ABO Questioons

What can cause myofacial pain?

"a. Myocardial infarction b. Parotitis c. Myositis d. All of the above *"

"he parotid duct (Stensen's duct) enters the oral Tcavity by penetrating through the:"

"a. Orbicularis oris b. Zygomaticus major c. Buccinator (correct) d. RisoriusMasseter"

" True or False: Human eye sees 46 shades of gray. Digital camera sees 256 shades (if 8 bit only)"

"a. Both statements True" F/T or 46 is supposed to be 16

What bone bridges the cranial base and the facial skeleton?

"a. Sphenoid (correct) b. Maxilla c. Temporal d. Frontal" No reference

NSAIDs inhibit production of prostaglandins. This causes an increase in threshold to pain causing analgesia.

"a. T/T** b. T/F"

" In Posselt's diagram what is the final motion?"

"a. Pure Hinge (correct) b. Pure Rotation c. Half rotation, half hinge d. None of the above "

As a result of dental prophylaxis, microorganisms around teeth enter the bloodstream. This condition is an example of:

"a. Pyeria b. Toxemia c. Bacteremia (correct) d. Septicemia e. Focal infection"

Meiosis (46 chromosomes - 23 pairs)

Sex cells ½ # of chromosomes

" If a lower incisor to GoGn changed from 105 to 95, how many mm of mand. space is necessary?"

"a. 10mm b. 8mm c. 6mm d. 4mm (correct) 1mm/2.5 degrees 2mm/5 degrees "

What is effective bone graft for alveolar cleft?

"a. Bone from cadaver b. Bone from chin c. Bone from calvaria (correct) d. Bone from rib (correct) e. Bone from iliac (correct)"

" Which arch form would more closely approximate normal position of the 2nd & 3rd molars"

"a. Bonwill-Hawley b. Catenary Curve c. Brader (correct) d. Arch Blanks "

" Inverse correlation between caries and fluoride. No correlation between endo success & brushing."

"a. Both statements True "

A sudden change in occlusion, open bite and pain (parafunction), internal derangement are associated with

"a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteoarthritis * c. The psyche "

When you see a double border to the mandible, which side is lower to distortion? (assuming the patients head is positioned properly)

"a. Right (correct) b. Left c. Neither"

" Space discrepancies greater than 10 mm ______ require extraction?"

"a. Sometimes b. Never c. Almost always (correct) d. None of the above "

" Ricketts"

"a. FH - N-PG (facial angle)"

"The midpoint between the anterior and posterior clinoid process is the :"

"a. Sphenoid b. Basion c. Sella Turcica (correct)"

AAO standard for facial pictures

1/4 photo size

Maximum age for width of skull?

7-8 yrs

Closed lock is defined as what?

ADD without reduction *

Increase clockwise rotation of A and B

ANB increases "Article ""The "Wits" appraisal of jaw disharmony,"" Jacobsen: -Counterclockwise rotation of jaws relative to SN = Class III (ANB decreases) -Clockwise rotation of jaws relative to SN = Class II (ANB increases)"

What does NOT cause TMD

Answer: Extraction of Upper bicuspids

A picture of a panorex is shown and you are asked what is obvious?

Caries

" When patients with various malocclusions are given carrots, almonds, and firm meat, which describes the order in which these patients had difficulty chewing."

Class III is worst, then class II, than class I malocclusion, normal class I occlusion = best Does Malocclusion Affect Masticatory Performance? - Engish & Buschang

Source of growth at the cranial base is where?

Synchondroses (intershenoid, sphenoethmoid)

Multiple T/F: Supemumerary more common in the posterior (T/F). Supernumeraries are usually associated with syndromes. (T/F).

F/T

Why is platelet Growth Factor good?

It includes many things, which help in wound healing

What is the worst for filing

JPEG

What makes the TMJ different from any other joint in the body?

No hyaline cartilage on the articular surface.

Big Curve of Wilson and openbite:

Posterior teeth will not disocclude

Whats a filter and intensifying screen used for?

Reduce exposure to pt (correct)

For demanding patient:

To alleviate distrust can recommend a second opinion

What is the cause of a midline diastemma?

Tooth size arch length discrepancy

What Nerve is sensory to anterior 2/3 of tongue?

Trigeminal (V)

Transcranial XR's are for viewing what structure?

a. Lateral pole of the condyle *

Most stable position in head:

a. Look into mirror or distant object (correct) see above

"Ifyou bond ceramic brackets on anterior 3-3 and stainless steel brackets on posteriors, what would you expect?"

a. Loss of anchorage (true) "Article #86 ""When using sliding mechanics, the relatively rough surfaces of the ceramic slot significantly increases frictional resistance when compared with stainless steel brackets. A decrease in the efficiency of canine retraction was estimated at 25% to 30% when ceramic and stainless steel brackets were compared"""

What is the primary cause of TMD?

a. Parafunctional habits

Female patient has multiple radiolucencies apical to #23-25. All teeth tested vital with no reported pain. What is the diagnosis?

a. Periapical cemento dysplasia (correct)

For NiTi what gives it its special properties?

a. Phase transformation "(knowing definition of phase transformation helps) Proffit 4th edition pg. 362: ""NiTi alloys have two remarkable properties that are unique in dentistry: shape memory and superelasticity. Both shape memory and superelasticity are related to phase transitions within NiTi alloy between the martensitic and austenitic forms that occur at a relatively low transition temperature. "

Function of the temporalis.

a. close and retrude mandible (correct) Goggle

What does the ABO use to construct the mandibular plane:

constructed gonion and menton?

What suture fuses prematurely in Apert's and Crouzons?

coronal suture (correct) see above

10 y.o. w/ tongue thrust ; 0mm OJ and OB; no speech problems

do nothing

Most likely cause of tooth loss

external resorption

BMP

found in bone and potent inducer of de novo bone synthesis

Where did hyoid originate:

from 2nd branchial arch with horns of hyoid derived from branchial arch 3

In reality, how far is the CEJ from the alveolar crest?

"a. 1 mm b. 2 mm (correct) c. 3 mm d. 4 mm"

How many mm can a patient open if they have a closed lock?

"a. 42mm b. 60mm c. 11mm d. 23mm* " ABO Breakdown

"168. What is the ideal percentage of the lower facial height?"

"a. 45% b. 55% (correct) c. 35% d. 65% "

At what age can you start to superimpose on S-N?

"a. 5 b. 7 (correct0 c. 9 d. 11"

Downs anaylsis use as reference plane:

"a. S-N b. FH (correct) c. N-Ba" p63 Jacobson Text

What is the most common cause of mandibular asymmetry in children

"a. Trauma"

What is the application of spring back?

"The ability to deform the wire and return to its original shape."

Which dimension completes growth first, second, third?

"Transverse 1st A-P 2nd Vertical 3rd"

Tooth most likely to cause TMJ

"a. Lingual of maxillary 2nd molar"

If a TMD patient has pain that starts in the right TMJ area and they describe that it extends to the left anterior portion of the mandible:

"this is probably psychosocial in origin. (we think that normally, TMJ pain radiates up and back, and doesn't cross the midline)"

With tall cusps you need to finish with a deeper bite to prevent interferences.

(No answer given)

Ossification of sesamoid bone occurs

1 year before maximum growth spurt - (60-70%) of growth remaining ABO Breakdown

What does the ABO recommend for scale of photography?

1/4 size

How much increase in arch width across the canines is there from primary to permanent

2mm Proffit 4th ed pg 99

"Place the following closing loops in an order from the least springy to the springiest given that they are made from the same wire with similar dimensions: "

3 < 1< 2 < 5 < 4 (correct)

TMD is primary reason for ortho tx. Ortho tx causes TMD

F/F "Proffit 4th ed pg 17: - orthodontics as the primary treatment for TMD is almost never indicated Article ""Orthodontics and temporomandibular disorder:A meta-analysis,"" Kim: - data does not indicate that traditional orthodontic treatment increased prevalence of TMD Article "The risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview," Sadowsky: - Ortho tx during adolescence does not increase or decrease risks of developing TMD later in life "

Which is not an esthetic line?

I-line (correct) "Ricketts E Line - Line drawn from the tip of the nose to the soft tissue pogonion Holdaway's H Line - Line tangent to the upper lip from the soft tissue pogonion Burstone's B Line - A Line joining the soft tissue subnasale as the upper point and skin pogonion as the lower point Steiner's S1 Line - Line drawn from the center of the S - shaped curve between the tip of the nose and the skin subnasale to the soft tissue pogonion Sushner's S2 Line - Line drawn from the soft tissue nasion to the skin pogonion "

Which cell mediators increase prostaglandin production (i.e. activate AA pathway)?

IL-1 and BMP "article ""Effect of Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs on Bone Healing,"" Cottrell; http://www.mdpi.com/1424-8247/3/5/1668/pdf: ""Zhang et al. found that bone marrow cell cultures from COX-2 knockout mice produced less osteoblasts than wild-type mice but that treatment with BMP-2 and prostaglandin E2 could reverse this effect [93]"" "

Digital radiographs versus traditional radiographs

Silver halide (traditional) has better resolution. "Article ""A revision of the adult intraoral radiograph protocol for ABO clinical examinations,"" Dykhouse: ""A comparison of conventional intraoral films and digital intraoral radiographs demonstrated that alveolar bone measurements are reproducible in either imaging modality. Hence, either system or both systems can be used to accurately evaluate crestal bone levels"" Jacobsen pg. Ch.5: disadvantages of digital = cost, training, accuracy, security and stability of files"

What is Rickett's E-line?

Soft tissue Po to tip of nose

Stiffest wire?

Stainless Steel Proffit p362; Table 10-1

If a child is hit in the jaw where is the fracture?

Subcondylar contralateral (correct)

What effect does prostaglandins have on osteoblasts and osteoclast

a. Arachiadonic acid, prostaglandins, stimulate osteoclastic production (correct)

Downs used what for superimposition?

a. Broadbent registration point (correct)

An arrow points to calcified styloid process on dry skull or radiograph. What syndrome is associated with this?

a. Eagle Syndrome Eagle syndrome is a pain syndrome resulting from calcification of the stylohyoid ligament: pain upon yawning or turning head due to nerve impingement

Which nerve gives taste sensation to the anterior two thirds of the tongue?

a. Facial (correct) No reference

Which of the following changes from 8-18 yrs:

a. Facial angle (correct) "Breakdown Facial Axis: from Ricketts (angular measurement Nasion-Basion plane and the Foramen Rotundum to Gnathion (PTM to GN) plane. PTM is the apex of the teardrop (near the PNS). Avg 90. You grow along your facial axis. Facial Angle: FH to N-Pg Dimensions that do not change: - mx transverse"

What happens when canines expand?

a. Highly prone to relapse (correct)

Which of the following is indicative of velopharyngeal insufficiency?

a. Hypernasality

Secondary osteon

what makes up the adult bone

Key ridge

zygomatic process of maxilla

Unreliability of Frankfort Horizontal (FH) as horizontal reference line in cephalometrics stems from:

"1. Difficulty of locating point Suborbitale 2. Difficulty of locating point Porion 3. The true horizontal may show a divergence of up to 10º from FH a. 1 & 2 only b. 2 & 3 only c. 1 & 3 only d. 1, 2 & 3 (correct)" "Proffit 4th Edition: ""Establishing whether the jaws are proportionately positioned in the anteroposterior plane of space requires placing the patient in the physiologic natural head position, the head position the individual adopts in the absence of other cues. This can be done with the patient either sitting upright or standing, but not reclining in a dental chair, and looking at the horizon or a distant object. With the head in this position, note the relationship between two lines, one dropped from the bridge of the nose to the base ofthe upper lip, and a second one extending from that point downward to the chin. These line segments should form a nearly straight line. An angle between them indicates either profile convexity (upper jaw prominent relative to chin) or profile concavity (upper jaw behind chin). A convex profile therefore indicates a skeletal Class II jaw relationship, whereas a concave profile indicates a skeletal Class III jaw relationship. If the profile is approximately straight, it does not matter whether it slopes either anteriorly (anterior divergence) or posteriorly (posterior divergence). Divergence of the face (the term was coined by the eminent orthodontist-anthropologist Milo Hellman) is influenced by the patient's racial and ethnic background. American Indians and Asians, for example, tend to have anteriorly divergent faces, whereas whites of northern European ancestry are likely to be posteriorly divergent. A straight profile line, regardless of whether the face is divergent, does not indicate a problem. Convexity or concavity does."" pg 181 ""An international congress of anatomists and physical anthropologists was held in Frankfort, Germany in 1882, with the choice of a horizontal reference line for orientation of skulls an important item for the agenda. At the conference, the Frankfort plane, extending from the upper rim of the external auditory meatus (porion) to the inferior border of the orbital rim (orbitale), was adopted as the best representation of the natural orientation of the skull. This Frankfort plane was employed for orientation of the patient from the beginning of cephalometrics and remains commonly used for analysis. In cephalometric use, however, the Frankfort plane suffers from two difficulties. The first is that both its anterior and posterior landmarks, particularly porion, can be difficult to locate reliably on a cephalometric radiograph. A radiopaque marker is placed on the rod that extends into the external auditory meatus as part of the cephalometric head positioning device, and the location of this marker, referred to as ""machine porion"" is often used to locate porion. The shadow of the auditory canal can be seen on cephalometric radiographs, usually located slightly above and posterior to machine porion. The upper edge of this canal can also be used to establish ""anatomic porion,"" which gives a slightly different (occasionally, quite different) Frankfort plane. An alternative horizontal reference line, easily and reliably detected on cephalometric radiographs, is the line from sella turcica (S) to the bones (N). In junction between the nasal and frontal the average individual, the SN plane is oriented at 6 to 7 degrees upward anteriorly to the Frankfort plane. Another way to obtain a Frankfort line is simply to draw it at a specific inclination to SN, usually 6 degrees. However, although this increases reliability and reproducibility, it decreases accuracy. The second problem with the Frankfort plane is more fundamental. It was chosen as the best anatomic indicator of the true or physiologic horizontal line. Everyone orients his or her head in a characteristic position, which is established physiologically, not anatomically. As the anatomists of a century ago deduced, for most patients the true horizontal line closely approximates the Frankfort plane. Some individuals, however, show significant differences, up to 10 degrees. For their long-dead skulls, the anatomists had no choice but to use an anatomic indicator of the true horizontal. For living patients, however, it is possible to use a ""true horizontal"" line, established physiologically rather than anatomically, as the horizontal reference plane. This approach requires taking cephalometric radiographs with the patient in natural head position (i.e., with the patient holding his head level as determined by the internal physiologic mechanism). This position is obtained when relaxed individuals look at a distant obiect or into their own eyes in a mirror and incline their heads up and down in increasingly smaller movements until they feel comfortably positioned. The natural head position can be reproduced within 1 or 2 degrees. In contemporary usage, cephalometric radiographs should be taken in the natural head position (NHP), so that the physiologic true horizontal plane is established. Although NHP is not as precisely reproducible as orienting the head to the Frankfort plane, the potential errors from lower reproducibility are smaller than those from inaccurate head orientation."" pg 207"

The tongue reaches is maximum size at age?

"a.5 b.8 (correct) c.11 " Wolford article

Is computerized VTO accurate?

yes

Lack of cooperation with orthodontic treatment in an adult patient usually stems from:

"1. Personal choice of disagreement or poor understanding of the treatment modality. 2. Passive attitude or carelessness. 3. Low tolerance of discomfort. 4. Higher social demands and constraints a. 1,2 & 3 b. 1,3 & 4 (correct) c. 2,3 & 4 d. 2 & 3 "

All of the following are seen in Treacher-Collins Syndrome EXCEPT:

"A) Malar hypoplasia B) Mandibular prognathism (correct) C) Maxillary retrognathism" Board Breakdown

Steiner analysis is the first modern cephalometric analysis to:

"1. Emphasize the interrelationship between individual measurements into a pattern. 2. Offer specific guides for use of cephalometric measurements in treatment planning. 3. Establish different cephalometric norms for different ethnic groups. 4. Use a cross-sectional study to establish cephalometric norms. a. 1 & 2 only (correct) b. 2 & 3 only c. 1 & 3 only d. All of the above"

Place the following steps of adjunctive orthodontic treatment planning in the correct sequence:

"1. Establishing the occlusion 2. Definitive periodontal/restorative treatment. 3. Disease control. 4. Maintenance. A- 1,3,4,2 B- 3,2,1,4 C- 2,1,3,4 D- 3,1,2,4** " (P620)

I line

not a soft tissue

"Curve of Monson "

"Is the upper arch curve of wilson http://medical-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/Monson+curve Etymology: George S. Monson, American dentist, 1869-1933; L, curvus, a bend the curve of occlusion in which each tooth cusp and incisal edge lie on the surface of a sphere 8 inches (20 cm) in diameter, with its center in the region of the glabella. -provides balancing side contact during lateral excursions "

Tongue thrust in transitional dentition with some openbite

"a) Crib b) Myofunctional exercise c) No Tx (correct)" pg 154 Proffit - Tongue thrust is normal in transitional dentition

" Early treatment of hyperdivergent, open bite in the primary dentition, b/c the phenotype will not self correct"

"a. (T/T)"

If a lower incisor to GoGn changed from 105 to 95, how many mm of mand. space is necessary?

"a. 10mm b. 8mm (Correct) c. 6mm d. 4mm 1mm/2.5 degrees 2mm/5 degrees " The answer says 4mm is correct. But according to the MBT book, the calculation is .8mm/1 degree proclination PER SIDE. Which means the answer should be 8mm

Movement of the upper synovial cavity of the TMJ occurs between the

"a. Condyle and articular capsule b. Articular fossa-eminence and articulating disc * c. Condyle and mandibular fossa d. Condyle and articular disc e. Coronoid process and articular tubercle "

What is the transcranial XR least reliable for viewing?

"a. Condyle shape b. Glenoid fossa c. Joint space d. Range of motion (correct) " Shape would be a good answer if Range of motion was not a choice.

What is the x-ray filter made of?

"a. Copper b. Tungsten c. Aluminum (correct) d. Carbide"

What metal is used for the target in the XR tube?

"a. Copper b. Tungsten * c. Aluminum d. Molybdenum "

" Curve of Spee is"

"a. Dental compensation"

" What is the most common cause of mandibular anterior crowding?"

"a. Late mandibular growth (correct) b. Poor orthodontics c. Third molars erupting d. None of the above? "

" Which tooth has the potential to touch both anterior and posterior antagonists in an ideal centric occlusion?"

"a. Mandibular canine b. Mandibular lateral c. Maxillary canine (correct) d. Maxillary first premolar "

A good measure of the severity of a malocclusion is the AB line to

"a. Occlusal plane b. Mandibular plane c. Frankfort horizontal d. Facial plane (N-Pg) (Correct) " "Answer key says Occl plane. However, there do not seem so be any analysis that measure A-B to occl plane. Wits does AO to BO Downs analysis uses A-B to Facial plane, so that seems to be the only thing that is measured against A-B."

TMJ problems in the general population:

"a. Occur the same or more than in the orthodontically treated population b. Occur more in females than males c. Are often stress related with accompanying muscle spasms and trismus d. Are usually due to pathology or derangements e. All of the above * "

" Calcification of the upper and lower third molars"

"a. Occurs at the same time b. Varies greatly (correct) c. Is related to calcification of the other teeth "

What are the characteristics of an Ameloblastoma?

"a. Occurs in the third molar area b. High recurrence after removal c. Usually occurs after age 20 d. All of the above (correct)"

Articulation of the below with C1 permits the rotation of the head

"a. Odontoid process (Dens)"

" Most common odontogenic tumor"

"a. Odontoma (70%, average age - 14, unerupted teeth)(correct) b. Cementoma (AA women middle age, radiolucent around opaque lesion, vital teeth) c. Ameloblastoma (10%, radiolucent, age 30-50, likely to recur) "

Which of the following is the most common odontogenic tumor?

"a. Odontoma (correct) b. Ameloblastoma" "Neville's ""Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology"" says odontoma *Addendum: according to Dr. Kahn's (USN path instructor) ppt on odontogenic cysts/tumors, ""ameloblastoma is the most common true odontogenic tumor"" whereas ""Odontoma is the most common MIXED (epithelial and mesenchymal origin) odontogenic tumor"" and it is ""a hamartoma, not a true 'tumor'."" Therefore, I believe the answer should be AMELOBLASTOMA "

Most of the osteoclasts present in the PDL are:

"a. Of hematogenous origin. (correct) b. Derived from stem cells found in the local area. c. Highly differentiated fibroclasts. d. Always associated with an inflammatory condition " ABO Breakdown

What foramen does V2 pass through?

"a. Ovale b. Rotundum (correct) c. Spinosum d. Magnum" No reference

Most common source of error on a ceph

"a. Source-film distance b. Patient-film distance c. Vertical position of the head (correct) " The machine should be calibrated so that a. and b. remain consistent

In utilizing, which appraisal is a determination of the relationship between the maxilla and the mandible?

"a. Wits (correct) b. SNA c. Facial Axis (NaBa-PtGn) d. E-line " SNA is maxilla only, Facial axis is growth direction, E line is Soft tissue

What is the name of the intersection between the Bolton-nasion line and a perpendicular from sella?

"a. Witz registration point b. Broadbent registration point (correct) c. Jarabak registration point d. Holdaway registration point"

The tension side of tooth movement has what components histologically?

"a. Woven bone b. Fibrous tissue c. Both (correct)"

" Which of the following remains relatively constant with age? "

"a. Y-axis * (S-Gn/FH) defines mand growth direction"

The radiopacity that frequently obliterates the apices of maxillary molars when using bisecting principle of intra-oral radiography is the:

"a. Zygoma and the zygomatic process of the maxilla (correct) b. Orbital process of the zygomatic bone c. Palatine bone and the zygoma d. Maxillary sinus" No reference

" Which suture is NOT at the posterior border of the maxillary tuberosity?"

"a. Zygomatico (probably correct) b. Pterygo c. Palatine d. Sphenoid e. None of the above (correct)? " see above - pterygomaxillary suture/fissure (also known as pterygopalatine) is located at posterior border of max tuberosity, so answer A is the most incorrect

" When extracting maxillary first bi's only and leaving the molars in Class II...."

"a. also leave the maxillary first molars mesially rotated (correct) b. tip the maxillary first molar crowns mesially c. do not close all the extraction space d. also extract the mandibular first bi's "

What should you use for conservative treatment of TMD?

"a. anterior repositioning splint b. flat occlusal splint (correct)"

CBCT is better for TMJ than CT, CT has more radiation dosage than CBCT

"a. first statement is true, second is false b. first statement is false, second is true c. both true (correct) d. both false" "Dr. Hatcher: ""CBCT and CT theoretically should be about equal for looking at the TMJ but practically the CBCT is best. The goals of TMJ CT/ CBCT imaging are to show the size, shape, quality and spatial relationships of the osseous components of the TMJs. Neither system allows you to visualize the disc. The CBCT images in an upright position and is better than a supine position in CT. CBCT is a much lower dose than CT"" - From CDA Journal article Jan 2010: ""TMJ positional relationships can be more accurately evaluated (by CBCT) than in a CT examination where the patient is supine. Images generated via CBCT are not distorted and provide good bone density evaluation"""

A TMD patient opens wide/yawns and her jaw locks open, she moves her jaw to the left and the left joint pops, what has happened?

"a. left posterior disk displacement (correct) b. right posterior disk displacement c. left anterior disk displacement d. right anterior disk displacement"

What is Peak Height Velocity?

"a. maximal growth spurt from birth to puberty b. birth to 2 years c. conception to birth d. from puberty for up to 24 months after (correct)"

"Cleft lip formed by failure of fusion of the following: Bilateral cleft lip occurs from lack of fusion of what?"

"a. medial nasal and maxillary process (correct) b. medial nasal and lateral nasal" "Proffit 4th ed pg 74: Clefting of the lip occurs because of a failure of fusion between the median and lateral nasal processes and the maxillary prominence, which normally occurs in humans during the sixth week of development. At least theoretically a midline cleft of the upper lip could develop because of a split within the median nasal process, but this almost never occurs. Instead, clefts of the lip occur lateral to the midline on either or both sides (Figure 3-7). Since the fusion of these processes during primary palate formation creates not only the lip but the area of the alveolar ridge containing the central and lateral incisors, it is likely that a notch in the alve olar process will accompany a cleft lip even if there is no cleft of the secondary palate. "

" Which bone is purely intramembranous?"

"a. parietal and frontal (correct) b. ethmoid c. temporal " Above

Arthritic changes-

"a. synovial fluid"

What two bones meet at Articulare?

"a. zygomatic bone b. mandible (correct) c. sphenoid d. temporal (correct)" "Mosby's Dental Dictionary articulare: the point of intersection of the dorsal contour of the mandibular condyle and the temporal bone; All the dictionaries say mandible and temporal bone, but sphenoid makes more sense to me, looking at a lateral ceph."

Which is not one of the four cardinal symptoms of TMJ disorder?

