ATI Pharm Made Easy 4.0: Cardiovascular System

A client is placed on a low-sodium (500 mg/day) diet. Which client statement indicates that the nurse's nutrition teaching plan has been effective?

"I chose broiled chicken with a baked potato for dinner."

A nurse is educating a client about monitoring blood pressure readings at home. What will the nurse be sure to emphasize?

"Sit quietly for 5 minutes prior to taking blood pressure."

The nurse is administering medications on a medical-surgical unit. A client is ordered to receive 40 mg oral nadolol for the treatment of hypertension. Before administering the medication, the nurse should.

Check the client's heart rate.

A client is receiving fosinopril. Which adverse effect would the nurse caution the client about to help to promote compliance?

Cough

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for quinidine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include? A) "Monitor your pulse rate and report changes." B) "Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking this medication." C) "This medication can decrease digoxin levels." D) "This medication can cause urinary incontinence."

A) "Monitor your pulse rate and report changes. "Sodium channel blockers, like quinidine, can worsen dysrhythmias, or cause new ones. The nurse should teach the client to monitor their pulse rate and report changes from prescribed parameters. It can be helpful to instruct the client to keep a written record of their pulse rate for the provider.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for quinidine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include? A) "Monitor your pulse rate and report changes." B) "Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking this medication." C) "This medication can decrease digoxin levels." D) "This medication can cause urinary incontinence."

A) "Monitor your pulse rate and report changes." Sodium channel blockers, like quinidine, can worsen dysrhythmias, or cause new ones. The nurse should teach the client to monitor their pulse rate and report changes from prescribed parameters. It can be helpful to instruct the client to keep a written record of their pulse rate for the provider.

A nurse should recognize that milrinone is contraindicated for a client who has which of the following conditions? A) Acute myocardial infarction B) Peripheral vascular disease C) Ulcerative colitis D) Ventricular tachycardia

A) Acute myocardial infarction Milrinone, a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, is contraindicated for clients who have had an allergic reaction to phosphodiesterase inhibitors and for clients who have an acute myocardial infarction and aortic or pulmonary valve disorders.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for losartan to treat hypertension. The nurse should instruct the client that which of the following findings could indicate an adverse reaction to the drug and needs to be reported? A) Facial edema B) Sleepiness C) Peripheral edema D) Constipation

A) Facial edema Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, can cause angioedema, which often manifests as swelling around the eyes and lips. Clients who develop this adverse effect should stop taking the drug and seek medical attention.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking amiodarone to treat atrial fibrillation. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to avoid while taking this drug? A) Grapefruit juice B) Milk C) Foods high in vitamin K D) NSAIDs

A) Grapefruit juice Grapefruit juice, particularly in large amounts, can cause toxicity of potassium channel blockers, such as amiodarone.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. The nurse should instruct the client that which of the following manifestations is a potential adverse effect of this drug? A) Headache B) Constipation C) Hypertension D) Hyperglycemia

A) Headache Adverse effects of nitrates, such as nitroglycerin, include headaches, which can be severe at the beginning of nitrate therapy but decrease in severity with continued exposure to nitrates.

A nurse is administering hydrochlorothiazide to a client who has gouty arthritis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings that indicates an adverse effect of this drug? A) Hyperuricemia B) Hypernatremia C) Hyperkalemia D) Hypoglycemia

A) Hyperuricemia Hyperuricemia, or increased uric acid levels, along with gouty arthritis, can occur in clients who have a history of these conditions and are taking hydrochlorothiazide.

A nurse is administering hydrochlorothiazide to a client who has gouty arthritis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings that indicates an adverse effect of this drug? A) Hyperuricemia B) Hypernatremia C) Hyperkalemia D) Hypoglycemia A) Hyperuricemia

A) Hyperuricemia Hyperuricemia, or increased uric acid levels, along with gouty arthritis, can occur in clients who have a history of these conditions and are taking hydrochlorothiazide.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking atorvastatin and has a new prescription for gemfibrozil. The nurse should recognize that this drug combination places the client at an increased risk for which of the following adverse effects? A) Myopathy B) Hypoglycemia C) Irregular pulse D) Kidney failure

A) Myopathy When taking a statin drug, it is important to know that concurrent use of fibric acid derivatives, such as gemfibrozil, or other drugs to lower cholesterol, can increase the risk for myopathy.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking a diuretic. The nurse should instruct the client to include which of the following foods in their diet to increase potassium intake? A) Raisins B) Cabbage C) Cheese D) Eggs

A) Raisins Diuretics can deplete the body of potassium, so the nurse should instruct the client to include potassium-rich foods in their diet, such as raisins and other dried fruits.

