Auditing Final 18

What two steps must an auditor do if they have reservations about the audit client continuing as a going concern?

1. Evaluate management's plan to avoid bankruptcy 2. Feasibility of management achieving those plans

What are the three required conditions for a contingent liability to exist?

1. There is potential for future payment to an outside party or the impairment of an asset that resulted from an existing condition. 2. There is uncertainty about the amount of the future payment or impairment. 3. The outcome will be resolved by some future event or events.

The audit procedures for the subsequent events review can be divided into two categories: (1) procedures normally integrated as a part of the verification of year-end account balances, and (2) those performed specifically for the purpose of discovering subsequent events. Which of the following procedures is in category 2? A) Correspond with attorneys. B) Test the collectability of accounts receivable by reviewing subsequent period cash receipts. C) Subsequent period sales and purchases transactions are examined to determine whether the cutoff is accurate. D) Compare the subsequent-period purchase price of inventory with the recorded cost as a test of lower-of-cost-or-market valuation.

A) Correspond with attorneys.

Which of the following is not required to be communicated to the audit committee or similarly designated body under auditing standards? A) Disagreements with the company over two acceptable accounting treatments for a significant transaction. B) Disagreements with management about the scope of the audit, applicability of accounting principles, or wording of the audit report. C) Difficulties encountered in performing the audit, such as lack of availability of client personnel and failure to provide necessary information. D) Auditor's responsibilities under generally accepted auditing standards, including responsibility for evaluating internal control and the concept of reasonable rather than absolute assurance.

A) Disagreements with the company over two acceptable accounting treatments for a significant transaction.

In connection with the annual audit, which of the following is not a "subsequent events" procedure? A) Review available interim financial statements. B) Read available minutes of meetings of stockholders, directors, and committees and, for meetings where minutes are not available, inquire about matters dealt with at such meetings. C) Make inquiries with respect to the financial statements covered by the auditor's previously issued report if new information has become available during the current examination that might affect that report. D) Discuss with officers the current status of items in the financial statements that were accounted for on the basis of tentative, preliminary, or inconclusive data.

A) Review available interim financial statements.

A company guarantees the debt of an affiliate. Which of the following best describes the audit procedure that would make the auditor aware of the guarantee? A) Review minutes and resolutions of the board of directors. B) Review prior year's audit files with respect to such guarantees. C) Review the possibility of such guarantees with the chief accountant. D) Review the legal letter returned by the company's outside legal counsel.

A) Review minutes and resolutions of the board of directors.

Which of the following statements is most correct about an auditor's required communication with management and those charged with corporate governance? A) The auditor is required to inform those charged with governance about significant errors discovered and subsequently corrected by management. B) Any significant matter reported to those charged with governance must also be communicated to management. C) Communication is required before the audit report is issued. D) Auditor does not have any requirement to communicate with anyone other than the company's senior management.

A) The auditor is required to inform those charged with governance about significant errors discovered and subsequently corrected by management.

The auditor has completed her assessment of subsequent events. The proper accounting for subsequent events that have a direct effect on the financial statements is to: A) adjust the financial statements for the year under audit. B) disclose in the notes to financial statement the amount of the adjustment. C) duly note in the audit workpapers that next year's financial statements need to be adjusted. D) make no adjustment of the financial statements for the year under audit.

A) adjust the financial statements for the year under audit.

A commitment is best described as: A) an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in the future. B) an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in the future that depends on company profitability. C) an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in the future that depends on current market conditions. D) a potential future obligation to an outside party for an as yet to be determined amount.

A) an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in the future.

Auditing Standards (SAS No. 59) requires auditors to evaluate whether there is a substantial doubt about a client's ability to continue as a going concern. One of the most important audit procedures to perform to assess the going concern question is: A) analytical procedures. B) confirmations of creditors. C) statistical sampling procedures. D) inquiries of client and its legal counsel.