"a.pain in TMJ b.joint sounds c.ADD (correct) d.impaired mobility of joints e..headaches f. crepitus" "p654 proffit, fig 18-24, Okeson pg 161 says TMD symptoms are: pain, joint sounds, limited opening ABO breakdown: - symptom = observed by patient; subjective (pain, headache) - sign = observed by dr.; objective (ADD, locking, condylar dislocation) JADA, Vol 139, No 6, 664. 2008: Four cardinal signs and symptoms of TMD: 1. pain in the TM joints, muscles of mastication and adjacent soft tissue 2. TM joint sounds that occur during mouth opening and closing and moving the lower jaw to either side or forward 3. Tenderness of the TM joints, muscles of mastication and adjacent soft tissues on digital palpation 4. Limitation on opening the mouth and moving the lower jaw to either side or forward. "

"Maturity of bone Order of bone"

"a.woven, composite, lamellar (true) b.woven, lamellar, composite c.woven, composite, lamellar, bundle" "Angle Ortho, 1987, Roberts, Rigid Endosseous Implants for Orthodontic and orthopedic anchorage. - there are three microscopic types of bone tissue: woven, lamellar and composite bone. 1. Woven (embryonic, new ortho bone) bone is poorly organized tissue that is formed rapidly (30-50 ± JLm/day) in response to skeletal wounding and overload. 2. Lamellar bone (cortical, compact), the principal load bearing tissue of the skeleton, is formed relatively slowly (0.6JLm/day) and has considerable strength because of a high degree of matrix maturation prior to mineralization. 3. Composite bone is a biological compromise of woven bone for rapid healing which is subsequently filled-in with lamellar bone to improve strength. Ten Cate's oral histology pg 253: -Bundle bone = non-lamellar; immature; directly lines socket; penetrated by collagen Sharpey's fibers of the PDL "

Primary failure of eruption is seen more frequently in the anterior region. When orthodontic forces are applied, ankylosis often occurs with such teeth when extrusive force is placed on them

"multiple T/F 1st statement is FALSE 2nd statement is TRUE" "Profitt 4th Edition pg. 461 Fig 12-47 caption: ""Primary failure of eruption is characterized by a posterior open bite due to failure of some or all posterior permanent teeth to erupt even though their eruption path has been cleared. It can involve any or all posterior quadrants."" Profitt 4th Edition pg.457: ""The affected teeth are not ankylosed, but do not erupt and do not respond normally to orthodontic force. If tooth movement is attempted, usually the teeth will ankylose after 1- 1.5 mm of movement in any direction."""

Know which artery goes into the pterygomaxillary fissure:

"maxillary sphenopalatine (correct)" "Wikipedia The sphenopalatine artery is a branch of the maxillary artery which passes through the sphenopalatine foramen into the cavity of the nose, at the back part of the superior meatus. Here it gives off its posterior lateral nasal branches. Crossing the under surface of the sphenoid, the sphenopalatine artery ends on the nasal septum as the posterior septal branches. Here it will anastomose with the branches of the greater palatine artery."

When you compare Elgiloy with SS

Elgiloy strength and resilience improves/increases when you heat treat it (stiffness stays the same) "Profitt page 361 - see reference from Kusy article above ABO 2008 says Elgiloy is more brittle than stainless steel. Is this true? Proffit p362 says they have the same modulus of elasticity and same stiffness."

What is location for CR?

Exact location is not known

On a ceph you are asked if you use machine porion instead of anatomic porion what will change?

FMA and y-axis increases

"What nerve is the special sensory to anterior 2/3 of tongue? "

Facial (VII) - Chorda tympani

X-rays do not affect all tissues equally

T

Which type of file has the least amount info lost?

TIFF

What wire can you use with a nickel sensitive patient?

TMA ABO article #67 says "Stabilized beta-phase titanium alloys contain about 80% titanium. In addition, they include 11.5% molybdenum, 6% zirconium, and 4.5% tin.

Adult bone remodeling due to formation of secondary osteons.

TRUE

VTO predictions are accurate and can be used in orthodontic tx planning. VTO predictions of soft tissue are accurate.

True, True "Article #66 ""The computer-generated cephalometric VTO predictions were found to be accurate in simulating the outcomes of adult extraction treatment. Although the lower lip was consistently predicted to be 1 mm anterior to its actual posttreatment position, these errors were still small enough to allow for accurate treatment planning."""

Which of the following is not associated with Cleidocranial?

missing teeth (correct)

Controlled type 2 diabetes

not a contraindication for ortho

" Origin and insertion of Digastrics "

"-Origin of ant. digatric-close to the lingual symphysis -Origin of pos. diagatric- medial surface of the mastoid process of the temporal bone and a deep groove between the mastoid process and the styloid process called the digastric groove. Inertion: Both muscles insert into the intermediate tendon of the hyoid bone " Wikipedia

Gemination vs. fusion

"-fusion: union of two separately developing tooth germs; 2 roots, 2 pulp, 1 crown -gemination: incomplete division of 1 tooth germ; 1 root, 1 pulp, 2 crowns Proffit p138 Occasionally, tooth buds may fuse or geminate (partially split) during their development. Fusion results in teeth with separate pulp chambers joined at the dentin, whereas gemination results in teeth with a common pulp chamber. If the other central and both lateral incisors are present, a bifurcated central incisor is the result of either gemination or, less probably, fusion with a supernumerary incisor. On the other hand, if the lateral incisor on the affected side is missing, the problem probably is fusion of the central and lateral incisor buds. Normal occlusion, of course, is all but impossible in the presence of geminated, fused or otherwise malformed teeth "

Advantages of intraoral periapical radiographs over panoramics in ortho diagnostic process include:

"1. Better ability to detect root resorption. 2. Better ability to detect carious lesions. 3. Less exposure to radiation. 4. Pathologic lesions, supernumerary and impacted teeth are more easily detected using periapicals. A - 2 & 3 only B - 1& 2 only ** C - 1, 2 & 3 D - 1, 2,3 & 4 " "(P163) ABO Article #63 Sameshima - ""Assessment of Root Resorption and root shape: Periapical vs Panoramic Films"""

" If two bicuspids are extracted in a Class II Div 1 non-growing patient, what functional cusp lies in an embrasure?"

"1. DL cusp of maxillary first molar 2. ML cusp of maxillary first molar (correct) 3. ML cusp of maxillary second molar 4. L cusp of mandibular premolar "

" Congenital absence of teeth results from disturbances during which stages of tooth formation:"

"1. Initiation stage 2. Proliferation stage 3. Bell stage 4. Calcification stage A- 1 & 2 only(correct) B-1 & 4only C-2 & 3 only D-1,2,3 & 4 "

Which of the following combos are likely to result in a skeletal Cl II at the end of growth:

"1. Normal Maxillary and mandibular lengths with a long cranial base. 2. Excessive maxillary lengths, normal mandibular length and a normal cranial base. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 & 2 (correct) d. None of the above"

How long should you retain a tooth that was extruded in a month?

"A) 1 month B) 3 months C) 6 months (correct)" Chapter 25 - McNamara's Orthodontics Book written by Kokich says 6 months retention due to oblique periodontal fibers.

a positive tuberculin means the person was previously exposed to TB. Positive result does not indicate the level of current activity.

"A) First statement is true, second false B) First statement false, second true C) Both True (correct) D) Both False" http://www.webmd.com/a-to-z-guides/tuberculin-skin-tests

Stress release definition in a NiTi wire

"Article #27b ""Pseudoelasticity..."" talks about stress-induced martensite (SIM)..."

What type of tissue found in condyle?

"Dense fibrous connective tissue on articulating surfaces and in disc "

"Gorelick fluorosis Multiple T/F: Gorlick states that significant decalcification occurs in 50%o of orthodontic patients. These patients should avoid large amountsof flouride to allow the enamel to remineralize. "

"First statement: true Second statement: true" "If you administer fluoride throughout treatment such as theres continuous remineralization of surface enamel the white spot lesion will never penetrate deeper than the surface but if the lesion has already penetrated deeper than .5 mm, you will mineralize the surface layer which will prevent the remineralization of the deeper level so you'll still have the white spot lesion, if you use MI paste you can mineralize the deeper surface and work outward. 50% of patients develop white spots (true) - these patient should avoid high amounts of fluoride (after debonding true) (during treatment - false depending on the timing) Does putting fluoride on immediately after treatment helps (NO) - it helps during but not after Highest incidence of white spots was maxillary lateral incisors Half of the pts developed white spots. However, this number reduced if they used Fl tx regularly while bands/bonds were on. However, if you placed Fl once immediately after debonding or debanding it did not help. Avoid Fl initially after debonding. - This is straight from Gorelick's article. All his articles can be found in AJO."

Tall cusps

"Generally, tall cusps and deep fossae promote a predominantly vertical chewing stroke, whereas flattened or worn teeth encourage a broader chewing stroke. (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 48). Okeson Summary on Z drive I. Angle of eminence vs. occlusal plane A. steeper the eminence—the longer the post. tooth cusps may be. B. flatter eminence—shorter the post. tooth cusps must be. II. Curve of spee A. flatter curve of spee—the longer the post. cusps may be B. steeper curve of spee—the shorter the post. cusps must be III. Vertical overlap of anterior teeth A. the greater the vertical overlap—the longer the post. cusps may be. B. the lesser the vert. overlap—the shorter the post. cusps must be. IV. Functional horizontal overlap of anterior teeth A. when functional horizontal overlap is 0-.5 mm—the post. cusps may be long. B. when functional horizontal overlap is greater than .5 mm—the post. cusps must be short. TABLE 6 - 1 VERTICAL DETERMINANTS OF OCCLUSAL MORPHOLOGY (CUSP HEIGHT AND FOSSA DEPTH) (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 145). TABLE 6 - 2 HORIZONTAL DETERMINANTS OF OCCLUSAL MORPHOLOGY (RIDGE AND GROOVE DIRECTION) (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 145). "

Growth directions

"Maxilla grows up and back but is displaced down and forward Mandible grows on the posterior extent of the ramus and condyle (displacing the mandible downward and forward). Simultaneous resorption on the anterior of the ramus and coronoid process. Pogonion has apparent growth by resorption at B point but no actual deposition at Pog (slight amount of deposition on lingual of symphysis)."

"Bruxism (question is worded funny) "

"Multiple T/F: Nocturnal bruxism not associated with occlusal interferences, but is associated with high anxiety and stress" "Okeson pg.44 ""it has likewise been demonstrated that the occlusal contact pattern of the teeth does not influence nocturnal bruxism"" ""At one time in dentistry, a widely held belief was that malocclusion caused nocturnal bruxism.However, well-controlled studies have suggested that the occlusal condition exerts little influence on nocturnal muscle activity. Levels of emotional stress appear to have greater influence. It has been repeatedly demonstrated that occlusal appliances decrease the level of nocturnal muscle activity, at least in the short term."" (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 428). ""Several types of parafunctional activities are notable; however, clenching and bruxism seem to be the most significant and can be either diurnal or nocturnal. 1. Diurnal activity may be more closely related to an altered occlusal condition, to an increased level of emotional stress, or both. Because diurnal activity can usually be brought to the patient's level of awareness, often it is managed well with patient education and cognitive-awareness strategies. 2. Nocturnal bruxism, however, seems to be different. It appears to be influenced less by tooth contacts and more by emotional stress levels and sleep patterns.Because of these differences, nocturnal bruxism responds poorly to patient education, relaxation and biofeedback techniques, and occlusal alterations. In many cases it can be effectively reduced (at least for short periods of time) with occlusal appliance therapy.49-51,80 The mechanism by which occlusal appliances reduce bruxism is not clear."" (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 384). "

"What are the landmarks for vertical facial thirds? "

"Proffit 4th ed pg 177: vertical thirds = hairline (trichion) - eyebrows (glabella); eyebrows - base of nose (subnasale); base of nose - chin (menton)"

Hyperdivergent phenotype should be treated early. The phenotype can be diagnosed early.

"a) First statement is true, second false b) First statement false, second true c) Both true (correct) d) Both false" ABO article #31 - (Sankey, Buschang) Early treatment of vertical skeletal dysplasia (Patterns of facial growth are established early in development/ if left untreated the only alternative may be surgery)

Sutural growth, endochondral and intramembranous growth are all seen in

"a) the neurocranium and the midface (correct) b) the neurocranium only c) the neurocranium, the midface and the mandible" "Neurocranium = chondrocranium (cranial base) + membranous neurocranium (calvaria/cranial vault); grows by all 3 methods The maxilla only grows by intramembranous (and possibly sutural), but the midface includes other structures (it's basically the opposite side of the cranial base from the cranial vault) therefore the midface also grows by all three methods Sutural growth in the mandible (though there is a suture) is virtually non-existent Board breakdown states :Neurocranium + midface: all three types of growth occur: sutural, endochondral and appositional.(Pg.15)"

How many cartilages are in the inferior 1/3 of the nose?

"a. 1 b. 3 (correct) c. 5" septum, greater/major alar, lesser/minor alar

"Which of the following structures appear radiolucent on an oral radiograph: 1. Medial palatine suture 2. Anterior nasal spine 3. Mandibular canal 4. Genial tubercles 5. Hamular process"

"a. 1 & 3 only (correct) b. 1, 3 & 5 c. 4 & 5 only d. 2 & 3 only" No reference

If patient allergic to penicillin, when would you give clindamycin 600mg?

"a. 1 hour before procedure (correct) b. 1 hour before and after procedure" "Doses: 1. Amoxicillin 2g 1hr before procedure 2. Allergic to amox: Clindamycin 600mg 1hr before procedure "

What is the incidence of Cleft Palate?

"a. 1 in 100 b. 1 in 500 c. 1 in 750 (correct) d. 1 in 1500"

Treacher Collins autosomal dominant. If one of the parents and the first child is affected, what is chance next child will be affected?

"a. 1% b. 25% c. 50% (correct) d. 100%"

" The usual incubation period for Hepatitis B virus infection is:"

"a. 1-2 days b. 1-2 weeks c. 1-6 months (correct) d. 1 year e. 5 years "

What is the minimum total filtration that is required by an XR machine that can operate in ranges greater than 70 KVP?

"a. 1.5 mm of aluminum equivalent b. 5/8 (16 mm) of gypsum c. 2.5 mm of aluminum equivalent (correct) d. 1/32 in. (0.8mm) of lead"

" When cropping pictures what pixel does ABO recommend"

"a. 1/4 pics- 24-bit (bits/pixel) color-depth, 300-dpi JPEG images w/ medium compression Xray 8-bit grayscale, 200-dpi JPEG with medium compression "

The radiation protection guide advocates that the XR dose to operators of the dental machines should not exceed?

"a. 100 milliroentgens per week * b. 10 roentgens per week c. 100 roentgens per week d. 300 roentgens per week "

" If both parents have no cleft but one sibling does, what are the chances that a cleft will occur in a new sibling?"

"a. 100% b. 50% c. 5% (correct) d. 0% "

" What is the peak height velocity?"

"a. 12 for girls b. 14 for boys c. both (correct) "

On a view of a lateral ceph with the second molars and E's present, how old is the pt?

"a. 13 years b. 9 years c. 11 years (correct) d. 15 years " Think about it

How far is the film from the midsagital plane in a ceph?

"a. 15 cm (correct) b. 20 cm c. 4 feet d. 5 feet"

"Most stainless steel wires are made of ? "

"a. 18% Chromium b. 10% Nickel c. 8 % Nickel d. a & b e. a & c (correct)"

The typical formation of stainless steel for use in orthodontic wires has:

"a. 18% Chromium and 8% Nickel (correct) b. 8% Chromium and 18% Nickel c. 80% Chromium and 18% Nickel d. None of the above. " "Proffit 4th ed pg 361 "

Where was the first meeting of ABO?

"a. 1929 Estes Park, Colorado (answer) b. 1938 Estes Park, Colorado c. 1929 Denver, Colorado d. 1932 St. Louis" "1929 - Estes Park, CO - First meeting of ABO 1900 - St. Louis, MO - First meeting of AAO "

"A) Contemporary research shows that tongue thrust swallow in early permanent dentition is more an adaptation to the openbite than the cause of it. B) Elimination of the tongue interference often leads to a spontaneous correction of the openbite in this age group. "

"a. 1st statement is correct, 2nd statement false.(correct) b. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is correct. c. Both statements are correct. d. Both statements are false. "

How many branches does the facial nerve have

"a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 (correct)" temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, cervical ("Two Zebras Bit My Crack")

Space discrepancies of up to ___ mm can usually be resolved without extraction of some teeth other than third molars?

"a. 2 b. 4 (correct) c. 6 c. 8"

What bones form the Lambdoidal suture?

"a. 2 occipital and one parietal b. 2 parietal and one occipital (correct) c. 2 frontal and one parietal d. 2 parietal" "The lambdoid suture (or lambdoidal suture) is a dense, fibrous connective tissue joint on the posterior aspect of the skull that connects the parietal and temporal bones with the occipital bone. Its name comes from its lambda-like shape. At birth, the bones of the skull do not meet. If the lambdoid suture closes too soon on one side, the skull will appear asymmetrical (plagiocephaly)."

" At what point does the palate close in fetal life?"

"a. 2 weeks b. 6 weeks c. 12 weeks (correct) d. 20 weeks "

When a tooth erupts, how much root has been formed?

"a. 2/3 (correct) b. ¾ c. 1/3 d. ½" Eruption begins at 2/3, tooth emerges at 3/4 root formation

" The percentage of growth completed at 10 years of age is :"

"a. 20 % b. 35 % c. 65 % (correct) d. 96 % "

" When swallowing, the amount of force applied when the teeth are in contact is:"

"a. 20 grams b. 50 grams c. 100 grams (correct) ? d. 150 grams " Okeson says 66.5 lbs (5th ed, p.51)

Physicians use height/weight charts when there is how much deviation from norm?

"a. 20% b. 40% c. 50% d. 90% (correct)" Same source as above.

What percentage of openbites self-correct?

"a. 20% b. 80%(correct) c. 100%" "Skeletal morphologic features of anterior open bite" Cangialosi

What percentage of young kids w/ anterior open bite do we have to treat?

"a. 20% (correct) b. 40% c. 60% d. 80%"

Post-treatment studies of malocclusions treated with extraction of teeth by Little et al found:

"a. 20% relapse of mandibular incisors b. 1/3 relapse of mandibular incisors c. 50% relapse of mandibular incisors d. 2/3 relapse of mandibular incisors (correct)"

" How many chromosomes are there in a somatic cell?"

"a. 23 b. 1 c. 46 (correct) d. 47 "

" What are the chances that a child will inherit the trait if an autosomal dominant individual and a non-carrier have a child?"

"a. 25% b. 50% (correct) c. 75% "

What are the chances that a second child will have the characteristic if one parent is affected by an autosomal dominant characteristic and the other is not and they already have one child with the characteristic?

"a. 25% b. 50% (correct) c. 75% d. 100%"

The physician should be concerned if a child's growth pattern is above which of the following:

"a. 25th percentile b. 50th percentile c. 75th percentile d. 95th percentile (correct)" Proffit 4th Edition pg. 32 A child who falls beyond the range of 97 percent should receive special study and not just accepted as an extreme.

What is the average difference between S-N and Frankfort horizontal?

"a. 3 degrees b. 7 degrees (Correct) c. 10 degrees d. 13 degrees "

In an 11 YO male, in a two year period the mandibular molars are expected to erupt?

"a. 3 mm b. 4 mm c. 1.5 mm (correct) d. 2.5 mm"

" In an 11 YO male, the lower facial height is expected to increase?"

"a. 3 mm/ year b. 1 mm/ year (correct) c. 2 mm/ year d. 2.5 mm/ year " Board breakdaown

"At what age does brain have the most number of neurons? "

"a. 3 mo. After conception b. Birth (they think this is correct?) c. 2-3 years d. 8-9 years " Birth is correct

when do the two halves of mandibular symphysis fuse?

"a. 3 months before birth b. 3 months after birth (correct) c. At 1 year d. At 2 years" "Journal of Forensic Sciences, 2003 ""Tooth Formation and the Mandibular Symphysis During the First Five Postnatal Months"" ""The mandibular halves were separated at birth. Complete fusion had occurred in the majority of infants aged four months"" ... so 3 months sounds good. "

When is neural growth complete

"a. 3 months into conception b. birth c. 6-7 yrs old(correct)"

"37% phosphoric acid etch, 30 secs: How much enamel loss? 37% phosphoric acid etch for 15 seconds, how much enamel loss?"

"a. 3-10 microns(correct). b. 1-2 microns" Graber: 30 secs->3-10 microns

" What is the normal intermolar width for adolescents?"

"a. 33-35 (correct) b. 36-39 c. 39-42 d. none "

"24. Which of the following is used to etch a ceramic crown?"

"a. 37% phosphoric acid b. 9% HF (correct) " Graber pg 579

" Upper lip soft tissue to chin"

"a. 3:1" Profit 4th ed. pg.180

When does primary teeth start to calcify in the fetus?

"a. 4 weeks b. 14 weeks (correct - U & L centrals) c. 24 weeks d. 8 months"

" Minimum number of lobes to make a "

"a. 4"

" In complete nasal obstruction, there's an immediate change of head posture measured by an increase in craniofacial angle of about: "

"a. 5 degrees (correct) b. 15 degrees c. 25 degrees d. 50 degrees " Profitt 4th ed. pg. 156

According to some studies, temporomandibular joint sounds are a common finding in approximately ____% of the population, including patients before orthodontic treatment.

"a. 50 b. 75 c. 87 d. 25 (correct) " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Page 82 section ""TMJ sounds and Orthodontic Treatment"" ""Temporomandibular joint sounds are a common finding and occur in approximately 20-30% of the population including patients before orthodontic treatment"""

How long does it take for the root apex to be completely formed after tooth eruption?

"a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 2-3 years (correct) d. 5 years"

The most effective time to surgically close a cleft palate is:

"a. 6 months after birth (correct) b. at birth c. one year after birth? d. two years after birth"

" In late maturing girls, PVH occurs?"

"a. 6-11 months before menstruation (correct) b. 18-24 month before menstration c. more than 24 months before menstration "

" In a 16 YO female, the normal ratio of upper facial height (nasion to ANS) to lower facial height (ANS to menton) is:"

"a. 63:35 b. 30:79 c. 50:50 d. 43:57 (correct) " Jacobson 2nd ed.

Distance between SN and natural head position is usually

"a. 7 degrees (correct) b. 5 degrees c. zero degrees" Jacobsen txt chapter on Natural head position

The Bolton % 6-6 lower vs upper is ...

"a. 76% b. 78% c. 91% (Correct) d. 94%" Mosby's Review - pg. 33 - Mean anterior ratio is 77.2 and the mean overall 6-6 is 91.3

How many bones are in the craniofacial complex?

"a. 8 cranial b. 14 facial c. 22 total d. all of the above (correct) " "Board Breakdown: 8 Cranial: 2 parietal, 2 temporal, frontal, occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid 14 Facial: 2 maxillae, 2 zygomatics, 2 nasals, 2 lacrimals, 2 palatines, 2 inferior conchae, vomer, mandible"

"What is the time that the spheno-occipital synchondrosis unites? "

"a. 8 to 10 years b. 10 to 12 years (correct) c. 12 to 14 years d. 15 to 16 years" Intersphenoidal closes at birth, Sphenoethmoidal closes at 7-8, Sphenooccipital closes at 15-20.

How many microns of enamel removed when etch 15 seconds with 37% phosphoric acid?

"a. 8-10 (correct) b. 12-16"

On the PHV curve, the onset of puberty correlates best with the maximum growth spurt at the following age:

"a. 9 years for boys b. 12 years for girls (correct) c. 14 years for boys (correct) d. none of the above e. all of the above"

" From mesial of upper 7 to opposite arch, what is average percent of Bolton"

"a. 91% (don't word it as bolton) 77% anterior"

Of the following, which is true?

"a. A 1mm CO/CR shift is acceptable (correct) b. A 1mm lateral shift is acceptable"

What additional piece of information would you gather at your records visit to obtain condylar inclination?

"a. A CR bite b. A CO bite c. A Protrusive wax bite (correct) d. Lateral excursive wax bites"

A study evaluating serial extraction cases at least 10 years out of retention indicated that:

"a. A more stable result achieved in the serial extraction cases than in cases that had premolars extracted after they fully erupted b. No decrease in post retention intercanine width c. That only 23% of the sample demonstrated clinically unsatisfactory mandibular alignment by the post-retention stage d. All of the above e. None of the above (correct)"

Which of the following is not a bilateral structure:

"a. A point b. Opisthion (correct) c. Porion d. Orbitale" "A point is not an actual anatomic structure (its mainly on x-rays) therefore we believe that opisthion is a better answer for this question (they didn't specify a specific ceph) "

" The most difficult to point locate on a ceph is?"

"a. A point (correct) b. B point c. Sella d. Ar " Not sure about this question could not find a reference.

Factors that contribute to optimal detail sharpness include:

"a. A small focal spot area b. Increase kilovoltage c. A long focal-spot film distance d. A short object film distance i. a and b ii. a and c iii. a and d (correct) iv. c and d v. a,c and d"

What are some characteristics of a skeletal open bite?

"a. A tall person b. Antegonial notching and a low mandibular plane angle c. Antegonial notching and a high mandibular plane angle (correct) d. Antegonial notching and a high Wits"

Karposi's sarcoma in HIV patient's is:

"a. A transitory condition b. Caused by the papilloma virus c. Multifocal in orgin * d. The result of a staph infection "

Which of the following allows application of constant force

"a. A-NiTi (correct) b. M-NiTi" "Proffit 4th ed. pg. 363: ""over a considerable range of deflection, the force produced by A NiTi hardly varies. This means that an initial arch wire would exert about the same force whether it were deflected a relatively small or a large distance"" Article #27b. ""The initial activation force required for austenitic NiTi can be 3 times greater than the force required to deflect a classic work-hardened martensitic wire. However, once the SIM is formed, the horizontal plateau appears and the alloy "absorbs" any additional load stress and releases it in constant amounts during the deactivation phase."""

"Which of the following wires has the LEAST resistance to deformation "

"a. A-Niti b. Copper Niti c. TMA d. Multi-strand e. SS (correct)" "Proffit 4th ed pg 363: SS has highest stiffness, lowest springiness and therefore less resistant to permanent deformation "

Which of the following wires has the MOST resistance to deformation

"a. A-Niti b. Copper Niti (correct) c. TMA d. Multi-strand e. SS " "Article ""Review of contemporary AW"" Kusy: ""copper additions increase its strength and reduce the energy lost"" The Textbook of Orthodontics by Singh (Google Book) pg 334: Copper NiTi: 1. more resistant to permanent deformation 2. better springback as compared to other NiTi alloys 3. More constant forces exerted over small activations"

Which of the following is not a common symptom of TMD

"a. ADD (sign not a symptom) * b. pain c. headaches "

What ceph measurements are used in the ABO discrepancy index:

"a. ANB b. SN/MP c. FMA? d. IMPA"

Treacher-Collins pt would be expected to have all of the following EXCEPT:

"a. ANB of greater than 5 b. Downward slanting eyes c. Missing zygomatic arch d. Md hyperplasia (correct) e. Hearing impairment "

Therapeutic radiation for cancer of the oral region may result in which of the following side effects:

"a. Abnormal growth of the mandible b. Early exfoliation of the primary teeth c. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction d. Osteoradionecrosis * e. High palatal vault "

" The position of the mandibular foramen is where?"

