ASCP Board of Certification MLT Computer Adaptive Practice Test
Given the following information, calculate the results in mg/24hr urine protein. Total volume = 2400mL Urine protein = 2.7 mg/dL A: 64.8 mg/24hrs B: 10.87 mg/24hrs C: 57.5 mg/24hrs D: 5.89 mg/24hrs **This is a Level 7 Question**
2.7 * 2400 * 1/100 = 64.8 mg/24hr A
A sample of CSF is diluted 1:100; the standard 9 squares of a hemocytometer are counted on each side for a total of 18 large squares. Side 1 - 186 nucleated cells counted Side 2 - 184 nucleated cells counted Total nucleated cells = 370 Using the standard hemocytometer formula shown, what is the nucleated cell count per uL? A: 1.03 * 10^4 B: 2.06 * 10^4 C: 4.12 * 10^4 D: 8.24 * 10^4 **This is a Level 3 Question**
370 * 100 / 18 * 0.1 = Cells/uL 37000 / 1.8 = 20556 or 2.06 * 10^4 B
The PPD test is also know as: A: Targeted tuberculin testing B: RPR C: QuantiFERON assay D: SPOT TB assay **This is a Level 5 Question**
A
The image is a Wright-Giemsa stained CSF smear (1000x). What structures are indicated by the arrows? A: Bacteria B: PLTs C: Stain precipitate D: Malarial parasites **This is a Level 3 Question**
A
This serum protein electrophoresis scan most likely represents which condition? A: Chronic inflammation B: Myocardial infarction C: Liver disease D: Monoclonal gammopathy **This is a Level 6 Question**
A
When administering FFP, which one of the following is considered standard blood bank practice? A: Should be ABO compatible with the recipient's RBCs B: Must be the same Rh type as the patient C: Is appropriate for use as a volume expander D: Component should remain frozen when it is issued **This is a Level 3 Question**
A
When is a CLIA certificate of compliance issued for a lab? A: When an inspection finds the lab to be in compliance with all applicable CLIA requirements B: When a physician, midlevel practitioner, or dentist performs no test other than the microscopy procedures C: When only waived testing will be performed D: When the lab's accreditation by an accreditation organization is approved by the HCFA **This is a Level 5 Question**
A
A normal HGB molecule is comprised of the following: A: ferrous iron & 4 globin chains B: 4 heme & 4 globin chains C: 4 heme & 1 globin chain D: 1 heme & 4 globin chains **This is a Level 4 Question**
B
A patient who demonstrates a history of an allergic reaction from red cell transfusions will benefit from receiving which red cell component? A: FRBCs B: Washed RBCs C: IRBCs D: LRRBCs **This is a Level 5 Question**
B
All of the organisms listed below are matched with the most likely clinical condition found in patients with that organism, EXCEPT: A: E.Coli, serogroup O157H7 - HUS B: Strep pneumoniae - cellulitis C: K. pneimoniae - lobar pneumonia D: Y. enterocolotica - transfusion induced sepsis **This is a Level 4 Question**
B
An MCV is reported by the instrument as 82fL. MCV is flagged with a delta check alert as the precious MCV reported on this patient 12-hours earlier was 97 fL. What is a possible cause for this discrepancy? A: Transfusion B: The specimens are NOT from the same patient C: Acute hemorrhage D: The second specimen was hemolyzed **This is a Level 6 Question**
B
Antibodies directed against granulocyte antigens have been implicated for all of the following EXCEPT? A: Febrile transfusion reactions B: Acute hemolytic transfusion reactions C: TRALI D: NAN **This is a Level 5 Question**
B
Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions are usually caused by antibodies directed against what blood group system? A: MNS B: Kidd C: Kell D: ABO **This is a Level 3 Question**
B
To screen for UTIs, leukocyte esterase results should be evaluated along with the results from which of these other reagent strip tests? A: Urobilinogen B: Bilirubin C: Nitrite D: Glucose **This is a Level 2 Question**
C
When a group O patient's serum is NOT compatible with donor O RBCs & the auto control is negative, what is the MOST likely cause? A: Warm autoantibodies B: Cold autoantibodies C: Bombay phenotype D: A2 phenotype **This is a Level 4 Question**
C
