ATTR/EXSC 25057 - Human Physiology - Exam 2 Study Questions & Answers

The diaphysis contains _________. A) the metaphysis B) fat stores C) spongy bone D) compact bone

B) fat stores

Discuss the functions of the axial skeleton.

RESPONSE: The axial skeleton supports the head, neck, back, and chest of the body and allows for movements of these body regions. It also gives bony protections for the brain, spinal cord, heart, and lungs; stores fat and minerals; and houses the blood-cell producing tissue.

Which of the following neurotransmitters is released at the motor end plate? A) Acetylcholine B) Triptophen C) Epinephrine D) Norepinephrine

A) Acetylcholine

Which of the following properties of muscle is the ability for it to return to the same size after being contracted or stretched? A) Elasticity B) Contractility C) Excitability D) Sensitivity

A) Elasticity

What bone cell is considered a bone destroying cell? A) Osteoclast B) Osteoblast C) Osteocyte

A) Osteoclast

Wolff's law, which describes the effect of mechanical forces in bone modeling/remodeling, would predict that ​{__________}​ A) a right-handed pitcher will have thicker bones in his right arm compared to his left. B) a right-handed cyclist will have thicker bones in her right leg compared to her left. C) a broken bone will heal thicker than it was before the fracture. D) a bed-ridden patient will have thicker bones than an athlete.

A) a right-handed pitcher will have thicker bones in his right arm compared to his left.

A typical lumbar vertebra has ______________. A) a short, rounded spinous process B) a bifid spinous process C) articulation sites for ribs D) a transverse foramen

A) a short, rounded spinous process

What structure is an extension of the spine of the scapula? A) acromion B) coracoid process C) supraglenoid tubercle D) glenoid cavity

A) acromion

The paranasal sinuses are _____________. A) air-filled spaces found within the frontal, maxilla, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones only B) air-filled spaces found within all bones of the skull C) not connected to the nasal cavity D) divided at the midline by the nasal septum

A) air-filled spaces found within the frontal, maxilla, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones only

Which type of joint provides the greatest range of motion? A) ball-and-socket B) hinge C) condyloid D) plane

A) ball-and-socket

In observing epithelial cells under a microscope, the cells are arranged in a single layer and look tall and narrow, and the nucleus is located close to the basal side of the cell. The specimen is what type of epithelial tissue? A) columnar B) stratified C) squamous D) transitional

A) columnar

The clavicle _________________. A) develops via intramembranous ossification B) develops via endochondral ossification C) is the last bone of the body to begin ossification D) is fully ossified at the time of birth

A) develops via intramembranous ossification

Bones grow in length due to activity in the ___________ A) epiphyseal plate B) perichondrium C) periosteum D) medullary cavity

A) epiphyseal plate

Which bony landmark is located on the lateral side of the proximal humerus? A) greater tubercle B) trochlea C) lateral epicondyle D) lesser tubercle

A) greater tubercle

The pelvis _____________. A) has a subpubic angle that is larger in females B) consists of the two hip bones, but does not include the sacrum or coccyx C) has an obturator foramen, an opening that is defined in part by the sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments D) has a space located inferior to the pelvic brim called the greater pelvis

A) has a subpubic angle that is larger in females

Which component forms the superior part of the hip bone? A) ilium B) pubis C) ischium D) sacrum

A) ilium

Bones that surround the spinal cord are classified as bones. A) irregular B) sesamoid C) flat D) short

A) irregular

The tubercle of a rib __________. A) is for articulation with the transverse process of a thoracic vertebra B) is for articulation with the body of a thoracic vertebra C) provides for passage of blood vessels and a nerve D) is the area of greatest rib curvature

A) is for articulation with the transverse process of a thoracic vertebra

The tubercle of a rib _____________. A) is for articulation with the transverse process of a thoracic vertebra B) is for articulation with the body of a thoracic vertebra C) provides for passage of blood vessels and a nerve D) is the area of greatest rib curvature

A) is for articulation with the transverse process of a thoracic vertebra

A fontanelle _______________. A) is the cartilage model for a vertebra that later is converted into bone B) gives rise to the facial bones and vertebrae C) is the rod-like structure that runs the length of the early embryo D) is the area of fibrous connective tissue found at birth between the brain case bones

