AN Bovine and Caprine

Lakukan tugas rumah & ujian kamu dengan baik sekarang menggunakan Quizwiz!

In cattle how long is stage 2 labor (average)

75 minutes

T/F: Clostridium chauvoei causes malignant edema in cattle

False, Malignant edema is caused by Clostridium septicum

T/F: The California Mastitis Test can identify the bacterial species responsible for causing mastitis

False, it can only tell you if the cow is affected and by how much

T/F: Water should be withheld from all sheep and goats prior to surgery.

False, only food

T/F: Chemical castration may be performed at any age, depending on owner preference

False, only used on calves 150 lbs or less

T/F: Patent urachus is common in calves

False, rarely seen in cattle

T/F: One advantage of intramammary antibiotic infusions is that there is no withdrawal time for clearance of drug residues from the animal's milk.

False, there is

T/F: Grasping a goat by the beard is never an acceptable form of head restraint

False, with one hand you can grasp the beard while the other arm is placed around the neck to control the head

T/F: Regular hoof trimming, regular use of footbaths, and management to eliminate moist ground conditions are the most important preventative measures for anthrax

False: The best way is to vaccinate, esp if you are in a know anthrax risk area

T/F: Delayed castration completely prevents obstructions of the urethra

False: but it can reduce obstructions of the urethra

Delivery of liquid oral medication directly into the oral cavity of the bovine is referred to as?

Drenching

The preferred sample for strip cup examination is...?

Foremilk

T/F: Chemical cautery may be used to destroy and remove mature (developed) horns.

False

T/F: Culture of milk is absolutely necessary to diagnosis mastitis in cattle because it is that difficult to diagnose

False

T/F: It is an accepted practice to give a drug via the subcutaneous route to reduce the incident of injection site blemishes even if the drug is not approved for subcutaneous administration by the FDA.

False

T/F: Meat from animals euthanized with intravenous injection of barbituric acid derivatives is safe and legal for human consumption, provided the meat is cooked thoroughly.

False

T/F: The anatomy of the urethra of male ruminants allows the bladder to be easily catheterized

False

T/F: The presence of any ketones in the milk or urine is diagnostic for ketosis in a periparturient cow

False

T/F: The ruminant's head should be kept in an elevated position to prevent regurgitation during passage of the stomach (rumen) tube.

False

Pinkeye is caused by which bacteria?

Moraxella bovis

The key anatomic part of a bovine animal that is used strategically to herd and direct cattle is the:

Point of Shoulder

A sheep's most common response in a fearful situation is to...?

Run away

The most common location for venous sampling of caprine and ovine is the...?

Jugular vein

T/F: Anthrax is commonly caused by Bacillus anthracis

True

T/F: Bleeding from the orifices and the absence of rigor mortis are clinical signs of anthrax

True

T/F: Brucellosis is caused by a gram-negative bacteria

True

T/F: Bulls may develop orchitis and epididymitis when infected with brucellosis

True

T/F: Castration of male goats may not completely eliminate self-urination behavior in goats

True

T/F: Cattle diagnosed with blackleg are often found dead.

True

T/F: Colostrum from beef-breed females typically has a higher immunoglobulin (IgG) content.

True

T/F: Contagious ecthyma is zoonotic

True

T/F: Control of liver fluke infestation is extremely important in the prevention of black disease of ovines.

True

T/F: Dystocia is more common is sheep than in goats

True

T/F: Early castration of sheep and goats can retard the full development of the penile urethra

True

T/F: Johne disease is also known as paratuberculosis

True

T/F: Lactating dairy cows have large prominent mild veins that are easily identified. However, these veins are not used for blood sampling because they are prone to prolonged bleeding and large hematoma formations.

True

T/F: Mastitis seldom involves an entire udder

True

T/F: Necrotic muscle is often found upon necropsy in animals infected with Clostridium chauvoei

True

T/F: One of the clinical signs of listeriosis is a circling behavior

True

T/F: Outbreaks of anthrax often occur in endemic areas after flooding

True

T/F: Ruminants are more sensitive to xylazine than equines.

True

T/F: Ruminants have gall bladders

True

T/F: Sheep are rarely dehorned

True

T/F: Suffolk sheep are the most common breed diagnosed with scrapie

True

T/F: The most common evidence of toxoplasma in sheep and goats is white, chalky foci of necrosis and calcification up to 2 mm in diameter in the cotyledons.

True

T/F: The passage of the stomach (rumen) tube may stimulate regurgitation

True

T/F: Umbilical herniation is the most common congenital defect in cattle

True

T/F: When performing gastric intubation in cattle, orogastric is more common than nasogastric

True

T/F: With Actinomyces, the bacteria often gain entrance into the body via lacerations in the oral cavity

True

What is scrapie?

Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies (TSE) which is caused by a prion

Intramammary infusions are used to...?

