Air Traffic Basics 1
A runway with a magnetic heading of 003 degrees should be designated Runway _______.
36
An inappropriate cruising altitude for an aircraft flying VFR on a magnetic course of 360 degrees is:
4,500 MSL
A pilot flying VFR must stay at least 2,000 feet laterally from the clouds in class ________ and ________ airspace.
C;D
Question 92
(92)
A pilot has determined the true heading from Oklahoma City to Kansas City is 020°. The magnetic variation is 7°E. What magnetic heading should be flown?
013°
An aircraft departs Denver at 9 P.M. (MST) and travels 3 hours, landing in Boston (EST). What was the aircrafts arrival time UTC? (conversion factor EST to UTC is +5)
0700
If takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a particular airport, the minimum visibility required for an air taxi aircraft having two engines or less is ________ statute mile(s).
1
A nautical mile equals ________ statute miles (SM).
1.15
VFR aircraft in class E airspace at or above ________, must maintain ________ visibility. because there is no speed limit at that altitude.
10,000 MSL; 5SM
100 nautical miles equals ____________ statute miles.
115
2 PM on a 24-hour clock equals _________.
1400
Time zones are established for every ________.
15°of longitude
An aircraft encounters a 20 KT crosswind and makes no heading correction. After 1 hour of flight, how far off course would the aircraft be?
20NM
An airport with three parallel runways with a magnetic heading of 216 degrees would have runway designations of ________.
22R, 22C, 22L
With zero wind, vortices near the ground will travel laterally at a speed of ________ knots.
2to3
A Warning Area is established beyond ________ NM from the coast of the United States.
3
How long would it take an aircraft with a ground speed of 130 knots to fly 650 NM?
5 hours
The purpose of parallels of latitude is for measuring degrees of latitude ________.
5 hours
60 through 64 here
60 - B - Generally extends upward to 10,000 feet MSL A. Class A 61 - B - VFR aircraft need to receive a clearance from ATC to B. Class B enter this airspace(LP, p. 6) 62 - A - Requires all aircraft to be IFR (LP, p. 5) 63 - D - No transponder is required (LP, p. 10 64 - C - VFR aircraft are separated only from IFR aircraft (LP, p. 8)
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding SVFR clearances to fixed wing aircraft?
A SVFR flight plan must be filed
The facility primarily responsible for conducting pilot briefings is the ________.
AFSS
The two subsystems for disseminating aeronautical information are _______.
AIS and NOTAMs
In a Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) facility, who has the responsibility for the safe and efficient operation of a sector?
ARTCC
How do you convert local Daylight Savings Time to UTC?
Add the conversion factor, then subtract 1 hour.
Which document provides the aviation community with basic flight information and ATC procedures?
Aeronautical Information Manual
Who is responsible for observing and reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport?
Airport manager/operator
The air traffic facility that has no direct authority over Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) or Visual Flight Rules (VFR) traffic is the ________.
Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)
What color are taxiway edge lights?
Blue
Which position in the Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) records and disseminates Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) summaries?
Broadcast
The Air Traffic Organization (ATO) is managed by a(n) ________
Chief Operating Officer
What airspace is generally established from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and has an operational control tower?
Class C
What airspace contains federal airways?
Class E
Which of the following duties is not the function of the Clearance Delivery position in the tower? A. Operating communication equipment B. Processing and forwarding flight plan information C. Compiling statistical data D. Issuing clearances and ensuring accuracy of readback
Compiling statistical data
What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7340.2?
Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA
The only line of latitude that is a great circle is the______________.
Equator
Which document prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service specialists?
FAA Order JO 7110.10
A NOTAM that consists of information that is regulatory in nature pertaining to flight, such as changes to IFR charts, is classified as a/an:
FDC NOTAM
Types of Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) are:
FDC, POINTER and MILITARY
Which of the following would not be an assigned flight level? A. FL360 B. FL320 C. FL240 D. FL160
FL160
The upper vertical limit of Class A airspace is ________.
FL600
Who is responsible for originating a NOTAM concerning a navigational aid?
Facility responsible for monitoring or controlling the navigational aid
Which contraction is used to identify General Notices issued by Washington Headquarters?
GENOT
The ________ position in the ATC terminal option is normally responsible for issuing control instructions to aircraft and vehicles operating on the airport movement area (other than active runways).
Ground Control
Downwash is created by ________.
Helicopters
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Military Operations Area (MOA)? A. Identified by the letter "M" plus a number B. Established outside Class A airspace C. Activities include low altitude, high-speed flight D. MOAs are depicted on Sectional Aeronautical and En Route Low altitude charts
Identified by the letter "M" plus a number
Touchdown Zone Lighting (TDZL) and Runway Centerline Lights System (RCLS) are two types of _______.
In-runway lights
_________ is jet engine exhaust.
Jet blast
All of the following represent uses of a non-movement area EXCEPT: A. Loading Passengers B. Landing C. Maintenance D Parking
Landing
What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7350.8?