A maternal sample is collected 2hrs after delivery & a T&S is weakly positive & an anti-D is ID. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the positive antibody screen? A: Passive anti-D from RhIG given at 28 weeks B: Anti-D formed during delivery C: Anti-D in neonate D: False positive result **This is a Level 5 Question**
A
A secondary immune response is generally associated with which of the following antibodies? A: IgG B: IgA C: IgM D: IgD **This is a Level 2 Question**
A
A2B is suspected when a patient's ABO typing has the following results: A: Patient's red cells forward types as AB with anti-A1 present in the patient's serum B: Patient's red cells forward type as A with anti-A1 & anti-B present in the patient's serum C: Patient's red cells do not react with either anti-A or anti-B, & anti-A1 & anti-B are present in the patient's serum D: Patient's red cells forward types as A with a mixed field reaction of the patient's red cells with anti-A & anti-B detected in the patient's serum **This is a Level 5 Question**
A
For transfusion services in the US, which of the following incidents must be reported to the FDA because of a biological product deviation? A: A unit was issued with an incorrect expiration date was incorrectly marked as 1 day earlier than the actual date B: A nurse in ICU misidentified the patient & initiated the transfusion of Rh positive blood to an Rh negative patient C: The wrong specimen was used to crossmatch a unit & the unit was issued D: Donor reports information that is disqualifying based on revise questions. Previous collected units were distributed **This is a Level 6 Question**
C
The process of freeze-drying of bacteria is called: A: Agglutination B: Inhibition C: Lyophilization D: Precipitation **This is a Level 2 Question**
C
What is the role of albuminuria testing? A: Monitor diabetic patient carbohydrate management B: Detect serum albumin levels in early renal disease C: Detect small urinary concentrations of albumin before there is irreparable renal damage D: Diagnose renal failure in a type 1 diabetic patient **This is a Level 4 Question**
C
Which derivative of PCR testing uses short primers not specifically complementary to a particular sequence of a target DNA? A: Multiplex PCR B: Nested C: Arbitrary primed PCR D: Quantitative PCR **This is a Level 5 Question**
C
Which of the following is LEAST likely to interfere with the measurement of HGB? A: Icteric plasma B: Lipemia C: Cold agglutinin D: Leukocytosis **This is a Level 8 Question**
C
Which of the following microscopic techniques is best suited for direct exam of the infectious agent of syphilis? A: Light B: Phase-contrast C: Dark-field D: Electron **This is a Level 4 Question**
C
Which of the following organisms is BEST VISUALIZED by use of a darkfield microscope? A: Poxviridae B: Entamoeba C: Borrelia D: Streptococcus **This is a Level 5 Question**
C
Which of the following tests on amniotic fluid would be included when assessing fetal lung maturity: A: Alpha Fetoprotein B: Bilirubin C: L/S Ratio D: Fetal HGB **This is a Level 8 Question**
C
Which of the following viruses or diseases is screened for in blood donors only using questions asked during the donor screening & selection process? A: Hepatitis B B: West Nile Virus C: Malaria D: HIV **This is a Level 4 Question**
C
Which symptom of HDFN is associated with low levels of glucuronyl transferase? A: Anemia B: Increased retic count C: Jaundice D: Cardiac failure **This is a Level 3 Question**
C
Within what period of time after performance of the TB skin test should the result be read? A: Immediately B: 12-24 hours C: 48-72 hours D: 5-7 days **This is a Level 2 Question**
C
According to the OSHA bloodborne Pathogens Standard, how often should work surfaces in the lab be decontaminated with an appropriate disinfected? A: if blood or other potentially infectious material has spilled on the work surface B: Every 3-4 days C: Once a week D: Once a month **This is a Level 1 Question**
A
All the following are reasons for conducting compatibility testing EXCEPT: A: Prevent recipient alloimmunization B: Verify ABO & Rh C: Select proper blood products D: Detect antibodies against donor cells **This is a Level 6 Question**