Treat mastitis and are best performed after milking

Intravenous regional anesthesia is used primarily for procedures on the...?

legs

Lameness in the herd can cause...?

drop in body weight, delayed estrus, and shortened lactation

What is the primary risk factor for the development of neonatal bacterial septicemia in calves is?

failure of passive transfer of antibodies from the dam

Poorly sized stalls at a dairy can result in....

feet problems, teat injury, bruised udders

What is the gross appearance of the capsular surface of the normal bovine kidney is?

multilobulated ("bunch of grapes")

When considering watering devices or buckets for cattle it is important to note...?

that the minimum fill rate is 3 gal/min and that the water level is high enough so the cow can see out while she is drinking

How do bacteria typically gain entrance to the cow's udder?

through the streak canal, just after milking

Blood samples drawn from the coccygeal vein in the bovine should be obtained...?

through the ventral aspect of the tail, in the proximal third of the tail

What is the ideal temperature for maximum milk production?

~50*F

After milking, the teat orifice/streak canal remains open for how long?

1-2 hours

On average, calves should stand and nurse within ____ hours

1-2 hours

What is an acceptable rate of overstocking a dairy barn which will not have negative effects on cattle comfort and production?

10%

As a general guideline, a calf should consume what percentage of its body weight in colostrum in the first 24 ours of life?

10-15%

The average Holstein consumes ___ gallons of water each day

30-40 gal

Which of the following lameness scores indicates a severely lame animal? 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

5

Which of the following drugs can be used for caudal epidural anesthesia? (Lidocaine w/o epi, Mepivacaine, Xylazine, Bupivacaine)

ALL: Lidocaine w/o epi, Mepivacaine, Xylazine, Bupivacaine

Calves are normally delivered in....

Anterior Presentation

What is the primary risk associated with regurgitation in ruminants?

Aspiration of regurgitated material into the trachea and lungs

What does Clostridium chauvoei cause?

Black leg in Cattle and Big head in sheep

A squeeze chute is typically used for restraint of which ruminant species?

Cattle

The standard location for routine tuberculosis testing in ruminants is...?

Caudal Tail Fold

What is the method for local anesthesia providing analgesia for surgery for prolapses of the uterus, vagina and rectum?

Caudal epidural

What is the standard location for routine tuberculosis testing in ruminants is?

Caudal tail fold

A method of castration performed without incising the skin is referred to as?

Closed castration

What is the most important treatment of calf scours?

Correct and/or prevent dehydration

Closed castration is performed with...

Emasculatome, Elastrator, Burdizzo Emasculatome, Chemical Injection

Foot rot is caused by....?

Fusobacterium necrophorum

T/F: Feeding magnets is a prevention for what disease?

Hardware's disease

Aggression in the goat is usually expressed as...?

Head Butting

What do commercial mild replacers provide?

Nutritional support and immunoglobulins (IgG)

When removing the left horn of a sheep, how many nerves need to be blocked?

One

Which of the following diseases has a vaccine that is given by scratching the skin in an "X" shape?

Orf

What is OPP?

Ovian Progressive Pneumonia which is caused by a virus, sheep are affected more then goats

When removing an endotracheal tube from a ruminant, the inflatable cuff should be?

Partially inflated

Another name for infectious bovine rhinotracheitis is...?

Red nose

The preferred patient positioning for a ruminant recovering from anesthesia is

Sternal Recumbency

The preferred patient positioning for a ruminant recovering from anesthesia is?

Sternal recumbency

When mastitis occurs in the absence of clinical signs and must be detected through special diagnostic tests it is referred to as...?

Subclinical mastitis

What is the treatment for BSE?

There is no treatment

Prior to a standing surgical procedure, a veterinarian performs a proximal paravertebral block on the right side of an animal. Several minutes later, the animal is observed to have a lateral spine/body curvature (scoliosis) toward its right side (body bowed with right side convex, left side concave). What is the appropriate course of action?

This is a normal and expected response to a proximal paravertebral block; no action is necessary

Which type of goat has two white stripes down its face?

Toggenburg

To desensitize both horns for a cattle dehorning surgery, how many nerve blocks (total) must be performed?

Two

Which of the following measures is/are used to reduce the risks of regurgitation during general anesthesia of the bovine?

Use a cuffed endotracheal tube, Restrict food and water intake prior to anesthesia, Rapid intubation of the trachea with minimal stimulation of the pharynx and larynx

The most important need of newborn calves is?

a patent airway

A milk sample somatic cell count of 100,000 would be interpreted as...

negative (over 200,000 would be positive)

Caseous lymphadenitis is a disease typically seen in...?

sheep and goats

A client calls with a concern about a cow giving birth. The cow entered stage 2 of labor and has been straining for 90 minutes without any progress made in delivering the fetus. What is the proper course of action

the delivery should be treated as a dystocia, and a veterinarian should be immediately consulted

Ruminant necropsy is usually performed with the animal in left lateral recumbency because...?

the rumen will be on the down side where it interferes minimally with abdominal exploration and visualization.


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