates in the leg muscles of endurance athletes, such as long-distance runners? (Module 9.14C)
slow fibers
The ________ allows you to look up.
superior rectus
The distal end of the tibia articulates with the
talus
Which of the following hormones directly stimulates growth of muscle tissue, leading to increased muscle mass?
testosterone
Many medications introduced into the bloodstream cannot directly affect the neurons of the CNS because
the astrocytes isolate the CNS by forming a blood-brain barrier.
The structure of RNA differs from DNA in that
the backbone of RNA contains ribose
Each of the following statements concerning the development of the skull is true, except that
the bones of the skull develop from a single ossification focus.
Tom, a trumpet player, asks you which muscles he should develop in order to be a better trumpeter. What would you tell him?
the buccinator and orbicularis oris
Which intrinsic foot muscles originate on and insert on tendons? (Module 10.22C)
the lumbricals
Sutures can be found at all of the joints of an adult skull, except between
the mandible and the temporal bone.
Which of the following become connected by myosin cross-bridges during muscle contraction?
thin filaments and thick filaments
The two major divisions of the ventral body cavity are the
thoracic and abdominopelvic.
The axial muscles of the head and neck are assigned to one of the following functional groups except the muscles of
vocal expression.
A gated channel that responds to changes in transmembrane potential is called a(n) ________ channel.
voltage-gated
Which of the following best describes the term "Z line"?
where thin filaments are anchored
The nasal complex consists of all of the following bones except the ________ bone.
zygomatic
Which of the following best describes the term titin?
substance that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle
Each skeletal muscle fiber contains ________ myofibrils.
hundreds to thousands
Oppositely charged ions in solution are prevented from combining by
hydration spheres.
List the elements that make up organic compounds. (Module 2.13A)
hydrogen and carbon, and generally oxygen as well
________ are short-chain fatty acids in which five of the carbon atoms are joined in a ring.
Prostaglandins
________ are cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system.
Dendritic cells
What enzymes must be present for DNA replication to proceed normally? (Module 3.19C)
DNA polymerase, DNA ligase, and DNA helicase
________ is the process of duplicating chromosomes prior to cell division.
DNA replication
How does calcitonin act to lower blood calcium?
Decreases osteoclast break down of bone matrix, decreases calcitriol production, decreases intestinal absorption, and increases renal excretion
What is the purpose of directional and sectional terms? (Module 1.21C)
Directional and sectional terms are used because they provide a standardized frame of reference for describing the human body.
________ accelerate chemical reactions that occur in the human body.
Enzymes
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system?
It produces a more rapid response than the nervous system.
Why is there partial relaxation in graph (c)?
Maximum tension is below maximum.
________ channels open or close in response to physical distortion of the membrane surface.
Mechanically gated
Which of the following is not involved in creating the resting potential of a neuron?
Membrane permeability for sodium ions is greater than for potassium ions.
Define membrane potential. (Module 11.6A)
Membrane potential is the unequal charge distribution between the inner and outer surfaces of the plasma membrane.
________ subdivide synovial cavities, channel the flow of synovial fluid, and allow for
Menisci
________ sweat glands are widely distributed across the body surface, ________ glands are located wherever hair follicles exist, and ________ sweat glands are found only in a few areas.
Merocrine; sebaceous; apocrine
Why is a CNS neuron not usually replaced after it is injured? (Module 11.2D)
Most CNS neurons are not replaced because they lack centrioles so they cannot divide.
Which of the following statement is false when comparing neurons and muscle tissue?
Resting membrane potentials are greater (more positive) in muscle compare to neurons.
Identify the neuroglia of the PNS. (Module 11.5A)
Schwann cells and satellite cells
The neurilemma of axons in the peripheral nervous system is formed by
Schwann cells.
What do scientists mean when they use the term "Black Box"? (Module 1.6A)
Scientists are referring to missing knowledge.
The axial muscle stabilize and position which regions of the body? (Module 10.5A)
The axial muscles stabilize and position the head, neck, and trunk.
A chemical imbalance in the blood can cause the heart to stop pumping blood, which in turn will cause other tissues and organs to cease functioning. This observation supports the view that
all levels of organization within an organism are interdependent.
A resting muscle generates most of its ATP by
aerobic metabolism of fatty acids
An alternate name for the prime mover in muscle action is
agonist
While visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her infant's soft spot. You think to yourself that the correct term for the "soft spot" located at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures is the
anterior fontanel.
Identify the major fontanelles.
anterior, posterior, sphenoidal, and mastoid fontanelles
The process of lactation (milk production) depends on both merocrine and ________ secretion by mammary gland epithelial cells
apocrine
In ________ growth, cartilage grows wider or thicker in diameter
appositional
How many skeletal muscles are there in the body? (Module 10.1B)
approximately 700
All of the following are true of neurons except that they
are a very specialized form of connective tissue.
t what site are the iliofemoral ligament, pubofemoral ligament, and ischiofemoral ligament located?
at the hip joint
How are the pectoral girdles of the appendicular skeleton attached to the axial skeleton
at the sternoclavicular joint
Which of the following is not a joint of the appendicular skeleton?
atlanto-occipital
The actual mass of an atom is known as its
atomic weight.
The smallest stable units of matter are
atoms
A functional group is best described as reoccurring clusters of
atoms that greatly influence the chemical properties of molecules they are part of.
Anchoring proteins
attach the plasma membrane to other structures in the cell.
The hyoid bone
attaches to tongue muscles.
The ________ nervous system provides involuntary regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular activity.
autonomic
The second cervical vertebra is usually called the
axis
Which of the following athletes are at greatest risk of developing a shoulder injury?
baseball pitchers
Which structures separate epithelial tissue from connective tissue
basement membranes
When estrogen is increased in females at puberty, epiphyseal plates
become narrower.
Ionic bonds are formed when
electrons are completely transferred from one atom to another.
The central body of a muscle is also known as the
belly
Which of the following does not originate on the humerus?
biceps brachii
Identify the division (axial or appendicular) to which each of the following muscles belongs: biceps brachii, external oblique, temporalis, and vastus medialis. (Module 10.4C)
biceps brachii = appendicular; external oblique = axial; temporalis = axial; vastus medialis = appendicular
If the anterior compartment of the lower limb was suffering from "compartment syndrome," which of these structures would not be at risk of injury?
biceps femoris
Which of these muscles is not a member of the quadriceps femoris group?
biceps femoris
deltoid
biceps femoris
hich muscles flex the knee? (Module 10.20A)
biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, sartorius, popliteus
Which is greater?
blood calcium levels when parathyroid hormone is increased
All of the following participate in thermoregulation, except
blood vessels.
Which of the following is/are inorganic substance(s)?
both water and carbon dioxide
The movement of a body part upward is called
elevation
The ion that triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is
calcium
The narrow passageways that contain cytoplasmic extensions of osteocytes are called
canaliculi.
Which of the following is the origin of the bulbospongiosus?
collagen sheath at the base of the clitoris or penis
The occipital ________ are where the occipital bone articulates with the first cervical vertebra.
condyles
Which of the following tissues fills internal spaces and provides structural support?
connective tissue
The three types of connective tissue include
connective tissue proper, fluid connective, and supporting connective.
Muscle tissue, one of the four basic tissue groups, consists chiefly of cells that are highly specialized for
contraction
All of the following can be used in the management of severe burn except
corticosteroids.
The keratinocytes are tightly connected with each other by
desmosomes.
Name the neuroglia of the CNS. (Module 11.4A)
ependymal cells, microglia, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes
The bellies of the occipitofrontalis muscle are connected by the
epicranial aponeurosis.
The repair of the epidermis after a wound begins as basal cells produce new
epidermal cells.
The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire skeletal muscle is the
epimysium
What structure allows a bone to grow in length?
epiphyseal cartilages
The articular cartilage of a typical long bone covers portions of what part of the bone?
epiphysis
Synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitters are released by ________ when the action potential arrives.
exocytosis
Muscles that insert on the olecranon process of the ulna can act to
extend the forearm.