A
Disorders in which coarse basophilic stippling can be seen are in all of the following except? A: Polycythemia B: Thalassemia C: Disorders of abnormal heme synthesis D: Lead poisoning **This is a Level 5 Question**
A
In what trimester is there the greatest risk for the manifestation of complications in maternal rubella infection? A: First B: Second C: Third D: Delivery **This is a Level 5 Question**
A
This cestode is commonly associated with dogs & cats but may also be transmitted to humans through the ingestion of dog & cat fleas that contain the cysticercoid stage of the parasite. Lab diagnosis may be made by observing groups of egg packets, as see in the diagram, in the stool. A: Dipylidium caninum B: Hymenolepis nana C: Taenia saginata D: E. granulosus **This is a Level 6 Question**
A
Thymic hypoplasia is a/an: A: Congenital T-cell disorder B: Congenital B-cell disorder C: Acquired T-cell disorder D: Acquired B-cell disorder **This is a Level 5 Question**
A
What 3 HBV early markers are detected in serum during the first 2-months after infection? A: HBsAG, HBeAG, anti-HBc B: HBeAG, anti-HBe, anti-HBs C: Anti-HBc, anti-HBs, anti-HBe D: HBsAG, anti-HBs, anti-HBe **This is a Level 3 Question**
A
What is the nucleated blood cell in this image? A: Seg neutrophil B: Band neutrophil C: Eosinophil D: Basophil **This is a Level 1 Question**
A
What must be true for the antiglobulin phase of the serologic crossmatch to be omitted (immediate spin crossmatch is done)? A: The antibody screen must be negative & there is not history of detection of unexpected antibodies B: The patient has not been tranfused within the past 24 hours C: The blood is needed for surgery D: There is a history of detection of unexpected antibodies but the current antibody screen is negative **This is a Level 2 Question**
A
What is the coefficient of variation for this creatine testing method? Use (Mean = 0.97mg/dL, SD = 0.07mg/dL). A: 13.86% B: 0.72% C: 1.39% D: 7.22% **This is a Level 6 Question**
CV% = (SD/Mean) * 100 (0.07 / 0.97) * 100 = (0.0722) * 100 CV% = 7.22% D
A cancer patient was admitted to the hospital with fever, tachycardia, & a drop on blood pressure. Due to the patient being treated for cancer, her chemotherapy had been administrated through an intravenous catheter. To rule out a catheter-related infection, the physician ordered 2 sets of blood cultures with 1 set collected from the catheter site & the 2nd set being collected by venipuncture. After 48hrs, the patient had positive blood cultures that grew Staphylococcus epidermidis. How will the physician know if the Staphylococcus epidermidis present is sue to an infected catheter or is contaminant? A: Both blood cultures must have no growth B: The blood culture collected via venipuncture will be positive while the catheter will be negative C: The blood culture collected via venipuncture must always be negative D: Both blood cultures will be positive **This is a Level 5 Question**
D
A false-negative reaction while performing the DAT technique may be the result of: A: Red cell/AHG tube is over centrifuged B: Blood collected in tube containing silicone gel C: Saline used for wash stored in glass or metal container D: AHG addition delayed for 40+ min **This is a Level 4 Question**
D
Which blood component is the most commonly used component for the replacement of multiple coagulation factor deficiencies in bleeding pateints? A: FFP B: RBCs C: Cryoprecipitate D: Whole Blood **This is a Level 5 Question**
A
Which coagulation factor is found ONLY in the extrinsic pathway? A: VII B: VIII C: IX D: X **This is a Level 4 Question**
A
Which lab assay is a highly specific indicator & the most sensitive assay for a diagnosis of RA? A: CCP B: SSC C: LPA D: CRP agglutination **This is a Level 6 Question**
A
Which of the following RBC inclusions is seen in this photomicrograph? A: Plasmodium species intracellular ring form B: Cabot ring C: HJ body D: Pappenheimer bodies **This is a Level 3 Question**
A