Lists location identifiers authorized by the FAA
The definition of "wake turbulence" includes a number of phenomenon affecting flight safety. Which of the four choices are not included in the definition? A. Mach buffet B. Rotorwash C. Propeller wash D. Jet blast
Mach buffet
Aircraft operating on an airway at the published MOCA are only guaranteed _________ within __________ of the VOR serving the airway.
NAVAID signal; 22NM
Responsibility for validating NOTAM data and operating the National NOTAM System belongs to _______.
NFDC
A NOTAM that is widely disseminated and applies to civil components of the NAS is classified as a _______.
NOTAM D
Which one of the following items is not required on a VFR flight plan?
Name of each occupant
"Presidential aircraft have priority over Flight Check aircraft" is an example of ________.
Operational Priority
Which of the following statements regarding "VFR on top" (OTP) is true? A. Pilots must request clearance to maintain OTP B. Pilots maintaining OTP are required to obtain ATC approval prior to changing altitude C. Pilots maintaining OTP may, after advising ATC, deviate from their cleared route D. Traffic advisories will not be provided by ATC
Pilots must request clearance to maintain OTP
What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7110.65?
Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers
What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7210.3?
Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic Facilities
The only en route sector team member whose duties do not include accepting handoffs is the ________ position.
Radar Flight Data
In a Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) facility, who has the responsibility for the safe and efficient operation of a sector?
Radar Team
What runway marking extends the full-length runway pavement area?
Runway side stripes
Airspace of defined dimensions, confined activities, and limitations imposed on nonusers is identified as ________ airspace.
Special Use
What document is used to consolidate instructions from different levels into a single directive to avoid having instructions scattered among several directives?
Supplements
The mission of the _______ is to balance air traffic demand with the system's capacity to ensure that the maximum and most efficient utilization of the NAS is maintained.
Traffic Management System (TMS)
The primary Navigational Aids (NAVAIDs) for the nation's airways in the National Airspace System (NAS) are ________.
VORs/VORTACs
Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) is also referred to as ________ time.
Zulu
A pilot operating above 12,500 feet MSL, up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, must use supplemental oxygen ____________.
after 30 minutes of flight
A line connecting points of zero variation is called a(n) ________.
agonic line
In the airport data "18 L 100 122.8" on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart, the number "18" indicates the ________.
airport elevation
At high altitudes, _______.
an aircraft's TAS is significantly higher than it's IAS
Nonradar separation is used in preference to radar separation when ________.
an operational advantage will be gained
The primary mission of the Traffic Management System (TMS) is to ________.
balance system demand with system capacity
A _______ is identified by large chevrons pointing in the direction of the threshold.
blast pad
Runway ________ provide alignment guidance during takeoffs and landings, and consist of a line of uniformly spaced stripes and gaps.
centerlines
A _______ wing allows for a stronger vortex to be generated, because without flaps the wing has a smaller area and wing loading is greater per square foot.
clean configured
Parallels and meridians are divided into ________, minutes and seconds.
degrees
A(n) _______ consists of white arrows which point in the direction of landing, replacing the runway centerline, and beginning at the non-landing portion to the threshold bar.
displaced threshold
A pilot shall file a DVFR flight plan if the flight will ________.
enter coastal ADIZ
Civil land airports have rotating beacons that _______.
flash white and green
Vortices are generated at the moment an aircraft begins to ________.
generate lift
Threshold lights are ________.
green/red
Positions on the earth's surface are described in terms of ________.
latitude and longitude
The Prime Meridian is the ________.
line located at zero degrees (0°) longitude
The primary function of the Traffic Management Unit (TMU) is to ______.
monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility in accordance with traffic management directives
When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word "will" means ________.
not a requirement for application of a procedure
When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word "may" means that the procedure is ________.
optional
Counter control is most effective and roll is minimal when the wingspan and the ailerons extend beyond the ________ of the vortex.
outer edges
Many FAA orders are divided into chapters, sections, and ________.
paragraphs
Circles parallel to the equator are called ________.
parallels of latitude
The basic form of navigation which uses visual reference to landmarks is ________.
pilotage
The primary purpose of the Air Traffic Control System is to ________.
prevent collision and organize and expedite the flow of traffic
An aircraft on an IFR flight plan is in VFR conditions when a two-way radio failure occurs. The pilot shall ________.
proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable
When considering the duty priority of an air traffic controller, first priority is given to ________.
separating aircraft
In FAA Order 7110.65, the word used to specify that a procedure is mandatory is ________.
shall
In FAA Order 7110.65, the word used to specify that a procedure is recommended is ________.
should
The upper limit of Class G airspace is ________.
the base of the overlying airspace
The lower limit of Class B airspace is ________.
the surface
According to their location, ATO air traffic control facilities are assigned to one of ________.
three service areas
The angular difference between true and magnetic north at a given location is called ________.
variation
Revised, reprinted, or new pages in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3 are indicated by bold ________.
vertical lines