Name the muscles that extend the fingers. (Module 10.17A)
extensor digitorum and extensor digiti minimi
Your instructor asks the class a question. She points to you to answer it. What muscle is she using to point her index finger in your direction?
extensor indicis
Assume that the transport of a particular amino acid across the plasma membrane is observed (1) to occur only down its concentration gradient and (2) to slow when a similar amino acid is added to the extracellular fluid. The movement of the amino acid through the membrane is most likely by
facilitated diffusion.
The process by which molecules such as glucose are moved into cells along their concentration gradient with the help of membrane-bound carrier proteins is called
facilitated diffusion.
Which of the following is not an effect of ultraviolet radiation?
hair growth
Which of the following terms is used to describe the location of a muscle
hallucis
Another name for the great toe is
hallux
Which of the following is an appendicular muscle group rather than an axial muscle group?
hamstring group
Mesothelium is to the body cavities as endothelium is to the
heart and blood vessels.
A midsagittal section would pass through the
heart.
Which of these is not one of the boundaries of the pelvic outlet?
iliac crest
The superior border of the ilium that acts as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is the
iliac crest.
Which of the following does not help stabilize the knee joint?
iliofemoral ligament
The band of collagen fibers that laterally braces the knee is the
iliotibial tract.
Each coxal bone consists of which three fused bones?
ilium, ischium, and pubis
Each of the following is true concerning mitochondria except
in glycolysis reaction pyruvate is produced from glucose inside the mitochondria.
The mandible articulates with what other cranial bones?
left and right temporal bones
Which of the following would not have an effect on synaptic function?
interfering with voltage-gated sodium channels
The parietal bones and occipital bone articulate at the ________ suture.
lambdoid
Scar tissue is the result of
large numbers of collagen fibers and relatively few blood vessels in the injured area.
A nerve that carries sensory information from the teeth and gums of the lower jaw passes through the
mandibular foramen.
The part of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the
manubrium.
Predict the reactants and the type of chemical reaction involved when muscle cells make and store glycogen. (Module 2.14D)
many glucose monomers; dehydration synthesis
Fat is stored within the
medullary cavity.
The ________ in keratinocytes protects the epidermis and dermis from the harmful effects of sunlight.
melanin
An albino individual lacks the ability to produce
melanin.
The endoplasmic reticulum is an example of a(n) ________ organelle.
membranous
Which of the following is not a function of the neuroglia?
memory
Identify the structures labeled "1."
mitochondria
Which of the following is an example of a membranous organelle?
mitochondria
Which of the following is not found in the structure labeled "3"?
mitochondria
If a response decreases a disturbance, the system is classified as a ________ feedback system.
negative
When body temperature rises, a center in the brain initiates physiological changes to decrease the body temperature. This is an example of
negative feedback.
An alternate term for tumor is
neoplasm
Organs are made up of different tissues. What tissues are found in skeletal muscles? (Module 4.17C)
nervous tissue, connective tissue, and skeletal muscle tissue
The depression on the posterior surface at the distal end of the humerus is the
olecranon fossa.
Which of the following is the insertion of the triceps brachii?
olecranon process of the ulna
The myelin sheath that covers many CNS axons is formed by
oligodendrocytes
The bony roof of the mouth is formed by the ________ bone(s).
palatine and maxillary
The bones that form the fingers are the
phalanges.
Which subatomic particles have a positive charge? Which are uncharged? (Module 2.1B)
protons; neutrons
Which form of endoplasmic reticulum modifies and packages newly synthesized proteins?
rough endoplasmic reticulum
Which of the following consists of a network of intracellular membranes with attached ribosomes?
rough endoplasmic reticulum
Which of the following organelles has ribosomes bound to its membrane?
rough endoplasmic reticulum
Excitation-contraction coupling is the
sequence of processes that links the action potential to contraction.
Which three organ systems coordinate to maintain normal blood calcium level?
skeletal system, digestive system, urinary system
The mentalis muscle inserts on the
skin of the chin.
Microscopic examination of a tissue reveals a loose framework of fibers embedded in a large volume of fluid ground substance and adipocytes and mast cells. This tissue would most likely be
superficial fascia between skin and muscle.
Identify the structures labeled "5." Neuron
synaptic terminals
Which foot bone transmits the weight of the body from the tibia toward the toes?
talus
What organ is located in the lacrimal fossa?
tear gland
Axons terminate in a series of fine extensions known as
telodendria
During this phase of cell division, the chromosomes uncoil, the nuclear membrane forms, and cytokinesis occurs.
telophase
Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
temperature regulation
The buildup of depolarization when EPSPs arrive in rapid succession is called ________ summation.
temporal
Loose connective tissue functions in all of the following ways except
transporting substances throughout the body.
A fracture of the bone across its long axis is called a(n) ________ fracture.
transverse
The scalenes have their origin on the
transverse and costal processes of cervical vertebrae.
Which of the following is not a type of motor fiber?
white-slow twitch
Which foot movement enables a ballerina to stand on her toes?
plantar flexion
Lifting a stone with the tip of the foot is
plantar flexion.
The watery fluid component of blood is called
plasma
All of the following are functions of accessory structures of integument except
production of skin pigments.
Deep muscles are called
profundus
What movements are made possible by the rotation of the head of the radius?
pronation and supination
The muscle that pronates the forearm and opposes biceps brachii is the
pronator quadratus.
A massage therapist often begins a massage by asking clients to lie face down with their arms at their sides. Which anatomical term describes that position? (Module 1.20B)
prone
A person lying face down is in the ________ position.
prone
What function is served by motile cilia on epithelial cell surfaces? (Module 4.3C)
propel material across the cell surface
What is the purpose of motile cilia? (Module 3.4C)
propel material across the cell surface
Which of the following muscles is not found within the pelvic floor?
quadratus lumborum
The iliac crest is the origin of the
quadratus lumborum.
Which bone acts as a uniting bridge between the cranial and facial portions of the skull?
sphenoid
Which of the following describes the action of the digastric muscle?
elevates the larynx and depresses the mandible
The carpus contains ________ bones.
8
How many bones make up the axial skeleton?
80
There are ________ carpal bones located in the wrist, which form ________ rows of bones in the wrist.
8; 2
Where would calcium ions be predominately found?
9
Define the term synergist as it relates to muscle action. (Module 10.3A)
A synergist is a muscle that helps the agonist perform its actions more efficiently.
Define tendon and aponeurosis. (Module 9.2A)
A tendon is a bundle of collagen fibers that connects a skeletal muscle to a bone, whereas an aponeurosis is a broad collagenous sheet that connects skeletal muscle to a broad area on one or more bones.
Define organ. (Module 1.10B)
An organ is two or more tissues working to perform several functions.
When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the
ischial tuberosities.
Ion channels that are always open are called ________ channels.
leak
The resting membrane potential exists mainly due to passive ________ channels.
leak
What is the structure marked with an X in the MRI scan? (Module 1.4B)
left kidney
A function of the glycocalyx is
lubrication of the cell surface.
Skeletal muscle fibers are formed from embryonic cells called
myoblasts
The center of an atom is called the
nucleus
In Figure 3-1, which structure is water most likely to pass through?
3
Where is ATP is consumed?
3
Which point of the graph shows when potassium ion outflow exceeds sodium ion inflow?
3
What molecule supplies the energy for a muscle fiber contraction? (Module 9.7A)
ATP
The most abundant mineral in the human body is
Calcium
All amino acid molecules contain
carbon, nitrogen, hydrogen and oxygen.
What do lysosomes contain? (Module 3.6B)
digestive enzymes
The bones, which serve as levers in the body, do not
inhibit movement.
Which of the following is true for parathyroid hormone?
inhibits calcitonin secretion.
How many electrons are shared by the oxygen atoms in an oxygen molecule?
2 pairs of electrons
How many chromosomes are contained within a typical somatic cell? (Module 3.9C)
23 pairs
Describe ATP. (Module 2.19A)
ATP consists of an adenosine molecule with three phosphate groups attached.
Identify three sources of stored energy utilized by muscle fibers. (Module 9.12B)
ATP, creatine phosphate, and glycogen
The equilibrium potential for potassium ions occurs at approximately
-90 mV.