"a. Above the occlusal plane (correct) b. Below the occlusal plane " No reference

" Oligodontia refers to the: "

"a. Absence of all teeth. b. Absence of many but not all teeth.(correct) c. Absence of only few teeth. d. None of the above. "

" VTO after extraction makes patient look better then in real life"

"a. Accurate to be reliably used"

Which one of the following analgesics acts centrally rather than as a prostaglandin inhibitor:

"a. Acetaminophen (correct) b. Aspirin c. Ibuprofen d. None of the above " (P312)

Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by:

"a. Actinomyces bovis b. Borrelia vincenti c. Nocardia asteroids d. Staphyloccus aureus * e. Mycobacterium tuberculosis "

Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by:

"a. Actinomyces bovis b. Borrelia vincenti c. Staphylococcus aureus (correct) d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis " "Dr. Kahn: Actinomyces (gram +) cause israeliis? Borrelia causes ANUG Mycobacterium causes TB "

Exam of a mixed dentition malocclusion reveals an abnormal resorption pattern of the primary teeth, delayed eruption of permanent teeth, incompletely formed roots of permanent teeth & large tongue. Which of the following etiological factors is probable cause of the condition:

"a. Addision's disease b. Hypothyroidism * c. Hypoparathyroidism d. Von Recklinghausen's disease e. History of severe febrile disease "

Which of the following is FALSE:

"a. After an extensive review of the literature, Seligman and Pullinger concluded that published research suggests a limited role for intercuspal occlusal factors in the cause of TMD. b. It is not important for orthodontics to identify and document findings related to TMJ and mandibular function, since there is little association between orthodontic treatment and TMD. (correct) c. If painful symptoms arise during orthodontics, therapy may have to be modified d. Orthodontic mechanotherapy produces gradual changes in an environment that is generally quite adaptive. " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Pg 82 - General Comments 2nd paragraph Answers A-D are all word for word except answer B. The paragraph states: ""However, as pointed out by Greene and others, a prudent orthodontist should identify and document findings related to the TMJ and mandibular function"""

A newly employed personnel should have Hep. B shots made available to him/her:

"a. After six months of work b. As soon as possible (correct) c. Never"

" When does the nose stop growing in males?"

"a. Age 18 b. Age 30 c. Never (correct) d. Age 12 "

Where does growth occur in order to make room for the maxillary molars?

"a. Alveolar process b. Maxillary tuberosity (correct) c. Ramus d. All of the above"

A differential diagnosis for a multilocular radiolucency includes all of the following except?

"a. Ameloblastoma b. Central giant cell granuloma c. Cementoblastoma (correct)"

" A patient with a cleft palate only is best retained with"

"a. An anterior bridge b. A posterior bridge c. Partial denture d. Retainer with a pontic (correct) "

A latent image is: "invisible change"

"a. An image that is very late in its development b. A very light radiographic image c. Produced after exposure but before development (correct) d. A very dark radiographic image"

" What causes a problem in a cleft patients' speech?"

"a. An inability to build up intraoral pressure (correct) b. A large tongue c. A narrow mandible d. All of the above "

Myofacial Pain dysfunction syndrome has at its base etiologies of:

"a. Anatomy and occlusion b. Occlusion, physiological factors and trauma * c. Malocclusion and structure d. None of the above"

The articular disk of the TMJ consists of:

"a. And outer fibrous layer and inner synovial layer b. Areolar tissue covered by dense fibrous connective tissue c. An outer layer of mesothelium and an inner layer of calcified cartilage d. dense fibrous connective tissue which may be associated with condrocytes* "

" Where is the articular tubercle located relative to the sigmoid notch?"

"a. Anterior b. Posterior (correct) c. Middle " Netter's

A muscle which inserts on the mandible is the:

"a. Anterior belly of the digastric (correct) b. Posterior belly of the digastric c. Hyoglossus d. Thyrohyoid e. Superior belly of the omohyoid" The anterior belly of the digastric is the only answer choice here that attaches to the mandible, however, the symphysis is technically an origin not an insertion.

The parts of the sphenoid bone include all of these EXCEPT:

"a. Anterior clinoid process b. Dorsum Sellae c. Cribriform plate (correct) d. Hypophyseal fossa" the cribiform plate is an ethmoid structure

Acromegaly is caused by a disturbance in the

"a. Anterior pituitary gland * b. Posterior pituitary gland c. Hypothalamus "

One of the major strengths of the McNamara analysis is:

"a. Any one measurement is not affected by others within the same face. b. The difference in sagittal positions of the jaws is projected to S-N line. c. The normative data are based on a well defined sample. (correct) d. None of the above."

The palate grows down by:

"a. Apposition on the lingual b. Sutural c. All of the above (correct) d. None of the above"

" What are possible reasons for a patient to have a Class I occlusion on one side and a Class II on the other?"

"a. Arch asymmetry b. Skeletal asymmetry c. Midline discrepancy d. All of the above (correct) "

Histochemically basal bone and alveolar bone:

"a. Are vastly different b. Basal bone is more resistant to resorption c. Are no different (correct) d. Alveolar bone is less cancellous"

An exposed radiographic film should remain in the fixer solution

"a. As long as it remained in the developer b. Until the film first clears c. For 5 min at 70 degrees F d. For at least 10 minutes (correct)"

" Which of the following medications has been shown to cause gingival enlargement?"

"a. Aspirin b. Epinephrine c. Procardia (nifedipin) (correct) d. Motrin (ibuprofen) e. Aldomet (methydopa) "

All of the following are true about Apert's and Crouzon's EXCEPT:

"a. Asymmetric mandible (correct) b. Supernumeraries c. Craniosynostosis d. Cleft Palate e. class III f. midface hypoplasia" "Crouzon's and Apert's syndrome are most commonly characterized by premature fusion of coronal and lamdoid sutures Early fusion of just lamdoid is plagiocephally Coronal fusion results in brachi appearance Sagital suture premature fusion results in dolicofacial appearance Trigonocephaly results from premature fusion of metopic suture Only difference between Apert's and Crouzon's is that Apert's has syndactally Supernumeraries can be seen in Crouzon's and Aperts"

What is the usual cause of two lines at the mandibular border?

"a. Asymmetry b. Magnification * c. Incorrect positioning of patient "

When does mineralization of permanent first molars begin?

"a. At birth (answer) b. 4 months in utero 6 yrs" "Profit 4th ed. pg. 94, Table 3-3 1st molar starts calcification 32 wks in utero"

"The activation phase of a superelastic NiTi involves what state? "

"a. Austenitic b. Martensetic * c. Crystalline to amorphous d. Amorphous to crystalline" Proffit 4th ed pg 363: see figures 10-6 and 10-7

Which Niti wire gives a soft gradual force?

"a. Austenitic niti (correct) b. Martensitic Niti " "ABO article #27a - Pseudoelasticity and thermoelasticity of Nickel-titanium alloys: A clinically oriented review. Part I: Temperature transitional ranges - Pg. 592 ""Austenite presents a higher modulus of elasticity that results in a greater stiffness of the wire. In Austenitic alloys, the formation of SIM [stress-induced martensite] will guarantee the presence of the superelastic behavior necessary for the relase of light and continuous forces."""

"When NiTi is activated it goes from? "

"a. Austenitic to martensitic (correct) b. Martensitic to austenitic c. Big repeat " Proffit 4th ed pg 363: see figures 10-6 and 10-7

Children with which of the following conditions have the greatest tendency toward delayed eruption of teeth:

"a. Autism b. Down's syndrome (correct) c. Cerebral palsy d. A seizure disorder"

" What prevents attaining an ideal Angle Cl I posterior occlusion?"

"a. Axial inclination of the canine (correct) b. Excessive mandibular lingual torque c. Excessive maxillary buccal torque d. Steep premolar cusps e. Procumbent maxillary incisors "

What prevents attaining an ideal Angle Cl I posterior occlusion?

"a. Axial inclination of the canine (correct) b. Excessive mandibular lingual torque c. Excessive maxillary buccal torque d. Steep premolar cusps e. Procumbent maxillary incisors " A makes sense

High angle female crossbite- use bonded RPE to control vertical. If you used banded RPE the mandible would rotate down and back as a result of expansion. She had supemumerary teeth in mandible near canineswhen should you extract them?

"a. Before Tx (correct) b. During tx c. After tx"

The key to success of serial extraction is to extract the first PM's:

"a. Before the canines erupt (correct) b. after the canines erupt c. never"

" Where does the mandibular foramen lie?"

"a. Below and anterior to the mandibular molars b. Below and posterior to the mandibular molars c. Above and posterior to the mandibular molars (correct) d. Above and anterior to the mandibular molars " No reference

Most rapid somatic growth occurs:

"a. Birth to 2 yrs (correct) b. 4-7 yrs c. 7-9 yrs d. 12-15 yrs" Fig. 2.2 Proffit

" Where does part of temporal bone cross orbit on PA ceph?"

"a. Bisect orbit (correct) b. Upper 1/3 of orbit c. Lower 1/3 of orbit d. Floor of orbit "

Where does part of temporal bone cross orbit on PA ceph?

"a. Bisect orbit * b. Upper 1/3 of orbit c. Lower 1/3 of orbit d. Floor of orbit "

Ectodermal dysplasia has which of the following clinical manifestations?

"a. Blue sclera * b. Missing teeth * c. No sweat glands * d. All of the above " all of the above

" Which is most closely associated with opisthion?"

"a. Bolton b. Basion (anterior point on foramen magnum) c. Condylion d. Occipital condyle " "No reference Bolton point is much closer to opisthion than any of the others listed"

What is most likely the cause of malocclusion in cerebral palsy?

"a. Bone malformation b. Neural dysfunction c. Muscular dysfunction * "

Osteoclasts come from?

"a. Bone marrow b. Blood (correct) c. PDL d. Bone " Board breakdown and internet sources state that they are derived from hematopoietic bone marrow so answer may be A, not B

Which of the below are possible arch forms?

"a. Bonwill-Hawley - based on a mathematical model b. Catenary - based on a pendulum swinging from two points c. Bradey Trifocal - based on trifocal ellipse d. All of the above (correct)"

The anterior clinoid is a sagittal suture. The anterior clinoid is the posterior part of the lesser wing of the ethmoid bone

"a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true and the second false.(correct) d. The first statement is false and the second true. " Te anterior clinoid is part of the sphenoid bone

" On lateral excursions, which cusps contact on the non-working side during non-working side interferences?"

"a. Buccal cusps of the lower b. Lingual cusps of the upper c. Both (correct) d. Neither "

" What are some characteristics of taurotantism?"

"a. Bull shaped molars "

What does the odontoid process consist of?

"a. C1 b. C2 (correct) c. both" The first vertebra ("atlas") supports and balances the head. It has practically no body or spine and appears as a bony ring with two transverse processes. On its upper surface, the atlas has two kidney-shaped facets that unite with the occipital condyles of the skull. The second vertebra is the "axis," which bears a tooth-like "odontoid process" on its body. This process projects upward and lies in the ring of the atlas. As the head is turned from side to side, the atlas pivots around the odontoid process.

What is the widest cervical vertebrae from C1 to C5?

"a. C1 (correct) b. C2 c. C4 d. C5 "

What is the best Radiographic technique to see TMJ soft tissue?

"a. CAT scan b. Tomogram c. MRI * d. Bitewing "

Which of the following nerves does NOT go through the superior orbital fissure?

"a. CN III b. CN IV c. CN V1 d. CN V2 (correct) e. CN VI" "Superior orbital fissure: Located between the greater and lesser wings, it communicates with the orbit and transmits the ophthalmic veins and nerves (CN III, CN IV, CN V1, CN VI, and sympathetic fibers) entering the orbit. (Moore, Keith L.. Clinically Oriented Anatomy, 5th Edition. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 052005. p. 899). Foramen rotundum (round foramen): Located posterior to the medial end of the superior orbital fissure, it transmits the maxillary nerve (CN V2) that supplies the skin, teeth, and mucosa related to the maxilla (i.e., lining the upper jaw and maxillary sinus). (Moore, Keith L.. Clinically Oriented Anatomy, 5th Edition. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 052005. p. 899). "

What is affected early in Rheumatoid Arthritis?

"a. Cartilage b. Bone c. Synovia (correct)"

According to the functional matrix theory, "primary growth sites" such as the condyle and sutures:

"a. Cause expansion and growth b. Respond by compensating for translational forces (correct) c. Are the primary genetic basis for all growth and development d. In addition to the bony skull are the major influences in growth"

Radiographic film emulsion is

"a. Cellulose acetate b. Sodium thiosulfate c. Hydroquinone d. Gelatin and silver bromide (correct) e. Calcium tungstate"

A comparison of changes from the teens to the adult indicates:

"a. Changes in the facial skeleton equal those in the facial soft tissue profile b. Changes in the facial skeleton are greater than those in the facial soft tissue profile c. Changes in the soft tissue profile are greater than those in the facial skeleton (correct) d. There is very minimal change in the soft tissue or facial skeleton"

Teratogens are:

"a. Chemicals and other agents capable of producing genetic defects. (correct) b. Functional and environmental agents capable of producing genetic defects. c. Genetic code disturbances capable of producing genetic defects. d. None of the above"

" Which structure is most likely to grow into a person's twenties?"

"a. Chin b. Nose (correct) c. Maxilla d. Mandible "

How should a patient be positioned for taking a panoramic XR?

"a. Chin parallel to the floor b. Frankfort horizontal parallel to the floor (correct) c. Occlusal plane parallel to the floor d. None of the above" Dr. Hatcher lecture

"In 18/8 Stainless Steel wires: "

"a. Chromium prevents corrosion b. Cobalt adds stiffness c. Titanium adds strength d. Nickel adds flexibility i. a and b ii. b and c iii. c and d iv. a and d (correct)" Proffit 4th ed pg 361 and ABO Breakdown

A patient with achondroplasia, in which midfacial structures are most affected, is likely to have which of the following malocclusions:

"a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III * d. None of the above"

What is the result of a distal step relationship in the primary dentition with no mandibular growth?

"a. Class I b. Class II (correct) c. Class III d. None of the above"

" Which malocclusion is commonly found with an interincisal angle of 165 degrees?"

"a. Class I b. Class II div 1 c. Class II div 2 (correct) d. Class III "

" If angle of convexity is normally zero & you measure -5, what type of malocclusion is it? "

"a. Class I b. Class II div I c. Class II div 2 d. Class III (correct) "

If angle of convexity is normally zero & you measure -5, what type of malocclusion is it? (N-A-Pg)

"a. Class I b. Class II div I c. Class II div 2 d. Class III (correct) " "Positve Angle of convexity indicates a convex profile (Cl II) Negative angle of convexity indicates a concave profile (Cl III) See Downs analysis"

Ideal situations for serial extraction:

"a. Class I molars b. Moderate OJ/OB c. Severe crowding - 10mm or more d. Slight protrusion e. All of the above (correct)"

In the primary dentition, a terminal plane occlusion usually turns into...

"a. Class I* b. Class II c. Class III "

Which of the following may not be used in TMD?

"a. Class III elastics (correct) b. Class II elastics c. Herbst d. HG" An anteriorly displaced disc will be worsened

Pierre-Robin Syndrome is associated with the following condition:

"a. Cleidocranial dysplasia b. Basal cell nevus c. Mandibular micrognathia * d. Down's syndrome e. Gardner's syndrome"

" Intramembranous bone formation comes from:"

"a. Condensation of mesenchyme (correct) b. Endoderm c. Ectoderm " Goggle

On an articulator, change in the anterior-posterior is controlled by what?

"a. Condylar angulation (correct) b. Bennett angle c. Either angle"

Treatment of joint dysfunction usually requires:

"a. Condylar repositioning b. Mandibular appliance which is flat or indented for position c. Maxillary appliance which is flat or indented for position d. All of the above * "

Which part of the maxilla does growth increase the arch length?

"a. Condyle b. Tuberosity (correct) c. Alveolus"

Which of the following is NOT part of branchial arch 1?

"a. Coronoid process b. Maxilla c. styloid process (correct)" "The first arch (mandibular a.) differentiates into the sphenomandibular and anterior malleolar ligaments, malleus, and incus; the second (hyoid a.) into the stapes, styloid process, stylohyoid ligament, lesser horn of the hyoid bone, and cranial part of the hyoid body; the third into the greater horn of the hyoid bone and the caudal part of its body; and the fourth and sixth into the laryngeal cartilages. In the human embryo, the sixth arch is actually the fifth in number but is so named for reasons of comparative anatomy and evolution; it does not appear on the surface. (Dorland, Dorland. Dorland's Illustrated Medical Dictionary, 30th Edition. W.B. Saunders Company, 052003. 1). "

A patient with no spacing of the deciduous dentition will have

"a. Crowding in the permanent dentition * b. Normal permanent dentition c. Spacing of the permanent dentition d. A Class III malocclusion "

A 5 YO child has symmetric bilateral enlargement in posterior of the mand. XR reveal large multilocular radiolucencies. Likely diagnosis is:

"a. Cysts b. Osteopetrosis c. Familial fibrous dysplasia (cherubism) * d. Osteitis deformans"

" Skeletal open bite malocclusions usually have:"

"a. Decreased height of incisors b. Decreased height of maxillary molars c. Increased height of maxillary molars (correct) d. None of the above " see above

When taking lateral cephalograms, double intensifying screens and screen films are used to reduce:

"a. Density b. Contrast c. Exposure times * d. Secondary radiation e. Target-skin distance "

Indicators of maturity?

"a. Dental age, chronological age, skeletal age b. Dental age, peak velocity age, skeletal age c. Dental age, chronological age, peak velocity age d. Skeletal age, chronological age, peak velocity age (correct)"

" Which are most related?"

"a. Dental age, peak height velocity, skeletal age b. Dental age, skeletal age, sexual age c. Peak height velocity, skeletal age, sexual age (correct0 d. Peak height velocity, dental age, sexual age "

" The major growth in the body of the mandible:"

"a. Depends on the condyle b. Occurs in the symphysis c. Is appositional (correct) d. Is endochondral e. Depends on Meckel's cartilage "

In patients with tight anterior occlusion, when late mandibular growth occurs the contact relationship of the incisors may cause:

"a. Distal displacement of the mandible b. Flaring of the maxillary incisors c. Crowding of the mandibular incisors d. Marked mesial movement of the maxillary incisors i. a, b and c * ii. b, c and d iii. a, b and d "

How does the nonworking condyle move?

"a. Downward forward, and medially * b. Downward, backward, and medially c. Downward, forward, and laterally d. Downward, backward, and laterally "

Which of the following is NOT associated with Treacher Collins:

"a. Downward slanting eyes b. Missing or hypoplastic zygoma c. High ANB d. Hypoplastic maxilla (correct)" "Individuals with mandibulofacial dysostosis exhibit a characteristic facies (Figure 1-87). The zygomas are hypoplastic, resulting in a narrow face with depressed cheeks and downward-slanting palpebral fissures. In 75% of patients, a coloboma, or notch, occurs on the outer portion of the lower eyelid. About half of the patients have no eyelashes medial to the coloboma. Often the sideburns show a tongue-shaped extension toward the cheek. The ears may demonstrate a number of anomalies. The pinnae often are deformed or misplaced, and extra ear tags may be seen. Ossicle defects or absence of the external auditory canal can cause conductive hearing loss. The mandible is underdeveloped, resulting in a markedly retruded chin. Radiographs often demonstrate hypoplasia of the condylar and coronoid processes, with prominent antegonial notching. The mouth is downturned, and about 15% of patients have lateral facial clefting (see page 2) that produces macrostomia. Cleft palate is seen in about one third of cases. The parotid glands may be hypoplastic or may be totally absent. (Neville, Brad W.. Oral & Maxillofacial Pathology, 2nd Edition. W.B. Saunders Company, 012002. pp. 42 - 43). "

What is NOT a major cause of malocclusion?

"a. Drugs b. Habits c. Hereditary d. Endocrine imbalances e. None of the above (correct)"

" Cleft palate develops:"

"a. During the first trimester of pregnancy (correct) b. During the second trimester of pregnancy c. During the third trimester of pregnancy d. At birth "

Edward Angle invented all of the following except:

"a. E-Arch b. Pin and tube c. Ribbon arch d. Edgewise e. Universal (correct) " "Profitt pg 407-408: Angle invented: E-arch Pin and tube ribbon arch Edgewise"

When is condylar hypoplasia most common?

"a. Early childhood b. Early adult- late adolescent * c. Late adult " Board breakdown says early childhood...

" Strengths of a template cephalometric analysis include all of the following, except"

"a. Easy use of age-related standards. (P184) b. Quick overall impression of dentofacial structures. c. Non-utilization of linear measurements. (correct) d. Readily integration for computer use. "

In which of the following syndromes is cyanosis common at birth?

"a. Ehlers-Danlos b. Pierre-Robin (correct) " The Pierre Robin sequence (Pierre Robin anomalad) (Figure 1-5) is a well-recognized presentation characterized by CP, mandibular micrognathia, and glossoptosis (airway obstruction caused by lower, posterior displacement of the tongue). The Pierre Robin sequence may occur as an isolated phenomenon, or it may be associated with a wide variety of syndromes or other anomalies. It has been theorized that constraint of mandibular growth in utero results in failure of the tongue to descend, thus preventing fusion of the palatal shelves. (Neville, Brad W.. Oral & Maxillofacial Pathology, 2nd Edition. W.B. Saunders Company, 012002. p. 4).

The articular disc is composed of which type of tissue? Fibrocartilage

"a. Elastic b. Fibrous (correct) c. Cartilaginous d. Hyaline "

" What does not happen during tooth eruption"

"a. Elongation of the roots b. Occlusal movement c. Mesial movement (correct) d. Growth of the alveolar bone e. Resorption of deciduous tooth roots "

" What did not originate from ectoderm?"

"a. Enamel b. Dentin c. Cementum d. Hair e. Nails i. a and b ii. b and c (correct0 iii. d and e "

"During the finishing stages of orthodontics, your patient has a CR to CO slide of 2mm into a good Cl I relationship, what is the appropriate treatment? How do you finish with 2mm CR-CO discrepancy?"

"a. Equilibrate the mandibular distal inclines and the maxillary mesial midlines (this is correct if minimal shift) b. Cl II elastics (this is correct if over 2mm) c. Cl III elastics d. Functional appliance" """The shorter the slide, the more likely it is that selective grinding can be accomplished within the confines of the enamel. Normally an anterior slide of less than 2 mm can be successfully eliminated by a selective-grinding procedure. The direction of the slide in the sagittal plane can also influence the success or failure of selective grinding. Both the horizontal and the vertical components of the slide should be examined. Generally, when the slide has a great horizontal component, it is more difficult to eliminate within the confines of the enamel (Fig. 19-2). If it is almost parallel with the arc of closure (i.e., large vertical component), eliminating it is usually easier. Therefore both the distance and the direction of the slide are helpful in predicting the outcome of selective grinding."" (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 591). "

" If a person has steep premolar cusps, then the orthodontist should finish this patient with...."

"a. Equilibration b. Open bite c. Deeper overbite (correct) d. Sharper canines "

" The hammock ligament is related to"

"a. Eruption (correct) b. The TMJ c. The digastrics " There is a periodontal ligament that usually surrounds the tooth and at the tip of the root it widens. This is often referred to as the "hammock ligament". The hammock ligament is the primary entrance that the nerve tissue and blood vessels must go through in order to supply the dental pulp located inside of the tooth

In prioritizing realistic treatment objectives, a compromise could be made on the following, except:

"a. Establishing ideal occlusion. b. Addressing the patient's chief complaint. c. Achieving ideal facial esthetics. d. Maximizing stability."

The radiopaque line that passes obliquely through the orbits on a posterioanterior ceph is which bone?

"a. Ethmoid b. Sphenoid (correct) c. Temporal d. Parietal" Greater wing of the Sphenoid passses obliquely through the orbit of a PA Ceph

" Which bones have air in them?"

"a. Ethmoid b. Temporal c. Sphenoid d. Frontal e. All of the above (correct) " No reference

On a lateral ceph, arrow is pointing to:

"a. Ethmoid sinus b. Sphenoid Sinus c. Orbital floor of frontal bone" Arrow was pointing to the orbital floor but posterior to frontal bone just above ethmoid sinus. Options for orbital floor of ethmoid bone or bridge formed by frontal and ethmoid were not given.

" The major advantage of cephalometric radiographs in treatment of children & adolescents is: (P171)"

"a. Evaluation of dentofacial proportions. b. Screening for pathologies. c. Study changes in jaw and tooth position brought about by growth and treatment (correct) d. None of the above "

"What is Youngs Modulus of Elasticity? "

"a. Expressed in the stress and strain curve, deflection and stiffness, Slope of stress and strain curve to which stiffness and springiness are proportional" "Article ""Review of contemporary archwires"" Kusy: elastic modulus - An engineering property of a material that equals the ratio of stress to strain, when deformation is totally elastic. In tension or bending the elastic modulus is often called ""Young's modulus."" (low modulus of elasticity = low stiffness and high springiness) "

Larsson and Ronnerman studied adolescent patients who were treated orthodontically 10 years previously, 18 of whom had fixed appliances and 5 whom had functional appliance (activator). In 31% of the subjects mild dysfunction was recorded clinically and only one subject (4%) had severe dysfunction according to the Helkimo index. In comparing their results with other published epidemiologic studies, they concluded that:

"a. Extensive orthodontic treatment caused severe dysfunction of the TMD. b. Extensive orthodontic treatment can be performed without the fear of creating complications of TM dysfunction. (Correct) c. Functional appliances can cause severe dysfunction of the TMD. d. There were no differences in symptoms between the subjects that were treated with fixed appliances compared with the ones treated with fixed appliances. " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Pg 79 ""In comparing their results with other published epidemiologic studies, they concluded that extensive orthodontic treatment can be performed without fear of creating complications of TM dysfunction. They suggested that orthodontic therapy may possibly prevent TMD."""

