Air Carrier Operations - Finals

6. Under normal operating conditions, the pressurized cabin of a Part 121 aircraft must maintain a maximum cabin pressure altitude of

a. 8,000 feet.

12. Under what conditions must a second alternate be filed prior to a flight departing for its destination?

a. A second alternate is required when the first alternate weather is forecast to be, from one hour before to one hour after ETA, a ceiling of less than 2,000 feet and visibility of less than 3 SM (1-2-3 rule).

4. Typically, the authority to dispatch or release a flight is held by which position(s)?

a. An air carrier's director of operations (DO), aircraft dispatcher, and/or pilot-in-command

Takeoff run must be accomplished

a. within the length of the runway

11. To be used in Part 121 operations, aircraft must have flight crew emergency exits located in the flight area if they have a passenger seating capacity greater than

b. 20 seats.

10. Cockpit voice recorders are required to continuously record the

b. last 30 minutes of each flight.

V1, or takeoff decision speed, is the

b. maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must decide to take action to stop.

A turbine aircraft is scheduled into a runway that is 8,600 feet in length. May this aircraft (which will require 5,100 feet to land) land there on a wet day?

b. no

5. Prior to flight, who is responsible for airplane security?

b. the ground security coordinator

12. According to an FAA study of rejected takeoffs (RTOs), statistically, one RTO occurs every————— takeoffs.

c. 3,000

8. Runway limit weight guarantees that an aircraft may

c. accelerate to V1, lose an engine, and continue the flight.

9. A blue cockpit annunciator light would indicate

c. status

1. In the case of domestic flights, each flight must be dispatched, unless the flight was originally included in the dispatch of a multi-leg flight and the aircraft doesn't spend more than how many hours on the ground?

d. 1 hour

10. The flight data recorder must continuously record

d. 25 hours of continuous data.

9. What credential(s) must an FAA air carrier inspector possess to gain access to the flight deck?

d. FAA Form 110A (FAA inspector's ID card) and FAA Form 8430-13 jumpseat form

13. If there is a Class A, B, or E cargo compartment on the airplane, what must be installed for the use of appropriate crewmembers?

d. Protective breathing equipment (PBE)

7. Takeoff distance must be accomplished

d. within the length of the runway plus clearway (except clearway may only be counted up to one-half the length of the runway)

8. An aircraft with 254 passenger seats would require

Answer (d): 4 fire extinguishers. Aircraft with seating capacity of 7 to 30 require one fire extinguisher; those with 31 through 60 seats require two extinguishers; those with 61 to 200 seats require three extinguishers; and those with 201 through 300 passenger seats require four fire extinguishers

18. A two-engine, turbine-powered airplane may not be operated over a route that contains a point farther than ——— minutes of flying time (in still air at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative) from an adequate airport

a. 90 mins

9. What are the mandatory fuel requirements for Part 121 domestic operations?

a. A flight may not depart unless it has enough fuel to fly to the airport to which it is dispatched, then fly to the most distant alternate (if required), then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption rates.

13. A "high minimums" captain is planning on flying a LDA/DME approach to ABC airport. If the published minimums for the LDA/DME approach are MDA(H) 650 feet and ¾ SM visibility, what would be this captain's minimums to fly this approach?

a. A high minimums captain would need to increase the minimums to a MDA of 750 feet and a visibility of 1¼ SM.

11. When may a required flight deck crewmember leave the assigned duty station?

a. In conjunction with operating the aircraft; for example, to check the cabin for a report of fumes in the cabin. c. To stretch his or her legs after a period at the controls on a transatlantic flight. d. (a) and (c) are both correct.

14. What adjustment must be made for a high minimums captain's takeoff minimums?

a. None; the FAA allows a high minimums captain to use the normal published takeoff minimums for the airport.

13. An air carrier may not dispatch an airplane under IFR or night VFR conditions when current weather reports indicate that thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous weather conditions that can be detected with airborne weather radar may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown, unless the airborne weather radar is working.

a. True

11. A turbine aircraft is scheduled into a runway that is 11,000 feet in length. May this aircraft (which will, due to an anti-skid inoperative MEL, require 6,500 feet to land) land there on a dry runway? How about on a wet runway?

a. Yes on a dry runway; no on a wet runway.

2. Landing gear aural warning devices must sound a warning if

a. a landing is attempted with the gear not locked down.

21. Of the following, which would be considered a category of aircraft?

a. airplane

17. During a normal takeoff, an aircraft may not be banked prior to reaching a height of——— feet as shown by the flight path or net flight path data. After attaining——— feet in height, the aircraft may not be banked more than——— degrees in any additional maneuvering.

b. 50, 50 and 15

5. When is a departure airport alternate airport required prior to the departure of a flight operating under Part 121?

b. When weather conditions are such that an aircraft departs an airport with takeoff minimums below the departure airport's landing minimums in the certificate holder's ops specs.