A) analytical procedures.

When a client will not permit inquiry of outside legal counsel, the audit report will ordinarily contain a(n): A) disclaimer of opinion. B) qualified opinion. C) standard unqualified opinion. D) unqualified opinion with a separate explanatory paragraph.

A) disclaimer of opinion.

An auditor's decision concerning whether or not to dual date an audit report is primarily based on the auditor's decision to: A) extend appropriate audit procedures. B) assume responsibility for events after the date of the auditor's report. C) assume responsibility for event from fiscal year end to the date of the audit report. D) roll the dice and hope for a successful outcome.

A) extend appropriate audit procedures.

An auditor's decision concerning whether or not to "dual date" the audit report is based upon the auditor's willingness to: A) extend auditing procedures and assume responsibility for a greater period of time. B) accept responsibility for subsequent events. C) permit inclusion of a footnote captioned: event (unaudited) subsequent to the date of the auditor's report. D) assume responsibility for events subsequent to the issuance of the auditor's report.

A) extend auditing procedures and assume responsibility for a greater period of time.

Refusal by a client to prepare and sign the representation letter would require the auditor to issue a: A) qualified opinion or a disclaimer. B) adverse opinion or a disclaimer. C) qualified or an adverse opinion. D) unqualified opinion with an explanatory paragraph.

A) qualified opinion or a disclaimer.

Which of the following audit procedures would most likely assist an auditor in identifying conditions and events that may indicate there could be substantial doubt about an entity's ability to continue as a going concern? A) review compliance with the terms of debt agreements B) confirmation of accounts receivable from principal customers C) reconciliation of interest expense with debt outstanding D) confirmation of bank balances

A) review compliance with the terms of debt agreements

An auditor performs interim work at various times throughout the year. The auditor's subsequent events work should be extended to the date of: A) the auditor's report. B) a post-dated footnote. C) the next scheduled interim visit. D) the final billing for audit services rendered.

A) the auditor's report.

Contingent liability disclosure in the footnotes of the financial statements would normally be made when: A) the outcome of the accounting event is deemed probable, but a reasonable estimation as to the amount cannot be made by the client or auditor. B) a reasonable estimation of the loss can be made, but the outcome is not probable. C) the outcome of the accounting event is deemed probable, and a reasonable estimation as to the amount can be made. D) the outcome of the accounting event as well as a reasonable estimation of the loss cannot be made.

A) the outcome of the accounting event is deemed probable, but a reasonable estimation as to the amount cannot be made by the client or auditor.

Who may identify matters to be included in a letter of inquiry sent to a client's legal counsel? Auditors Company mgmt-

Auditors-Yes Company mgmt-Yes

Management furnishes the independent auditor with information concerning litigation, claims, and assessments. Which of the following is the auditor's primary means of initiating action to corroborate such information? A) Request that client lawyers undertake a reconsideration of matters of litigation, claims, and assessments with which they were consulted during the period under examination. B) Request that client management send a letter of inquiry to those lawyers with whom management consulted concerning litigation, claims, and assessments. C) Request that client lawyers provide a legal opinion concerning the policies and procedures adopted by management to identify, evaluate, and account for litigation, claims, and assessments. D) Request that client management engage outside attorneys to suggest wording for the text of a footnote explaining the nature and probable outcome of existing litigation, claims, and assessments.

B) Request that client management send a letter of inquiry to those lawyers with whom management consulted concerning litigation, claims, and assessments.

Elise-Greer, LLP is an affiliate of the audit client and is audited by another firm of auditors. Which of the following is most likely to be used by the auditor to obtain assurance that all guarantees of the affiliate's indebtedness have been detected? A) Send the standard bank confirmation request to all of the client's lender banks. B) Review client minutes and obtain a representation letter. C) Examine supporting documents for all entries in intercompany accounts. D) Obtain written confirmation of indebtedness from the auditor of the affiliate.