A) is the cartilage model for a vertebra that later is converted into bone

Which category of bone is among the most numerous in the skeleton? A) long bone B) sesamoid bone C) short bone D) flat bone

A) long bone

The cells responsible for the transmission of the nerve impulse are ​\text{__________}​. A) neurons B) oligodendrocytes C) astrocytes D) microglia

A) neurons

Which is found only in the cervical region of the vertebral column? A) nuchal ligament B) ligamentum flavum C) supraspinous ligament D) anterior longitudinal ligament

A) nuchal ligament

Which of the following is a bone of the brain case? A) parietal bone B) zygomatic bone C) maxillary bone D) lacrimal bone

A) parietal bone

The fibrous membrane covering the outer surface of the bone is the ___________. A) periosteum B) epiphysis C) endosteum D) diaphysis

A) periosteum

Parts of the sphenoid bone include the ____________________. A) sella turcica B) squamous portion C) glabella D) zygomatic process

A) sella turcica

The cervical region of the vertebral column consists of ____________. A) seven vertebrae B) 12 vertebrae C) five vertebrae D) a single bone derived from the fusion of five vertebrae

A) seven vertebrae

Striations, cylindrical cells, and multiple nuclei are observed in ​\text{__________}​. A) skeletal muscle only B) cardiac muscle only C) smooth muscle only D) skeletal and cardiac muscles

A) skeletal muscle only

Which feature lies between the spine and superior border of the scapula? A) suprascapular notch B) glenoid cavity C) superior angle D) supraspinous fossa

A) suprascapular notch

Which type of fibrous joint connects the tibia and fibula? A) syndesmosis B) symphysis C) suture D) gomphosis

A) syndesmosis

Which of these joints is classified as a biaxial diarthrosis? A) the metacarpophalangeal joint B) the hip joint C) the elbow joint D) the pubic symphysis

A) the metacarpophalangeal joint

In humans, exposure of the skin to sunlight is required for __________. A) vitamin D synthesis B) arteriole constriction C) folate production D) thermoregulation

A) vitamin D synthesis

How many bones fuse in adulthood to form the hip bone? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

B) 3

What is the general term for the loss of muscle mass? A) Hypertrophy B) Atrophy C) Syncopy D) Organomegaly

B) Atrophy

During which phase of muscle contraction does Ca2+ bind to the troponin/tropomyosin complex? A) Excitation B) Excitation-Contraction Coupling C) Contraction D) Relaxation

B) Excitation-Contraction Coupling

What type of tissue would be found in areas where there is a high amount of friction? A) Simple Epithelium B) Stratified Epithelium C) Psuedostratified Epithelium

B) Stratified Epithelium

Which connective tissue specializes in storage of fat? A) tendon B) adipose tissue C) reticular tissue D) dense connective tissue

B) adipose tissue

Sebaceous glands ____________. A) are a type of sweat gland B) are associated with hair follicles C) may function in response to touch D) release a watery solution of salt and metabolic waste

B) are associated with hair follicles

Eccrine sweat glands. A) are present on hair B) are present in the skin throughout the body and produce watery sweat C) produce sebum D) act as a moisturizer

B) are present in the skin throughout the body and produce watery sweat

The primary curvatures of the vertebral column _____________. A) include the lumbar curve B) are remnants of the original fetal curvature C) include the cervical curve D) develop after the time of birth

B) are remnants of the original fetal curvature

The nerve impulse travels down a(n) ​\text{__________}​, away from the cell body. A) dendrite B) axon C) microglia D) collagen fiber

B) axon

Bones grow in diameter due to bone formation _____________. A) in the medullary cavity B) beneath the periosteum C) in the epiphyseal plate D) within the metaphysis

B) beneath the periosteum

The skeletal system is made of _________. A) muscles and tendons B) bones and cartilage C) vitreous humor D) minerals and fat

B) bones and cartilage

Which of the following can be found in areas of movement? A) hematopoiesis B) cartilage C) yellow marrow D) red marrow

B) cartilage

Embryonic development of the axial skeleton involves _____________. A) intramembranous ossification, which forms the facial bones. B) endochondral ossification, which forms the ribs and sternum C) the notochord, which produces the cartilage models for the vertebrae D) the formation of hyaline cartilage models, which give rise to the flat bones of the skull