What is the facial artery a branch of?

"a. External carotid artery (correct) b. Internal carotid artery c. Lingual artery d. Thyroid artery" No refernce

" Cooperation is more likely to be a problem in a patient with"

"a. External motivation for seeking treatment.(correct) b. High degree of parental control. c. Multi-cultural background. d. Any of the above. "

Which of the following landmarks is NOT recognizable in periapical radiographs of the mandible:

"a. External oblique ridge b. Coronoid process (correct) c. Mylohyoid ridge d. Mental foramen" No reference

" Which of the following is a viable treatment plan when there is less tooth mass on the upper?"

"a. Extract 2 maxillary premolars b. Extract 2 mandibular premolars c. Extract 1 lower incisor (correct) d. Extract 4 premolars "

Which of the following is NOT included on ABO analysis

"a. FMA b. ANB c. IMPA (possible answer) d. Sn-MP" "Everyone got this wrong in 2010 We guessed IMPA because ABO example tracing labels IMPA as ""/1 to MP"" and ABO defines the mandibular plane differently (using constructed gonion instead of gonion) http://www.americanboardortho.com/professionals/clinicalexam/casereportpresentation/preparation/tracings.aspx# http://www.americanboardortho.com/professionals/clinicalexam/casereportpresentation/preparation/CephTraceExample1.aspx ABO uses: SNA, SNB, ANB, SN-MP, FMA, SN-U1, MP-L1, 1/-NA, /1-NB, E-plane http://americanboardortho.com/professionals/downloads/Example%20Case%20Presentation.pdf"

On a ceph you are asked if you use machine porion instead of anatomic porion what will change?

"a. FMA and y-axis increases (Correct)" Machine porion will always be higher on a ceph than anatomical proion

Which of the following increases with time?

"a. Facial angle (correct) b. FMA"

" What increase in male from 8-18 "

"a. Facial angle convexity (soft tissue glabella to subnasale to soft tissue pogonion)"

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Gardner's?

"a. Facial clefts (correct) b. Colon polyps c. Supernumerary teeth d. Multiple osteomas" Clefts

" Studies by Behrents from participants in the Bolton study indicate:"

"a. Facial growth ceases at age 21 b. No antero-posterior changes or vertical changes in adult life c. There is no increase in facial dimensions in adults d. There is an increase in all facial dimensions in adults (correct) "

Which of the following is NOT usually a goal of adjunctive orthodontic treatment for adults:

"a. Facilitating restorative treatment. b. Improving periodontal health. c. Treating temporomandibular disorders. (correct) d. Establishing favorable crown-to-root ratio." (P 616)

If you are doing research on cephs, but one group is on one machine & the 2nd group is on another machine. What affect on your results?

"a. Factor in a magnification between the two machines * b. Can't use the data c. No effect"

" Supernumerary teeth are most common in posteriors"

"a. False"

What is associated with primary herpetic gingivostomatitis?

"a. Fever b. Lymphadenopathy c. Gingival lesions d. All of the above (correct) e. None of the above"

The following statements are correct:

"a. Final facial size is attained earlier in females than males b. Male facial growth continues into the second decade c. Facial growth is likely to be at the time final height was attained in females and continues after in male d. All of the above (correct) e. None of the above"

CBCT is good for most hard tissues and some soft tissues. CBCT is less expensive and less radiation than CT.

"a. First statement is true, second false b. First statement false, second true. c. Both true (correct) d. Both false" Jacobsen text p. 236

" Primary Failure of Eruption occurs more in ant. region & teeth in PFE don't become ankylosed til extrusive "

"a. First statement is true, second false, etc. b. False, true (correct) c. Both true d. Both false " see above

Tartar control toothpaste controls 50% of tartar build-up, b/c it contains pyrophosphate.(Triclosan antibacterial)

"a. First statement is true, second is false b. First statement is false, second is true c. Both false d. Both true (correct)"

When are the growth peaks?

"a. First two years of life b. Early infancy and adolescence (correct) c. Early Childhood"

Treatment of muscle dysfunction usually requires a combination of:

"a. Flat appliances for muscle relaxation b. Stress management c. Physical therapy d. All of the above * "

Patient is a severe bruxer, has pain and crepitation. Which one would you NOT do?

"a. Flat plane b. Anterior positioning splint (correct) c. NSAIDS" ABO believes in the flat plane for symptomatic patients. An anterior positioning splint would only be used for a recapturable anteriorly displaced disc (which is highly unlikely in cases of crepitus)

Under normal conditions, the presence of mamelons in a 14 YO patient is indicative of:

"a. Fluorosis b. Malnutrition c. Malformation d. Malocclusion (correct) e. Enamel composition "

" Elevation of alkaline phosphatase occurs during growth of bone in children:"

"a. Following major bone fractures b. During diseases followed by bone destruction c. Increases in osteoblastic activity d. All of the above (correct) "

The fibrocartilage between the temporal are and basion around the occipital condyle and functions;

"a. For lateral growth b. for frontal growth c. For cushioning any direct forces or to protect from pressure of transfer forces (correct)" No reference

Dibbets and van der Weele reported the findings from their prospective longitudinal study in the Netherlands over 15-year period. Removable appliances (functional) were used in 39%, fixed appliances (Bedd) in 44%, and chin cups in 17% of cases. A non-extraction approach was used in 34% of cases, four premolars were extracted in 29%, and other extractions in 37%. They evaluated subjectively perceived symptoms, identified as clicking/ crepitation and the radiographic appearance of the condyle. Which of the following is TRUE about this study?

"a. For the first 10 years there was a significant difference between the three types of treatment with regard to subjective clicking. b. Objective clicking was always more frequent in the four-premolar extraction group at all time points, but the frequency paralleled the other two groups. (CORRECT) c. After 15 years, the four-premolar extraction group showed the lowest subjective clicking among all groups. d. Clicking frequency, subjective or objective, was always lower in the four-premolar even before treatment was started " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Pg 81 (top of Right column) Word for Word"

Major cause of Cl I crowding is NOT early loss of dental material in primary dentition because:

"a. Forces of occlusion prevent any spontaneous space closure. b. Decrease in primary teeth loss due to fluoridation in the US had little or no impact on the prevalence of malocclusions. (correct) c. Use of a space maintainer often does not prevent eventual crowding in the permanent dentition. d. None of the above"

What is more likely to cause an anterior open-bite in a 10 years old child:

"a. Forward resting position of the tongue. (correct) b. Tongue thrust swallowing. c. Thumbsucking habit with duration of about 3h/day. d. None of the above" (P132)

Wits analysis uses which plane for reference?

"a. Frankfort b. Occlusal (correct) c. SN d. Palatal " see above

" What does Rickett's measure?"

"a. Frankfort horizontal (correct) b. SN c. Palatal plane d. Occlusal plane "

"How is superelastic NiTi deactivated? "

"a. From martensitic to austenetic (correct) b. From austenstic to martensetic" Proffit 4th ed pg 363: see figures 10-6 and 10-7

" Attachment of superior head of the lateral pterygoid"

"a. From the sphenoid to disc of TMJ" "Superior head origin: greater wing of sphenoid Inferior head origin: lateral surface of lateral ptyregoid plate Insertion: pterygoid fovea under the condylar process of the mandible and TMJ"

" Which point is associated with the occipital condyle?"

"a. Fulcrum point b. Bolton point (correct0 c. Basion point " "Jacobson 2nd ed. page 49 Bolton point is the intersection of the outline of the occipital condyle and the foramen magnum at the highest point on the notch posterior to the occipital condyle."

Where do you find supernumerary teeth?

"a. Gardner's Syndrome b. Cleidocranial dysostosis c. All of the above * d. None of the above "

" Growth of the mandible is between what two growth curves?"

"a. General and neural (correct) b. General and genital c. Neural and lymphoid d. None of the above "

"Nasal epithelial cells (look up the exact type of cells) What type of cells found in nasal cavity?"

"a. Goblet b. Ciliated c. Pseudostratified Columnar d. All of the above (correct)" Dr. Kahn stated that nasal epi cells are goblet, ciliated and pseudostratified columnar

Which of the following is mandatory in radiation protection for the patient?

"a. Gonadal shields b. High-speed film c. Collimator * narrows a beam d. Use of long, lead-lined cones "

"The condyle is wider mediolaterally than AP by what? "

"a. Half as much b. Twice as much (correct) " Okeson page 7 - " The total mediolateral length of the condyle is 15 to 20 mm, and the anteroposterior width is between 8 and 10 mm."

The condyle is wider mediolaterally than AP by what? (8:20) AP 8-10mm, MD 15-20mm

"a. Half as much b. Twice as much * "

" The hand bone most closely associated with the onset of puberty is:"

"a. Hammate b. Radius c. Ulna d. Sessamoid (correct) e. Lunate "

The assessment of mandibular movements as a diagnostic procedure in evaluating TMJ disorders

"a. Has no bearing on the functional capacity of the stomatognathic system b. Is necessary to determine whether the TMD is muscular or intracapsular or a combination of both c. Is critical for the evaluation of mandibular dysfunction * d. Is unreliable " ABO Breakdown

" Infants with repaired clefts of lip and palate:"

"a. Have normal development of hard and soft tissue b. Have normal development of the soft palate c. Have a deficiency of the soft palate (correct) d. None of the above "

Why would the mandible be smaller on a ceph taken 3 years later?

"a. Head rotated b. Patient moved c. Patient too close to x-ray source on initial * "

Which organ helps retain Ca2+?

"a. Heart b. Skin c. Kidney (correct) d. Spleen"

" Which of the following is true?"

"a. Height is achieved early on in development more than bredth or depth b. Depth is achieved early on in development more than bredth or height c. Bredth is achieved early on in development more than height or depth(correct) "

Which of the following affects both maxilla and mandible and occurs due to a disturbance in the first trimester:

"a. Hemifacial microsomia b. Mandibulofacial Dysostosis aka Treacher Collins (correct) c. Crouzon's" "They all seem to be possible. Proffit 4th pg 73 Crouzon's occurs the latest. Hemifacial microsomia because the mandible is more effected than the maxilla. This means mandibulofacial dysostosis is somewhat favored. Answer could also be all of the above but B is the best answer"

" What are some possible causes of a cleft palate?"

"a. Heredity b. Drugs c. All of the above (correct) d. None of the above "

Which of the following are characteristics of adenoid faces?

"a. High palate and constricted maxillary arch * b. Flared incisors c. Class III tendencies d. Open bite "

Properties of an ideal wire material for orthodontic purposes include all of the following EXCEPT:

"a. High strength b. Low stiffness c. High formability d. Low range (correct) " "Proffit 4th ed pg 361 The properties of an ideal wire material for orthodontic purposes can be described largely in terms of these criteria: it should possess (1) high strength, (2) low stiffness (in most applications), (3) high range, and (4) high formability "

Compared to a standard stainless steel wire, a NiTi wire possesses:

"a. Higher load/deflection ratio, greater springback and higher formability. b. Lower load/deflection ratio, greater springback and lower formability. (correct) c. Lower load/deflection ratio, lower springback and lower formability. d. Higher load/deflection ratio, greater springback and lower formability" "Proffit 4th ed pg 361-362 ""Nitinol exceptionally springy and quite strong but has poor formability"" ""A-NiTi has a considerably flatter load-deflection curve and greater springback than M-NiTi, which in turn has much more springback than steel."" "

" What is the incidence of Cleft palate in American Indian population?"

"a. Higher than whites (correct) AI>C>AA b. Less than whites "

" What is peak velocity age (PVK) ?"

"a. Highest growth rate at any age (correct0 b. Growth rate in infancy c. Growth rate in adolescence "

"190. Which ratio is used to see the relationship between the lower incisors and the chin?"

"a. Holdaway ratio (correct) b. Ricketts ratio c. Bolton ratio d. Jarabak ratio " Jacobson

The mechanism of tooth eruption is best explained on the basis of:

"a. Hormonal stimulation b. Primary tooth exfoliation c. Programmed cell death at the base of the crypt d. Proliferation of cells at the base of the crypt (correct)"

" In orthodontic tooth movement, the sites of greatest pressure in the periodontal ligament are characterized by:"

"a. Hyalinization b. Infiltration of osteoclasts c. Infiltration of macrophages d. Infiltration of neutrophiles i. a, b and c (correct) ii. a, b and d iii. a, c and d iv. b, c and d v. all of the above * "

What does not happen in undermining resorption?

"a. Hyalinization b. physiologic tooth movement * c. resorption in adjacent marrow spaces d. Cell free zone in PDL "

" Patient with caries and radiopacity in lower right molar?"

"a. Hypercementosis - an excessive formation of cementum on the roots of one or more teeth b. Malignant sclerosis c. Benign sclerosis** "

Which of the following is associated with velopharyngeal insufficiency (VPI)?

"a. Hypernasality(correct) b. snoring c. sleep apnea"

Cranial nerve XII

"a. Hypoglossal (correct) b. Glossopharyngeal c. Accessory d. Mandibular " Netter's

Children with which of the following conditions have the greatest tendency towards delayed eruption of the teeth?

"a. Hypothyroidism * b. Hyperthyroidism c. Hypoparathyroidism d. Hyperparathyroidism e. None of the above "

Prostaglandins are associated with all of the following except:

"a. IFN-gamma b. IL-1 c. neocytokines (correct) d. TNF-alpha"

"Arachodonic acid pathway is activated by "

"a. IL-1 b. IL-6 c. TNF-alpha d. all of the above (correct)" wikipedia

" In response to heavy pressure against a tooth, pain is normally felt: "

"a. Immediately b. After 3-5 seconds (correct) c. After 3-5 minutes d. After 3-5 hours "

Which is NOT found in cleft palates?

"a. Impacted centrals (correct) b. Rotated incisors c. Missing laterals d. Posterior crossbite"

Undermining resorption occurs:

"a. In PDL (correct) b. In medullary spaces c. Is physiologic"

The American heart association currently recommends antibiotic prophylaxis in cardiac patients:

"a. In all orthodontic procedures b. In patients undergoing simple orthodontic procedures c. In patients undergoing extensive orthodontic procedures (correct) d. None of the above"

" Where is ameloblastoma more common?"

"a. In females and in the angle of the mandible b. In males and in the angle of the mandible (correct) "

Which of the following is described as a youthful smile?

"a. Incisal edges appear straight across the smile b. Shorter front teeth c. Longer front teeth that create a line that comes slightly downward in the middle of the smile (correct) d. Maxillary teeth that followed the curvature of the upper lip " ABO #30 - The importance of incisor positioning in esthetic smile: The smile arc, Page 99

" In a growing child if you increase the loading forces of mandible, does this cause:"

"a. Increase haversian turnover (correct) b. decrease haversian turnover c. no effect "

" Resorption of the anterior border of the ramus allows for what kind of growth?"

"a. Increase in mandibular corpus length (correct) b. Allows for vertical growth c. Decrease in ramal height d. Allows for tuberosity growth "

When taking an intraoral PA with two films (duplicates), what do you need to adjust to ensure quality?

"a. Increase kVP b. Decrease kVP c. Increase milliamps ** d. Decrease milliamps "

What would you do to the kVp or mA to visualize a root fracture?

"a. Increase kVp b. Decrease kVp (correct) c. Increase mA d. Decrease mA" Decreasing kVp creates fewer shades of gray and allows for fracture to be visualized.

"You are most likely to get a magnified image if? What is the most common error causing magnification?"

"a. Increase object to film distance (correct) b. Decrease object to film distance"

What should you do to decrease the contrast?

"a. Increase the kVp * (correct) b. Decrease the kVp c. Increase the mA d. Decrease the mA" comments in 61 page file: "Higher Kv (kilivolts) increase penetration, and higher Ma (miliamps) produce better contrast."

What should you change when you use a double film packet for a periapical radiograph?

"a. Increase the mA, but not the kVp b. Decrease the mA, and increase the kVp c. Decrease the kVp, but not the mA d. Do nothing ** "

" What happens in osteopetrosis? "

"a. Increased radiopacity (correct) b. Decreased radiopacity c. A honeycombed appearance of bone "

" The incidence of open bite malocclusions in post-pubertal age groups:"

"a. Increases b. Decreases (correct) c. Stays the same d. All of the above "

When wire is increased in length the load deflection rate

"a. Increases b. Decreases (correct) c. Stays the same d. None of the above " Increased length = increased springiness = decreased load deflection rate

Fluoride applied to the teeth prior to bonding:

"a. Increases bond strength b. Decreases bond strength (correct) c. Increases caries susceptibility d. None of the above"

" How does fluoride prevent dental caries?"

"a. Increases remineralization of enamel b. Increase hardness of enamel c. Decreases solubility of enamel (correct) "

Soft tissue thickness in females:

"a. Increases the same as in males b. Increases less than in males c. Increases more than in males (correct) d. None of the above"

" Rate of bone remodeling:"

"a. Increases with age b. Decreases with age (correct) c. Remains the same d. None of the above " No reference

Parathyroid hormone acts by:

"a. Increasing calcium ion concentration in bone b. Decreasing calcium ion concentration in blood c. Increasing calcium ion concentration in extracellular fluids (correct) d. None of the above"

A possible effect of taking high doses of prostaglandin inhibitors during orthodontic tx is:

"a. Increasing the incident of root resorption. b. Causing periodontal breakdown. c. Impeding orthodontic tooth movement. (correct) d. None of the above. " (P150)

Meckel's cartilage forms?

"a. Incus b. Malleous c. Sphenomandibular ligament (correct) d. All of the above" http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Meckel%27s_cartilage

" The recent consensus is that grafting of alveolar process in cleft palate patient is contradicted during:"

"a. Infancy (correct) b. Late primary and early mixed dentition c. Late mixed and early permanent dentition d. Late teens "

Problems with heart valves can cause...

"a. Infective endocarditis b. Rheumatic Fever c. Aortic Stenosis d. All of the above *"

Where does the frontal sinus drain?

"a. Inferior nasal meatus b. Middle nasal meatus (correct) c. Superior nasal meatus d. All of the above" "American Rhinologic Society: The inferior turbinate, which is larger than the other turbinates, runs parallel to the floor of the nose. The nasolacrimal duct drains tears into the inferior meatus. (This explains why one develops nasal congestion when one cries.) The middle turbinate is located above the inferior turbinate. The anterior (or front) ethmoid cells open into the middle meatus. The term ""frontal recess"" refers ""ante-chamber"" just below the frontal sinus ostium. Therefore, the frontal sinus drains into the middle meatus. The frontal recess contains a variable number of ethmoid cells. The superior turbinate, which is the smallest turbinate, is above the middle turbinate. The posterior (or back) ethmoid cells drain into the superior meatus. The space between the superior turbinate, the septum and the sphenoid sinus front wall is known as the sphenoethmoid recess. The sphenoid drains here. The paranasal sinuses are covered with a special lining (or epithelium). The lining secretes mucus, a complex substance that keeps the nose and sinuses moist. The sinus epithelium is ciliated; that is, each cell on its surface has a cilium, which is a relatively long structure that has the capacity to push sinus mucus. This movement of mucus (which is known as mucociliary clearance) is not random; rather, it is programmed so that the mucus moves along in a specific pattern. The sinus do not 'drain' by gravity-it is an active process."

Excessive wear of the incisal edge of a lower left cuspid indicates:

"a. Interference on the left side b. Incisal interference c. Interference on the right side (correct) d. All of the above" I suppose that if there is an interference on the right side then, the right canine would not be as worn as on the left, but I would also assume that if there was an interference on the right side, that would prevent the left canine from being in occlusion as well???

Arachodonic acid metabolite that plays a role in tooth movement?

"a. Interleukin b. BMP c. Leukotriene (correct)" "Article#3 ""Four families of eicosanoids can be distinguished: leukotrienes, thromboxanes, prostacyclins, and prostaglandins. They are all derived from arachidonic acid by various enzymatic conversions."" "

What can be used as a substitute to locate porion:

"a. Internal meatus b. Maxillary tuberosity c. Ear rod (correct) d. Frankfort Horizontal" see above

Bone tissue grows by:

"a. Interstitial growth b. Osteoclastic activity c. Proliferation of endodermal tissues d. Differentiation of cartilaginous tissue (correct) " "Apposition only ABO Breakdown"

" The cranial base grows by what mechanism?"

"a. Intramembranous b. Endochondral (correct) c. Appositional "

The ideal smile arc:

"a. Is a flat symmetrical smile b. Has the maxillary incisal edge curvature parallel to the curvature of the lower lip upon smile (correct) c. Is also called nonconsonant smile d. Is defined with a spontaneous smile " ABO #30 - The importance of incisor positioning in esthetic smile: The smile arc, Page 99

Surgical removal of tonsil and adenoid tissue in a 13 YO female with long face syndrome:

"a. Is excellent timing b. Is too late to aid in correction * c. Is too early d. None of the above "

" What happens to the MPA when downward growth of the maxilla plus tooth eruption is greater than growth of the ramus?"

"a. It increases (correct) b. It decreases c. It stays the same " "Prediction of mandibular growth rotation evaluated from a longitudinal implant sample"Skieller

Which of the following is FALSE:

"a. It is possible that growth in the brachyfacial pattern may lead to a flat smile arc. b. Patients with brachyfacial skeletal pattern might, theoretically, have a tendency for the anterior maxilla to lack the clockwise tilt needed for an ideal smile arc c. In some cases brachyfacial patients might exhibit a counterclockwise tilt that results in a flat smile arc. d. Dolicofacial patients tend to have more ideal smile arcs. (correct) " ABO #30 - The importance of incisor positioning in esthetic smile: The smile arc, Page 101 - a, b, c are word for word. D is not.

" How does a mucocele differ from a true cyst?"

"a. It lacks saliva b. It lacks an epithelial lining (correct) c. It fluctuates in size "

What loses most resolution?

"a. JPEG (correct) - unless GIF is an answer b. Lossless JPEG c. TIFF (saves most info) b. Lead JPEG " Jacobsen pg. 56 - Image compression and google search

What is most commonly seen in Hepatitis B?

"a. Jaundice b. High fever c. Weakness d. No symptoms (correct)"

The right and left sides of the mandible fuse:

"a. Just before birth b. Shortly after birth (correct) c. Near the end of the 1st year of life d. Near the end of the 2nd year of life"

What has no effect on the penetrating power?

"a. KVp b. Mamps c. Wavelength of the photons d. Exposure time (correct)"

What affects the penetration to the patient the most? contrast

"a. KVp * b. Distance c. Intensifying screens d. Exposure time "

" What is the smallest bone in the head?"

"a. Lacrimal b. Frontal c. Stapes (correct) d. Mandible " Wikipedia

what kind of bone is fetal bone?

"a. Lamellar b. Woven (correct) c. Spongy " This is also the type of bone that is formed after initial ortho tx

" Which tooth is lowest in the mandible at age 8?"

"a. Lateral incisor b. First bicuspid c. Second bicuspid (correct) d. Canine "

" What is the origin of the medial pterygoid muscle?"

"a. Lateral pterygoid plate of Sphenoid (correct) b. Condyle c. Ramus " Wikipedia, Netter's

Dislocation of the mandible can occur only in which of the following directions?

"a. Laterally b. Medially c. Anteriorly * d. Posteriorly e. Superiorly"

If a patient was in an accident and the chin deviates to the right, which lateral pterygoid is working?

"a. Left * b. Right c. Neither d. Both"

TMD pt with open lock. When she moves laterally to the left she get a loud pop. Which joint and is it anterior or posterior disc displacement?

"a. Left condyle, posterior displacement (correct) b. Right condyle, anterior displacement" "Okeson Ch10 Pg:353 Imaging of the TMJ in the open lock position has demonstrated that the disc is posterior to the condyle. The loud pop is the left condyle being reduced into the socket. Spontaneous dislocation (i.e., open lock) represents a hyperextension of the TMJ resulting in a condition that fixes the joint in the open position, preventing any translation. This condition is clinically referred to as an open lock because the patient cannot close the mouth. Like subluxation, it can occur in any joint that is forced open beyond the normal restrictions provided by the ligaments. It occurs most often in joints with anatomic features that produce subluxation. When the condyle is in the full forward translatory position, the disc is rotated to its fullest posterior extent on the condyle and firm contact exists between it, the condyle, and the articular eminence. In this position the strong retracting force of the superior retrodiscal lamina, along with the lack of activity of the superior lateral pterygoid, prevents the disc from being anteriorly displaced. The superior lateral pterygoid normally does not become active until the turn around phase of the closing cycle. If for some reason it becomes active early (during the most forward translatory position), its forward pull may overcome the superior retrodiscal lamina and the disc will be pulled through the anterior disc space, resulting in a spontaneous anterior dislocation (Fig. 10-18). This premature activity of the muscle can occur during a yawn or when the muscles are fatigued from maintaining the mouth open for a long time. (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. pp. 352 - 353). "

Which is correct when looking at a developed lateral cephalogram?

"a. Left mandible is higher and bigger b. Left mandible is lower and smaller c. Right mandible is higher and smaller d. Right mandible is lower and bigger (correct)"

When a patient attempts protrusion of the mandible, the jaw deviates markedly to the right. This would indicate that which of the following muscles is unable to contract?

"a. Left medial pterygoid b. Right medial pterygoid c. Left lateral pterygoid d. Right lateral pterygoid * "

An adult patient who seeks orthodontic treatment tends to have:

"a. Less positive self-image than average. b. An average self-image. c. More positive self-image than average.(correct) "

Perception of pain in the TMJ usually is accociated with which of the following nerves?

"a. Lesser occipital b. Transverse cervical c. Auriculotemporal * d. Buccal e. Great auricular "

Which of the following is least likely to recur?