B) Review client minutes and obtain a representation letter.

The auditor's responsibility with respect to events occurring between the balance sheet date and the end of the audit examination is best expressed by which of the following statements? A) The auditor is fully responsible for events occurring in the subsequent period and should extend all detailed procedures through the last day of fieldwork. B) The auditor is responsible for determining that a proper cutoff has been made and performing a general review of events occurring in the subsequent period. C) The auditor's responsibility is to determine that a proper cutoff has been made and that transactions recorded on or before the balance sheet date actually occurred. D) The auditor has no responsibility for events occurring in the subsequent period unless these events affect transactions recorded on or before the balance sheet date.

B) The auditor is responsible for determining that a proper cutoff has been made and performing a general review of events occurring in the subsequent period.

Which of the following subsequent events is most likely to result in an adjustment to a company's financial statements? A) merger or acquisition activities B) bankruptcy (due to deteriorating financial condition) of a customer with an outstanding accounts receivable balance C) issuance of common stock D) an uninsured loss of inventories due to a fire

B) bankruptcy (due to deteriorating financial condition) of a customer with an outstanding accounts receivable balance

Auditors, as part of completing the audit, will request the client to send a letter of inquiry to those attorneys the company has been consulting with during the year under audit regarding legal matters of concern to the company. The primary reason the auditor requests this information is to: A) determine the range of probable loss for asserted claims. B) corroborate of information supplied by management concerning litigation, claims, and assessments. C) outside opinion of probability of losses in determining accruals for contingencies. D) outside opinion of probability of losses in determining the proper footnote disclosure.

B) corroborate of information supplied by management concerning litigation, claims, and assessments.

The date of the management representation letter received from the client should coincide with which of the following? A) date of latest subsequent event disclosed in the notes to the financial statements B) date of the auditor's report C) balance sheet date D) engagement agreement

B) date of the auditor's report

The letter of representation obtained from an audit client should be: A) dated as of the end of the period under audit. B) dated as of the audit report date. C) dated as of any date decided upon by the client and auditor. D) dated as of the issuance of the financial statement.

B) dated as of the audit report date.

Whenever subsequent events are used to evaluate the amounts included in the statements, care must be taken to distinguish between conditions that existed at the balance sheet date and those that come into being after the end of the year. The subsequent information should not be incorporated directly into the statements if the conditions causing the change in valuation: A) took place before year-end. B) did not take place until after year-end. C) occurred both before and after year-end. D) are reimbursable through insurance policies.

B) did not take place until after year-end.

You are auditing Rodgers and Company. You are aware of a potential loss due to non-compliance with environmental regulations. Management has assessed that there is a 40% chance that a $10M payment could result from the non-compliance. The appropriate financial statement treatment is to: A) accrue a $4 million liability. B) disclose a liability and provide a range of outcomes. C) since there is less than a 50% chance of occurrence, ignore. D) since there is greater that a remote chance of occurrence, accrue the $10 million.

B) disclose a liability and provide a range of outcomes.

Subsequent events affecting the realization of assets ordinarily will require adjustments of the financial statements under examination because such events typically represent the: A) culmination of conditions that existed at the balance sheet date. B) discovery of new conditions occurring in the subsequent events period. C) final estimates of losses relating to casualties occurring in the subsequent events period. D) preliminary estimate of losses relating to new events that occurred subsequent to the balance sheet date.

B) discovery of new conditions occurring in the subsequent events period.

1) Auditors will generally send a standard inquiry letter to: A) only those attorneys who have devoted substantial time to client matters during the year. B) every attorney that the client has been involved with in the current or preceding year, plus any attorney the client engages on occasion. C) those attorneys whom the client relies on for advice related to substantial legal matters. D) only the attorney who represents the client in proceeding where the client is defendant.

B) every attorney that the client has been involved with in the current or preceding year, plus any attorney the client engages on occasion.