B) endochondral ossification, which forms the ribs and sternum

The axial skeleton __________. A) consists of 126 bones B) forms the vertical axis of the body C) includes all bones of the body trunk and limbs D) includes only the bones of the lower limbs

B) forms the vertical axis of the body

The radius bone __________. A) is found on the medial side of the forearm B) has a head that articulates with the radial notch of the ulna C) does not articulate with any of the carpal bones D) has the radial tuberosity located near its distal end

B) has a head that articulates with the radial notch of the ulna

The sternum ____________. A) consists of only two parts, the manubrium and xiphoid process B) has the sternal angle located between the manubrium and body C) receives direct attachments from the costal cartilages of all 12 pairs of ribs D) articulates directly with the thoracic vertebrae

B) has the sternal angle located between the manubrium and body

Which of the following supports body weight when sitting? A) iliac crest B) ischial tuberosity C) ischiopubic ramus D) pubic body

B) ischial tuberosity

Which bony landmark of the femur serves as a site for muscle attachments? A) fovea capitis B) lesser trochanter C) head D) medial condyle

B) lesser trochanter

The lambdoid suture joins the parietal bone to the ________________. A) frontal bone B) occipital bone C) other parietal bone D) temporal bone

B) occipital bone

A fracture can be both ___________. A) open and closed B) open and transverse C) transverse and greenstick D) greenstick and comminuted

B) open and transverse

Which function of the skeletal system would be especially important if you were in a car accident? A) storage of minerals B) protection of internal organs C) facilitation of movement D) fat storage

B) protection of internal organs

Most of the bones of the arms and hands are long bones; however, the bones in the wrist are categorized as _____________. A) flat bones B) short bones C) sesamoid bones D) irregular bones

B) short bones

Which part of the clavicle articulates with the manubrium? A) shaft B) sternal end C) acromial end D) coracoid process

B) sternal end

Which of these joints is classified as a synarthrosis? A) the pubic symphysis B) the manubriosternal joint C) an invertebral disc D) the shoulder joint

B) the manubriosternal joint

What is the total number of bones found in the foot and toes? A) 7 B) 14 C) 26 D) 30

C) 26

Which of the following has the largest role in determining skin color? A) Amount of body hair B) Distribution of Keratinocytes C) Ancestral need for melanocytes D) Thickness of the dermis

C) Ancestral need for melanocytes

What type of connective tissue is termed a liquid connective tissue? A) Adipose B) Cartilage C) Blood D) Ligament

C) Blood

What is stored in the terminal cisternae and necessary for muscle contraction? A) Sodium B) Potassium C) Calcium D) Selenium

C) Calcium

Which lay of the skin is the most superficial? A) Hypodermis B) Dermis C) Epidermis D) Ectoplasm

C) Epidermis

What type of fracture is typically only in youth? A) Transverse B) Oblique C) Green stick D) Hextangle

C) Green stick

Which of the following is the epithelial tissue that lines the interior of blood vessels? A) columnar B) pseudostratified C) simple squamous D) transitional

C) Simple Squamous

A syndesmosis is _______________. A) a narrow fibrous joint B) the type of joint that unites bones of the skull C) a fibrous joint that unites parallel bones D) the type of joint that anchors the teeth in the jaws

C) a fibrous joint that unites parallel bones

A shoulder separation results from injury to the ___________. A) glenohumeral joint B) costoclavicular joint C) acromioclavicular joint D) sternoclavicular joint

C) acromioclavicular joint

The joint between adjacent vertebrae that includes an invertebral disc is classified as which type of joint? A) diarthrosis B) multiaxial C) amphiarthrosis D) synarthrosis

C) amphiarthrosis

In general, skin cancers _________ A) are easily treatable and not a major health concern B) occur due to poor hygiene C) can be reduced by limiting exposure to the sun D) affect only the epidermis

C) can be reduced by limiting exposure to the sun

Which region of the humerus articulates with the radius as part of the elbow joint? A) trochlea B) styloid process C) capitulum D) olecranon process

C) capitulum

Name the short, hook-like bony process of the scapula that projects anteriorly. A) acromial process B) clavicle C) coracoid process D) glenoid fossa

C) coracoid process

Ligaments connect bones together and withstand a lot of stress. What type of connective tissue should you expect ligaments to contain? A) areolar tissue B) adipose tissue C) dense regular connective tissue D) dense irregular connective tissue