Which of the following is the symbol for an amino group?
-NH2
Identify the structure where ATP is produced.
1
In Figure 3-1, which molecule is a combination of a sugar and a lipid?
1
Magnesium atoms have two electrons in their outermost shells, and chlorine atoms have seven. The compound magnesium chloride would contain
1 magnesium and 2 chlorine.
The following are stages in the regeneration of skin following an injury. 1. blood clot/scab formation 2. cellular migration 3. epidermis covers granulation tissue 4. epidermis covers scar tissue Which of the following places the steps in the correct order?
1, 2, 3, 4
Put the following steps of fracture repair into the correct order.
1,3,2,5,4
The Na-K ion exchange pump actively transports
3 intracellular sodium ions for 2 extracellular potassium ions.
Humans normally have ________ pairs of ribs.
12
The vertebral column contains ________ thoracic vertebrae.
12
Along with the ribs and sternum, what other bones make up the thoracic cage?
12 thoracic vertebrae
Of the following choices, the pH of the least acidic solution is
12.0.
How many bones are in the appendicular skeleton?
126
Calculate the weight of 1 mol of glucose. (The atomic weight of carbon = 12).
180 grams
Bone is composed of ________ percent cells.
2
The innermost electron shell in an atom holds up to ________ electrons.
2
Which area of the graph occurs when there is a sudden inrush of sodium ions?
2
Indicate the maximum number of electrons that can occupy each of the first three energy levels of an atom. (Module 2.3A)
2, 8, 8
The skull contains ________ bones.
22
Each one of the coxal bones is formed by the fusion of ________ bones.
3
How many bones comprise the skull and its associated bones?
29
The following are important steps in the process of endochondral ossification. 1. Blood vessels grow around the edges of the cartilage and perichondrium differentiates into osteoblasts. 2. Capillaries and osteoblasts migrate to the epithyses forming the secondary ossification centers. 3. Chondrocytes enlarge and the surrounding matrix begins to calcify. 4. Remodeling continues and the shaft becomes thicker. 5. Blood vessels penetrate the cartilage and invade the central region forming the primary ossification center. What is the correct order for these events?
3, 1, 5, 4, 2
The following is a list of the steps involved in the process of secretion by the Golgi apparatus.. Material moves from cisterna to cisterna by means of transfer vesicles. 2. Exocytosis. 3. Products from RER are packaged into transport vesicles. 4. Secretory vesicles are formed at the trans face. 5. Vesicles arrive at the cis face. 6. Enzymes modify arriving proteins and glycoproteins.
3, 5, 6, 1, 4, 2
When is the neuron in the relative refractory period?
4
Which area of the graph shows the membrane potential if potassium ions were freely permeability to the plasma membrane?
4
Which area of the graph shows when graded hyperpolarization is occurring?
4
The following are major steps in the process of intramembranous ossification. 1. Clusters of osteoblasts form osteoid that becomes mineralized. 2. Osteoblasts differentiate within mesenchymal connective tissue. 3. Spicules of bone radiate out from the ossification centers. 4. Mesenchymal cells aggregate. What is the correct order for these events?
4, 2, 1, 3
The following are the steps involved in transmission at a cholinergic synapse. 1. Chemically gated sodium channels on the postsynaptic membrane are activated. 2. Calcium ions enter the synaptic knob. 3. Acetylcholinesterase hydrolyzes acetylcholine. 4. An action potential depolarizes the synaptic knob at the presynaptic membrane. 5. The synaptic knob reabsorbs choline. 6. Acetylcholine is released from storage vesicles by exocytosis. 7. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. 8. Calcium ions are removed from the cytoplasm of the synaptic knob.
4, 2, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5
The following are the main steps in the generation of an action potential.
4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5
The LM at the top of this page is magnified 400 times (400x). If the ocular lens used to make this image has a magnification of 10x, what is the magnification of the objective lens? (Module 4.2C)
40x
A 32-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with third-degree burns on her entire right leg, entire right arm, and the back of her trunk. Estimate the percentage of her body surface area affected by these burns.
45%
The epidermis in the thin skin contains ________ layer(s) and in the thick skin contains ________ layers.
4; 5
How many vertebrae are in the lumbar region of the vertebral column?
5
In Figure 3-1, microfilaments are labeled with which number?
5
The brain stops enlarging and the cranial sutures ossify by age
5
The sacrum is a single bone consisting of the fused components of ________ sacral vertebrae.
5
The vertebral column contains ________ lumbar vertebrae.
5
While walking barefoot on the beach, Joe stepped on a thorn that penetrated through the sole of his foot to the dermis. How many layers of epidermis did the thorn penetrate?
5
In the reaction listed below, what coefficient needs to be added to balance the equation? 6 CO2 + 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + ________ O2.
6
If an element is composed of atoms with an atomic number of 6 and a mass number of 14, then the nucleus of a neutral atom of this element contains
6 protons and 8 neutrons.
In Figure 3-1, which molecule is the peripheral protein?
7
Normal human skeletons contain ________ cervical vertebrae.
7
The tarsus contains ________ bones.
7
Aerobic metabolism normally provides ________ percent of the ATP demands of a resting muscle cell.
95
Which of the labels in Figure 4-1 indicates a hemidesmosome?
A
The region of the sarcomere containing the thick and thin filaments is the
A band.
What is a chromatid, and how many are present during normal mitosis in a human cell? (Module 3.20B)
A chromatid is a copy of a duplicated chromosome, and 92 are present.
Distinguish among a first-degree, second-degree, and third-degree burn.
A first-degree burn affects only the surface of the skin. A second-degree burn affects the whole epidermis and some of the dermis. A third-degree burn destroys the epidermis, the dermis, and extends into the subcutaneous layer.
What is a functional group? (Module 2.13B)
A functional group is a grouping of atoms that confer specific chemical properties to the rest of the molecule to which it is attached.
What is a gene? (Module 3.10A)
A gene is a portion of a DNA strand that functions as a hereditary unit and codes for a specific protein.
Describe the relationship between joint strength and mobility.
A joint that is strong is not very mobile.
Describe a typical strand of hair.
A keratinous strand produced by basal cells within a hair follicle.
What is a benign tumor? (Module 3.21B)
A mass produced by abnormal growth and division of cells that remains within the original tissue and does not spread.
Define module, and state where the learning outcomes appear. (Module 1.5A)
A module is an independent, self-contained unit about a specific topic. Learning outcomes appear in the lower right-hand corner of each module.
Define motor unit. (Module 9.10B)
A motor unit is a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers that it controls.
________ connective tissue is a type of ________ connective tissue.
Adipose; loose
Which of the following is not part of cell theory?
All cells differentiate into specialized cell types.
An excess of hydrogen ions in the body fluids can have fatal results because this can
All of the answers are correct.
Granulation tissue is composed of
All of the answers are correct.
Joints are classified by the
All of the answers are correct.
Explain why a pseudostratified epithelium is not truly stratified. (Module 4.7B)
All the cells form a single layer and contact the basement membrane.
Why do the pharynx, esophagus, anus, and vagina have a similar epithelial organization? (Module 4.5B)
All these sites are subject to physical stresses and abrasion.
Describe the functional groups that are considered acidic or basic. (Module 2.13D)
An amino group acts as a base because it can accept hydrogen ions, and a carboxyl group acts as an acid because it releases a hydrogen ion.
What is the relationship between an atom and matter? (Module 2.1A)
An atom is the smallest stable unit of matter, and matter is anything that takes up space and has mass.
What is an enzyme? (Module 2.9A)
An enzyme is a protein that lowers the activation energy of a reaction.
Define excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) and inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP). (Module 11.13A)
An excitatory postsynaptic potential is a graded depolarization by the postsynaptic cell and an inhibitory postsynaptic potential is a graded hyperpolarization by the postsynaptic cell.
Define cancer. (Module 3.21A)
An illness characterized by cell cycle mutations that produce malignant cells.