"a. Leveling the Curve of Spee (correct) b. OB"

" Def. of functional occlusal plane"

"a. Line thru occlusal surface of 1st molar and premolars "

Which are not centric cusps in posterior crossbite?

"a. Lingual cusps of the maxillary first molar (correct) b. Buccal cusps of the maxillary first molar"

Which of the following cause frequent balancing side contacts?

"a. Lingual cusps of the maxillary first premolars b. Lingual cusps of the mandibular first premolars c. Lingual cusps of the maxillary second molars (correct) d. Lingual cusps of the mandibular second molars"

" The alterations in the adult facial skeleton indicate:"

"a. Little changes from age 21 b. Deceleration of growth in females continued in the 20's c. The cumulative effect over time was small d. The cumulative effect over time was large (correct) "

"Which is not characteristic of openbite? "

"a. Long Corpus length (correct) (Other choices were Bjork's indicators)" Bjork article:

What covers the condyle?

"a. Loose connective tissue b. Dense fibrous connective tissue *"

The most common oral manifestation of HIV infection is:

"a. Loss of alveolar bone b. Loosening of teeth c. Candidiasis * d. Hairy leukoplakia"

The first clinically observable reaction to radiation is:

"a. Loss of hair b. Erythema of the skin (correct) c. Agenesis of the blood cells d. Loss of elementary epithelium"

According to the ABO, which of the following represents the mandibular plane:

"a. Lower border of mandible to Menton b. Gonion to Menton c. Constructed gonion to Menton (correct)" from clinical exam guide of the ABO 2010 Fifth Edition pg 50;

Which of the following are responsible for familial dental anomalies, agenesis

"a. MSX1 b. PAX9 c. A and B (correct) "

The characteristic oral clinical features of Peutz-Jegher's syndrome is:

"a. Macrognathia b. Supernumerary teeth c. Melanin pigmentation of the lips * d. Macroglossia e. Constricted palate"

The major source of error in cephalometrics is?

"a. Magnification b. Distortion c. Indentification of landmarks ** "

Which of the following is FALSE

"a. Males show more maxillary incisors and more mandibular incisors at rest and on smile than do females. (correct) b. In orthodontic smile analysis, we usually evaluate the posed smile on the basis of amount of incisor and gingival display and the transverse dimension of the smile. c. Some amount of gingival display is esthetic and youthful in appearance d. Lack of gingival display is not as attractive as complete tooth display " ABO #30 - The importance of incisor positioning in esthetic smile: The smile arc, Page 98

What describes growth of the condyle

"a. Mandible displaces down & forward" """ABO 2008 comments after question states: (that it pushes mandible down and forward is false... condyles contribute horizontal """"pushing""""; there are other components of growth that cause the vertical """"pushing"""") Does condylar growth only contribute to forward displacement of mandible and not downward displacement?"" Proffit 4th ed. pg 46: - body of mandible grows horizontally in length via APPOSITION AT POSTERIOR BORDER OF RAMUS - ramus grows vertically in height via ENDOCHONDRIAL REPLACEMENT AT C the condyle accompanied by surface remodeling - Conceptually, it is correct to view the mandible as being translated downward and forward, while at the same time increasing in size by growing upward and backward. The translation occurs largely as the bone moves downward and forward along with soft tissues in which it is embedded."

" 2 teeth that contact only one other tooth "

"a. Mandibular central and maxillary 3rds"

At birth the crowns of which primary teeth have been calcified?

"a. Mandibular incisors (correct) b. Mandibular 1st molars c. Maxillary canine d. Maxillary 1st molars"

" What is the significance of a long posterior cranial base? (S-Ba)"

"a. Mandibular prognathism b. Anterior x-bite c. Maxillary retrognathism d. All of the above (correct) " "Proffit 4th ed pg214: Enlow's counterpart analysis - anterior cranial base lengthening assoc w/ enlargement of nasomax. complex in anterior direction - spheno-occipital synchondrosis/complex growth assoc. w/ enlargement of nasopharynx and ramus"

" What does the upper second premolar occlude with in a Class III?"

"a. Mandibular second premolar and first molar b. Mandibular first molar only (correct) c. Mandibular first and second molar d. Mandibular second molar only "

Your pt has Cl I molar, canine occl in both arches & everything is normal. There's spacing in the anterior max segment. The problem is:

"a. Mandibular teeth are too large b. Maxillary teeth are too small (correct) c. Basal bone in the maxillary arch is too large d. None of the above"

What wire would you use to apply a constant force over a long period of time?

"a. Martensitic Niti b. Austenitic Niti (correct) c.Braided d.SS "

Which of the following does NOT occur when a person swallow?

"a. Masseters contract b. Tongue is on the roof of mouth c. The teeth are in occlusion d. Suprahyoid relax (correct)" No reference

What is the lacrimal sac between?

"a. Maxilla and lacrimal bones (correct) b. Lacrimal and ethmoid bones " a depression in the lacrimal bone and frontal process of maxilla

When eval radiographically which teeth show greatest variation relative to the onset of mineralization of the crowns of permanent teeth?

"a. Maxillary canines b. Mandibular second molars c. Mandibular second premolars (correct) d. Maxillary lateral incisors e. Maxillary first molars"

" When is the best time to take out a lower incisor?"

"a. Maxillary excess b. Mandibular deficiency c. None of the above (correct) d. Never do it! Get the idea! * "

" Which of the following permanent posterior teeth has a mesial marginal ridge that is located more cervical that its distal marginal ridge?"

"a. Maxillary first premolar b. Maxillary second molar c. Mandibular first premolar (correct) d. Mandibular second molar "

A shorter horizontal distance measured from Ar to PTM indicates what?

"a. Maxillary hyperplasia b. Maxillary hypoplasia (correct) c. Mandibular hyperplasia d. Mandibular hypoplasia" Admittedly, this is just personal reasoning but essentially PTM corresponds closely with the posterior limit of the maxilla. If the distance between Ar and PTM is short, the maxilla is retruded in relation to the cranial base.

Which of the following is the LEAST desirable treatment option to decrease the gingival display in a gummy smile patient with a consonant smile arc?

"a. Maxillary incisor intrusion (correct) b. Orthognatic surgery c. Functional appliance d. Mandibular incisor extrusion " "ABO #30 - The importance of incisor positioning in esthetic smile: The smile arc, Page 101 Consonant smile arc = parallel to the curvature of the lower lip upon smile Pg 99 - ""The smile arc should be defined as the relationship of the curvature of the incisal edges of the maxillary incisors and canines to the curvature of the lower lip in the posed smile. The ideal smile arc has the maxillary incisal edge curvature parallel to the curvature of the lower lip upon smile; the term consonant is used to describe this parallel relationship."""

" Which of the following best characterizes a skeletal crossbite?"

"a. Maxillary molars tipped lingual, mandibular molars tipped buccal b. Maxillary molars tipped buccal, mandibular molars tipped lingual (correct) "

" Based on bone density, which teeth are the best for anchorage?"

"a. Maxillary second molars b. Maxillary first molars c. Mandibular first molars (correct) "

" Which of the following anatomic structures is frequently superimposed on periapical or occlusal radiographs of the anterior maxilla:"

"a. Maxillary sinus b. Vomer c. Anterior nasal spine (correct) d. Cribiform plate " No reference

What is the most stable tooth position?

"a. Maximum intercuspation - IC (correct) b. Centric Relation - CR c. Centric Occlusion - CO"

From where is the incus derived?

"a. Meckel's cartilage b. The first branchial arch (correct) c. tuberculum impar" "1st branchial arch http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pharyngeal_arch http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Meckel%27s_cartilage"

which of the following participates in the formation of the ala of the nose?

"a. Medial nasal process b. Lateral nasal process (correct) c. Premaxilla" No refernce

Which of the following structures do NOT appear radiolucent on a radiograph?

"a. Median palatine suture b. Anterior nasal spine (correct) c. Mandibular canal" No reference

On a PA ceph, if the patient does not have a mandibular asymmetry, which structure is NOT bilateral?

"a. Menton (correct) b. A point c. pterygomaxillary fissure (PTM)" "Jacobsen Pg 268 - doesn't list a-point as a midline structure Menton = most inferior point of the mandibular symphysis, in the midsagittal plane. (midsagittal) A point = midsaggital on lateral ceph only (not PA) PTM = bilateral, inverted teardrop-shaped radiolucency (most inferior point of the fissure)"

Which of the following is a midline point on PA ceph:

"a. Menton (correct) b. Opisthion c. A point d. Jugulae e. ANS (supposedly an answer choice as well)"

Which cusp of the maxillary 1st molar occludes on the mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular 2nd molar in an ideal centric occlusion?

"a. Mesobuccal b. Distobuccal c. Mesolingual d. Distolingual (correct)"

" Which cusp of the mandibular right second molar moves through the buccal cusps of the maxillary right second molar when a person moves from right lateral excursion to centric occlusion?"

"a. Mesobuccal b. Distobuccal (correct) c. Mesolingual d. Distolingual "

" Decrease in cell number is:"

"a. Metaplasia b. Hypertrophy c. Hyperplasia d. Atrophy e. Hypoplasia (correct) "

Hypertelorism is seen in:

"a. Midline Cleft (correct) b. Oroocular Cleft" "Breakdown pg 7 Midline cleft causes hypertelorism Oroocular cleft (aka oblique lateral cleft or orbitomaxillary) causes hypotelorism (failure of fusion of maxillary process with the lateral nasal)"

Which of the following is NOT associated with cleidocranial dysostosis?

"a. Missing clavicles b. Frontal and Parietal bossing c. Many unerupted supernumerary teeth d. Protrusive maxilla * "

Stability of deep overbite correction is:

"a. More favorable in growing individuals (correct) b. More favorable in nongrowers c. Not related to whether the deep bite was corrected during the growth phase"

For a female at menarche, which statement is true?

"a. Most growth is complete (correct) b. Most growth is yet to come"

" Post-natal incremental changes in the face are:"

"a. Most in height b. Most in width c. Least in width d. Greatest in width i. a and c (correct) ii. b and c iii. c and d iv. a and d "

" The portal of entry to the bloodstream of bacteria in SBE is:"

"a. Mucosal of gingival bleeding (correct) b. Salivary glands c. Lymphatics d. a and c e. a, b, and c "

Which of the following tissues does NOT grow interstitially?

"a. Muscle b. Bone (correct) c. Nerve d. Connective tissue"

" What happens with hypocalcemia?"

"a. Muscle hyperactivity b. Decrease in cardiac output (correct) "

The oral tissues most sensitive to x-radiation are?

"a. Muscles of mastication b. Gingival c. Fifth nerve d. Developing tooth buds and salivary glands * "

Which system is the first formed in the embryo?

"a. Muscular b. Vascular c. Neural (correct) d. Lymph"

Patient presents with toneue thrust. OB 0 and OJ 0. what would be an appropriate treatment?

"a. Myofunctional tongue therapy b.Crib appliance (correct?) c.No treatment (correct?) d.Speech Therapy"

TMJ pain can be caused by

"a. Myositis b. Trauma c. Dental problems d. Intracapsular problems e. All of the above * f. None of the above"

Which of the following is formed by mesoderm?

"a. Nails b. Skin c. Hair d. Cementum (correct)"

" What are common and stable reference lines when tracing successive cephs?"

"a. Nasion-B point b. Nasion -A point c. Frankfort horizontal (correct) d. Facial Axis "

" Cranial vault increases rapidly in size the first few yrs postnatal & completes approx 90% of its growth by age 6. Tissue growth is:"

"a. Neural (correct) b. Dental c. Genital d. Lymphoid e. Somatic "

"Heat treated elgiloy has the same stiffness as ? "

"a. NiTi b. Stainless Steel (correct) c. TMA d. Copper NiTi" "Proffit 4th ed pg 361 and ABO Breakdown: ""The heat treatment increases strength significantly. After heat treatment, the softest Elgiloy becomes equivalent to regular stainless steel"" Article, ""Review of contemporary archwires,"" Kusy: ""In addition to having similar stiffness characteristics as stainless steel, {Elgiloy} was capable of having its strength, and more importantly its formability, modified by heat treatment. This so-called precipitation hardening heat treatment increased the ultimate strength and resilience of these archwires without changing the stiffness"" "

Low doses of analgesics w/prostaglandin inhibitors for control pain after orthodontic appts have:

"a. No inhibiting effect whatsoever on tooth movement. b. Little or no inhibiting effect on tooth movement. (correct) c. Mild inhibiting effect on tooth movement. d. Severe inhibiting effect on tooth movement"

" In its classic form, serial extraction applies to pt who meet all of the following criteria, except:"

"a. No skeletal disproportions. b. Cl. I molar relationship. c. Normal overbite. d. Mild arch perimeter deficiency.(correct) " Severe crowding is an indicator of pursuing serial extraction

" What are the symptoms of a Hep B infection?"

"a. None b. Juandice c. Fever d. All of the above (correct) "

" Shown picture of wrist film and asked how much growth is left?"

"a. None b. Limited * c. A lot "

You notice a patient that is 9 years old with a space between the incisors. This condition is:

"a. Normal (correct) b. Caused by the frenum c. The ugly duckling stage d. Pathologic"

The peak height velocity curve indicates:

"a. Number of centimeters (inches) grown per year (correct) b. Height in centimeters (inches) per year c. Growth in the neurocranium d. Weight in grams per year e. Calcification of the epiphyseal plates"

Patient with rotated maxillary incisors, deep bite, large OJ. What is most likely to relapse after treatment?

"a. OJ b. OB c. Rotations (correct)"

Which of the following is a midline point on a lateral ceph:

"a. Opisthion (correct) b. Point A (correct) c. Menton d. Orbitale e. Porion" "A Point correct because it's directly from the Jacobson definition of A Point. Other midline points on lat ceph (incomplete): A point ANS B Point Cervical Point Glabella Gnathion Opisthion A unilateral (non mid sagittal) point would be: Incison Inferious (incisor tip)"

Fibrous dysplasia

"a. Orange peel or ground glass appearance"

In which of the following cleft types is hypertelorism found?

"a. Oro-ocular (hypotelorism) b. Lateral c. Oblique d. Midline (correct)"

When a tooth is moved bodily:

"a. Osteoblastic activity occurs on the compression side and osteoclastic occurs on the tension side b. Osteoclastic activity occurs on the pressure side and osteoblastic occurs on the tension side (correct)"

From where do cells for bone deposition originate?

"a. Osteoclasts b. Blood c. Mesenchymal cells (correct) d. Chondrocytes " i.e. osteoblasts

Which of the following has the potential of undergoing "spontaneous" malignant transformation?

"a. Osteomalacia b. Albright's syndrome c. Paget's disease of bone * d. Osteogenesis imperfecta e. Von Recklinghausen's disease of bone "

"A 21 YO female presents with complete absence of the clavicles, a narrow arched palate, and prolonged retention of the primary dentition. The most probable diagnosis is:"

"a. Osteopetrosis b. Achondroplasia c. Marfan's syndrome d. Pierre-Robin's syndrome e. Cleidocranial dysostosis *"

Why is there a greater break down of bone in patients with gingival inflammation?

"a. Osteoporosis b. Higher prostaglandin levels (correct) c. Higher phosphatase levels"

What can manifest itself as myositis?

"a. Osteosarcoma b. condensing osteitis c. osteomyelitis*"

The fifth cranial nerve (trigeminal) or branch thereof passes through all the foramen listed below except:

"a. Ovale b. Rotundum c. Spinosum d. Mandibular e. Lacerum (correct)" No reference

When a person goes from centric occlusion to centric relation, which of the following is true?

"a. Overbite decreases b. Overjet increases c. Vertical dimension increases d. All of the above (correct) e. None of the above"

Which of the following is most likely to create a consonant smile arc?

"a. Overemphasized canine guidance b. Maxillary incisor intrusion to open the bite c. Mandibular incisors brackets placed too gingival d. Maxillary incisors brackets placed more gingival in an open bite patient. (correct)" ABO #30 - The importance of incisor positioning in esthetic smile: The smile arc, Page 100-101

Wormian bones are seen in which of the following:

"a. Paget's diease b. Cleidocranial dysplasia (correct) c. Osteogenesis Imperfecta (correct) " "Textbook ""Human malformations and related anomalies,"" Stevenson and Hall: -Wormian bones = extra irregularly shaped bones w/in a suture (usually found in lambdoid, sagittal, and coronal sutures) -Syndromes w/ wormian bones: cleidocranial dysplasia, osteogenesis imperfecta, Downs syndrome, hypophosphatasia, hypothyroidism, ricketts, cretinism, minky pinky "

Micrognathia is a common feature in which of the following syndromes:

"a. Paget's disease of bone b. Ectodermal dysplasia c. Fibrous dysplasia"

What are symptoms of TMD?

"a. Pain * b. Locking c. Condyle Dislocation d. All of the above "

Which of the facial bones are not paired?

"a. Palatal b. Maxilla c. Vomer (correct) d. Nasal" Netter

Which bone ossifies upon termination of growth in the distal phalanges?

"a. Palatal bone b. Sesamoid bone (correct) c. Occipital bone d. Femur bone " "Article #71. ""Radiographical Evaluation of Skeletal Maturation"" Fishman Ossification of the sesamoid bone occurs approx 1 year before the adolescent growth spurt Ossification of the distal phalanges at SMI (skeletal maturation index) 4 is followed by: SMI 5 - capping of the distal phalanx of the third finger SMI 6 - Capping of the middle phalanx of the third finger SMI 7 - Capping of the middle phalanx of the fifth finger SMI 8 - FUSION OF THE DISTAL PHALANX OF THE THIRD FINGER SMI 9 - Fusion of the PROXIMAL phalanx of the third finger SMI 10 - Fusion of the MIDDLE phalanx of the third finger SMI 11 - Fusion of the Radius Peak growth velocity occurs around SMI 6/7"

According to Ricketts, the Frankfort Horizontal most closely parallels

"a. Palatal plane (correct) b. SN c. Occlusal Plane d. Mandibular Plane" Zygomatic arch or palatal plane, more closely it follows the zygomatic arch

" Where do you superimpose to know changes in maxillary dentition?"

"a. Palate (arrow was pointing at the palate on the lateral ceph)"

What radiographs should be submitted to ABO for a patient over 18 years?

"a. Pano plus bitewings b. CBCT scan c. FMX (correct) d. Pano" "ABO article #5 - Radiographic and periodontal requirements of the american board of orthodontics "

" Three pairs of large salivary glands pour their secretions into the oral cavity:"

"a. Parotid is the smallest b. Sublingual is the largest c. Parotid is the largest (correct) d. Submandibular is the largest " No reference

How are the parietal and frontal bones formed?

"a. Partly by endochondral bone formation b. Partly by intramembranous bone formation c. Entirely by endochondral bone formation d. Entirely by intramembranous bone formation (correct)"

" How is the sphenoid bone form?"

"a. Partly by endochondral bone formation * b. Entirely by endochondral bone formation c. Entirely by intramembranous bone formation "

" If a person has a positive TB test what does that mean?"

"a. Patient is contagious b. Patient is active c. Patient has been exposed (correct) "

Post ortho treatment the patients mandible looks smaller on the ceph. What happened?

"a. Patient moved b. Change in object to film distance (correct) c. Patient rotated head"

How should a patient be positioned for taking a cephalometric XR?

"a. Patient staring at a distant point in the horizon (Natural head position) * b. Alert feeding position c. Chin parallel to the floor d. None of the above "

" In a penicillin allergic pt with a medical history of previous Rheumatic fever, the premedication of choice would be:"

"a. Pen VK b. Erythromycin (correct) c. Amoxicillin " "JADA, Vol. 139 http://jada.ada.org January 2008: - only need to premedicate a pt with Rh fever if they have one of the four criteria listed in discussion of row 20. - ""Patients who take an oral penicillin for secondary prevention of rheumatic fever or for other purposes are likely to have viridans group streptococci in their oral cavity that are relatively resistant to penicillin or amoxicillin. In such cases, the provider should select either clindamycin, azithromycin or clarithromycin for IE prophylaxis for a dental procedure, but only for patients shown in Box 3. Because of possible cross-resistance of viridans group streptococci with cephalosporins, this class of antibiotics should be avoided. "

The temporalis muscle acts as a:

"a. Periosteal (correct) b. Capsular c. Neurocranial d. Orofacial e. Genetic matrix upon the coronoid process" Board Breakdown: as part of the periosteal matrix of functional matrix theory, the temporalis attachment to bone influences the bone's size and shape

For surgical instruments that can't be heat sterilized, the method of choice would be:

"a. Phenol b. Ethyl alcohol c. Autoclave d. Ethylene oxide (correct) " Ethylene oxide inhibits growth of microorganisms (disinfectant properties) and when present in high concentrations, can completely destroy them. Ethylene oxide is used as a fumigant and disinfecting agent, as a mixture with carbon dioxide (8.5-80% of ethylene oxide), nitrogen or dichlorodifluoromethane (12% ethylene oxide). It is applied for gas-phase sterilization of medical equipment and instruments, packaging materials and clothing, surgical and scientific equipment.

Pt said that pain started from right TMJ down to masetter area then across midline to left angle of the mandible. What do you suspect?

"a. Physchogenic pain * b. Myosistitis c. Internal derangement"

Syndromes associated with clefts include:

"a. Pierre Robins b. Treacher Collins c. Crouzon's d. Aperts e. All the above *"

" ACTH is from what gland?"

"a. Pituitary (correct) b. Adrenal c. Thyroid "

Trigeminal nerve originates?

"a. Pons (correct) b. Medulla" "Nerve cells originate in the trigeminal neucleus which runs through the midbrain, pons and medulla (wikipedia) (nucleus is a collection of cell bodies in the CNS - ganglion is collection of nerve cell bodies in the PNS) The pons is essentially where the nerve branches off from the CNS"

" The most common error in cephalometric tracing is what?"

"a. Poor films b. Magnification c. Proper identification of landmarks (correct) "

A pt you are treating w/premolar ext has ceramic brackets 3-3 & SS brackets on the posterior teeth, what should be of concern during tx?

"a. Poor maxillary anterior torque b. Teeth will move slower c. Loss of anchorage during canine retraction (correct)"

Most TMJ problems are induced by:

"a. Poor occlusion or malocclusion b. Orthodontic treatment c. Orthodontic treatment with 4 first premolar extraction d. All of the above e. None of the above *"

"Person yawns with open lock. How is disc displaced? "

"a. Posterior (correct) b. No disc displacement c. Anterior "

A patient has prolonged history of internal derangement with no joint sounds. Patient developed pain in the TMJ area:

"a. Posterior capsulitis (correct) b. Disc derangement without reduction c. Disc derangment with reduction" "the thinking is that pain requires some type of inflammation (people can live pain free with derangements) The entire TMJ is surrounded and encompassed by the capsular ligament (Fig. 1-18). The fibers of the capsular ligament are attached superiorly to the temporal bone along the borders of the articular surfaces of the mandibular fossa and articular eminence. Inferiorly, the fibers of the capsular ligament attach to the neck of the condyle. The capsular ligament acts to resist any medial, lateral, or inferior forces that tend to separate or dislocate the articular surfaces. A significant function of the capsular ligament is to encompass the joint, thus retaining the synovial fluid. The capsular ligament is well innervated and provides proprioceptive feedback regarding position and movement of the joint. (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 14). When the capsular ligament becomes inflamed, the condition is called capsulitis. It usually presents clinically as tenderness when the lateral pole of the condyle is palpated. Capsulitis produces pain even in the static joint position, but joint movement generally increases the pain. Although a number of causes can contribute to capsulitis, the most common is macrotrauma (especially an open-mouth injury). Thus whenever the capsular ligament is abruptly elongated and an inflammatory response is detected, it is likely that trauma will be found in the patient's history. Capsulitis can also develop secondary to adjacent tissue breakdown and inflammation. (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 225). -Without reduction = disc is displaced in incorrect position at all times; usually no sound produced and limited mouth opening -With reduction = disc slides into and out of its normal position as jaw opens and closes; pop/click sound is produced after 30mm of opening "

Most anomalies occur in which period

"a. Pre-embryonic (<5 weeks) b. Embryonic (5-10 weeks) c. Fetal (>10 weeks) d. Neonatal" Embryonic (SLU packet)

What is NOT a feature of Apert's?

"a. Premature suture closure b. fusion of phalanges c. mx hypoplasia d. mental retardation e. all of the above (correct)" "ABO breakdown pg 8 - mental retardation is the only debatable of all answers All of these are true"

A patient has lost a mandibular first molar, the second molar is tipped mesially, and you want to upright the second molar. Which should be evaluated in your decision whether to extract the third molar?

"a. Presence of maxillary third molar on that side b. Pontic space needed c. Distance of the mandibular third molar to the ramus d. All of the above (correct)"

What makes the TMJ joint unique?

"a. Presence of the articular disc* b. Presence of fibrous linings"

Recent studies according to Profitt indicate that late mandibular incisor crowding is due to:

"a. Pressure from erupting third molars b. Failure to extract third molars c. Late mandibular growth * d. All of the above "

"Patient has fever, multiple blisters? What has erythematous gingivitis?"

"a. Primary Herpetic Gingivostomatitis (correct) b. ANUG" HSV1 - initial infection generally occurs between 3-5 yrs, incubation 2-12 days. Symptoms : fever, sore throat, small vesicles develop on pharyngeal and oral mucosa, rapidly ulcerate and increase in number to involve soft palate, buccal mucosa, tongue, floor of mouth, and often lips and cheeks; tender gums may bleed; fetid breath, swollen lymph nodes in the neck

What is the difference between primary osteons and secondary osteons?

"a. Primary osteons is woven bone (correct) b. Primary bone is fine woven bone c. Primary osteon has ordered osteocytes d. Primary osteons has canaliculi perpendicular to medullary canal " The adult bone is remodeled to form secondary osteons

" Identify a radiolucency 5mm in diameter and 5mm below alveolar crest."

"a. Primordial ? (where a tooth should be but didn't form) b. Residual ? (periapical cyst remaining after extraction) c. Dentigerous ? (crown of unerupted tooth) "

" The cranial base develops by :"

"a. Proliferation at the synchondroses (correct)"

What is responsible for detecting discomfort and pain?