A nurse is caring for a client who has depressive disorder and requires a prescription drug to treat hypertension. The nurse should recognize that which of the following antihypertensive drugs is contraindicated for this client? A) Reserpine B) Captopril C) Hydralazine D) Eplerenone

A) Reserpine Severe depression and an increased risk for suicide are adverse effects of adrenergic neuron blockers, such as reserpine. These adverse effects develop because of the depletion of serotonin and norepinephrine and can persist after clients discontinue taking the drug.

nurse is caring for a client who has depressive disorder and requires a prescription drug to treat hypertension. The nurse should recognize that which of the following antihypertensive drugs is contraindicated for this client? A) Reserpine B) Captopril C) Hydralazine D) Eplerenone

A) Reserpine Severe depression and an increased risk for suicide are adverse effects of adrenergic neuron blockers, such as reserpine. These adverse effects develop because of the depletion of serotonin and norepinephrine and can persist after clients discontinue taking the drug.

A nurse is evaluating hypertension risk factors with a client. Of the risk factors in the client's history noted, which risk factor(s) for hypertension is nonmodifiable? Select all that apply. A)race B)excessive alcohol consumption D)obesity E)family history F)stress

A) race E) family history

A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin captopril therapy. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report because it can indicate a need to discontinue drug therapy? (Select all that apply) A) Rash B) Distorted taste C) Swelling of the tongue D) Photosensitivity E) Dry cough

A, B, C, and E A) Captopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause a persistent rash. This often indicates the need to discontinue drug therapy. B) Captopril can cause distortions in taste sensations and loss of taste, which can lead to anorexia and weight loss. This often indicates the need to discontinue drug therapy. C) Captopril can cause angioedemaharynx, and glottis. Clients who develop this adverse effect should disconti, often manifesting as edema of the tongue, pnue the drug and seek medical attention. E) Captopril can cause a dry cough because of an accumulation of bradykinin. This often indicates the need to discontinue drug therapy.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for aliskiren to treat hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the drug? (Select all that apply) A) Hyperkalemia B) Throat swelling C) Constipation D) Cough E) Joint pain

A, B, and D A) Aliskiren, a direct renin inhibitor, can cause elevated potassium levels, especially when taken in combination with an ACE inhibitor, potassium supplements, or potassium-sparing diuretics. The nurse should obtain a potassium level at baseline and periodically monitor the client's potassium level thereafter. B) Aliskiren can cause angioedema, which is swelling of the mouth and throat. Clients who develop this adverse effect should stop taking the drug and seek medical attention. D) Aliskiren, a direct renin inhibitor, can cause a cough.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking spironolactone to treat hypertension. The nurse should recognize that which of the following client laboratory values requires immediate intervention? A) Sodium 140 mEq/L B) Potassium 5.2 mEq/L C) Chloride 100 mEq/L D) Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L

B) Potassium 5.2 mEq/L Spironolactone is a diuretic and an aldosterone antagonist that can cause hyperkalemia and places the client at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. This potassium level is outside the expected reference range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L and requires immediate intervention.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking spironolactone to treat hypertension. The nurse should recognize that which of the following client laboratory values requires immediate intervention? A) Sodium 140 mEq/L B) Potassium 5.2 mEq/L C) Chloride 100 mEq/L D) Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L B) Potassium 5.2 mEq/L

B) Potassium 5.2 mEq/L Spironolactone is a diuretic and an aldosterone antagonist that can cause hyperkalemia and places the client at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. This potassium level is outside the expected reference range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L and requires immediate intervention.