A red blood cell has a diameter of about 8μm. Use that information to estimate the diameter of the oocyte in micrometers (μm) and millimeters (mm). (1 mm = 1000 μm) (Module 1.11C)
An oocyte has a diameter about 11 times greater than the red blood cell.
Define open fracture and closed fracture.
An open fracture is one where the bone pierces the skin; a closed fracture is one where no bone pierces the skin.
Define osteon.
An osteon is the functional unit of compact bone.
Describe the two layers making up the perichondrium. (Module 4.13B)
An outer fibrous layer made up of dense irregular connective tissue with fibroblasts; an inner cellular layer.
What is the purpose of anatomical terms? (Module 1.20D)
Anatomical terms are used because they provide a standardized frame of reference for describing the human body.
Where does nail production occur?
At the nail root
Explain why the atoms of inert elements do not react with one another or combine with atoms of other elements. (Module 2.3B)
Atoms of inert elements are nonreactive because the outermost electron shell (valence shell) contains the maximum number of electrons possible.
What is the function of the axial muscles? (Module 10.4A)
Axial muscles position the head and spinal column and also move the rib cage for breathing.
Which of the labels in Figure 4-1 indicates a tight junction?
B
Why is basal cell carcinoma considered less dangerous than malignant melanoma? (Module 5.3D)
Basal cell carcinomas rarely become malignant and metastasize, whereas malignant melanoma cells quickly spread throughout the lymphatic system to other organs.
Why is pituitary growth failure less common today in the United States?
Because children can be treated with synthetic human growth hormone if they are deficient.
Which statement about excitation-contraction coupling is incorrect?
Calcium ion is released from the transverse tubule.
What causes calcium to be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum? (Module 9.8A)
Calcium is released when an action potential reaches the triad.
________ accounts for almost two-thirds of the weight of bone.
Calcium phosphate
________ are transmembrane proteins that connect two cell membranes together
Cell adhesion molecules
When does cell division begin and end? (Module 3.18C)
Cell division begins at mitosis and ends at cytokinesis.
Why do our cells need enzymes? (Module 2.9B)
Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction so it can occur.
________ channels open or close in response to binding specific molecules.
Chemically gated
Which of the following is not a cation?
Cl-
Contrast the descriptions used by clinicians and anatomists when referring to the positions of injuries or internal organs of the abdomen and pelvis. (Module 1.20C)
Clinicians base their descriptions on four abdominopelvic quadrants, whereas anatomists use nine abdominopelvic regions.
________ fractures are completely internal; they do not break through the skin.
Closed or simple
________ are stronger than steel when stretched.
Collagen fibers
A transverse fracture of the wrist that may be comminuted is called a ________ fracture.
Colles
Compare concentric and eccentric contractions. (Module 9.11B)
Concentric contractions occur when the muscle tension exceeds the load, and the muscle shortens. Eccentric contractions occur when the muscle tension is less than the load, and the muscle elongates.
________ muscle fibers pull in different directions, permitting different actions depending on stimulation.
Convergent
Distinguish between the cytoplasm and cytosol. (Module 3.2A)
Cytoplasm is the material between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane; cytosol is the fluid portion of the cytoplasm.
________ line the brain ventricles and spinal canal.
Ependymal cells
Vitamin ________ is formed in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight.
D
Which of the labels in Figure 4-1 is very abundant in cardiac muscle?
D
What molecule in the nucleus contains instructions for making proteins? (Module 3.9B)
DNA
Chromosomes consist of ________ and ________.
DNA; proteins
Describe depolarization, repolarization, and hyperpolarization. (Module 11.9B)
Depolarization is a shift in membrane potential toward a more positive value; repolarization is the return of the membrane potential to resting; and hyperpolarization is a shift in membrane potential toward a more negative value.
Define depolarization, and describe the events that follow it. (Module 9.5B)
Depolarization is the when the inside of the cell becomes positive due to sodium ions rushing in. After depolarization, repolarization occurs when potassium ions rush out of the cell causing the inside of the cell to become negative again.
Compare dorsiflexion and plantar flexion.
Dorsiflexion is upward movement of the foot or toes. Plantar flexion extends the ankle joint and bends the foot or toes down, as in standing on tiptoes.
Compare the absolute refractory period with the relative refractory period. (Module 11.10C)
During the absolute refractory period the membrane cannot respond to further stimulation. During the relative refractory period the membrane can respond only to a larger-than-normal stimulus.
Describe endocytosis. (Module 3.17A)
Endocytosis occurs when a vesicle forms at the plasma membrane, encloses a large volume of extracellular fluid and contents, and then moves into the cytoplasm.
Describe the two primary types of glands. (Module 4.8A)
Endocrine glands release their substances into the interstitial fluid; exocrine glands release their secretions into ducts that open onto an epithelial surface.
Where do cells obtain the energy needed for their vital functions? (Module 2.19C)
Energy comes from breaking high energy bonds in a compound
Compare F-actin with G-actin. (Module 9.4A)
F actin is a twisted strand made up of two rows of G actin subunits where myosin heads can bind.
Describe the role of fibroblasts in connective tissue. (Module 4.11B)
Fibroblasts secrete hyaluronic acid and proteins that rom the ground substance and create the extracellular fibers.
Compare gigantism with acromegaly.
Gigantism results from an overproduction of growth hormone before puberty, whereas acromegaly results from an overproduction of growth hormone after puberty.
Describe the simplest type of unicellular exocrine gland. (Module 4.9B)
Goblet cell; this cell is scattered among absorptive cells in the intestines
Renewal or modification of the cell membrane is a function of the
Golgi apparatus.
Stacks of cisternae that store, alter, and package synthesized products are called
Golgi apparatus.
Define graded potential. (Module 11.9A)
Graded potential is a temporary, localized change in the potential of a cell.
Describe granulation tissue.
Granulation tissue is a combination of blood clots, fibroblasts, and capillaries in healing tissue.
What are the differences between gross anatomy and microscopic anatomy? (Module 1.8A
Gross anatomy involves the study of body structures that can be seen with the unaided eye; microscopic anatomy is the study of body structures that cannot be seen without magnification
Distinguish between growth and development. (Module 1.7B)
Growth refers to an increase in size. Development refers to changes in structures and functions as the organism grows.
The area in the center of the A band that contains no thin filaments is the
H band.
Which of the following is both an anion and a compound?
HCO3-
________ is a small connective tissue peg that contains nerve endings and blood vessels.
Hair papilla
The Appendix contains tables of the normal physiological values regarding dissolved materials in various body fluids. Most of these values are listed as ranges, rather than averages. Why? (Module 1.17C)
Homeostatic control is not precise, and normal ranges are not fixed with absolute values.
Which of the following statements about hydrogen bonds is false?
Hydrogen bonds are strong attractive forces between hydrogen atoms and negatively charged atoms.
Distinguish between hydrophilic and hydrophobic molecules. (Module 2.11C)
Hydrophilic molecules are attracted to water, whereas hydrophobic molecules do not interact with water molecules.
The region of the sarcomere that always contains only thin filaments is the
I band.
Which of the following statements about water is not correct?
It has a relatively low heat capacity.
In the anatomical position, describe an anterior view and a posterior view. (Module 1.21A)
In anatomical position, anterior view shows the subject's face, whereas a posterior view shows the subject's back.
Describe the process of carrier-mediated transport. (Module 3.16A)
In carrier-mediated transport, integral membrane proteins bind ions or molecules and transport them across the membrane.
Compare the role of water in hydrolysis and dehydration synthesis reactions. (Module 2.8A)
In hydrolysis, water is a reactant; in dehydration synthesis, water is a product.
Compare incomplete tetanus with wave summation. (Module 9.10A)
In incomplete tetanus, the muscle is producing near-peak tension during rapid cycles of contraction and relaxation. Wave summation refers to the addition of one twitch to another.
________ compounds do not usually contain carbon as a primary structural atom.
Inorganic
________ are the most numerous type of neuron in the CNS.
Interneurons
_______ monitor the digestive, respiratory, cardiovascular, urinary, and reproductive systems.
Interoceptors
Define intramembranous ossification.