"a. Proprioceptors b. Nociceptor * c. None of the above d. All of the above "

What is the most stable:

"a. RPE b. COS (correct) c. deep bite"

What is your treatment for a 5 year old with a thumbsucking habit?

"a. RPE b. Crib c. Extraction d. Do nothing (correct)"

Osteopetrosis (aka marble bone disease and Albers-Schonberg disease) appears on the XR as:

"a. Radiolucency b. Radioopacity (correct) c. Honeycomb appearance d. Ground glass appearance"

Filters are used in the XR beam to?

"a. Reduce film density b. Correct the XR beam size c. Reduce the exposure time d. Remove low energy XR's * e. Increase contrast "

Which of the following approaches to relieve myofacial pain symptoms be attempted last:

"a. Reducing the amount of patients stress. b. Reducing the amount of reaction to stress. c. Alteration of occlusal relationships (correct) d. Occlusal splint therapy." (P655)

Development of the body of the mandible involves:

"a. Reichert's cartilage b. A complete cartilage model c. Intramembranous bone formation (correct) d. All of the above e. None of the above"

" How does mandible grow AP?"

"a. Resorption of anterior ramus, apposition of posterior ramus"

During a 1 year period treatment of a female pt, she's shifting to the right w/an open bite on the right getting worse. What is the cause?

"a. Resorption of the right condyle or hyperplasia of the left condyle b. Resorption of the left condyle or hyperplasia of the right condyle"

Hypothyroidism in a growing child exhibits?

"a. Retardation of growth of long bones b. Mental retardation c. Late in eruption of dentition d. All of the above *"

In a standard lateral cephalogram, which side of the mandibular border is lower and more magnified?

"a. Right * b. Left c. Depends on the asymmetry d. None of the above " right side will be positioned further from film and thus will appear more magnified (increased object:film distance)

A patient who develops an open bite and slow shifting of the mandible to the right has?

"a. Right condylar resorption * (anterior) b. Left condylar resorption c. Right condylar hyperplasia d. Left condylar hyperplasia * (posterior)"

Patient has antegonial notch on ceph, how do you know if right or left side when the notch is on the inferior border of the mandible?

"a. Right side will be magnified (correct) b. Left side will be magnified c. You won't"

" Which muscle pulls lip up when smiling?"

"a. Risorius b. Orbicularis oris c. Labialis superioris (correct) " Netter's

" What muscle draws the corners of the mouth laterally when smiling?"

"a. Risorius" No refernce

Which characteristic of a Class II division 2 malocclusion that is most prone to relapse?

"a. Rotated centrals b. Mesially rotated maxillary first molars c. Deep bite * " Breakdown (answer might also be rotated centrals)

Which term describes the area of the dental anatomy that is reproduced distinctly on the panoramic radiograph?

"a. Rotation center b. Focal trough (correct) c. Sagittal plane d. Laminograph"

" If a child swallows a band and is conscious with coughing, the doctor should:"

"a. Rush the child to the nearest emergency room b. Perform the Heimlich maneuver c. Stay with the patient and encourage coughing (correct) d. Watch and wait "

What is the best point from which to measure the protrusion of the upper incisor?

"a. SNA (correct) b. Facial angle c. Frankfort horizontal"

"If Chromium-Cobalt alloys are not heat treated, they have? "

"a. Same stiffness as SS (correct) b. 1/3 stiffness of SS c. 2/3 stiffness of SS " see reference from Kusy article above

" All the following are current recommendations for safer debonding of ceramic brackets, except:"

"a. Selecting brackets with mechanical retention between the base and the adhesive. b. Inducing an asymmetric torquing stress on the bracket.(correct) c. Using a laser to weaken the adhesive. d. Concentrating the force at the bracket-adhesive interface. " "Profitt 4th ed. page 419. There should be a shearing effect not torquing."

" For cranial base superimpositions, what are the landmarks?"

"a. Sella-nasion on sella b. Anterior clinoid, greater wing of sphenoid, cribiform plate (correct) c. Planum sphenoidale, lesser wing, sella " "Article ""Comparison of hand-traced and computerized cephalograms,"" Roden-Johnson: - the internal surface of the frontal bone and the cribriform plate are stable after the age of 6 or 7 years in both the sagittal and vertical planes. The anterior part of sella turcica is by far the most stable over 5 years of age. However, because of the remodeling in the sella turcica region, the reference sella is not regarded as stable until long after puberty. This agrees with Bjork and Skieller, who advocated superimposing the anterior wall of sella turcica, the anterior contours of the middle cranial fossae, the contours of the cribriform plate, and the frontoethmoidal crest. Jacobson 2nd edition. pg.188 Jacobsen 1995 pg 171: for overall growth/displacement, superimpose on S-N registering at Sella"

What is the most important factor for digital cameras when using for intraoral radiography? (shouldn't this say Photography?)

"a. Sensor resolution b. Lighting (correct?) c. Standardized focal distance" "there is debate whether it's resolution or lighting - Jacobsen p. 220: lists 2 things as important for photography: 1. control over magnification/distortion 2. lighting"

" What is the risk of bacteremia?"

"a. Septicemia b. Infective endocarditis (correct) c. Meningitis "

Which is the BEST way to determine a person's remaining growth potential?

"a. Serial cephs (correct) b. Hand-wrist c. Family history d. Chronological age" Hand-wrist is better for growth potential; serial cephs are better for finding when growth ceases

" What are the best ways to determine a person's growth potential?"

"a. Serial cephs, family history, dental age b. Serial cephs, hand-wrist film, chronological age c. Serial cephs, family history, hand-wrist film (correct) d. Family history, chronological age, dental age "

What is the best method to measure mandibular growth changes?

"a. Serial superimpositions (longitudinal method) (correct) b. Cephs of parents c. Ceph at one point in time (metric method) d. Implant study (structural method)"

In Paget's disease which of the following lab tests are elevated?

"a. Serum Alkaline phosphatase * b. WBC count c. PTT d. Serum glucose"

Which of the following is least likely to influence the anteroposterior position of the maxillary incisors?

"a. Size of the apical base b. Tongue-buccinator mechanism c. Being a concert clarinetist d. Congenital absence of third molars (correct) e. Continuing growth of the anterior cranial base"

Cephalometrics is best used to determine

"a. Skeletal pattern b. Dental pattern c. Dental pattern related to the skeletal pattern (Correct) d. None of the above "

What is the major difference between Apert's and Crouzon's syndromes?

"a. Slant of the eyes b. Syndactyly * c. One is Class II and the other is Class III d. None of the above"

If you buy a new ceph machine, but it's 5 mm greater distance between object and film-what happens? (15.5 cm instead of 15.0cm)

"a. Slightly enlarged * b. Significantly enlarged c. No change "

Mandibular intercanine width changes from primary to permanent dentition:

"a. Slightly increases (correct) b. Significantly increases c. Slightly decreases" "Profit 4th ed. pg. 99: A slight increase in the width of the dental arch across the canines. As growth continues, the teeth erupt not only upward but also slightly outward. This increase is small, about 2 mm on the average, but it does contribute to the resolution of early crowding of the incisors. Proffit 4th ed. pg. 100 Fig 3-40 also states a ""slight"" increase Moorees & Reed, J. dent. Res. January-February 1965: Showed ~1.75mm increase in Mand intercanine width from primary to permanent dentition."

" The cribriform plate is part of which bone?"

"a. Sphenoid b. Ethmoid (correct) c. Mastoid d. Temporal " Wikipedia

From which bone does the medial pterygoid muscle arise from the pterygoid fossa?

"a. Sphenoid (correct) b. Ethmoid c. Temporal d. Nasal" "Origin of superficial head: tuberosity of maxilla Origin of deep head: that's what she said... medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate and palatine bone Insertion: Medial surface of ramus and angle of mandible"

The paranasal sinus which lies directly beneath the sella turcica is the?

"a. Sphenoid (correct) b. Maxillary c. Posterior ethmoidal d. Frontal e. Mastoid " "ABO breakdown: -sphenoid drains into superior nasal meatus -ethmoid, frontal, maxillary, temporal drain into middle meatus"

Know Strength vs Springiness:

"a. Strength = Stiffness x Range b. Springiness = 1/Stiffness" "Proffit 4th ed page 360 Pg. 360 ""For orthodontic purposes, three major properties of beam materials are critical in defining their clinical usefulness: strength, stiffness (or its inverse, springiness), and range."" Pg 361 ""Strength = Stiffness x Range"""

The etiologic agent of the majority of Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis cases is:

"a. Streptococcus Aureus (correct) b. Staphylococcus Aureus c. Staphylococcus epedemitis d. All of the above"

Historically, which if the best method to study growth changes:

"a. Structural method (implants) b.Longitudinal method (serial cephs)(correct) c. Metric" "Profitt, pgs 144, 206, 216, 270 Major growth studies (Bolton-Brush, Ontario) etc have used serial cephs. p270 has strongest evidence for choice ""b"". Bjork ABO article #54 provides evidence for choice ""a"" Implants are good for measuring growth rotation. Serial cephs are good for growth changes."

Calcification of what is associated with Eagle's syndrome?

"a. Stylohyoid ligament * b. Sphenomandibular c. Lateral pterygoid d. Digastric "

On a lateral ceph, what is elongated in Eagle's Syndrome?

"a. Styloid process * b. Coronoid process c. Tuberosity d. Symphysis"

" Sialolith"

"a. Submandibular gland (correct)" No reference

Which of these points is a constructed point:

"a. Subnasale b. Articulare (correct)" Ar: point at the junction of the posterior border of the ramus and the inferior border of the posterior cranial base (occipital bone)

Nasal septum is usually deviated where?

"a. Superior 1/2 b. Inferior 1/2 c. Inferior 1/3 (correct)" No reference

The temporal bone on a PA ceph appears as a line on?

"a. Superior 1/3 of the orbit b. Middle 1/3 of the orbit c. Inferior 1/3 of the orbit (correct) d. None of the above" The Petrous portion of the temporal bone is superimposed in on the lower 1/3 of the orbit on a PA ceph

"The temporal bone on a PA ceph appears as a line? on?"

"a. Superior 1/3 of the orbit b. Middle 1/3 of the orbit (correct) c. Inferior 1/3 of the orbit d. None of the above " the temporal bone bisects the orbit

In the definition of CR, more agreement lies in the following:

"a. Superior position b. Superior anterior position (Correct) c. No exact position" "The complete definition of the most orthopedically stable joint position therefore is when the condyles are in their most superoanterior position in the articular fossae, resting against the posterior slopes of the articular with the discs properly interposed. The condyles assume this position when all of the elevator muscles are activated with no occlusal influences. Therefore this position is considered to be the most musculoskeletally stable (MS) position of the mandible. (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 113). "

" Paroramic radiographs are least useful in demonstrating which of the following:"

"a. Supernumerary teeth b. Arch perimeter deficiencies (correct) c. Congentially missing teeth d. Axial inclination of teeth e. Apical development of permanent teeth " No reference as of yet

" What is the name of the midline point at the most inferior point of the maxillary alveolus?"

"a. Supradentale (correct) (prosthion) b. Subdentale c. Labialdentale "

What is the name of the midline point at the most inferior point of the maxillary alveolus?

"a. Supradentale (prosthion) (correct) b. Subdentale c. Labialdentale "

Which growth sites are not in cranium?

"a. Syndesmoses - Joint by 2 ligaments (correct) b. Periosteum c. Synchondroses - Union of 2 bones by hyaline cartilage d. Synostoses - Early closure of sutures"

What are the articular surfaces of the TMJ lined by?

"a. Synovial fluid b. A thin synovial membrane * c. TMJ ligament"

"Ibuprofen reduces inflammation by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis. It produces analgesia because prostaglandins increase the threshold of nociceptors. "

"a. T/T b. T/F (correct)" Prostaglandins decrease pain threshold

Extraction of primary canine too early may cause:

"a. Teeth to shift (correct) b. Increase OJ/OB"

The radiopaque line that passes obliquely through the orbits on a posterioanterior ceph is which bone?

"a. Temporal b. Ethmoid c. Sphenoid d. Parietal " Answer says temporal, but I suppose it just depends on what this is referring to. The Greater Wing of the Sphenoid passes obliquely across the lateral portion of the orbit. If the temporal bond does the same I don't see it. THE ANSWER IS SPHENOID (Greater Wing, specifically)

Where are adrenocorticosteroids produced?

"a. Thalamus b. Pituitary c. Thyroid d. Adrenal gland (correct)"

" Active stabilization of teeth is:"

"a. The ability of the PDL to generate a force contributing to the equilibrium situation.(correct) b. Why lower incisors continue to move labially under tongue pressure. c. What sets the threshold of orthodontic forces at 2-3 gm/cm². d. Prevention of orthodontic treatment relapse using active removable appliances "

" What happens to the balancing side in canine protected occlusion?"

"a. The canine is the only thing touching b. Group function c. It is out of occlusion (correct) "

"There is little point in articulator mount of ortho casts for preadolescent & early adolescent pts b/c: "

"a. The contours of the TMJ are not fully developed yet. b. Mature canine function is not reached yet. c. A only d. B only e. Both of the above (correct) f. Neither of the above" (P164)

" What happens to the facial angle and the mandibular plane angle as a person ages?"

"a. The facial angle increases and the mandibular plane angle decreases (correct) b. The facial angle decreases and the mandibular plane angle increases c. The facial angle decreases and the mandibular plane angle decreases d. The facial angle increases and the mandibular plane angle increases " Vertical dimension decreases as you age, rotating the mandible forward

In one of the studies done as part of the NIDR contract on the long-term effects of orthodontic treatment, Sadowsky and BeGole compared subjects who where treated with full fixed appliances as adolescents approximately 20 years previously, with a similar group of adults with untreated malocclusions. Subsequently, Sadowsky and Polsen contrasted the findings from other studies in which subjects who received orthodontic treatment a minimum of 10 years previously were compared with 111 adults with untreated malocclusions. Non-extraction and extraction cases were represented. Which of the following best describe their findings?

"a. The findings were very different in both studies. One of them showed a significant difference between treated and untreated patients. b. The first study showed 75% of joint sounds in the treated patients c. There were no statistically differences between treated and untreated subjects in either of the studies. (Correct) d. Untreated subjects showed a higher prevalence of TMD symptoms. " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Pg 79 ""The findings were very similar in both studies with the prevalence of symptoms varying between 15% to 21% and 29% to 42% for signs (joint sounds), there being no statistically significant differences between treated and untreated subjects in either of the studies. The conclusion from the above two studies was that orthodontic treatment performed during adolescence did not generally increase or decrease the risk of developing TMD later in life"""

What is the most reasonable explanation when the mandible appears smaller on a successive cephalometric radiograph?

"a. The first one is wrong b. The patient didn't grow c. The patient's head was tilted (Correct)" If "different object to film distance" or "different magnification" are not answers, I'd go with "tilted head"

The safest and preferred site of failure when brackets are removed is:

"a. The interface between enamel surface and bonding material. b. Within the bonding material itself. c. The interface between brackets surface and bonding material.(correct) d. Any of the above. " Profitt 4th ed. page 416

The muscle to protrude the mandible is?

"a. The internal pterygoid b. The lateral pterygoid (correct) c. The hyoglossus d. All of the above" "Wikipedia: The primary function of the lateral pterygoid muscle is to pull the coronoid process anteriorly, forcing the condylar process out of the mandibular fossa along the articular eminence to protrude the mandible. A concerted effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles acts in helping lower the mandible and open the jaw whereas unilateral action of a lateral pterygoid produces contralateral excursion (a form of mastication), usually performed in concert with the medial pterygoids. Unlike the other three muscles of mastication, the lateral pterygoid is the only muscle of mastication that assists in depressing the mandible (opening the jaw). At the beginning of this action it is assisted by the digastric, mylohyoid and geniohyoid muscles."

" The use of zinc phosphate cements for ortho purposes differs from its use in restorative dentistry in that: "

"a. The liquid for orthodontic purposes contains less free phosphoric acid. b. The cement for orthodontic purposes is mixed thicker. c. Mixing techniques for orthodontic purposes do not use a frozen slab. d. Little bare metal not coated with cement is tolerated on interior surfaces of an orthodontic band. "

" The relationship of a bacteremia to infective endocarditis depends on:"

"a. The magnitude of the bacteremia b. The virulence of the organism c. The resistance of the host d. All of the above (correct) e. None of the above "

Often in the treatment of a Cl II case in a nongrowing pt with upper premolar extractions, which of the below are possible outcomes?

"a. The maxillary first molars are meant to be left with a small amount of mesial rotation (correct) b. There is a small space between the canine and the premolar meant to be left c. The maxillary first molar occludes with the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar"

"410. The best genetic prototype for predicting facial growth of a child is:"

"a. The mother b. The father c. The grandparents d. The same sex sibling (correct) "

The growth of the lower face occurs most parallel to:

"a. The neural growth curve b. The lymphoid growth curve c. The general growth/somatic curve (correct) d. All of the above e. None of the above"

The facial growth curve parallels most closely:

"a. The neural growth curve b. The somatic growth curve (correct) c. The fatty growth curve d. The lymphoid growth curve e. The pubertal growth curve"

Panchrz evaluated the effects of the Herbst fixed functional appliance in the treatment of 22 growing patients with Class II, Division 1 malocclusions and reported that:

"a. The number of subjects with tenderness to palpation decreased during the first three months. b. Twelve months posttreatment the number of subjects with symptoms increased when compared to the number of subjects before treatment. c. There were no symptoms detected before or after treatment. d. The number of subjects with TMD symptoms increased during the first 3 months of treatment but mostly disappeared after appliance removal. (Correct) " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Pg 79-80 ""Pancherz evaluated the effects of the Herbst fixed functional appliance in the treatment of 22 growing patients with Class II, Division I malocclusions and reported that the number of subjects with tenderness to palpation doubled during the initial 3 months of treatment. However, after appliance removal, most muscle symptoms disappeared and 12 months posttreatment the number of subjects with symptoms was the same as before treatment."""

In the above study they concluded that:

"a. The original growth pattern rather than an extraction treatment strategy was the most likely factor responsible for the frequency of CMD reported many years posttreatment. (Correct) b. Four-premolar extractions should be contraindicated as an orthodontic treatment alternative. c. Fixed appliance treatment causes increased CMD symptoms if use in conjunction with four-premolar extractions. d. A functional appliance in conjunction with four-premolar extractions is detrimental for the TMJ. " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Pg 81 (top of Right column) Word for Word"

"10. The treatment of hyperdivergent, open bite in the primary dentition is predicated on what?"

"a. The phenotype does not self-correct (correct) b. The phenotype " Im assuming the answer might be a, since 80% of anterior open bite do self correct and we only treat about 20%

Which of the below is the anterior border of the pterygoid plate?

"a. The posterior part of the pterygomaxillary suture (correct) b. The anterior part of the pterygomaxillary suture" the pterygomaxillary fissure formed by the divergence of the maxilla from the pterygoid process of the sphenoid

" Which of the below is the posterior border of the maxillary tuberosity?"

"a. The posterior part of the pterygomaxillary suture b. The anterior part of the pterygomaxillary suture (correct) " see above

The most important single indicator of TMJ dysfunction is:

"a. The presence of a Sunday bite. b. The presence of joint noise. c. Reduced amount of maximum opening.* d. Excessive clenching and grinding."

Undermining resorption during tooth movement is

"a. The process by which osteoclasts remove bone on the compressed part of the PDL. b. The process by which osteoclasts remove bone on the stretched part of the PDL. c. The process by which osteoclasts attack the necrotic area of the PDL (correct) d. None of the above " (P303)

The most important factor when creating the ideal smile arc is:

"a. The shape of the teeth b. The position of the lower lip c. Bracket placement according to case evaluation (correct) d. The length of the teeth " "ABO #30 - The importance of incisor positioning in esthetic smile: The smile arc, Page 100 ""It is important to assess and visualize the incisor-smile arc relationship and place brackets so as to extrude the maxillary incisors in flat smiles and to maintain the smile arc where it is appropriate. A set formula for bracket placement based on tooth measurements...is not appropriate for maximum esthetics...Just as patients get individualized treatment plans, they also should have individualized designs for appliance placement."""

Incisor liability refers to:

"a. The space needed for the maxillary incisors (correct) b. The proclination of the maxillary incisors c. The retroclination of the maxillary incisors"

" The muscle to protrude the tongue is?"

"a. The temporalis b. The medial pterygoid c. The hyoglossus d. The genioglossus (correct0 " No reference

Where do you superimpose the mandible on?

"a. The third molar crypt, the outer cortical part of the symphysis and on the lower border of the mandibular canal b. The third molar crypt, the inner cortical part of the symphysis and on the lower border of the mandibular canal c. The third molar crypt, the inner cortical part of the symphysis and on the lower border of the mandibular canal (correct) d. The third molar crypt, the outer cortical part of the symphysis and on the mandibular canal " "see bjork article "

"The point which any permanent deformation is first observed in an elastic material upon receiving a load is: "

"a. The ultimate tensile strength. b. The proportional limit. (correct) c. The range. d. Springiness" "Proffit 4th ed pg 360: ""The most conservative measure is the proportional limit, the point at which any permanent deformation is first observed."" "

Orthodontic treatment, particularly involving premolar extractions, has also been implicated in producing a posteriorly positioned condyle. Gianelly et al. evaluated condylar position with corrected tomograms before orthodontic treatment in 37 consecutive patients ages 10-18 years and compared them with 30 consecutively treated four premolar extraction cases at the completition of treatment. All patients were treated with fixed appliances. They found that:

"a. The untreated group showed more distally positioned condyles b. The extraction group showed more distally positioned condyles c. There was no difference in condylar positions between the extraction and the untreated groups (Correct) d. Extraction therapy appeared to be an iatrogenic cause of distally positioned condyles. " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Page 81-82 ""It was concluded that extraction therapy did not appear to be an iatrogenic cause of distally positioned condyles. Condylar position tended to be centered on average; however, a wide variation in position was noted. Similar wide variations in normal condylar position has been reported by several authors as discussed by Tallents et al. in a critical review of the literature."""

What is gemination?

"a. The upper 1/3 of the crown is notched, one pulp chamber (correct) b. The pulp chamber is obliterated c. The roots are short" "Gemination: one root, one pulp, two crowns Fusion: two roots, two pulp, one crown "

" The impaction of mandibular third molars after orthodontic treatment is associated with:"

"a. The vertical component of growth b. Higher than usual mandibular plane angles c. Excessively large ascending rami d. Short mandibular bodies e. All of the above (correct) "

The conclusion from the above studies was that

"a. There was a significant difference in TMD symptoms between orthodontically treated patients and the normal population. b. Treatment performed during adolescence will increase the risk of developing TMD symptoms. c. Treatment performed during adolescence did not generally increase or decrease the risk of developing TMD in later life. (correct) d. Patients should be treated in adulthood to decrease the risk of developing TMD symptoms " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Pg 79 See above"

Smith and Freer examined 87 patients who received full fixed appliances during adolescence, approximately two-thirds involving extractions, and who were an average of 52 months after retention and compared with the untreated control group of 28 subjects. Which of the following was NOT a finding reported by this study

"a. There was no significant difference in the rate of soft clicks between the two groups. (correct) b. There was no significant difference in the rate of hard clicks between the two groups. c. There was a higher rate of soft clicks in the postorthodontic group. d. There was so significant association between orthodontic treatment and occlusal or TMJ dysfunction. " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Pg 80-81 ""Their results rejected the hypothesis of a significant association between orthodontic treatment and occlusal or TMJ dysfunction. The one exception was the finding of a higher rate of soft clicks in the post-orthodontic group (64% compared with 36%)."" "

Which of the following is true about Ameloblastomas?

"a. They fluctuate in size b. They are radiopaque c. They do not frequently metastasize (correct)"

Which of the following is the correct description of intensifying screens?

"a. Thinner phosphor layer result in faster screens ** b. Thinner phosphor layer result in more unsharpness " thus an intensifying screen will minimize the exposure time

First sign of permanent deformation is known as what?

"a. Threshold b. Proportional limit (correct) c. Elastic limit (correct)" "Proffit 4th ed pg 360: ""Although there is a slight difference in the engineering definition of the term elastic limit, it is essentially the same point, and elastic and proportional limit may be used interchangeably"" "

" What causes the metabolic rate to increase?"

"a. Thyroid b. Growth Hormone c. All the above (correct) d. None of the above "

Pt w/a paralyzed rt lateral pterygoid muscle is instructed to open his mouth wide. Which direction will the mandible deviate on opening?

"a. To the left b. To the right * c. Straight (no deviation) d. None of the above "

According to reviews of database at University of North Carolina, deviation of the chin in pts w/deficient or excessive mand growth is:

"a. To the right side in 90% of the cases b. To the left side in 90% of the cases (correct) c. Present in all cases d. Hardly ever present " (P687)

Which radiograph would you use to see the maxillary sinuses?

"a. Tomogram b. Lateral Cephalogram c. Posterior-Anterior Cephalogram d. Waters View (correct)"

" The tuberculum impar gives rise to what structure?"

"a. Tongue (correct) b. Thyroid gland c. Thymus "

Mixed dentition kid w/no signs of skeletal openbite, good posterior occlusion, no speech probs, but has tongue thrust. What do you do?

"a. Tongue Crib, b. Speech Pathology, c. Myofunctional therapy d. NO treatment"

A very light radiograph is caused by the following EXCEPT

"a. Too short exposure time b. Wrong side of film being toward the tube c. White light being leaked into the darkroom** "

" The goal of serial extraction is to:"

"a. Transfer incisor crowding posteriorly to the PM extraction site *"

" Movement of bony segments in space, without any internal or localized changes, is called:"

"a. Translation (correct) b. Conduction c. Transformation d. Does not occur "

Which syndrome has a problem with neural crest cell migration and under-formation of the Mx and Md?