A nurse should identify that which of the following drugs is used only for the short-term treatment of cardiac dysrhythmia because of the serious adverse effects associated with long-term use? A) Quinidine B) Procainamide (sodium channel blocker ) C) Nitroglycerin (Antiangina) D) Verapamil (Calciums Channel Blocker)

B) Procainamide Procainamide is a sodium channel blocker and a broad-spectrum antidysrhythmic. It should not be used for long-term treatment of dysrhythmias because of its risk for serious adverse effects, including cardiotoxicity and arterial embolism.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for dobutamine. The nurse should clarify the prescription with the provider if the client is receiving which of the following types of drugs? (Select all that apply) A) ACE inhibitor B) MAOI C) General anesthetic D) Tricyclic antidepressant E) Beta blocker

B, C, D, and E B) MAOIs can cause toxicity when clients take them while also taking dobutamine. This significantly increases the client's risk for tachydysrhythmias. C) General anesthetics can cause dysrhythmias when clients take them while also taking dobutamine. D) Tricyclic antidepressants can cause toxicity when clients take them while also taking dobutamine. This significantly increases the client's risk for tachydysrhythmias. E) Beta blockers, such as propranolol, can decrease the effects of dobutamine.

A nurse is caring for a client who will begin using transdermal nitroglycerin to treat angina pectoris. When speaking to the client about the drug, which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply) A) "Apply a new patch at the onset of anginal pain." B) "Apply the patch to dry skin and cover the area with plastic wrap." C) "Apply the patch to a hairless area and rotate sites." D) "Apply a new patch when you start your day." E) "Remove patches for 10 to 12 hours each day."

C) "Apply the patch to a hairless area and rotate sites." D) "Apply a new patch when you start your day." E) "Remove patches for 10 to 12 hours each day." Hair can interfere with the adhesion of the patch. Rotating patch application sites helps prevent skin irritation. The therapeutic preventive effects of transdermal nitroglycerin patches begin 30 to 60 min after application and last for up to 14 hr. Because angina pain is more likely to occur with activity, most clients require this protection during waking hours. Removing the patches for 10 to 12 hr each day helps prevent the development of tolerance to the drug. For most clients, sleeping hours are the best time to remove the patch and go "patch-free," because angina pain is more likely during activity.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin and develops changes on their ECG tracing and other manifestations that indicate the client has severe digoxin toxicity. Which of the following drugs should the nurse expect to administer to treat this complication? A) Acetylcysteine B) Flumazenil C) Antigen-binding fragments D) Deferoxamine

C) Antigen-binding fragments Antigen-binding fragments, also called digoxin immune Fab, binds to digoxin and blocks its action. The nurse should prepare to administer this antidote IV to clients who have severe digoxin toxicity.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for propanolol to treat a tachydysrhythmia. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid taking which of the following types of over-the-counter drugs while taking propanolol? A) Antihistamines B) Potassium supplements C) NSAIDs D) Vitamin C

C) NSAIDs NSAIDs can interact with propranolol and decrease the anti-hypertensive action because vasoconstriction can occur in some COX-2 inhibitors. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid taking NSAIDs and propranolol at the same time.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking carvedilol and has a prescription for an oral antidiabetic drug to manage their new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. By taking both drugs concurrently, the nurse should identify that the client is at an increased risk for which of the following conditions? A) Hyperglycemia B) Bradycardia C) Hypotension D) Hypoglycemia

D) Hypoglycemia There are two factors that increase the client's risk for hypoglycemia. Alpha/beta blockers, such as carvedilol, potentiate the hypoglycemic effects of insulin and oral hypoglycemic drugs. Also, carvedilol can mask tachycardia in clients who have hypoglycemia. Carvedilol should be used with caution by clients who have diabetes mellitus.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for verapamil to treat atrial fibrillation. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking verapamil because it can cause the client to experience which of the following conditions? A) Tachycardia B) Dehydration C) Diarrhea D) Hypotension

D) Hypotension Large amounts of grapefruit juice can increase blood levels of verapamil by inhibiting its metabolism. An excess amount of the drug in the body can intensify otherwise therapeutic effects like hypotension, causing serious risk for syncope and dizziness.

A nurse is caring for a client who has glomerular filtration rate of 10 mL/min and a reduced urine output. The nurse should clarify a prescription for hydrochlorothiazide for this client because of which of the following characteristics of the drug? A) The drug can cause hypoglycemia in clients who have a low urine output. B) The drug does not reduce blood pressure for clients who have a low urine output. C) The drug can increase the risk of pulmonary edema for clients who have renal insufficiency. D) The drug does not promote diuresis for clients who have renal insufficiency.