The auditor's primary concerns relative to presentation and disclosure-related objectives is: A) accuracy. B) existence. C) completeness. D) occurrence.

B) existence.

If a potential loss on a contingent liability is remote, the liability usually is: A) disclosed in footnotes, but not accrued. B) neither accrued nor disclosed in footnotes. C) accrued and indicated in the body of the financial statements. D) disclosed in the auditor's report but not disclosed on the financial statements.

B) neither accrued nor disclosed in footnotes.

The process of "final evidence accumulation" is always done late in the engagement. Which one of the following would be done the earliest in the engagement? A) final analytical procedures B) search for contingent liabilities C) evaluate the going concern assumption D) acquire the client's letter of representation

B) search for contingent liabilities

A CPA has received an attorney's letter in which no significant disagreements with the client's assessments of contingent liabilities were noted. The resignation of the client's lawyer shortly after receipt of the letter should alert the auditor that: A) an adverse opinion will be necessary. B) undisclosed unasserted claims may have arisen. C) the auditor must begin a completely new examination of contingent liabilities. D) the attorney was unable to form a conclusion with respect to the significance of litigation, claims, and assessments.

B) undisclosed unasserted claims may have arisen.

Which of the following statements is correct? A) A letter of representation is documentation of management's acceptance of responsibility for the financial statements and is deemed to be reliable evidence. B) A letter of representation is not deemed to be reliable evidence because of the potential incompetence of management. C) A letter of representation is not deemed to be reliable evidence because of the lack of independence of the preparers. D) A letter of representation is documentation of the CPA's acceptance of responsibility for the audit of the financial statement and is deemed to be reliable.

C) A letter of representation is not deemed to be reliable evidence because of the lack of independence of the preparers.

With which of the following client personnel would it generally not be appropriate to inquire about commitments or contingent liabilities? A) Controller B) President C) Accounts receivable clerk D) Vice president of sales

C) Accounts receivable clerk

The audit procedures for the subsequent events review can be divided into two categories: (1) procedures integrated as a part of the verification of year-end account balances, and (2) those performed specifically for the purpose of discovering subsequent events. Which of the following procedures is in category 1? A) Inquiries of client regarding contingent liabilities. B) Obtain a letter of representation written by client. C) Subsequent period sales and purchases transactions are examined to determine whether the cutoff is accurate. D) Review journals and ledgers of year 2 to determine the existence of any transaction related to year 1.

C) Subsequent period sales and purchases transactions are examined to determine whether the cutoff is accurate.

An auditor must obtain written client representations that might be signed by all but which of the following? A) Treasurer B) Chief financial officer C) Vice president of operations D) Chief executive officer

C) Vice president of operations

Which event that occurred after the end of the fiscal year under audit but prior to issuance of the auditor's report would not require disclosure in the financial statements? A) sale of a bond or capital stock issue B) loss of plant or inventories as a result of fire or flood C) a significant decline in the market price of the corporation's stock D) settlement of litigation when the event giving rise to the claim took place after the balance sheet date

C) a significant decline in the market price of the corporation's stock

While there is no professional requirement to do so on audit engagements, CPAs frequently issue a formal "management" letter to clients. The primary purpose of this letter is to provide: A) evidence indicating whether the auditor is reasonably certain that internal accounting control is operating as prescribed. B) a permanent record of the internal accounting control work performed by the auditor during the course of the engagement. C) a written record of discussions between auditor and client concerning the auditor's observations and suggestions for improvements. D) a summary of the auditor's observations that resulted from the auditor's special study of internal control.

C) a written record of discussions between auditor and client concerning the auditor's observations and suggestions for improvements.

A significant customer of the firm suffers a large economic loss after year end, but prior to completion of field work. The audit client believes this event will have material effect on the financial statements. The auditor should: A) adjust the financial statements for the year under audit. B) add a paragraph to the audit report. C) advise the client to disclose the event in the notes to the financial statements. D) advise the client to delay issuing the financial statements until the economic loss can be determined.