Intramembranous ossification is bone formation within connective tissue without the prior development of a cartilage model.
Which of the following is correct regarding cytoplasm?
It contains cytosol and organelles.
Which of the following is not true of the muscular system?
It depends upon the cardiovascular system to provide the hemoglobin stored in slow muscle fibers.
ch of the following is not a characteristic of articular cartilage?
It increases friction during movement.
Which of the following is not true of the skeletal system?
It interacts with the lymphatic system to regulate calcium levels.
Why is cholesterol necessary in the body? (Module 2.16B)
It is a component of plasma membranes and is important for cell growth and division.
Which of the following is correct regarding fructose?
It is an isomer of glucose.
Why is the genetic code described as a triplet code? (Module 3.10B)
It is described as a triplet code because a sequence of three nitrogenous bases specifies the identity of a specific amino acid.
What is an important characteristic of amino acid uracil?
It is found only in RNA.
Which of following properties of the cytoskeleton is false?
It is made of cytobones.
Summarize the sliding filament theory. (Module 9.4C)
It is the process of sarcomere shortening caused by the sliding of thin and thick filaments past another.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of compact bone?
It is the site of hematopoiesis.
Which of the following statements about tissue swelling that occurs during inflammation is true?
It is triggered by histamine and caused by increased endothelial permeability.
Which of the following statements about Marfan's syndrome is false?
It results in short, stubby fingers.
Which of the following statements about the Golgi apparatus is false?
It sends transport vesicles to the RER.
What is the function of the internal acoustic meatus
It serves as a passageway for blood vessels and the facial and vestibulocochlear nerves.
How would a drug that blocks acetylcholine receptors at the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle?
It would cause flaccid paralysis (muscles are relaxed and unable to contract).
How would the loss of acetylcholinesterase from the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle?
It would cause spastic paralysis (muscles are contracted and unable to relax).
How would the absolute refractory period be affected if voltage-regulated sodium channels failed to inactivate?
It would last indefinitely.
How would a torn calcaneal tendon affect movement at the ankle? (Module 10.21C)
It would make extension difficult.
In what country was cadaver-based anatomy established as a discipline studied by medical professionals? (Module 1.19C)
Italy
Much of the early history in anatomy is tied to what country?
Italy
What properties are common to keratinized epithelia? (Module 4.5C)
Keratinized epithelia are both tough and water resistant.
________ increase surface area to facilitate absorption of extracellular materials.
Microvilli
Define mitosis, and list its four stages. (Module 3.20A)
Mitosis is the division of a cell into two identical daughter cells. The four stages are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
________ neurons are the most common class in the CNS.
Multipolar
When do muscle fibers produce lactate? (Module 9.12C)
Muscle fibers produce lactate when there is a lack of oxygen.
Define muscle hypertrophy and muscle atrophy. (Module 9.15A)
Muscle hypertrophy is an increase in the size of the muscle cells and muscle atrophy is a decrease in the size of the muscle cells.
________ are permanent alterations in a cell's DNA that affect the nucleotide sequence of one or more genes.
Mutations
________ are stem cells located between the endomysium and sarcolemma that function in the repair of damaged muscle tissue.
Myosatellite cells
When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts, which of the following does not occur?
Myosin and actin filaments decrease in length.
When a small amount of HCl or NaOH is added to a solution of Na2HPO4, the pH of the solution barely changes. Based on these observations, all of the following are true concerning the compound Na2HPO4 except
Na2HPO4 adsorbs excess H+ and OH- directly onto the surface of its crystalline structure.
An important buffer in body fluids is
NaHCO3.
________ account for roughly half of the volume of the nervous system.
Neuroglia
Classify neurons based on their function. (Module 11.3B)
Neurons are classified functionally as sensory, interneurons, or motor neurons.
Classify neurons based on their structure. (Module 11.3A)
Neurons are classified structurally as anaxonic, bipolar, unipolar, or multipolar.
Describe the immediate cellular destinations of newly synthesized proteins from free ribosomes and fixed ribosomes. (Module 3.5A)
Newly synthesized proteins from free ribosomes enter the cytosol, and newly synthesized proteins from fixed ribosomes go to enter the ER.
Which of the following is not contained in the axoplasm of the axon?
Nissl bodies
Clusters of RER and free ribosomes in neurons are called
Nissl bodies.
Which muscle originate on the phalanges? (Module 10.18B)
No muscles originate on the phalanges.
List the chemical symbols of the six most abundant elements in the human body and their total percentage contribution to total body weight. (Module 2.2E)
O, C, H, N, Ca, and P. They account for 99.3% of total body weight.
The gravitational field of the moon is 17% of Earth's. How would the weight and mass of a 100-pound astronaut change on the moon? (Module 2.1D)
On the moon, the astronaut would have the same mass as on Earth but would weigh 17 pounds (100 × 0.17).
________ free calcium from bone to maintain blood calcium levels
Osteoclasts
Describe the functions of osteocytes.
Osteocytes are mature bone cells that maintain the bone matrix.
________ cells, which differentiate into osteoblasts, are located in the endosteum and inner cellular layer of the periosteum.
Osteogenic
________ are stem cells that develop into osteoblasts.
Osteogenic cells
Describe the functions of osteogenic cells and osteoblasts.
Osteogenic cells are stem cells that form osteoblasts. Osteoblasts are immature bone cells that secrete the organic components of bone matrix.
________ is the organic component of the matrix in developing or repairing bone.
Osteoid
Describe the external environment of most of the body's cells. (Module 3.2D)
Our cells are surrounded by a watery extracellular fluid.
The molecule O2 is known as
Oxygen
Most of a cell's ATP is produced within its mitochondria. What gas do mitochondria require to produce ATP, and what gas results? (Module 3.7B)
Oxygen is required to produce ATP, and carbon dioxide is released in the process.
Compare presynaptic and postsynaptic cells. (Module 11.2C)
Presynaptic cells are usually neurons and postsynaptic cells can be a neuron or another type of cell, such as skeletal muscle fiber or a gland cell.
________ curves of the spine develop late in fetal development.
Primary
________ monitor the position of skeletal muscles and joints.
Proprioceptors
A cell duplicates its chromosomes during the ________ phase.
S
________ epithelium is found inside the eyes.
Simple squamous
Name the three types of muscle tissue, identify where they are found, and list their functions. (Module 9.1A)
Skeletal muscle is directly or indirectly attached to bones and enables movement of the body. Cardiac muscle forms the heart and propels blood. Smooth muscle is found throughout the body and moves substances through hollow tubes, such as in the digestive tract and regulates the diameter of blood vessels.
w is skeletal muscle recovery different after moderate activity compared to sustained activity at higher levels? (Module 9.13A)
Skeletal muscle recovery after moderate activity takes several hours, whereas skeletal muscle recovery at higher levels can take about a week.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Skeletal muscles are responsible for the pumping action of the heart.
Snapping your fingers involves what movement of the thumb?
Snapping involves opposition at the thumb and flexion at the third metacarpophalangeal joint.
________ are large lipid molecules with distinctive carbon-ring frameworks.
Steroids
________ epithelium is found lining the anus and vagina.
Stratified squamous
Which exocrine glands are in the integument?
Sweat glands and sebaceous glands
List the three major functions of the Golgi apparatus. (Module 3.6A)
The Golgi apparatus (1) renews or modifies the plasma membrane, (2) modifies and packages cellular secretions, and (3) packages special enzymes within vesicles (lysosomes) for use within the cell.
ribe the acetabulum.
The acetabulum is the concave socket on that lateral aspect of the pelvis that articulates with the head of the femur.
Imagine two rigid chambers separated by a rigid membrane that is freely permeable to water but impermeable to glucose. Side 1 contains a 10 percent glucose solution and side 2 contains pure water. At equilibrium, what will be the situation?
The hydrostatic pressure will be higher in side 1
Describe the connective tissue layers associated with skeletal muscle tissue. (Module 9.2B)
The epimysium surrounds the entire muscle; the perimysium divides the skeletal muscle into fascicles; the endomysium surrounds individual muscle fibers.