D) The drug does not promote diuresis for clients who have renal insufficiency. Adequate kidney function is essential for clients who take hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, to promote urine production and effective excretion.

Nurses should implement measures to relieve emotional stress for clients with hypertension because the reduction of stress.

Decreases the production of neurotransmitters that constrict peripheral arterioles.

A client is receiving a diuretic as the first-line treatment of mild hypertension. The nurse monitors the client for signs and symptoms of hypokalemia with which agent?

Diuretics-Hydrochlorothiazide

The client is diagnosed with primary hypertension. The nurse is educating a client about dietary changes that help decrease blood pressure. Which menu selection indicates the need for further client education?

Ham sandwich with mustard, carrots and cheesy dip,

The nurse is creating a community teaching demonstration focusing on the cause of blood pressure. When completing the visual aid, which body structures represent the mechanism of blood pressure?

Heart and blood vessels

A client is taking 50 mg of oral spironolactone twice a day to assist with blood pressure control. While the nurse is performing the morning assessment, the client reports nausea, general muscle cramps, and weakness. The ECG strip shows a peaked, narrow T-wave, which is a change. What electrolyte imbalance does the nurse suspect?

Hyperkalemia

A client diagnosed with hypertension informs the nurse that they are not taking prescribed antihypertensive medications due to an absence of symptoms. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

Inform the client that this is why hypertension is known as "the silent killer."

A client develops primary hypertension and asks the nurse, "How long will I need to receive therapy?" The nurse responds based on the understanding that therapy would be required for how long?

Lifelong

Papilledema is a fairly common symptom of elevated blood pressure. The best way to detect this condition is through:

Ophthalmic examination.

A client, newly diagnosed with hypertension is started on captopril, an ACE inhibitor. The client should be informed of the possibility of what adverse effect?

Persistent cough

The nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed medication for the treatment of hypertension. The nurse recognizes that which medication conserves potassium?

Spironolactone

The nurse is employed in a physician's office and is caring for a client present for an annual exam. A blood pressure of 124/84 mm Hg is documented. Following revised guidelines for identifying hypertension, which educational pamphlet is helpful?

Stress reduction to lower prehypertensive state

Mr. Faulkner is a 69-year-old man who has enjoyed generally good health for his entire adult life. As a result, he has been surprised to receive a new diagnosis of hypertension after a series of visits to his primary care provider. The nurse who is working with Mr. Faulkner should recognize which of the following aspects of aging and hypertension?

The incidence and prevalence of hypertension increase with age.

A client who was recently diagnosed with prehypertension is to meet with a dietitian and return for a follow-up with the cardiologist in 6 months. What would this client's treatment likely include?

nonpharmacological interventions

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking a loop diuretic and is experiencing a thready, irregular pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and confusion. The nurse should identify that these manifestations indicate which of the following adverse effects? A) Hypokalemia B) Hypoglycemia C) Hypouricemia D) Hyponatremia

A) Hypokalemia Manifestations of hypokalemia include a thready, irregular pulse, orthostatic hypotension, anxiety, confusion, skeletal muscle weakness, hypoactive bowel sounds, polyuria, nausea, and vomiting.

Management of hypertension includes three of the following four goals, depending on the primary and secondary causes. Select all that apply. A) Impairing the synthesis of norepinephrine. B) Modifying the rate of myocardial contraction. C) Increasing the force of cardiac output to overcome peripheral resistance. D) Decreasing renal absorption of sodium.

A) Impairing the synthesis of norepinephrine. B) Modifying the rate of myocardial contraction. D) Decreasing renal absorption of sodium.

A nurse is reviewing new prescriptions with a client who has heart disease. The nurse should instruct the client that which of the following drugs is prescribed for hypercholesterolemia? A) Simvastatin B) Furosemide C) Losartan D) Nitroglycerin

A) Simvastatin Simvastatin is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor. It blocks synthesis of cholesterol by the body to help lower cholesterol levels.