"a. Treacher Collins - mutation of TCOF1 gene on chromosome 5q32-q33.1 (correct) b. Hemifacial microsomia" "Proffitt 4th ed pg 74 - both have problems with neural crest cells, but T.C. is listed as underdevelopment of max and mand, whereas Hemifacial microsomia is listed as unilateral with lateral and lower part of face (ramus) underdeveloped"

Adjunctive orthodontic treatment is a:

"a. Treatment with a complete fixed appliance for no more that 6 months. b. Tooth movement carried out to facilitate other dental procedures.** c. Treatment with a removable orthodontic appliance. d. Treatment that must be carried out by an orthodontist but requires a careful coordination with other dental specialties. " (P611)

What do you suspect is happening when a patient has clicking after 30mm of opening?

"a. Trigeminal Neuralgia b. Anterior displaced disc * c. Torn disc d. Arthritic condyle"

A patient comes to you after an auto accident with a shift to the right, what is the cause?

"a. Trigeminal Neuralgia b. Left condylar fracture c. Right condylar fracture * d. Bell's Palsy "

Inability to closes the eyelids indicates a possible lesion of which nerve?

"a. Trochlear b. Abducens c. Occulomotor d. Facial (correct) e. Opthalmic" Obicularis oculi muscle closes eyelid and is innervated by temporal and zygomatic brances of CN VII. Patients with facial nerve paralysis (Bell's Palsy) typically complain of acute (24 to 48 hours) unilateral facial weakness with a widening of the palpebral fissure and impaired ability to close the eye.

Recent research shows the mean shear bond strength of bracket adhesive using Fluoride-releasing etching gel is significantly higher than when using a non-fluoridated gel?

"a. True b. False"

Individuals who are late in their maturation show larger increments of growth than those individuals who mature early.

"a. True (correct) b. False"

TMA has double the deflection of SS

"a. True (correct) b. False" "Pg 365 Proffit Table 10-3, pg. 362-363 TMA has double the range of SS. SS has Triple the stiffness of TMA Range is the distance that a wire will bend elastically before permanent deformation occurs (Breakdown) Range is the linear measurement of deflection until plastic deformation occurs (range and deflection are pretty much synonymous) Force = stress (y-axis), Strain = Deflection (x-axis) Stiffness is the slope of the line Proportioanl limit - the point at which the first plastic deformation occurs Yield strength = 0.1% of plastic deformation (comes after the proportional limit) Strength = stiffness x range "

Thermal debond of brackets is an alternative to usual technique. Ceramic brackets debonded by thermal means, both more time & a higher temp are required than for debonding of SS brackets, assuming a two paste adhesive system used.

"a. True (correct) b. False" "Proffit 4th edition pg 419 ""Quite effective and reduces the chance of enamel damage. Rarely used now due to risk of pulpal damage"""

" True or False: Chin doesn't stop growing"

"a. True"

" The mandibular growth rate in females has been found to be:"

"a. Twice as large for 14 to 16 year olds when compared to 16 to 20 year olds b. Similar for 14 to 16 year olds when compared to 16 to 20 year olds c. Primarily in the mandibular plane area d. Greater in vertical growth than in anterior-posterior (correct) "

When a round stainless steel wire is used as a fingerspring, doubling the diameter of the wire increases the force it delivers to:

"a. Twice as much (correct) b. 4 times as much c. 6 times as much d. 8 times as much " "Proffit 4th ed pg 369 2x diameter = 8x strength, 1/16 springiness, 1/2 range "

What is most likely to have permanent deformation

"a. Twist-flex b. Stainless steel (Correct)" "Twist-flex (Ormco): 3 strand twisted SS wire; moderately light forces and is used for initial leveling and alignment. Proffit 4th ed pg 370: ""Another way to obtain a better combination of springiness and strength is to combine two or more strands of a small, and therefore springy, wire. Two 10 mil steel wires in tandem, for instance, could withstand twice the load as a single strand before permanently deforming"" "

A calcific barrier

"a. Type of treatment is most important b. Duration of treatment is more important than type (correct) c. Can be prevented with straight wire appliances d. None of the above"

The major limitation of the Wits analysis is:

"a. Unreliability of using the functional occlusal plane in open-bite cases. b. Failure of distinguishing between skeletal and dento-alveolar discrepancies.(correct) c. Lack of normative data for various ethnic groups. d. None of the above. " Wits is dependent on the pitch of the occl plane. The inclination of the occl plane will effect the measurements rendered by Wits. So 2 given patients, A point and B point could be in the same AP position, but if the occl planes are very different have contrasting wits appraisal. Therefore the dental effect is not taken into account.

Where does the petrous bone lie on a PA ceph radiograph?

"a. Upper 1/3 of orbit b. Inferior 1/3 of orbit (Correct?) c. Roof of orbit d. Floor of the orbit" Not positive what they are talking about by "petrous" bone. But the petrous portion of the temporal bone actually appears as a the RO structure just above the inferior border of the orbit on a PA ceph.

" Where does the petrous bone lie on a PA ceph radiograph?"

"a. Upper 1/3 of orbit b. Inferior 1/3 of orbit (correct) c. Roof of orbit d. Floor of orbit "

Which part of the face has both intramembranous and endochondral sutures?

"a. Upper and middle (correct) b. Upper and lower c. Middle and lower d. Upper only"

" Which is reduced in cleft patients?"

"a. Upper facial height (correct) b. Lower facial height c. Neither d. Both "

" Non-centric cusps in a posterior crossbite are the..."

"a. Upper lingual and the lower buccal (correct) b. Upper lingual and the lower lingual "

" The normal downward and forward direction of facial growth results from:"

"a. Upward and backward growth of the maxillary sutures and the mandibular condyle b. Vertical eruption and mesial drift of the dentition c. Interstitial growth in the maxilla and mandible d. Epithelial induction at the growth centers i. a and b (correct) ii. a and c iii. a and d iv. b and c v. b and d "

Cepalometric analysis is:

"a. Used as an aid in the total diagnosis of an orthodontic case b. Used for longitudinal growth studies c. Used for orthodontic treatment planning d. Used for evaluating results of therapy e. All of the above (correct) "

The causitive organism for shingles is:

"a. Varicella zoster (correct) b. Variola c. HSV" "VZV is one of eight herpes viruses known to infect humans (and other vertebrates). It commonly causes chicken-pox in children and Herpes zoster (shingles) in adults and rarely in children. WebMD"

Correlation between tooth size and dental arch form is:

"a. Very close b. Very poor (correct) c. Off by one year"

AIDS patient shows all of the following except:

"a. Weight loss b. Kaposis sarcoma c. Lymphadenopathy" "all of these seem correct http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmedhealth/PMH0001620/ : ""Common symptoms are: •Chills •Fevers •Sweats (particularly at night) •Swollen lymph glands •Weakness •Weight loss Common with CD4 count below 350 cells/mm3: •Herpes simplex virus •Tuberculosis •Oral or vaginal thrush •Herpes zoster (shingles) •Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma •Kaposi's sarcoma"" And it just keeps getting worse as the CD4 goes down. Man AIDS sucks"

When should an alveolar bone graft in a cleft site be performed?

"a. When the canine root is 1/3 formed b. When the canine root is 2/3 formed (correct) c. When the central root is 1/3 formed d. When the central root is 2/3 formed"

" Which dimension of infants most closely resembles adults?"

"a. Width (correct) b. Depth c. Height "

What is the largest in an infant?

"a. Width of head b. Depth of head (correct) c. Vertical size of head"

Which dimension finishes growing first?

"a. Width/breadth (correct) b. Depth c. Vertical"

Springback is useful because

"a. Wire maintains its stiffness b. Wire remains flexible c. Wire is resistant to permanent deformation (correct) " "Definition/diagram of springback in Proffit pg 361- think C Web defintion: ""tendency to partially return to its original shape because of the elastic recovery of the material"" "

" In utilizing, which appraisal is a determination of the relationship between the maxilla and the mandible?"

"a. Wits (correct) b. SNA c. Facial Axis (Ba-Pt-Gn) d. E-line "

What is the best structure for superimposition of cranial base:

"a. anterior clinoid, cribiform plate, and greater wing of sphenoid (correct) b. Lesser wing" "Article ""Comparison of hand-traced and computerized cephalograms,"" Roden-Johnson: Register on sella with the best fit on the anterior cranial base bony structures (planum sphenoidum, cribriform plate, greater wing of the sphenoid) to assess overall growth and treatment changes. Graber (2000) pg. 214 & Graber (2005) pg. 245: Through the systematic study ... the most stable osseous structures in the anterior cranial base of growing children and adolescents were defined anatomically (Figure 3-38, A). This research established that the three most stable osseous landmarks for superimposition of cephalometric radiographs are (1) the anterior curvature of the sella turcica, (2) the cribriform plate, and (3) the internal curvature of the frontal bone (Figure 3-38, B). In effect, this research established the gold standard for reliable superimposition on the anterior cranial base"

"Which of the following is a correct statement: "

"a. apposition is seen on anterior border of chin b. apposition on lower anterior border of mandible at pogonion (correct) c. resorption seen at posterior symphysis" "all of these are false only slight apposition at lingual of symphysis only apparent growth of the chin by resorption at B point Bjork ABO article #54 (p587, 597) ""thickening of symphysis takes place by apposition on its posterior surface...on its lower border there is likewise apposition, which contributes to increase in height of the symphysis"" ""periosteal apposition below the symphysis is extended posteriorly, to the anterior part of the lower border of the mandible, and when it is marked this area is characteristically rounded"" ""In vertical condylar growth, the pronounced apposition below the symphysis and the anterior part of the mandible produces an anterior rounding, with a thick cortical layer"" Profitt p113 ""At one time, it was thought that this occurred primarily by addition of bone to the chin, but that is incorrect. Although small amounts of bone are added, the change in the contour of the chin itself occurs largely because the area just abovet he chin, between it and the base of the alveolar process is a resorptive area"" ""Subsequent to the deciduous dentition period of childhood growth, however, the alveolar bone on the labial side in the forward part of the arch undergoes a reversal to become resorptive, and the opposite lingual side becomes uniformly depository. This change occurs in conjunction with the unique lingual direction of incisor movement in the child's mandible. From this time, the chin begins to take on a progressively more prominent form; the mental protuberance continues to remodel anteriorly, while the alveolar bone above it remodels posteriorly until the lower permanent incisors reach their definitive positions."" (Enlow, Donald H.. Essentials of Facial Growth. Enlow Hans, 07/1996. p. 232). SABURO KURIHARA, DONALD H. ENLOW and ROSALBA D. RANGEL (1980) Remodeling Reversals in Anterior Parts Of the Human Mandible and Maxilla. The Angle Orthodontist: April 1980, Vol. 50, No. 2, pp. 98-106."

Which of the following imaging methods is best for perforated disc?

"a. arthrography (correct) b. arthoscropy c. mri d. ct" "Jacobsen text p. 236; ABO Breakdown: Arthrogram - inject dye; internal derrangements, ADD MRI - best for TMJ soft tissues (disc, ligaments, muscle, internal disc derangement) CT - best for bone/hard tissues Tomogram - osseous parts of TMJ Transcranial XR - lateral pole of condyle; least reliable for condylar shape"

Where do upper incisors fall in relation to stomion superioris in skeletal open bite?

"a. at same level b. 4mm apical to lip c. 3mm below lip (correct) d. there is no relationship between incisors and open bite" "Proffit 4th ed pg 227: - ""skeletal open bite will usually have excessive eruption of posterior teeth, downward rotation of mandible and maxilla, and normal (or even excessive) eruption of anterior teeth"" (normal = max 3mm of incisal display at rest)"

"Extended curve of wilson and incisors are edge to edge? Edge to edge patient with severe curve of Wilson what are you most likely to see? Maxillary lingual 2nds for curve of Wilson with edge to edge?"

"a. balancing/non-working interferences b. working interferences c. lack of anterior guidanace posterior disclusion" "No Reference If pt is edge to edge in the anterior, then they will have no anterior guidance. Therefore, as they protrude, there will likely be no posterior disclusion (lack of the so-called Christianson's Phenomenon). Accentuated curve of wilson, refers to the MD lingual cusps sitting at a more inferior level than the buccal cusps. One would think that this would also mean there is an corresponding excessive Curve of Monson on the Maxillary arch, however as stated this question does not specifically state that so one cannot infer that we would see posterior non-working interferences from MX buccal cusps. Working interferences are also highly unlikely, as someone who has no anterior guidance would also probably be in group function. Therefore, given these options, C is likely the best choice."

Which of the following meds is used to temporarily decrease salivary flow for bonding, and what is its contraindication for use?

"a. banthine, glaucoma (correct) b. probanthine, high intracranial pressure c. epinephrine, glaucoma d. phenylephrine, glaucoma " "Graber, Current Principles and Techniques textbook (2000) pg. 560: Anti-sialagogues - competitive antagonists of muscarinic actions of acetylcholine; block attachment of Ac to salivarHy gland receptors and saliva is not produced 1. Pro-Banthine (Propantheline bromide): sublingual injection; no longer advised if patients can take oral form. 2. Banthine (Methantheline bromide): oral tablets (50 mg per 100 lb [ 45 kg] body weight) in a sugar-free drink, 15 minutes before bonding 3. Atropine Sulfate (Sal-Tropine) antimuscarinic and anticholinergic"

What is the posterior border of the foramen magnum called on a cephalogram?

"a. basion b. opisthion (correct) c. axithion d. post border of the foramen magnum"

"According to Moss functional matrix theory, bone translation occurs due to the following? What results in displacement of cranial bones causing sutural growth?"

"a. capsular matrix (correct) b. periosteal matrix c. both" "http://www.journals.elsevierhealth.com/periodicals/ajorth/article/0002-9416(69)90209-7/abstract The morphogenetic role of two types of functional matrix-periosteal and capsular—in craniofacial growth is examined. The term growth is defined inclusively to include the changes in size and shape as well as changes in spatial position in time. The periosteal matrices are responsible for transformative growth, the changes in size and shape. The capsular matrices are responsible for translative growth, the changes in position. The role of oronasopharyngeal functioning spaces as competent, primary, morphogenetic agencies is detailed. The volumetric expansion of these capsular functional matrices is capable of accurate quantitative description."

Shingles is related to:

"a. chicken pox (correct) b. HSV c. small pox" see above

Which suture fuses early in dolichocephalic patients?

"a. coronal b. sagittal (correct) c. lambdoidal" "-fusion of saggital suture would cause cranium to be long in A-P direction and narrow in width (dolichocephalic) -fusion of coronal suture would cause cranium to be short A-P and wide (brachycephalic)"

What usually happens if you seat the mandible from CO to CR?

"a. decrease the vertical dimension b. increase the vertical dimension* "

Which is NOT seen in cleidocranial dysplasia?

"a. delayed eruption b. premature eruption (correct) c. supernumerary teeth d. wormian bones" ABO breakdown

Which is not seen in acute closed lock patients?

"a. deviation upon opening b. range of motion 27mmor less c. no joint sounds (we think this is correct) d. pain with forced maximum opening"

Bisphosphonates cause all of the following except:

"a. diminished osteoblast activity (correct) b. inhibits tooth movement c. osteoradionecrosis d. reduced wound healing e. increased mineral density " "checked (forces osteoclasts into apoptosis) ABO article #3 Medication Effects on Rate of Orthodontic Tooth Movement Pg. 343 Proffit; Increase tooth movement: Vitamin D, PTH, Thyroxin, Corticosteroids, eicosanoids; Decrease tooth movement: Estrogen (probably), Bisphosphonates (definitely), dietary Calcium, NSAIDs; No effect: Acetaminophen"

What causes most error in radiographs?

"a. ear rods b. distance from midsaggital plane to film (correct)" "ABO Breakdown: - film to midsaggital plane = 15cm - source to midsaggital plane = 60 in (5 ft)"

Which of the following would be considered to have a cotton wool appearance?

"a. fibrous dysplasia b. Paget's disease * c. Eosinophilic granuloma "

Geographic Tongue is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

"a. fissured tongue b. more common in males (correct) c. show munro abscesses histologically d. psoriasis" Geographic tongue is females > males. Munro abscesses is intraepithelial abscess seen in psoriasis.

Undermining resorption is not associated with the following:

"a. frontal resorption (correct) b. physiologic tooth movement (correct) c. clear free cell zone" "ABO breakdown: frontal resorption =response to light continuous force "

Showed lateral ceph and asked how much growth you should expect based on the vertebrae (CVM):

"a. growth done b. very little left c.2-3 years left (3rd molar crowns were mineralized)" "CVM: stage2: concavities onC2 and C3. stage 3: concavities on C2-C4. maximum growth occurs between 2 and3."

What are some effects of a clefted soft palate?

"a. hypernasal speech b. Snoring c. All of the above (correct) d. None of the above"

Aperts has all of the following except:

"a. hypoplastic orbital rim b. syndactyly c. premature fusion of sutures d. all of the above (correct)"

Most magnification is seen with the following:

"a. increased film to midsagittal plane (correct) b. increased anode to patient distance" """Bilateral structures close to the midsagittal plane demonstrate less discrepancy in size when compared with bilateral structures farther away from the midsagittal plane. Structures close to the midsagittal plane (e.g., the clinoid processes and inferior turbinates) should be nearly superimposed."" (White, Stuart C.. Oral Radiology: Principles and Interpretation, 5th Edition. Mosby, 122003. pp. 211 - 212). Jacobson text (p34, 2nd edition): ""The degree of magnification is determined by the ratio of the distance from the xray source ot the object and the distance from the xray source to film. The larger the distance from the object being imaged to the film plane, the greater the magnification. To minimize this effect, the distance from the x-ray source to the midsagittal plane of the patient's head in ceph units should be 5 feet"" "

What happens in arch length from deciduous to permanent dentition when measuring from the mesial of the first molars?

"a. increases a lot b. increases a little c. decreases a lot d. decreases a little (correct) e. stays the same"

The density of a radiograph is decreased by

"a. increasing the milliamperes b. Increasing the exposure time c. Increasing the developing time d. Increasing the tube-patient distance * "

PTH and Thyroxin

"a. inhibit tooth movement b. enhance tooth movement (correct)" ABO Article #3 - "Medication effects on rate of orthodontic tooth movement" pg 21 PTH increases orthodontic tooth movement (OTM) (PTH increases serum Ca levels), pg. 22 Thyroxine (T4) - a significant increase in the rate of OTM was found. (Thyroxine increases cell metabolism and affects intestinal calcium absorption (reduces it))

the foramen that borders the petrous portion of the temporal bone:

"a. lacerum (true) b. jugular c. spinosum d. rotundum e. ovale" "The foramen lacerum (lacerated or torn foramen) is not part of the crescent of foramina. This ragged foramen lies posterolateral to the hypophysial fossa and is an artifact of a dried cranium. In life, it is closed by a cartilage plate. Only some meningeal arterial branches and small veins are transmitted vertically through the cartilage, completely traversing this foramen. The internal carotid artery and its accompanying sympathetic and venous plexuses pass across the superior aspect of the cartilage (i.e., pass over the foramen), and some nerves traverse it horizontally, passing to a foramen in its anterior boundary. Extending posteriorly and laterally from the foramen lacerum is a narrow groove for the greater petrosal nerve on the anterosuperior surface of the petrous part of the temporal bone. There is also a small groove for the lesser petrosal nerve. (Moore, Keith L.. Clinically Oriented Anatomy, 5th Edition. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 052005. p. 901). At the base of the petrous ridge of the temporal bone is the jugular foramen, which transmits several cranial nerves in addition to the sigmoid sinus that exits the cranium as the IJV. (Moore, Keith L.. Clinically Oriented Anatomy, 5th Edition. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 052005. p. 901). foramen lacerum - borders petrous portion of temporal bone and sphenoid bone jugular foramen - borders petrous portion of temporal bone and occipital bone"

" Which of the following structures points at the point where the nerve that innervates the lower lip comes out of the mandible? "

"a. mental foramen at area of premolars on the lateral ceph. (correct)" No reference

Where are the primate spaces?

"a. mesial of maxillary canine and distal of mandibular canine * b. distal of maxillary and mandibular lateral incisors c. distal of maxillary and mandibular canines d. mesial of maxillary lateral incisors and distal of mandibular canine "

Not including CBCT what is the downfall to digital?

"a. operating costs b.resolution (correct)" see above

"The maxillary and zygomatic bones make up the inferior orbital wall. What other bone makes up the inferior orbital wall? The floor of the orbit is made of processes from 3 bones; the maxillary, the zygomatic, and which other bone?"

"a. palatine bone (correct) b. frontal c. ethmoid d. sphenoid" "The inferior wall (floor) is formed mainly by the maxilla and partly by the zygomatic and palatine bones. The thin inferior wall is shared by the orbit and maxillary sinus. It slants inferiorly from the apex to the inferior orbital margin. The inferior wall is demarcated from the lateral wall of the orbit by the inferior orbital fissure. (Moore, Keith L.. Clinically Oriented Anatomy, 5th Edition. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 052005. p. 958). http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Orbit_(anatomy)"

" Which bone is purely intramembranous?"

"a. parietal and frontal (correct) b. ethmoid c. temporal " "Intramembranous- Frontal, Parietal, Nasal, Lacrimal, Zygomatic, Vomer, Palantine, Maxilla Purely Endochondral- Incus, Stapes, Ethmoid, Inferior Concha, Hyoid Mixed- Maleus, Temporal, Spenoid, Mandible, Occipital"

What is not a branch of inferior division of glossopharyngeal?

"a. pharynx b. lingual c. subclavian (correct) d. tympanic" "Netter's "

What does not occur in hyalinization?

"a. physiologic tooth movement (correct) b. bone resorption c. pdl resorption d. medullary resorption"

What is a diagnostic tool to distinguish between skeletal, sexual and PVH maturity?

"a. plaster models b. hand/wrist film (correct) c. PA ceph d. Photographs"

What is most common type of salivary gland tumor?

"a. pleomorphic adenoma (correct) b. mucoepidermoid carcinoma c. Warthin's d. clear cell carcinoma" "Dr. Kahn Pathology Lecture: - most common salivary tumor in mouth; benign, but can turn into malignancy called Ex-pleomporphic adenoma; age 40s; - most to least common site: Parotid > posterior lateral hard palate > submandibular > upper lip > buccal mucosa - Pleomorphic Adenoma occurs 80-90% of salivary gland tumors. - mucoepidermoid carcinoma is the 2nd most common salivary tumor and the 1st most common malignant salivary tumor - adenoid cystic carcinoma is second most common malignant salivary gland tumor"

Open lock, pain on palpation

"a. posterior capsulitis. Not sure about this ? b/c pt has click/lock history, opening <27mm, I put ant displacement w/out reduction b. Closed lock--associated with the inability of the condyle to slide under the displaced meniscus when the patient tries to open the mouth beyond a certain point c. Open lock-- associated with the inability of the condyle to slide back under the meniscus when trying to close the mouth. (correct)"

Which of the following is NOT seen in Down's syndrome?

"a. premature eruption of teeth (correct) b. slanting epicanthial folds c. trisomy 21" "ABO Breakdown - they have delayed tooth eruption"

TMJ is different from other joints by:

"a. presence of a meniscus b. fibrous CT in disc in stead of hyaline (correct)" "The surfaces of the condyle and fossa are made up of dense fibrous connective tissues supported by a small area of undifferentiated mesenchyme and growth cartilage, which is not visible radiographically. The surface seen is actually subarticular bone. The articular disc, likewise, is composed of dense fibrous connective tissue, which also is not visible on standard radiographs. The articular surfaces of the mandibular condyle and fossa are composed of four distinct layers or zones (Fig. 1-15): (1) articular, (2) proliferative, (3) fibrocartilaginous, and (4) calcified cartilage. The most superficial layer is called the articular zone. It is found adjacent to the joint cavity and forms the outermost functional surface. Unlike most other synovial joints, this articular layer is made of dense fibrous connective tissue rather than hyaline cartilage. (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 11). "

What does Hep B Ag mean?

"a. pt not infectious b. potentially infectious (correct) c. cannot be infected w/ Hep" ABO Breakdown

How does chin remodel?

"a. resorption of inferior surface of symphysis b. buccal apposition at pogonion c. resorption on lingual surface of symphysis" "see Q #10: Bjork article answers A and C are def. not correct; nor is B"

" Maximum rate of facial growth occurs"

"a. slightly after peak growth in statural height."

" Which bone is NOT a part of the orbit?"

"a. sphenoid b. frontal c. vomer (correct) d. maxilla " Wikipedia

Where does the temporal bone appear on a PA ceph?

"a. superior 1/3 of orbit b. middle 1/3 of orbit c. inferior 1/3 of orbit"

When superimposing on the mandible, what do you NOT superimpose on?

"a. symphysis b. angle of the mandible c. the mandibular canal d. mental foramen (correct) " "Bjork Article: 4 stable references for superimposition: 1. chin tip 2. inner cortical structure at inferior border of symphysis 3. mandibular canal trabeculae 4. lower contour of molar crypt until roots begin to form"

" When superimposing on the mandible, what do you not superimpose on?"

"a. symphysis b. angle of the mandible c. the mandibular canal d. mental foramen(correct) "

Which of the following is not a growth SITE:

"a. synostoses (answer) b. synchondrosis c. syndesmosis d. synarthrosis" "Proffit 4th ed. pg.53: Growth centers: epiphyseal plates, synchondrosis, nasal septum Growth sites: any area where growth occurs (sutures, condyle) synarthrosis: broad category for any connective tissue joint that permits little/no movement (sutures of the cranial vault and gomphosis (PDL) syndesmosis: fibrous joint; partially mobile (ex. wrist, ankle, growing skull bones) synchondrosis: hyalin cartilaginous joint; ex: bones of the cranial base and epiphyseal plates in long bones; it is a growth center synostoses: fusion of 2 bones (found in adult skull) sphenooccipital is a growth center that drives the majority of growth in the cranial base sphenooccipital synchondrosis (closes last - 15-20) intersphenoidal synchondrosis (closes first - at birth) sphenoethmoidal synchondrosis (closes second - 7-8 yrs)"

Which is not a growth CENTER in the craniofacial complex?