15. Class D cargo compartments are not accessible during flight and are designed with a protective liner allowing the compartment to be used to ship cargo containing lithium or NiCad batteries

b. false

14. Airplanes with———————— must be equipped with a public address system that is capable of operation independent of the required crewmember interphone system.

c. a seating capacity of more than 19 passengers

In the event of an engine failure at or above V1, the pilot should achieve and maintain V2, until

c. acceleration altitude.

12. The cockpit voice recorder (CVR) is required to operate starting

c. at first use of a checklist (before starting engines for the purpose of flight).

11. Traffic alert and collision avoidance system II (TCAS II) equipment is required for

a. all turbine-powered aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more than 33,000 pounds.

4. Transport category aircraft elevators typically

a. are interconnected but may be operated separately in an emergency.

2. In passenger-carrying airplanes, at least two of the fire extinguishers must

a. be of the Halon 1211 (or equivalent) type.

7. Flight crewmembers must be provided and use oxygen when

a. the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 feet.

4. Emergency lighting for interior or exterior use must be able to be controlled at

a. the flight crew's station in the cockpit. b. a position in the passenger compartment. c. both (a) and (b).

9. The maximum weight at which an air carrier aircraft may depart is limited to

a. the maximum weight that will assure compliance with engine out climb limits. b. the maximum weight that will guarantee enroute OEI terrain clearance. c. the maximum weight that will ensure landing below maximum landing weight. d. All of the above.

1. All aircraft operated by Part 121 carriers must either be U.S.-registered aircraft or

b. foreign aircraft, approved under U.S. type design and operated under dry lease to the U.S. carrier.

Proving tests are required of new type designs. If the design has never been proved under Part 121, it must be operated for

c. 100 hours including 10 at night

9. In the event of cabin pressurization failure, each flight crewmember must be provided with oxygen that allows for a total of

c. 120 minutes total operation.

17. What precautions must an air carrier take when transporting a passenger that requires medical oxygen?

c. An air carrier may allow a passenger to carry and operate oxygen equipment as long as that carrier supplies the necessary equipment.

20. Landing limitations for alternate airports are similar to the landing limitations for destination airports. An operator may not list an airport as an alternate airport if at the anticipated weight at the anticipated time of arrival the aircraft cannot be brought to a stop in ——— percent of the effective runway length for turbojet aircraft or ——— percent of the effective runway length for turboprop aircraft.

d. 60, 70

3. In considering the need for escape slides or similar evacuation means, the aircraft is assumed to be

d. on the ground with all landing gear extended.

6. The crew uses checklist procedures that are provided by the

c. operator of the aircraft.

16. May a Part 121 air carrier use other than Part 139 certificated airports?

a. Not for destination airports, but it may file (and use, if needed) a Part 139 airport as a takeoff or destination alternate airport.

12. What is the primary responsibility of the pilot flying (PF)?

a. The PF is primarily responsible for flying the aircraft in accordance with the approved operational procedures.

14. If the aircraft is certificated with cargo or baggage compartment smoke or fire detection equipment, the following must be met for each cargo or baggage compartment:

a. The detection system must provide a visual warning indication to the flight crew within one minute after the start of a fire.

2. To whom may the person designated by the certificate holder as responsible for operational control delegate the functions of operational control such as initiating, conducting or terminating a flight?

a. The flight control department b. A contractor such as another air carrier c. Both (a) and (b) are correct.

3. To be used in Part 121 operations, aircraft with more than 44 seats must be shown to be able to conduct an evacuation in

b. 90 seconds or less

6. How are alternate airport weather minimums derived for an airport with one operational navigational facility providing a straight-in nonprecision approach procedure, or a straightin precision approach procedure, or a circling maneuver from an instrument approach procedure?

b. A ceiling is derived by adding 400 feet to the authorized Category I HAT or HAA, and a visibility is derived by adding 1 statute mile to the authorized Category I landing minimum.

15. ———————— must have an emergency lighting system, for interior emergency exit markings. This system must be independent of the main lighting system.

b. All transport category passenger-carrying airplanes

14. Which document is not required to be carried by a pilot in Part 121 operations?

b. English language demonstrated proficiency card

12. The inflight use of cigarettes or cigars is allowed only on flights with a scheduled time en route of greater than six hours.

b. False

15. A dispatch release document is used by supplemental operators while a flight release document is used by domestic and flag operators.

b. False

20. From the time the airplane moves in order to initiate a flight segment through the end of that flight segment, no person may unlock or open the flightdeck door.

b. False

2. What information is required to appear on a Part 121 domestic or flag operator's dispatch release form?

b. Identification number of the aircraft, trip number, departure airport, intermediate stops, destination airport and alternate airports, a statement about the type of operation (e.g., VFR, IFR), minimum fuel supply, and weather reports and forecasts

10. Repair "B" on a minimum equipment list requires inoperative items to be repaired within what time interval?

b. Repair category "B" inoperative items shall be repaired within 3 consecutive calendar days (72 hours) excluding the calendar day the malfunction was recorded in the aircraft maintenance log and/or record

Net takeoff flight path is used in computing takeoff/ climb performance capability of the aircraft. What is net takeoff flight path for a twin-engine aircraft?

b. The climb performance of the aircraft as determined in certification testing reduced by 8 feet per 1,000 feet traveled

11. A JetBlue flight crew flying a CAT I ILS approach, on glidepath, and just inside the final approach fix (FAF), is told by the tower that the weather for the intended runway has just dropped below minimums. What must this flight crew do?

b. This flight crew may continue the approach to DA/DH or MDA. In order to land the aircraft, the flight visibility must not be less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used.