A nurse is reviewing new prescriptions with a client who has heart disease. The nurse should instruct the client that which of the following drugs is prescribed to treat hypercholesterolemia? A) Simvastatin B) Furosemide (Diuretics-Potassium Wasting) C) Losartan (ARBs) D) Nitroglycerin (Antiangina)

A) Simvastatin Simvastatin is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor. It blocks synthesis of cholesterol by the body to help lower cholesterol levels.

A nurse should identify that which of the following drugs is used only for the short-term treatment of cardiac dysrhythmia because of the serious adverse effects associated with long-term use? A) Quinidine (Antiarrhythmic) B) Procainamide (sodium channel blocker) C) Nitroglycerin (Antiangina) D) Verapamil (Calcium Channel Blocker)

B) Procainamide Procainamide is a sodium channel blocker and a broad-spectrum antidysrhythmic. It should not be used for long-term treatment of dysrhythmias because of its risk for serious adverse effects, including cardiotoxicity and arterial embolism.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for gemfibrozil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply) A) Take the drug with food. B) Report any new intolerance to fried foods. C) Report muscle tenderness. D) Expect periodic liver function testing. E) Take the drug once each day.

B) Report any new intolerance to fried foods. C) Report muscle tenderness. D) Expect periodic liver function testing. B) Because gemfibrozil, a fibrate, can cause gallstones, clients should monitor and report any new intolerance to fried foods, as well as any bloating or upper abdominal discomfort. C) Because gemfibrozil, a fibrate, can cause myopathy, clients should monitor and report any unexplained muscle or joint pain. D) Because gemfibrozil, a fibrate, increases the risk for liver toxicity, clients will require liver function testing while taking this drug.

A nurse is educating a patient with hypertension who is prescribed losartan on the mechanism of action of the drug. Which mode of action helps losartan to bring about its antihypertensive effect?

By blocking the angiotensin II receptors

A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin captopril therapy. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report because it can indicate a need to discontinue drug therapy? (Select all that apply) A) Rash B) Distorted taste C) Swelling of the tongue D) Photosensitivity E) Dry cough

A, B, C, and E A) Captopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause a persistent rash. This often indicates the need to discontinue drug therapy. B) Captopril can cause distortions in taste sensations and loss of taste, which can lead to anorexia and weight loss. This often indicates the need to discontinue drug therapy. C) Captopril can cause angioedema, often manifesting as edema of the tongue, pharynx, and glottis. Clients who develop this adverse effect should discontinue the drug and seek medical attention. E) Captopril can cause a dry cough because of an accumulation of bradykinin. This often indicates the need to discontinue drug therapy.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is taking simvastatin. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following manifestations as an indication of a serious adverse reaction that could require discontinuing drug therapy? A) Bronchoconstriction B) Muscle pain C) Lip numbness D) Somnolence

B) Muscle pain Simvastatin, an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), can cause myopathy or pain in muscles and joints that can progress to rhabdomyolysis. With this rare but serious adverse effect, muscle protein breaks down and is excreted, resulting in kidney damage.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for verapamil. The nurse should clarify the prescription with the provider if the client has a history of which of the following conditions? A) Migraine headaches B) Pancreatitis C) Second-degree AV block D) Angina pectoris

C) Second-degree AV block Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can affect AV conduction and is contraindicated for clients who have sick sinus syndrome or second- or third-degree AV block. Verapamil is indicated for hypertension, angina pectoris, and the management of atrial flutter and fibrillation. It is also prescribed for the management of migraine headaches.

A nurse is caring for a client who will begin using transdermal nitroglycerin to treat angina pectoris. When speaking to the client about the drug, which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply) A) "Apply a new patch at the onset of anginal pain." B) "Apply the patch to dry skin and cover the area with plastic wrap." C) "Apply the patch to a hairless area and rotate sites." D) "Apply a new patch when you start your day." E) "Remove patches for 10 to 12 hours each day."

C, D, and E C) Hair can interfere with the adhesion of the patch. Rotating patch application sites helps prevent skin irritation. D) The therapeutic preventive effects of transdermal nitroglycerin patches begin 30 to 60 min after application and last for up to 14 hr. Because angina pain is more likely to occur with activity, most clients require this protection during waking hours. E)Removing the patches for 10 to 12 hr each day helps prevent the development of tolerance to the drug. For most clients, sleeping hours are the best time to remove the patch and go "patch-free," because angina pain is more likely during activity.