Which of the following is a TRUE statement when performing maintenance for repair tasks on electrical equipment? A: Lockout is the physical placement of a device on the breaker or the placement of the plug into a canister to prevent its use B: The OSHA does NOT have any standards that are aimed at protecting workers from injury when performing maintenance or repair tasks on electrical equipment C: It is unnecessary to take any additional measures when performing repairs on a piece of equipment, except to turn it off D: Always us 2-prong electrical plugs for all equipment **This is a Level 5 Question**
A
Which of the following lab results would you find with DIC but NOT with TTP or HUS? A: Prolonged PT & PTT B: Thrombocytopenia C: Schistocytes on the peripheral blood smear D: Elevated LDH **This is a Level 6 Question**
A
Which of the following situations suggest a traumatic tap occured? A: More blood is in the tube 1 than tubes 2-4 B: Immediate centrifugation reveals pink supernatant C: All collected specimens have an oily appearance D: 3+ turbidity is present **This is a Level 1 Question**
A
EMIT differ from all other types of enzyme immunoassays in that: A: Lysozyme is the only enzyme used to label the hapten molecule B: No separation of bound & free antigen is required C: Inhibition of the enzyme label is accomplished with polyethylene glycol D: Antibody absorption to polystyrene tubes precludes competition to labeled & free antigens **This is a Level 5 Question**
B
Healthcare professionals are faced with ethical decisions, often on a daily basis. What should be the basis for all decisions made in the healthcare environment? A: The financial state of the healthcare facility B: Patient welfare & safety C: Getting a good performance review D: Getting a good patient review **This is a Level 1 Question**
B
Which of the following errors occurs in the post-analytical phase? A: Wrong test ordered B: Incorrectly handled critical test value C: Incorrectly collected sample D; Incorrectly performed instrument calibration **This is a Level 9 Question**
B
Which of the following is an example of a desirable characteristic of a POCT analyzer? A: Complex to use & requires extensive testing B: Method accuracy & comparability to the main lab method C: Stationary, unable to transport D: Manual patient ID entry **This is a Level 5 Question**
B
Which of the procedures listed below will increase the PLT concentration in the preparation of PLTs? A: Centrifuge the blood at a low speed, remove the plasma & spin the plasma again at a low speed. B: Centrifuge the blood at a low speed, remove the plasma & spin the plasma again at a high speed C: Centrifuge the blood at a high speed, remove the plasma & spin the plasma again at a high speed D: Decrease the duration of rotation of the initial spin **This is a Level 3 Question**
B
2 CSF specimens were sent to the lab with the following results: Tube 1 = 11,200 rbc/uL Tube 2 = 300 rbc/uL The results on these CSF specimens are indicative of: A: An infection B: A recent subarachnoid hemorrhage C: Traumatic tap D: An old intracranial bleeding episode **This is a Level 1 Question**
C
The prozone effect can be described by all the following EXCEPT: A: Results in a false negative reaction B: The result of antibody excess C: Dilution of antibody can help prevent its occurrence D: Results in a false positive reaction **This is a Level 5 Question**
D
When following sentinel lab procedures & protocols, any isolate that cannot be ruled out as one of the "select agents" that might be used in acts of bioterrorism should be: A: Immediately ID to the species level & reported to the LRN reference lab B: Definitively characterized as a "select agent" C: Subjected to confirmatory testing in-house D: Immediately referred to the nearest LRN reference lab **This is a Level 5 Question**
D
The colonies seen in the upper frame, grown after 48hrs of incubation aerobically at 35 degrees C, & the accompanying Gram stain in the lower frame are of an organism uncommonly associated with human disease; however, this organism has been associated with septicemia, bronchopneumonia, osteomyelitis & other infection, particularly in intravenous drug users. What is the most likely ID of the organism? A: Clostridium septicum B: Bacillus circulans C: Listeria monocytogenes D: Lactobacillus species **This is a Level 6 Question**