Contrast the effects of a hypotonic solution and a hypertonic solution on a red blood cell. (Module 3.15C)
The hypotonic solution would cause the RBC to swell and it may burst (hemolysis), and the hypertonic solution would cause the RBC to shrink (crenation).
Describe the axial and appendicular divisions of the skeleton.
The axial skeleton consists of the bones of the skull, vertebral column, and thorax. The appendicular skeleton consists of the bones of the limbs, pectoral girdle and pelvic girdle.
Puffer fish poison blocks voltage-gated sodium channels like a cork. What effect would this neurotoxin have on the function of neurons?
The axon would be unable to generate action potentials.
How would denaturing collagen from the bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone?
The bone would be more brittle.
What does the presence of many mitochondria imply about a cell's energy requirements?
The cell has high energy demand.
Describe the changes in appearance of the transitional epithelium lining the urinary bladder as stretching occurs. (Module 4.6C)
The cells become flatter.
Compare the central and peripheral nervous system. (Module 11.1A)
The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord and it integrates, processes, and coordinates sensory data and motor commands. The peripheral nervous system consists of all the nervous tissue outside the central and enteric nervous systems.
Explain why a healthy 6-month-old might have yellow-orange skin
The child may have eaten foods with a high amount of carotene causing the pigment to accumulate in the skin making it look yellow-orange.
How would the compressive strength of a bone be affected if the ratio of collagen to hydroxyapatite increased?
The compressive strength would decrease and the bone would become more flexible.
What determines the frequency of action potential generation? (Module 11.14B)
The degree of sustained depolarization at the axon hillock determines the frequency of action potentials.
Compare the functioning of the elbow joint with a door on a hinge. (Module 1.9A)
The elbow moves in a single plane like the opening and closing of a door on a hinge.
Describe the functions of the facial bones.
The facial bones protect and support the entrances to the digestive and respiratory tracts and provide a site of attachment for muscles of facial expression.
Describe the relationship between the number of fibers in a motor unit and the precision of body movements. (Module 9.10C)
The finer and more precise the movement, the fewer the number of muscle fibers in the motor unit.
Describe the function of the medullary cavity.
The medullary cavity contains the red bone marrow and the yellow bone marrow.
As a bone increases in diameter, what happens to the medullary cavity?
The medullary cavity increases in diameter because bone matrix is removed by osteoclasts.
Why does hair turn white or gray with age?
The melanocyte activity declines, making the hair white or gray.
What effect would a chemical that blocks voltage-gated sodium ion channels in a neuron's plasma membrane have on its membrane potential? (Module 11.8C)
The membrane potential would not change because sodium could not enter the cell.
Describe the neuromuscular junction. (Module 9.6A)
The neuromuscular junction is where the axon terminals of a motor neuron interact with the skeletal muscle fiber midway along the fiber's length.
Describe the nucleus pulposus and annulus fibrosus of an intervertebral disc.
The nucleus pulposus is a soft, elastic, gelatinous core and the annulus fibrosus is a tough outer ring of fibrocartilage.
Why do certain cells in the ovaries and testes contain large amounts of SER?
The ovaries and testes produce large amounts of steroid hormones which are lipid based.
Define diffusion. (Module 3.14A)
The passive movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration until equilibrium is achieved.
Describe osmosis. (Module 3.15A)
The passive movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a solution with a lower solute concentration to a solution with a higher solute concentration.
What factors influence the performance of a skeletal muscle? (Module 10.1C)
The performance of a skeletal muscle is dependent on muscle fiber organization and how the muscle attaches to the bone.
Explain how the ionic compound sodium chloride dissolves in water. (Module 2.11A)
The positive poles of water molecules are attracted to the negatively charged chloride ions, and the negative poles of water molecules are attracted to the positively charged sodium ions.
What event must occur in the postsynaptic cell before it generates an action potential? (Module 11.12B)
The postsynaptic cell membrane must reach threshold to generate an action potential.
What is the source of energy that converts glucose, a six-carbon molecule, into two three-carbon molecules in cells? (Module 2.8C)
The potential energy stored in the covalent bonds of the glucose molecule is released when some of the bonds break.
What is the relationship between myelin and the propagation speed of action potentials? (Module 11.11B)
The presence of myelin increases the propagation speed of action potentials.
Explain the primary difference between endochondral ossification and intramembranous ossification.
The primary difference is that in endochondral ossification, bone develops from a cartilage model, whereas in intramembranous ossification, bone develops from mesenchymal cells.
Predict the degree of scarring after the healing of a horizontal cut on the forehead just above the eyebrow.
The scarring will be significant because the cut is at a right angle to the direction of the tension lines.
What is the importance of the secondary curves of the spine?
The secondary curves allow us to balance our body weight to permit an upright posture.
What happens at the sodium-potassium exchange pump? (Module 11.7B)
The sodium-potassium exchange pump maintains the resting membrane potential of the cell by ejecting 3 sodium ions for every 2 potassium ions entering the cell.
Explain the function of sodium-potassium ion pumps. (Module 9.5A)
The sodium-potassium ion pump maintains the resting membrane potential of a cell by exporting three sodium ions out in exchange for two potassium ions entering the cell.
Define metastasis. (Module 3.21C)
The spread of cancer cells beyond the original tissue, leading to secondary tumors.
Predict what would happen to the function of a structure if its anatomy were altered.
The structure's function would be impaired or eliminated.
Describe the layers of the dermis.
The superficial papillary layer contains areolar tissue with capillaries, lymphatic vessels, and sensory neurons. The deep reticular layer contains dense irregular connective tissue with collagen and elastic fibers.
What bone processes from the zygomatic arch?
The temporal process of the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic process of the temporal bone.
Try this experiment. Pick one of the two examples, cover up the text, and focus solely on the art. What did you discover? (Module 1.2B)
The text-art integration is important for understanding what was described
Define hyponychium.
The thickened stratum corneum underlying the free edge of the nail.
Describe the three parts necessary for homeostatic regulation. (Module 1.17B)
The three parts necessary for homeostatic regulation are the receptor, the control center, and the effector.
Why is the zone of overlap an important region of the sarcomere? (Module 9.4D)
The zone of overlap is important because it is where the myosin heads can interact with the thin filaments.
What is thought to happen in a muscle during the response shown in graph (a)?
There is a gradual increase in the concentration of calcium ions in the sarcoplasm.
Describe the appearance of simple columnar epithelial cells in a sectional view. (Module 4.7A)
They appear columnar with an elongated nucleus close to the basement membrane.
Describe the appearance of simple cuboidal epithelial cells in sectional view. (Module 4.6A)
They appear like a cube, as tall as they are wide, with the nucleus centered in the middle of the cell.
Which of the following is correct about peripheral proteins?
They are bound to the inner or outer surface of plasma membrane.
Explain how the complementary strands of DNA are held together. (Module 2.20B)
They are held by complementary base pairing; adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine.
What do a mesothelium and an endothelium have in common? (Module 4.5A)
They both are simple squamous epithelium.
Which of the following statements is not true about action potentials?
They can travel in two directions.
Which of the following statements about simple epithelia is false?
They cover surfaces subjected to mechanical or chemical stress.
Which of the following statements about the functions of the paranasal sinuses is false?
They create a protected space for blood vessels and nerves.
Why are ribs 11 and 12 called floating ribs?
They do not connect with the sternum at all.
Which is not true of voltage-gated sodium channels?
They have both an activation gate and an inactivation gate that work dependent of each other.
What is the functional significance of gap junctions? (Module 4.4B)
They permit chemical communication (diffusion of ions and small molecules) that coordinates the activities of adjacent cells.
Microtubules do not have which of the following functions?
They stiffen microvilli.
Compare thin skin with thick skin.
Thin skin has 4 layers and covers most of the body surfaces. Thick skin has 5 layers and covers the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.
The molecule CO2 is known as
carbon dioxide
________ are fine hairs that lack pigment and cover much of the body surface.
Vellus hairs
How are vertebrosternal ribs distinguished from vertebrochondral ribs?