C) dense regular connective tissue

Which of the following is not a type of tissue? A) muscle B) nervous C) embryonic D) epithelial

C) embryonic

During endochondral ossification of a long bone, ______________. A) a primary ossification center will develop within the epiphysis B) mesenchyme will differentiate directly into bone tissue C) growth of the epiphyseal plate will produce bone lengthening D) all epiphyseal plates will disappear before birth

C) growth of the epiphyseal plate will produce bone lengthening

Which of the following occurs in the spongy bone of the epiphysis? A) bone growth B) bone remodeling C) hematopoiesis D) shock absorption

C) hematopoiesis

The tibia __________. A) has an expanded distal end called the lateral malleolus B) is not a weight-bearing bone C) is firmly anchored to the fibula by an interosseous membrane D) can be palpated (felt) under the skin only at its proximal and distal ends

C) is firmly anchored to the fibula by an interosseous membrane

A typical vertebra has _________________. A) a vertebral foramen that passes through the body B) a superior articular process that projects downward to articulate with the superior portion of the next lower vertebra C) lamina that spans between the transverse process and spinous process D) a pair of laterally projecting spinous processes

C) lamina that spans between the transverse process and spinous process

Long bones enable body movement by acting as a _________. A) counterweight B) resistive force C) lever D) fulcrum

C) lever

Without red marrow, bones would not be able to ___________. A) store phosphate B) store calcium C) make blood cells D) move like levers

C) make blood cells

What structure contributes to the knee joint? A) lateral malleolus of the fibula B) tibial tuberosity C) medial condyle of the tibia D) lateral epicondyle of the femur

C) medial condyle of the tibia

A bursa ______________. A) surrounds a tendon at the point where the tendon crosses a joint B) secretes the lubricating fluid for a synovial joint C) prevents friction between skin and bone, or a muscle tendon and bone D) is the strong band of connective tissue that holds bones together at a synovial joint

C) prevents friction between skin and bone, or a muscle tendon and bone

Which of the following is not a function of the hypodermis? A) protects underlying organs B) helps maintain body temperature C) source of blood vessels in the epidermis D) a site to long-term energy storage

C) source of blood vessels in the epidermis

Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton? A) allows for movement of the wrist and hand B) protects nerves and blood vessels at the elbow C) supports trunk of body D) allows for movements of the ankle and foot

C) supports trunk of body

How many bones are there in the upper limbs combined? A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 60

D) 60

Skeletal muscle is composed of very hard working cells. Which organelles do you expect to find in abundance in skeletal muscle cell? A) nuclei B) striations C) golgi bodies D) mitochondria

D) Mitochondria

A gomphosis ______________. A) is formed by an interosseous membrane B) connects the tibia and fibula bones of the leg C) contains a joint cavity D) anchors a tooth to the jaw

D) anchors a tooth to the jaw

Synovial joints __________. A) may be functionally classified as a synarthrosis B) are joints where the bones are connected to each other by hyaline cartilage C) may be functionally classified as a amphiarthrosis D) are joints where the bones articulate with each other within a fluid-filled joint cavity

D) are joints where the bones articulate with each other within a fluid-filled joint cavity

True ribs are ___________. A) ribs 8-12 B) attached via their costal cartilage to the next higher rib C) made entirely of bone, and thus do not have a costal cartilage D) attached via their costal cartilage directly to the sternum

D) attached via their costal cartilage directly to the sternum

In a compound fracture, ____________________ . A) the break occurs at an angle to the bone B) the broken bone does not tear the skin C) one fragment of broken bone is compressed into the other D) broken bone pierces the skin

D) broken bone pierces the skin

The middle cranial fossa ______________ . A) is bounded anteriorly by the petrous ridge B) is bounded posteriorly by the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone C) is divided at the midline by a small area of the ethmoid bone D) has the foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, and foramen spinosum

D) has the foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, and foramen spinosum

The bony openings of the skull include the ______________. A) carotid canal, which is located in the anterior cranial fossa B) superior orbital fissure, which is located at the superior margin of the anterior orbit C) mental foramen, which is located just below the orbit D) hypoglossal canal, which is located in the posterior cranial fossa

D) hypoglossal canal, which is located in the posterior cranial fossa

The sternal angle is the ___________. A) junction between the body and xiphoid process B) site for attachment of the clavicle C) site for attachment of the floating ribs D) junction between the manubrium and body