B
The constituents that indicated by the arrows in this image of stained urine sediment are: A: RBCs B: Yeast C: Renal Epi cells D: WBCs **This is a Level 1 Question**
B
The historical medium of choice for isolation of Francisella is: A: Chocolate agar B: Cysteine blood glucose agar C: Modified Thayer-Martin agar D: MacConkey agar **This is a Level 4 Question**
B
The amoeba that inhabits the gumline of the mouth is known as: A: Entamoeba polecki B: Trichomonas tenax C: Entamoeba gingivalis D: Acanthamoeba species **This is a Level 1 Question**
C
what description applies tot he cells that are indicated by the arrows? A: Normocytosis B: Microcytosis C: Macrocytosis D: Anisocytosis **This is a Level 4 Question**
C
For granulocyte concentrations, all of the following lab tests must be performed on the unit by the donor center EXCEPT? A: ABO/Rh B: Red cell antibodies C: Infectious disease markers D: Lymphocyte enumeration **This is a Level 5 Question**
D
The bone marrow in alpha thalassemia major usually demonstrates: A: Normoplasia B: Hypoplasia C: Aplasia D: Hyperplasia **This is a Level 6 Question**
D
A 67-year-old man was seen in the ER complaining of a cough, fever, & piercing right posterior chest pain. X-ray of the chest revealed consolidation of the right middle lobe of the lung. Sputum culture grew the bacterial species shown to the right. The lower photomicrograph illustrates a gram-stain o the sputum specimen. The most likely cause of the pneumonia is: A: Klebsiella pneumoniae B: Enterococcus faecalis C: Staphylococcus intermedius D: Streptococcus pneumoniae **This is a Level 4 Question**
D
All the following conditions are associated with polyclonal (broadbased) increase in gamma globulins EXCEPT? A: Liver disease B: Chronic inflammation C: Immune reaction D: Immunodeficiency **This is a Level 4 Question**
D
When performing POC urinalysis, which of the following urine specimens would be acceptable for testing? A: Urine portion from a 24-hour urine collection in which HCl acid is used as a preservative, submitted at RT. B: Urine submitted in a clean, disposable, leak-resistant container that has been frozen for 10 days C: urine submitted in a clean, disposable, leak-resistant container that has been at RT overnight D: Urine submitted 8-hours after collection in transport tube containing a approved preservative for urinalysis testing **This is a Level 1 Question**
D
A patient is admitted to the ED with lethargy & pallor. The CBC results are as follows: RBC = 4.1x10^12/L HGB = 7.9 g/dL HCT = 29% How would you classify this anemia? A: Microcytic, hypochromic B: Normocytic, normochromic C: Macrocytic, normochromic D: Microcytic, hyperchromic **This is a Level 2 Question**
MCV = (HCT/RBC) MCV = (29/4.1) MCV = (71) (L) MCHC = (HGB/HCT * 100) MCHC = (7.9/29 * 100) MCHC = 27% (L) A
In which of the following conditions would you NOT except to find HJ bodies? A: Sickle cell anemia B: Iron deficiency anemia C: Post splenectomy D: Megaloblastic anemia **This is a Level 5 Question**
B
Patients with antibody to the following antigen are immune to Hepatitis B: A: Core Antigen B: Surface antigen C: e antigen D: Delta antigen **This is a Level 4 Question**
B
Proteolytic enzyme techniques may be useful in ID which of the following antigen groups? A: Kell B: Kidd C: MNS D: Duffy **This is a Level 5 Question**
B
The following diagram demonstrates 2 SPEP patterns from different patients. The pattern on the left is from a normal, healthy patient. The pattern on the right is from a patient with a particular disorder. What abnormality is suggested by the pattern on the right? A: Alpha-1-antitrysin deficiency B: X-linked agammaglobulinemia C: Nephrotic syndrome D: Acute inflammation **This is a Level 2 Question**
B
This malaria pathogen is associated with massive hemolysis, blackwater fever, & blockage of capillaries: A: Plasmodium vivax B: Plasmodium falciparum C: Plasmodium ovale D: Plasmodium malariae **This is a Level 4 Question**