Vertebrosternal ribs are connected to the sternum by individual costal cartilages, whereas vertebrochondral ribs are connected to the sternum by shared costal cartilages.
Deteriorating changes in the distal segment of an axon as a result of a break between it and the soma is called ________ degeneration.
Wallerian
Cations are smaller in diameter than their electrically neutral atom. Why? (Module 2.3D)
When electrons are lost, the remaining electrons are pulled closer toward the nucleus.
Contrast the white matter and gray matter in the CNS. (Module 11.4D)
White matter of the CNS is dominated by myelinated axons. Gray matter of the CNS is dominated by neuron cell bodies, dendrites, and unmyelinated axons.
A movement away from the midline of the body is termed
abduction
Name the muscles that abduct the wrist. (Module 10.17B)
abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and extensor pollicis longus
The period from when an action potential begins until another action potential could be initiated is known as the ________ period.
absolute refractory
The period during which an excitable membrane cannot respond to further stimulation is the
absolute refractory period.
The intestinal response to PTH secretion when calcium ion levels are low is that calcium is
absorbed slowly.
When testosterone is increased in males at puberty, epiphyseal plates
accelerate rapidly
A rim of fibrocartilage in the joint cavity of the hip is called the
acetabular labrum.
Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after
acetylcholine binds to chemically gated channels in the motor end plate membrane.
Cholinergic synapses release the neurotransmitter
acetylcholine.
The cytoplasm of the neuromuscular synaptic terminal contains vesicles filled with molecules of the neurotransmitter
acetylcholine.
Excessive growth hormone after puberty could result in
acromegaly.
Two prominent features of the clavicle are the medial sternal end and the lateral ________ end.
acromial
The clavicle articulates with the scapula at the
acromial end.
ich ligament connects the clavicle and the acromion?
acromioclavicular
If a substance has a pH that is greater than 7, it is
alkaline.
Skin wrinkle and sagging is caused by
all of the choices
The all-or-none principle states that
all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials.
A slightly movable joint is a(n)
amphiarthrosis
Functionally, the public symphysis is classified as a(n) ________ articulation.
amphiarthrotic
Decreased blood flow to a muscle could result in all of the following except
an increase in intracellular glycogen.
The four spinal curves include all but which of the following?
axial
The odontoid process, also called the dens, is found on the
axis
The site in the neuron where EPSPs and IPSPs are integrated is the
axon hillock.
In which part of a neuron does Wallerian degeneration occur? (Module 11.5B)
axons of PNS neurons
State whether the following muscles involve the mouth, eye, nose, ear, scalp, or neck: buccinator, corrugator supercilii, mentalis, nasalis, platysma, procerus, and risorius.
buccinator = mouth; corrugator supercilii = eye; mentalis = mouth; nasalis = nose; platysma = neck; procerus = nose; risorius = mouth
Small pockets of synovial fluid that reduce friction and act as a shock absorber where ligaments and tendons rub against other tissues are called
bursae.
Osteocytes are embedded in a dense matrix of hydroxyapatite. Which of the following describes how osteocytes receive nutrients?
by diffusion from nutrients released from vessels in the central canal that travel through canaliculi
By what means are water molecules attracted to each other? (Module 2.5B)
by hydrogen bonds
Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone
calcitonin.
What is released from the structure labeled "9"?
calcium ions
In response to action potentials arriving along the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases
calcium ions.
Bone plays a central role in the regulation of blood levels of
calcium.
In the body, inorganic compounds
can serve as buffers.
A mature red blood cell lacks a nucleus. Thus, it
cannot make new proteins and will be worn out within a few months.
Which of the following surface features does the ulna not possess?
capitulum
The group of organic compounds containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a near 1:2:1 ratio is defined as a
carbohydrate.
By weight, which element is the second most abundant in the human body?
carbon
Twelve-year-old Aaron tried out for the Little League baseball team and was chosen as a pitcher. One day, after a few months of practice and games, Aaron's father told him, "Hey, kid, you're really getting some muscle definition there! You're going to be a major league pitcher someday, with muscles like that!" Which of Aaron's muscles in particular do you think were growing stronger and getting larger as a result of his pitching?
deltoid, triceps brachii, and brachioradialis
The powerful abductor muscle of the upper arm is the
deltoid.
a suture, bones are tied firmly together with
dense fibrous connective tissue.
Tissues that provide strength and support for areas subjected to stresses from many directions are
dense irregular connective tissues.
A shift of the resting transmembrane potential toward 0 mV is called
depolarization
In stratified epithelia adapted to resist mechanical forces, which of the following types of cell-to-cell junctions are especially abundant?
desmosomes
Which of the following cellular structures locks the terminal webs of neighboring cells to prevent cell distortion and leakage?
desmosomes
All of the following muscles compresses the abdomen except
diaphragm
The shaft of a long bone is called the
diaphysis.
A freely movable joint is a(n)
diarthrosis
A synovial joint is an example of a(n)
diarthrosis
A membrane transport process is found experimentally to lack a saturation limit. Which of the following is a possible property of the process?
diffusion
Ions can move across the plasma membrane in all of the following ways except
diffusion directly through the plasma membrane.
The movement of oxygen from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is an example of
diffusion.
Which muscles associated with the hyoid form the floor of the mouth? (Module 10.8C)
digastric, geniohyoid, mylohyoid
Gas exchange is to the respiratory system as absorption of nutrients is to the ________ system(s).
digestive
A ________ is a rounded passageway for passage of blood vessels and/or nerves.
foramen
Identify the opening surrounded by the occipital bone.
foramen magnum
Which foramen provides a passageway for nerves innervating the jaw?
foramen ovale
A rounded hole through a bone is termed a
foramen.
What is the primary function of kidneys?
form and concentrate urine
Microfilaments do not
form centrioles.
If a cell lacked the enzyme DNA polymerase, it could not
form complementary sequences of DNA.
If an animal cell lacked centrioles, it would not be able to
form the mitotic spindle.
Which of the following is not a distinctive feature of thoracic vertebrae?
form vertebra prominens
Damage to ependymal cells would most likely affect the
formation of cerebrospinal fluid.
In the peripheral nervous system, Schwann cells participate in the repair of damaged nerves by
forming a cellular cord that directs axonal regrowth.
A shallow depression on a bone is termed a
fossa
List the steps involved in fracture repair, beginning just after the fracture occurs.
fracture hematoma formation, callus formation, spongy bone formation, compact bone formation
Damage to a bone because of extreme load, sudden impact, or stresses applied from an unusual direction is called a
fracture.
Identify three different types of membranes based on permeability. (Module 3.13B)
freely permeable, selectively permeable, and impermeable
When cartilage is produced at the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis at the same rate as bone is deposited on the opposite side, bones
grow longer.
List some hormones that are necessary for maintaining a healthy integument.
growth hormone, sex hormones, growth factors, glucocorticoids, and thyroid hormones
Compared to the hand, the foot
has a more restricted range of movement.
Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers
have many nuclei.
Muscles including the term "capitis" would be found within or attached to the
head
ich structure articulates with the acetabulum?
head of the femur
The expanded articular end of an epiphysis that is separated from the shaft by a narrower neck is termed a
head.
What is an important by-product of exergonic reactions? (Module 2.9C)
heat
Elastic cartilage is found
in the ear.
Voltage-gated channels are present
in the membrane that covers axons.
Opening of each of the following types of channels will contribute toward a graded potential except
inactivated voltage-gated sodium channel.
The primary spinal curves
include the thoracic and sacral curves.
A muscle producing tension that peaks but falls to only intermediate stimulus rates is said to be in
incomplete tetanus.
which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid?
increasing osmotic pressure within joint
Muscular force can be adjusted to match increased loads by
increasing the frequency of action potentials in motor neurons.
The chin is ________ to the nose.
inferior
Ridges that anchor muscles that stabilize the head are the
inferior and superior nuchal lines.