D) junction between the manubrium and body

Which of the following lines the body cavities exposed to the external environment? A) mesothelium B) lamina propria C) mesenteries D) mucosa

D) mucosa

In bone, the main cells are ​\text{__________}​. A) fibroblasts B) chondrocytes C) lymphocytes D) osteocytes

D) osteocytes

Which is the lateral-most carpal bone of the proximal row? A) trapezium B) hamate C) pisiform D) scaphoid

D) scaphoid

Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia and fibula? A) calcaneus B) cuboid C) navicular D) talus

D) talus

Sesamoid bones are found embedded in ____________. A) joints B) muscles C) ligaments D) tendons

D) tendons

Which event takes place during the seventh week of development? A) appearance of the upper and lower limb buds B) flattening of the distal limb bud into a paddle shape C) the first appearance of hyaline cartilage models of future bones D) the rotation of the limbs

D) the rotation of the limbs

Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton? A) shoulder bones B) thigh bone C) foot bones D) vertebral column

D) vertebral column

Discuss two possible injuries of the pectoral girdle that may occur following a strong blow to the shoulder or a hard fall onto an outstretched hand.

RESPONSE: A blow to the shoulder or falling onto an outstretched hand passes strong forces through the scapula to the clavicle and sternum. A hard fall may thus cause a fracture of the clavicle (broken collarbone) or may injure the ligaments of the acromioclavicular joint. In a severe case, the coracoclavicular ligament may also rupture, resulting in complete dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint (a "shoulder separation").

Your friend runs out of gas and you have to help push his car. Discuss the sequence of bones and joints that convey the forces passing from your hand, through your upper limb and your pectoral girdle, and to your axial skeleton.

RESPONSE: As you push against the car, forces will pass from the metacarpal bones of your hand into the carpal bones at the base of your hand. Forces will then pass through the midcarpal and radiocarpal joints into the radius and ulna bones of the forearm. These will pass the force through the elbow joint into the humerus of the arm, and then through the glenohumeral joint into the scapula. The force will travel through the acromioclavicular joint into the clavicle, and then through the sternoclavicular joint into the sternum, which is part of the axial skeleton.

Discuss the ways in which the female pelvis is adapted for childbirth.

RESPONSE: Compared to the male, the female pelvis is wider to accommodate childbirth. Thus, the female pelvis has greater distances between the anterior superior iliac spines and between the ischial tuberosities. The greater width of the female pelvis results in a larger subpubic angle. This angle, formed by the anterior convergence of the right and left ischiopubic rami, is larger in females (greater than 80 degrees) than in males (less than 70 degrees). The female sacral promontory does not project anteriorly as far as it does in males, which gives the pelvic brim (pelvic inlet) of the female a rounded or oval shape. The lesser pelvic cavity is wider and more shallow in females, and the pelvic outlet is larger than in males. Thus, the greater width of the female pelvis, with its larger pelvic inlet, lesser pelvis, and pelvic outlet, are important for childbirth because the baby must pass through the pelvis during delivery.

Name the bones in the wrist and hand, and describe or sketch out their locations and articulations.

RESPONSE: The base of the hand is formed by the eight carpal bones arranged in two rows (distal and proximal) of four bones each. The proximal row contains (from lateral to medial) the scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, and pisiform bones. The distal row contains (from medial to lateral) the hamate, capitate, trapezoid, and trapezium bones. (Use the mnemonic "So Long To Pinky, Here Comes The Thumb" to remember this sequence). The rows of the proximal and distal carpal bones articulate with each other at the midcarpal joint. The palm of the hand contains the five metacarpal bones, which are numbered 1-5 starting on the thumb side. The proximal ends of the metacarpal bones articulate with the distal row of the carpal bones. The distal ends of the metacarpal bones articulate with the proximal phalanx bones of the thumb and fingers. The thumb (digit 1) has both a proximal and distal phalanx bone. The fingers (digits 2-5) all contain proximal, middle, and distal phalanges.

Define the two divisions of the skeleton.

RESPONSE: The axial skeleton forms the vertical axis of the body and includes the bones of the head, neck, back, and chest of the body. It consists of 80 bones that include the skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage. The appendicular skeleton consists of 126 bones and includes all bones of the upper and lower limbs.