B
Varied RBC morphologies due to pitting, culling, filtering, & the persistence of abnormal RBCs in the peripheral blood is most likely due to what? A: Cirrhosis of the liver B: Splenectomy C: Incompatible D: Autosomal recessive trait **This is a Level 4 Question**
B
What element is indicate by the arrow on this slide? A: Finely granular cast B: Waxy cast C: Cylindroid D: WBCs **This is a Level 2 Question**
B
What is the phenotypic property of Saccharomyces yeast species that helps establish its species ID? A: Polysaccharide capsule B: Ascospore production C: Trehalose assimilation D: Slow growing yeast **This is a Level 7 Question**
B
What sugar configuration is necessary as a base for attachment of other sugars to produce ABO antigens? A: Galactose + fucose B: Glucose + fucose C: N-acetylgalactosamine + fucose D: D-galactose + fucose **This is a Level 5 Question**
A
Which of the following is true of the classic Bombay phenotype? A: 2 h genes are inherited at the H locus B: H substance is present C: A antigen is present D: B antigen is present **This is a Level 2 Question**
A
Among the non-fermenters, which of the following is the only bacterial species to produce hydrolyze esculin? A: Paracoccus yeei B: Psychrobacter immobulis C: Shewanella putrifaciens D: Rhizobium radiobacter **This is a Level 7 Question**
D
Nephelometry & turbidimetry measure different properties of: A: Fluorescence in turbid solutions B: Free ions in solution C: UV light at 360nm D: Light transmission & scatter by particles in suspension **This is a Level 2 Question**
D
Suppose a patient with stiffness in her fingers has a positive ANA test with a centromere pattern at a 1:1280 titer. What is the most likely diagnosis? A: SLE B: RA C: Sjogren's syndrome D: CREST syndrome **This is a Level 7 Question**
D
An aerobic Gram-Negative coccobacillus was isolated from a nasopharyngeal swab 48 hours after culture from a 6-month-old with the following culture characteristics on Bordet-Gengou agar: Small zone of Beta-hemolysis Urease: Positive (24hrs) Oxidase: Negative Motility: Negative The MOST probable ID of this isolate is: A: Pasteurella multocida B: Bordetella pertussis C: Bordetella parapertussis D: Bordetella bronchiseptica **This is a Level 8 Question**
C
An indirect latex agglutination assay was used to test for CRP in a patient sample. The results of the serial dilution are provided in the image.. Choose the correct reportable result (titer): A: Positive 1:3 B: Positive 1:6 C: Positive 1:12 D: Positive 1:24 **This is a Level 2 Question**
C
Antibodies of which of the following immunoglobulins subclasses is predominantly associated with the secondary antibody response? A: IgA B: IgD C: IgG D: IgM **This is a Level 2 Question**
C
Cholesterol is used by the body for which of the following functions? A: Carrying dietary triglycerides to the cells through the blood B: Maintaining acid-base balance C: Precursor of hormone synthesis D: Major source of fuel for the body **This is a Level 5 Question**
C
If an R1r patient received R2R2 blood, which of these antibodies could be produced? A: Anti-c B: Anti-D C: Anti-E D: Anti-ce **This is a Level 5 Question**
C
Illustrated in the upper image is a stained histological section of a bowel showing a heavy inflammatory reaction within which 10-12um spherical cysts are observed. the lower image is a close-up view of one of the organisms from a smear preparation of the exudate. There is a distinctive central karyosome, even distribution of the ring of chromatin, & the finely granular cytoplasm. What disease can be presumptively reported? A: Giardiasis B: Balantidiasis C: Amebiasis D: Cysticercosis **This is a Level 4 Question**
C
PLT satellitium is most likely to cause which of the following erroneous results? A: Falsely increase WBC count B: Falsely decreased RBC count C: Falsely decreased PLT count D: Falsely decreased HGB level **This is a Level 3 Question**
C