The ________ muscle allows you to look down.
inferior rectus
Name the extrinsic eye muscles. (Module 10.7A)
inferior rectus, medial rectus, superior rectus, lateral rectus, inferior oblique, superior oblique
Identify the first stage in skin repair.
inflammation
Identify the two processes in the response to tissue injury. (Module 4.18A)
inflammation and regeneration
Dandruff is a disorder that results in dry skin flakes forming in the scalp. A common cause of dandruff could be
inflammation around sebaceous glands.
Name the foramina of the mandible.
mental foramina and mandibular foramina
Which type of glands secret their products by exocytosis?
merocrine
Perspiration is produced by ________ glands.
merocrine sweat
Intramembranous ossification begins with differentiation of ________ cells.
mesenchymal
What is the term for mRNA?
messenger ribonucleic acid
Compounds that can be synthesized or broken down by chemical reactions inside the body are called
metabolites.
The bones that form the palm are the
metacarpals.
The region of a long bone between the end and the shaft is known as the
metaphysis.
Which of the following is not an upper limb bone?
metatarsals
Endocytosis is a
method for transporting substances into the cell.
Terminal web is a layer of ________ just inside plasma membrane at the exposed surface of the cell.
microfilaments
List the three basic components of the cytoskeleton. (Module 3.4A)
microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules
After a stroke, what type of glial cell accumulates within the affected brain region?
microglia
The smallest neuroglia of the CNS that act as phagocytes are the
microglia
Which neuroglia appear in increased numbers in a person with a brain infection?
microglia
Small, wandering cells that engulf cell debris and pathogens in the CNS are called
microglia.
Name and define the unit used to measure cell size. (Module 1.11A)
micrometer; equal to one-millionth of a meter
Which cytoskeletal component is common to both centrioles and cilia? (Module 3.4B)
microtubules
Which of the following cytoskeleton components moves the chromosomes during cell division?
microtubules
Providing strength and moving materials within the cell is a function of the filaments and
microtubules.
Epithelial cells lining the internal passageways of the genitourinary tract usually have ________ at their free surface.
microvilli
Muscular walls of the thorax and abdomen are composed of
oblique and rectus muscles.
The ________ interactions allow bone to be strong, somewhat flexible, and highly resistant to shattering.
protein-crystal
mRNA is needed to synthesize ________ in the cytoplasm.
proteins
Each of the following is an example of an inorganic compound except
proteins.
A hydrogen ion is the same as what subatomic particle? (Module 2.12B)
proton
The "atomic number" of an atom is determined by the number of ________ it has.
protons
The mass number represents the number of
protons + neutrons
The mass of an atom is largely determined by the number of ________ it has.
protons + neutrons
The nucleus of an atom consists of
protons + neutrons
The atomic weight of an atom reflects the average number of
protons + neutrons + electrons.
You ________ your jaw when you grasp your upper lip with your lower teeth.
protract
What hand movements occur when a person wriggles into tight-fitting gloves?
protraction, supination, and pronation
Which of the following describes the action of the serratus anterior?
protracts the shoulder, abducts and medially rotates the scapula
A herniated intervertebral disc is caused by
protrusion of the nucleus pulposus.
Which of the following is not a function of the axial skeleton?
provides an attachment for calf muscles
List four essential functions of epithelial tissue. (Module 4.3A
provides physical protection, controls permeability, provides sensation, and produces specialized secretions
Which of the following is not a recognized structural classification for neurons?
pseudopolar
The pubic bones are joined anteriorly by what structure?
pubic symphysis
The two pubic bones join medially at the
pubic symphysis.
The adductor brevis has its origin on the
pubis
Which bone of the forearm is positioned laterally when in the anatomical position?
radius
Which of the following is a forearm bone?
radius
A projection at an angle on a bone is termed a
ramus.
After acetylcholinesterase acts, the synaptic knob
reabsorbs the choline.
Name the participants in a chemical reaction. (Module 2.7A)
reactants
Homeostatic regulation usually involves a(n) ________ that detects a particular stimulus, and a(n) ________ that responds to the stimulus by communicating with a(n) ________ whose activity has an effect on the same stimulus.
receptor; control center (integrating center); effector
The increase in muscle tension that is produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called
recruitment
Which axial muscle is often known as the "six-pack" in physically fit people? (Module 10.13A)
rectus abdominis
Which muscle connects the ribs and sternum to the pubic bones? (Module 10.10B)
rectus abdominis
Which of the following is not an extrinsic eye muscle?
rectus abdominis
Which of the following muscles has its insertion on the xiphoid process of the sternum?
rectus abdominis
During abdominal surgery, the surgeon makes a cut lateral to the linea alba. The muscle that would be cut is the
rectus abdominis.
The muscle that originates on the superior surface of the pubis around the symphysis is the
rectus abdominis.
Name the muscle of the quadriceps femoris. (Module 10.20B)
rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis
All of the following provides flexion of the knee except
rectus femoris.
What type of cells makes up almost half the volume of blood?
red blood cells
Which type of cells carry oxygen and carbon dioxide?
red blood cells
Extensive damage to oligodendrocytes in the CNS could result in
reduced speed of nerve impulses.
The period during which an excitable membrane can respond again, but only if the stimulus is greater than the threshold stimulus, is the
relative refractory period.
All of the following are examples of positive feedback, except
relaxation of smooth muscles' blood vessels when body temperature goes up.
The muscles of the head and neck do not function in
rotate the head.
Which regions of the vertebral column do not consist of individual vertebrae
sacral and coccygeal
Name the joints in which the sacrum participates.
sacrococcygeal and intercoccygeal joints
Which bone of the axial skeleton joins with the hip bones of the appendicular skeleton?
sacrum
Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton?
sacrum
Which bones articulate at the sacro-iliac joint?
sacrum and ilium
Name the bones of the pelvis.
sacrum, coccyx, and the hip bones
The joint between the trapezium and metacarpal bone of the thumb is an example of a ________ joint.
saddle
All of the following are associated with the joints of the vertebral column except
saddle joint.
The suture that forms the articulation of the two parietal bones is the ________ suture.
sagittal
Which plane divides the body into right and left parts?
sagittal
The plasma membrane of skeletal muscle is called the
sarcolemma
The repeating contractile unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is the
sarcomere
Each of the following terms is a descriptive term for a muscle's action except
sartorius
Identify the muscle labeled "25."
sartorius
The only knee flexor that originates superior to the acetabulum is the
sartorius
Which muscle of the leg crosses and produces actions at two joints? (Module 10.20D)
sartorius
Which of the following is a type of glial cell found in the peripheral nervous system?
satellite cells
Glial cells that surround the neurons in ganglia aresatellite cells.
satellite cells.
he maximum rate of an enzyme reaction occurs at
saturation limit.
Small, oddly shaped bones that fill gaps between bones of the skull are called ________ bones.
sutural
Muscles visible at the body surface are often called
superficialis
Which eye muscle sends its tendon of origin through a pulley or trochlea before inserting on the globe?
superior oblique
All of the following originate on the medial epicondyle of the humerus except
supinator
Which muscles are involved in turning a doorknob? (Module 10.16C)
supinators and pronators
A person is lying on the bed gazing at the ceiling. She is in the ________ position.
supine
The function of the appendicular muscles is to
support, move, and brace the limbs.
Damage to a joint cartilage is affecting which type of tissue?
supporting connective
Functions of epithelia include all of the following except
supporting muscle cells.
The vertebral arch
supports the articular, spinous, and transverse processes.
The alveolar process of the maxilla
supports the upper teeth.
A dust particle floating on a water surface illustrates
surface tension.
At each end of the muscle, the collagen fibers of the epimysium, and each perimysium and endomysium, come together to form a
tendon
The bundle of collagen fibers at the end of a skeletal muscle that attaches the muscle to bone is called a(n)
tendon
Which of the following most aptly describes "muscle insertion"?
tendon attachment that moves
Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system?
tendons
Muscles that laterally rotate the thigh include all of the following except the
tensor fasciae latae.
Muscles that are long and round in cross section are termed
teres
Within a resting skeletal muscle fiber, where is the greatest concentration of Ca2+? (Module 9.3C)
terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Which of the following is a result of convoluted coiling and folding that grants protein its final three-dimensional shape?
tertiary structure