"a. synostosis (correct) b. synchondrosis c. syndesmosis (correct)" "synostosis and syndesmosis are not growth centers, therefore A and C would be correct Proffit 4th ed. pg.53: Growth centers: epiphyseal plates, synchondrosis, nasal septum Growth sites: any area where growth occurs (sutures, condyle) "

Patient complains that food accumulates in the vestibule of mouth during chewing. This symptom is consistent with the diagnosis of a lesion in:

"a. the mandibular division of trigeminal nerve b. a branch of the facial nerve (correct) c. the glossopharyngeal d. the accessory nerve e. the hypoglossal" Buccinator muscle compresses cheek and is innervated by buccal branch of CN VII

Definition of ankylosis?

"a. two mineralized surfaces fused together (correct) b. osteointegration" "Proffit p566 ""Ankylosis of an unerupted tooth is always a potential problem. If an area of fusion to the adjacent bone develops, orthodontic movement of the unerupted tooth becomes impossible, and displacement of the anchor teeth will ccur. Occasionally, an unerupted tooth will start to move and then will become ankylosed, apparently held by only a small area of fusion. It can sometimes be freed to continue movement by anesthetizing the area and lightly uxating the tooth, breaking the area of ankylosis"""

How does the condyle move on the balancing side?

"a. upward, forward, and medial b. downward, forward, and medial* c. upward, backward, and laterally d. downward, backward and laterally "

3mm OB w/ exaggerated curve of Wilson..what problem would you encounter?

"a. working interference b. non-working interference (correct) c. protrusive interference "

What is NOT a characteristic of Down's syndrome?

"a. wormian bones b. mental retardation c. fissured tongue d. hypoplastic maxilla e. early eruption of teeth (correct)" ABO Breakdown

" When looking at a ceph, what is level with Frankfort Horizontal?"

"a. zygomatic arch (correct) b. Go-Gn c. S-N d. ANS-PNS " Google

"When a round stainless steel wire is used as a fingerspring, doubling the length of the wire decreases the force it delivers to: "

"a. ½ as much (correct) b. ¼ as much c. 1/6 as much d. 1/8 as much " "Proffit 4th ed pg 370 2x Length = 1/2 strength, 8x springiness, 4x range "

Studies show that 50% elasticity of powerchains is lost within

"a.1 day (correct) b.3 days c. 5 days d. 7 days" "p211 Nanda Biomechanics (Ch10) Hershey and Reynolds"" compared three commercially available elastomeric chains and found a 60% loss after four weeks. Fifty percent of the loss in force was after the very first day. -Effects of prestretching on force degradation of synthetic elastomeric chains AJODO 2005 "Previous studies have shown that it might lose 50% to 70% of its initial force during the first day of load application and 10% more by 3 weeks, and retain only 30% to 40% of the original force after 4 weeks.""

The greatest amount of mandibular arch length measured from the mesial of one molar to the mesial of the other will occur at what age?

"a.3 b.6 (correct) c.9 d.12 e.18 " Proffit fig. 3-40 and pg. 119

"The arch length from mesial of mandibular 2nd molar to mesial of contralateral 2nd molar should be about what percentage of that distance in the max arch? "

"a.50% b.73% c.91% Definition of BOLTON discrepancy (correct) d.100% " article 55 - Clinical application of a tooth size analysis

"3. What measurements gives evidence of rotation of mandible?"

"a.Angle of condyle b.Length of condylar head c.Mandibular canal curvature d.All of the above (correct)" See above

Which gives off the most radiation?

"a.CT (correct) b.Bone scan c.transorbital d.bunch of other techniques" Asked Dr. Hatcher

The muscles of facial expression develop from:

"a.First brachial arch b.Second brachial arch (correct) c.Both arches d.None of the above "

The narrower the arch width, (versus a patient with a wider arch width) the arch perimeter increase is :

"a.Greater for the narrow arch (correct) b.Less for the narrow arch c.No difference " "McNamara - Orthodontics and Dentofacial Orthopedics 2001 pg 37: - Narrow width group had an initial transpalatal width < 31 mm - Neutral group had initial transpalatal width 31-35 mm - Wide group had an initial transpalatal width > 35 mm The narrow group had an increase in transpalatal width of 3.3 mm. That increase was greater than the neutral (2.5 mm) or the wide (1.7 mm) subgroups.A favorable finding was that the narrow group expanded to a greater extent (from age 7 to age 15) without treatment than did the wider group"

Which type of file do you lose the most information upon compression.

"a.Jpeg (we think it's correct- in CDABO packet) b.Lead Jpeg c.tif d.raw"

Which organ is responsible for calcium conservation ?

"a.Liver b.Kidney (correct) c.Spleen d.Brain "

Which of the following will result in the greatest loss of arch length

"a.Loss of maxillary second primary molar at 6 ½ (Correct) b.Loss of maxillary second primary molar at 11 c.Loss of mandibular first molar "

All of the following are formed from the first branchial arch except?

"a.Malleus b.Maxilla c.Condyle d.Styloid process(correct) Other wrong options: Coronoid (UT 2008)" The styloid process is derived from the 2nd branchial arch.

Which of the following should be used in a patient with a Nickel allergy

"a.NiTi b.TMA (correct) c.SS d.Elgiloy - chrome cobalt " "Proffit pg 361 & 365 SS and Elgiloy have 8% nickel TMA only does not contain nickel, only titanium and molybdenum"

Curve of the mandibular canal and inclination of the condylar head is acharacteristic of what?

"a.Rotation of the mandible (correct) b.A Class III malocclusion c.A skeletal open bite d.A skeletal deep bite" article #54: The seven signs are related to the following features: (1) inclination of the condylar head, (2) curvature of the mandibular canal, (3) shape of the lower border of the mandible, (4) inclination of the symphysis, (5) interincisal angle, (6) intcrprcmolar or intermolar angles, and (7) anterior lower face height.

Where to superimpose for longitudinal data:

"a.SN at S b.ethmoid, ant clinoid, GW of sphenoid (correct)" "Sella is the most stable cranial structure Jacobson states to superimpose on SN at Sella (p146) "

Which statement regarding allergic reactions associated w/ ortho appliances is true:

"a.They are almost always caused by Latex or Nickel. (correct) b.These allergic reactions are never life threatening. c.Only 5% of the US population shows some skin reaction to Nickel. d.All children with skin allergy to Nickel will show a mucosal response to orthodontic appliances. " Proffit pg 348

Neural crest

"a.Treacher Collins b. Hemifacial microsomial c. both (correct)" "Proffit 4th ed pg 74 Altered neural crest development also has been implicated in mandibulofacial dysostosis (Treacher Collins syndrome) and hemifacial microsomia."

What shows the rotational growth of the mandible?

"a.bending of canal and condylar neck angle (correct) b.increase in vertical dimension c.increase in the length of the mandible " See above

4 yr old with digit habit with 3mm open bite.

"a.break the habit even if unpleasant. (correct) b.no treatment (but that seems appropriate only if there is no habit) c.tell the parent not to worry d.refer them for psychiatric issues"

Which of the following has endochondrial, intramembranous, sutural and apposition/resorption?

"a.midface b.mandible c.neurocranium (correct?)" A and C are correct

When does cleft lip and palate occur

6-8 weeks in utero

At what time during fetal development does CL/CP occur?

6-8weeks "Proffit p73 primary palate Days 28-38 secondary palate Days 42-55"

Facial axis does not change from (Pt-Gn)

8 to 18

What % of open bites spontaneously close in pre-pubescent children?

80

NLA norms

94-110

As skeletal age matures what changes to you see in the vertebrae?

A concave curvature in the inferior border.

Right side anterior disc displacement without reduction

Answer: On opening jaw deviates to right 2. Cannot move jaw to left lateral -limited left lateral movement

ADD Which way does jaw deviate on opening

Answer: To the same side (correct)

What is a clinical sign of idiopathic resorption of condyle?

Anterior open bite Other signs: decreased ramus height; progressive mand retrusion

Creation of bone on the maxilla for maxillary molars comes from:

Apposition of bone at the sutural area behind the tuberosity

In a patient that started significant lower crowding, when you remove the retention, what happens?

Arch length and arch perimeter decreases

Asperities are:

Areas that actually contact along a wire, roughness, microscopic bumps on wire were it binds "Proffit 4th ed pg 377 ""Interestingly, friction is independent of the apparent area of contact. this is because all surfaces, no matter how smooth, have irregularities that are large on a molecular scale, and real contact occurs only at a limited number of small spots at the peaks fo the surface irregularities (Figure 10-24). These spots, called asperities, carry all the load between the two surfaces. Even under light loads, local pressure at the asperities may cause appreciable plastic deformation of those small areas. Because of this, the true contact area is to a considerable extent determined by the applied load and is directly proportional to it."" NiTi>TMA>SS"

Rank the following in order from worst to best in terms of chewing functional efficiency:

Class III malocclusion, Class II malocclusion, Class I malocclusion, Class I normal.

Which is best to determine direction of mandibular growth from Bjork study?

Curvature of the mandibular canal and inclination of condylar head.

Disc displacement without reduction. What happens to opening?

Deviation to the right (if this is the affected side) minimal opening?

1.5 mm diastema with a thick fibrous frenum which blanches the tissue when pulling in the late transitional dentition. what do you do?

Do nothing. Wait till the 3 erupt.

What lies bewtween temporal bone and posterior base of orbit?

Ethmoid sinus or orbital plate of frontal bone " "

CBCT: increase in voxel size, increases magnification. An increase in voxel size, increases resolution

F/F "Dr. Hatcher: - Voxel size effects resolution and accuracy NOT the magnification. There is no significant magnification in CBCT or CT scans. - Decreased voxel size, decreased field of view, increased scan time = increased resolution. CBCT generally has small voxel size. "

What 2 lines make up the facial angle?

FH and N-Pog Jacobsen 2nd edition

Geniculate ganglion

Facial Nerve (contains cell bodies for taste to anterior 2/3s of tongue) "Wikipedia enters the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus (intimately close to the inner ear), then forms the geniculate nucleus prior to entering the facial canal, emerges from the stylomastoid foramen and passes through the parotid gland, where it divides into five major branches. Though it passes through the parotid gland, it does not innervate the gland (This is the responsibility of cranial nerve IX, the glossopharyngeal nerve). "

What innervates taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

Facial n. (specifically, it is the chorda tympani branch)

Clefting of the lip is due to what

Failure of fusion of the medial nasal process and maxillary process

What tissue makes the disc?

Fibrous CT "Okeson Ch1 pg 9: ""The articular disc is composed of dense fibrous connective tissue, for the most part devoid of any blood vessels or nerve fibers."""

50% show decalcify when debonding, Usually resolve spontaneously with out fluoride

First statement true, second statement false

Jugal Point

Jacobson Pg. 269: Jugale (J), at the jugal process, the intersection of the outline of the maxillary tuberosity and the zygomatic buttress.

Steiner uses:

L1 - N-B/Pg - N-B (holdaway)

"Arachadonic acid pathway produces? "

Leukotriene 6 know something about arachadonic acid

Which genes are associated with hereditary tooth agenesis?

MSX1 and PAX9 (correct) Articles #35 + #76

Which teeth only contact one tooth in opposing arch?

Max 8s and Md 1s ABO breakdown

How does the body of the mandible lengthen?

Remodeling of the anterior ramus (correct)

If you take out upper 4's what do you have to do to the 6's usually?

Rotate them mesially (correct)

How does ABO define Mandibular plane angle?

SN-MP angle between 27-37 degrees.

In digital photography, use 8 bit, there are 256 shades of gray. This is ok bc human eye can only distinguish 40 shades

T/F Not sure what 8 bit is referring to, but 256 shades of gray is true. Second statement is false, bc human eye can only distinguish 16 shades (not 40)

Smaller Voxel size is favorable for good resolution. Increased voxel size can cause more magnification.

T/F see above

CT has better resolution than CBCT. CBCT is faster, less exposure, less time.

T/T

Gorelick states 50% have decalcification. Wait 2-3 months before fluoride

T/T

NSAIDs inhibit tooth movement by inhibiting prostaglandins. Decreased prostaglandin levels raise the pain threshold.

T/T "Proffit 4th Ed. Pg 343. Fortunately, although potent prostaglandinin hibitors like indomethacin can inhibit tooth movement, The common analgesics( ibuprofen, aspirin) seem to have little or no inhibiting effect on tooth movement at the dose levels used with orthodontic patients. Article ""Medication effects on the rate of orthodontic tooth movement,"" Bartzela: ""Studies on the effects of NSAIDs during experimental OTM in animals all evaluate the effects of relatively short administrations.They showed decreases in the number of osteoclasts, since prostaglandins are involved either directly or indirectly in osteoclast differentiation or in stimulating their activity.This has been shown for acetylsalicylic acid and flurbiprofen, indometacin (indomethacin), and ibuprofen. Whether this also leads to a reduction in the rate of OTM is less clear."" Prostaglandin E2, inflammation and pain threshold in rat paws. D. C. KUHN and A. L. WILLIS. British Pharmacological Society: Pg. 184p Repeated injection of prostaglandin E2 in rat paws induces chronic swelling and a marked decrease in pain threshold, disappearance of the PGE2 allowed pain threshold to rise."

there is both arch width and length loss from primary to permanent dentition transition

TRUE "Proffit 4th edition pg 100: Both arch length (L) and arch circumference tend to decrease during the transition (i.e., some of the leeway space is used by mesial movement of the molars). "

Steel ligatures are better in adult orthodontic patients because elastomeric chains harbor several microorganisms

TRUE "Proffit 4th edition pg. 658 (we are assuming the question meant ""adult ortho pts w/ perio dz) ""Self-ligating brackets or steel ligatures are preferred for periodontally involved patients rather than elastomeric rings to retain orthodontic archwires, because patients with elastomeric rings have higher levels of microorganisms in gingival plaque."""

What cranial nerve comes from Semilunar ganglion?

Trigeminal nerve "Netters - Gasserian ganglion and semilunar ganglion are other names for trigeminal ganglion"

"Anterior belly of digastrics is innervated by trigeminal. Posterior belly is innervated by facial nerve."

True, True. (correct) """Each digastric muscle has two bellies, joined by an intermediate tendon, that descends toward the hyoid. A fibrous sling derived from the pretracheal layer of deep cervical fascia allows the tendon to anteriorly and posteriorly as it connects this tendon to the body and greater horn of the hyoid. The difference in nerve supply between the anterior and posterior bellies of the digastric muscles results from their different embryological origin from the 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches, respectively (Moore and Persaud, 2003). CN V supplies derivatives of the 1st arch, and CN VII supplies those of the 2nd arch."" (Moore, Keith L.. Clinically Oriented Anatomy, 5th Edition. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 052005. pp. 1066 - 1067)."

Digital radiographs produce 256 shades of gray. Human eye can only see 16 shades of gray.

True, True. (correct) "Gray scale resolution is how many shades of gray are in the image; also known as contrast or bit depth. The imaging system is capable of capturing and separating literally thousands of shades of gray Contrast is expressed in bits. A 1-bit image has only 2 shades (pure black and white—the darkest and lightest shades of gray in the imaging scale) and is expressed as ""I to the power of 1."" A 2-bit image is expressed as ""1 to the power of 2,"" or 1 × 2 = 2 × 2 = 4 shades of gray. A 3-bit image has 8 shades of gray, or 1 × 2 = 2 × 2 = 4 × 2 = 8. A 4-bit image has 16 shades of gray, and so on. In an 8-bit image, there are 256 shades of gray and this is the standard. However, systems capable of up to 12 bits or 4098 shades of gray presently exist. The more bits in the image, the greater are the storage needs for the images. The human eye of the person in the street can commonly separate 16 shades of gray, a photographer or radiologist can separate about 25 shades of gray, and under laboratory conditions the maximum for the unaided eye to separate is somewhere around 64 shades of gray. The image itself usually does not occupy the entire gray scale as can be seen by viewing the histogram. The image may be confined to about 30 shades of gray. For best results it is desirable to have a system capable of at least 256 shades of gray. This way there is space on the scale to lighten or darken the image (histogram shift) or spread the shades of gray over a bigger part of the scale (histogram stretch). Remember, 8 bits or 256 shades of gray represents the limit of most monitors. (Langlais, Robert. Exercises in Oral Radiology and Interpretation, 4th Edition. W.B. Saunders Company, 122003. p. 68). This means that the detector can theoretically capture 256 (28) to 65,536 (216) different densities. In practice the actual number of meaningful densities that can be captured is limited by inaccuracies in image acquisition; these inaccuracies are given the generic term of noise. Regardless of the number of density differences that a detector can capture, conventional computer monitors are capable of displaying a gray scale of only 8 bits. Because operating systems such as Windows reserve a number of gray levels for the display of system information, the actual number of gray levels that can be displayed on a monitor is 242. A more important limiting factor is the human visual system, which is capable of distinguishing only about 60 gray levels at any time under ideal viewing conditions. (White, Stuart C.. Oral Radiology: Principles and Interpretation, 5th Edition. Mosby, 122003. p. 232). Jacobson text (2nd edition), p54 ""computers use brightness values of varying numbers of bits. for example, in an 8 bit system each pixel has a range of 256 (2 to the 8th) values of grey. 0 being the darkest black and 255 being the whitest white...human eye can detect detail 0.1mm x 0.1mm"" "

"Multiple T/F: You can use an 8 bit monitor to display a picture taken from a camera that has 8 bits and250 shades of grey (is this an appropriate display?). "

True, True. (correct) This is an appropriate monitor because the human eye can only see this many shades of grey. Any higher of a resolution will not be picked up by the human eye.

Growth of the condyle how?

Up and back

Which of the following does NOT change from age 8-18?

Y axis

What is NOT formed from the median nasal process?

a. Ala of the nose (correct) Ala of the nose is formed from the lateral nasal process

"Histologically, undermining resorption shows? What are characteristics of hyalinization? "

a. cell free zone "Proffit 4th ed cell free zone is mentioned in Graber"

Most common sign of developing anterior openbite

a. degenerative arthritis "Profitt Pg 319: FIg 8-50: Shows anterior Openbite patient with Severe condylar degeneration due to rheumatoid arthritis he also states on Pg 319: ""adult onset rheumatoid arthritis can destroy the condylar process and create a deformity"" ABO breakdown: osteoarthritis (degenerative joint disease) - open bite, change in occlusion, pain"

Most common sign of developing anterior openbite

a. degenerative arthritis "Profitt Pg 319: FIg 8-50: Shows anterior Openbite patient with Severe condylar degeneration due to rheumatoid arthritis he also states on Pg 319: ""adult onset rheumatoid arthritis can destroy the condylar process and create a deformity"" Graber Text: Orthodontics current principle and techniques (2000) - references an open bite patient with arthritis"

Condylar resorption causes what

a. facial asymmetry open bite, class II

Fibrous dysplasia:

a. ground glass

Looking at a hand-wrist XR determine how much growth still remains?

a.2 years with sesamoid ossification (Correct) see above

What is the best to determine growth rotation?

a.Implant studies (correct) Bjork ABO article #54

Where does the facial nerve exit?

a.Stylomastoid foramen (correct) see above

Several questions on Buchang/English hyperdivergant article.

a.Use chin cup (or High pullHG, we're not sure) with RPE and lip sealing exercises (look it up)

hyoid bone is located:

between C3-C4

What happens to an open bite pt with anteriorly displaced disc on left side?

deviation to left side upon opening jaw deviates to side w/ internal derrangement

Treatment for a 4 y.o. thumb sucker?

do nothing "Proffit 4th ed pg 151-153 - sucking habits during the primary dentition years have little if any long-term effect - Mild displacement of the primary incisor teeth is often noted in a 3- or 4-year-old thumbsucker, but if sucking stops at this stage, normal lip and cheek pressures soon restore the teeth to their usual positions. - If the habit persists after the permanent incisors begin to erupt, orthodontic treatment may be necessary to overcome the resulting tooth displacements. The constricted maxillary arch is least likely to correct spontaneously. In many children, if the maxillary arch is expanded transversely, both the incisor protrusion and anterior open bite will improve spontaneously There is no point in beginning orthodontic therapy, of course, until the habit has stopped. "

Lateral wall of orbit is made up of which bones?

frontal process of zygomatic bone and greater wing of sphenoid

Phenytoin

gingival hyperplasia

Juvenile fibrous dysplasia displays:

ground glass/orange peel

What is the insertion of digastric?

hyoid bone (at junction of lesser horn/cornu and body)

Down's Syndrome prevalence

in US 1 in 800 births.

Pt with open bite, can open 27mm, deviates left upon opening

internal disc derrangement without reduction "-ADD without reduction (closed lock) = disc is displaced anteriorly at all times; usually no sound produced and limited mouth opening (23mm) - ADD with reduction = disc slides into and out of its normal position as jaw opens and closes; pop/click sound is produced after 30mm of opening "

What is true about hyalinization? whats there whats not?

it occurs in the are of undermining resorption

Meiosis-

know that it is division of the cells wlhalf the chromosomes

What gives sensory innervation to anterior 2/3 tongue?

lingual nerve of Trigeminal Netter's. I think the answer here is Lingual nerve. General sensation of the anterior 2/3 is supplied by the Lingual nerve which is a branch of V3 of the Trigeminal nerve CN V. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tongue

Benefit of NiTi is what?

low load deflection rate "Proffit 4th ed pg 555 ""The flat load-deflection curve of superelastic NiTi (see Figure 14-4) makes it ideal for initial alignment"" "

What touches the anterior and posterior of the ptyregomaxillary fissure?

maxillary tuberosity borders the anterior part of fissure and lateral pterygoid plate borders the posterior part of fissure "http://www.emory.edu/ANATOMY/AnatomyManual/fossae.html: Pterygomaxillary fissure lies anterior to lateral ptyregoid plate and posterior to maxilla. At its base is a fossa, the pterygopalatine fossa, and an opening, the sphenopalatine foremen. The pterygopalatine fossa is a place where several pathways converge: The sphenopalatine foremen, the pterygoid canal, greater palatine foremen, and the inferior orbital fissure all communicate with it directly."

AHA guidelines for banding molars in a patient with mitral valve prolapse

no prophylaxis needed "JADA, Vol. 139 http://jada.ada.org January 2008: Current guidelines recommend prophylaxis for the following: 1. Prosthetic cardiac valve or prosthetic material used for cardiac valve repair 2. Previous infective endocarditis 3. Congenital heart disease (CHD) 4. Cardiac transplantation recipients who develop cardiac valvulopathy Procedures requiring prophylaxis: 1. ""Procedures that involve manipulation of gingival tissue or the periapical region of teeth or perforation of the oral mucosa"" (placement of orthodontic bands)"

How much growth remaining if C2 and C3 have inferior curvature and C4-C5 are square?

peak mandibular growth will occur within 1 year (stage CVMS II) ABO Breakdown

Functional matrix theory. What causes bone growth?

periosteal matrix periosteal matrix = transformation = change in size and shape

2 gram amoxicillan 1 hour before treatment:

prophylaxis

Periapical cemental dysplasia (PCD), what do cyst look like on x-ray

radiolucent (middle aged AA women)

Little's studies show:

relapse is unpredictable "Article #47 - ""Evaulation of changes in mandibular anterior alignment from 10-20 yrs post retention"" 1. Long-term alignment was variable and unpredictable. 2. No descriptive characteristics-such as Angle Class, length of retention, age of the initiation of treatment, or gender-nor measured variables-such as initial or end-of-activetreatment alignment, overbite, overjet, arch width, or arch length-were of value in predicting the long-term result. 3. Arch dimensions of width and length typically decreased after retention, whereas crowding increased. This occurred in spite of treatment maintenance of initial intercanine width, treatment expansion, or constriction. 4. Success at maintaining satisfactory mandibular anterior alignment is less than 30% with nearly 20% of the cases likely to show marked crowding many years after removal of retainers."

SLOB Rule (They tell you tooth is lingual and that they are taking xray from distal)

same lingual, opposite buccal -if you take x-ray from the mesial, the buccal root/object will appear distal on the radiograph

The medial pterygoid muscle attaches to the maxillary tuberosity and the lateral pterygoid plate of what bone?

sphenoid (correct) "Wedged between the frontal, temporal, and occipital bones is the sphenoid, an irregular unpaired bone that consists of a body and three pairs of processes: greater wings, lesser wings, and pterygoid processes. The greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid spread laterally from the lateral aspects of the body of the bone (Fig. 7.5C). The pterygoid processes, consisting of lateral and medial pterygoid plates, extend inferiorly on each side of the sphenoid from the junction of the body and greater wings. (Moore, Keith L.. Clinically Oriented Anatomy, 5th Edition. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 052005. p. 896). "

Which is most beneficial for 10 year growth study?

structural implant study

What are characteristics of Gardners?

supernumerary teeth and polyps remember that no clefts are present in this syndrome

"Class III, MPA= 17. What is the lower incisor angle? "

they think answer is 87 b/c Class III will have higher FMIA "Tweed CH, The Frankfort-mandibular plane angle in orthodontic diagnosis, classification, treatment planning, and prognosis: Frankfort-mandibular plane angle (FMA)--16-28 Frankfort-mandibular incisor angle (FMIA)--68 Incisor-mandibular plane angle (IMPA)—90 +/- 5˚ - article says that the above does apply to severe Class II or III patients. it states that Class III pts have acute IMPA "

"Facial plane" remodeling

they wrote: "forward Md with resorption on frontal and supraorbital (not sure if this is correct, but all the other choices talked about the Mx being displaced backwards)"

What is most associated with mandibular asymmetries in children?

trauma (correct) p172 proffit fig 6-3

Cross bite, asymmetric mandible

trauma and congenital "Proffit 4th ed pg 133-134 ""An old condylar fracture is the most likely cause of asymmetric mandibular deficiency in a child, but other destructive processes that involve the temporomandibular joint such as rheumatoid arthritis or a congenital absence of tissue as in hemifacial microsomia also can produce this problem."" downward away from the rest of the facial skeleton. The "