Representative assays in the category of treponemal methods include the listed assays EXCEPT: A: Chemiluminescent immunoassays B: Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays C: Venereal Disease Research Lab Test D: FTA-ABS **This is a Level 5 Question**
C
A patient had a differential diagnoses of SLE. Lab results: ANA = Positive (homogeneous pattern), titer: 1:320 RA = Positive Complement = decreased All of the following specific lab tests meet the criteria for a definitive diagnosis of SLE, EXCEPT? A: A positive ANA B: Sm antibodies C: dsDNA antibodies D: RNP antibodies **This is a Level 6 Question**
D
What is the MOST LIKELY cause of the ABO discrepancy when the following results were obtained from a first-time 29-year-old, blood donor? Forward: Anti-A = Negative; Anti-B = Negative Reverse: A1 cells = Negative; B cells = 3+ A: Loss of antigen due to disease B: Acquired B C: Low immunoglobulin levels D: Weak subgroup of A **This is a Level 4 Question**
D
Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of PCH? A: Patient population: children & young adults B: Pathogenesis: following viral infection C: Site of hemolysis: intravascular D: Autoantibody class: IgM **This is a Level 6 Question**
D
Which test is performed to asses the average plasma glucose level that an individual maintained during the previous 10-12 weeks? A: Plasma glucose B: 2-hr postprandial glucose C: Oral glucose tolerance D: Glycosylated HGB **This is a Level 2 Question**
D
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized y a large (usually 20-fold) elevation of: A: Cholecystokinin B: Pepsin C: Glucagon D: Gastrin **This is a Level 5 Question**
D
2 techs performed E.coli O157:H7 serotyping on a suspected colony. The serotyping uses the O157 somatic antigen as the target for agglutination. 1st tech performed QC & patient samples by using a suspension of the colony & latex reagent. the results reported by the tech were positive. 2nd tech also did the serotyping using QC & patient samples by using a suspension of the colony, latex reagent, & isolate suspension with the negative control. 2nd tech's results were negative. QC passed in all testing. Why did the techs obtain different results for the serotyping? A: 2nd tech tested the suspension with negative control B: 1st tech did not make a large enough suspension of the organism C: 1st tech should have heated the organism before serotyping D: 2nd tech should have refrigerated the organism before serotyping **This is a Level 5 Question**
A
Which of the following items must be labeled with a biohazard label or be colored red/orange to indicate it is a biohazard? A: A container that is used for disposal of needles in the blood collection area B:A tube of blood that is placed into a biohazard bag for transport C: A unit of blood that will be used for transfusion D: A bottle of breast milk to be discarded form the refrigerator in the NICU **This is a Level 2 Question**
A
Which of the following statements concerning Tamm-Horsfall protein is FALSE? A: It is the protein that is predominantly detected by a urine reagent strip test B: Hyaline casts are formed by this protein in the distal tubule C: It acts as a coating & lubricant in the tubules D: It is produced by the tubules **This is a Level 4 Question**
A
Which of these methods are used to ID prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A: TST or blood tests known as interferon-gamma release assays B: Gram stain C: WBC count D: Tissue sample **This is a Level 1 Question**
A
All of the following would be represented in the usual classification of anemia EXCEPT: A: Microcytic, hypochromic B: Normocytic, normochromic C: Normocytic, hyperchromic D: Macrocytic **This is a Level 6 Question**
C
All the following cellular antigens are important to an immunohematologist EXCEPT: A: Blood group antigens B: Histocompatibility antigens C: Haptens D: Autoantigens **This is a Level 2 Question**
C
Among the most common causes of specimen rejection, which of the following is considered to be the most preventable with precautions taken during sample collection & handling? A: Icterus B: Lipemia C: Hemolysis D: Viscosity **This is a Level 1 Question**
C