8. If one pilot leaves his station at the controls, it is necessary for the other pilot to don his or her oxygen mask if the aircraft is above

b. flight level 250.

19. The verification program that contains the employment and security information for determining if an individual is authorized by the FAA to occupy an aircraft's flight deck jump seat operations is called?

c. CASS

7. Which cargo compartment on a passenger airplane has fire extinguishing equipment built into the compartment that is controllable from the cockpit?

c. Class C

6. Since it is a given that passengers prefer the shortest time in flight, can a carrier publish schedules that are shorter than the competition for competitive advantage knowing that the actual flight will take longer than schedule?

c. No, it can't because 14 CFR §121.541 requires the airline to publish realistic schedules based on realistic evaluation of aircraft performance and prevailing winds. It must also allow reasonable time for aircraft servicing.

10. When may a pilot use his or her personal electronic device (PED) while on duty?

c. Only when its use is directly related to the operation of the aircraft or for emergency, safety-related or certain employment-related communications

7. What is the definition of a critical phase of flight?

c. That period of flight including all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other flight operations conducted below 10,000 feet, unless in level cruise

15. Where could a dispatcher or flight crewmember look to determine that the carrier is authorized to fly to a certain area?

c. The appropriate ops specs paragraph

13. The pilot-in-command of a passenger-carrying airplane that has a lockable cockpit-to-cabin door must ensure the door is closed and locked during which period of aircraft operations?

c. The cockpit-to-cabin door must be closed and locked during flight.

8. In Part 121 domestic operations, when is a destination alternate airport required?

c. When the destination weather is not forecast to be, from 1 hour before scheduled arrival until 1 hour after, a ceiling of 2,000 feet and 3 statute miles visibility

8. Which crew activity would be allowed by the "sterile cockpit rule" (assuming the aircraft is in a critical phase of flight)?

c. While descending, discussing the abnormal procedure dealing with the fact that the flaps are not deploying

14. In a situation in which the gross takeoff weight is limited by climb limit weight, in the event of an engine failure, the Go/No Go decision must be made

c. before reaching V1 speed.

15. Climb limit weight is the maximum weight that guarantees that the aircraft:

c. can proceed from a point 35 feet above the departure end of the runway to 1,500 feet above the runway surface (or specified higher altitude) while maintaining required climb gradients in order to achieve adequate obstacle clearance.

4. 14 CFR §121.613 states that an air carrier may not dispatch an IFR flight under Part 121 unless the weather reports and forecasts indicate that at the time of arrival at the destination airport,

c. conditions will be at or above the authorized landing minimums.

1. In order to carry cargo on the passenger level in a passenger aircraft, the carg

c. must be secured in bins that can withstand 1.15 times the emergency landing g loads or, alternatively, the cargo may be properly restrained behind a bulkhead.

5. The takeoff warning system of a transport category aircraft must operate from the initial portion of the takeoff (application of takeoff power) until

c. the aircraft is rotated for takeoff.

1. The rule requiring all required, installed equipment to be operative is violated when

c. the aircraft takes off.

1. Operational control may be defined as

c. the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

7. How are alternate airport weather minimums derived for an airport with at least two operational navigational facilities, each providing a straight-in nonprecision approach procedure or a straight-in precision approach procedure to different, suitable runways?

d. A ceiling is derived by adding 200 feet to the higher Category I HAT of the two approaches used, and a visibility is derived by adding ½ statute mile to the higher authorized Category I landing minimum of the two approaches used.

18. When a twin-engine aircraft suffers engine failure or an engine is shut down in flight as a precautionary measure to prevent possible damage, the pilot-incommand is required to do what two things?

d. Land the airplane at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made, and notify the appropriate ATC facility as soon as practicable after the engine failure or in flight shutdown.

3. What is the main difference between the load manifest used in domestic and flag operations and the load manifest used in supplemental operations?

d. No difference. Domestic, flag, and supplemental load manifests must contain identical information.

3. To whom may the director of operations, designated by the certificate holder as responsible for operational control, delegate the responsibility for assuring operational control over issues such as initiating, conducting or terminating a flight?

d. None of the above.

5. During ground operations, it is

d. required that each passenger be seated and belts fastened during all movement on the surface.

16. Driftdown altitude is

d. the altitude to which, following the failure of an engine above the one-engine inoperative absolute ceiling, an airplane will descend to and maintain, while using maximum continuous power on the operating engine and maintaining the one-engine inoperative best rate of climb speed.