C) advise the client to disclose the event in the notes to the financial statements.

An auditor has the responsibility to actively search for subsequent events that occur subsequent to the: A) balance sheet date. B) date of the auditor's report. C) balance sheet date, but prior to the audit report. D) date of the management representation letter.

C) balance sheet date, but prior to the audit report.

Which of the following groups has the responsibility for identifying and deciding the appropriate accounting treatment for recording or disclosing contingent liabilities? A) auditors B) legal counsel C) management D) management and the auditors

C) management

Which of the following would the auditor expect to find in the client's management representation letter? A) management's recommendations for internal control effectiveness improvements B) management's plans for improving product quality C) management's compliance with contractual arrangements that impact the financial statements D) management's goals for improving earnings per share

C) management's compliance with contractual arrangements that impact the financial statements

The auditor is responsible for communicating significant internal control deficiencies to the audit committee, or those charged with governance. This communication: A) may be oral or written. B) must be oral. C) must be written. D) must be oral via direct communication.

C) must be written.

The audit firm issues an audit report for its client. The auditor's have NO obligation to make further inquiries with respect to the client's audited financial statements unless: A) a development occurs that may affect the company's long term viability as a company. B) final resolution was made on disclosed contingency for which no liability needed to be accrued. C) new information comes to the auditor's attention concerning an event that occurred prior to the date of the audit report that, if known, would have impacted the audit opinion. D) a lawsuit, in which the risk of loss was considered remote, was resolved in the company's favor.

C) new information comes to the auditor's attention concerning an event that occurred prior to the date of the audit report that, if known, would have impacted the audit opinion.

Which of the following auditing procedures is ordinarily performed last? A) reading minutes of the board of directors' meetings B) confirming accounts payable C) obtaining a client representation letter D) testing the purchasing function

C) obtaining a client representation letter

Auditing standards (SAS No. 59) requires the auditor to evaluate whether there is a substantial doubt about a client's ability to continue as a going concern for at least: A) one quarter beyond the balance sheet date. B) one quarter beyond the date of the auditor's report. C) one year beyond the balance sheet date. D) one year beyond the date of the auditor's report.

C) one year beyond the balance sheet date.

Which of the following material events occurring subsequent to the balance sheet date would require an adjustment to the financial statements before they could be issued? A) loss of a plant as a result of a flood B) sale of long-term debt or capital stock C) settlement of litigation in excess of the recorded liability D) major purchase of a business that is expected to double the sales volume

C) settlement of litigation in excess of the recorded liability

A client representation letter is: A) prepared on the CPA's letterhead. B) addressed to the client. C) signed by high-level officials (e.g., the president and chief financial officer). D) dated as of the client's year-end.

C) signed by high-level officials (e.g., the president and chief financial officer).

When should auditors generally assess a client's ability to continue as a going concern? A) upon completion of the audit B) during the planning stages of the audit C) throughout the entire audit process D) during testing and completion phases of the audit

C) throughout the entire audit process

A client has a calendar year-end. Listed below are four events that occurred after December 31. Which one of these subsequent events might result in adjustment of the December 31 financial statements? A) sale of a major subsidiary B) adoption of accelerated depreciation methods C) write-off of a substantial portion of inventory as obsolete D) collection of 90% of the accounts receivable existing at December 31

C) write-off of a substantial portion of inventory as obsolete

Agreements that the entity will hold to a fixed set of conditions, such as the purchase or sale of merchandise at a stated price.

Commitments

Distinguish between contingent liabilities and commitments.

Contingent liabilities are potential future obligations to an outside party for an unknown amount resulting from activities that have already taken place. Commitments are agreements to commit the company to a set of fixed conditions in the future regardless of what happens to profits or the economy as a whole.

A potential future obligation to an outside party for an unknown amount resulting from activities that have already taken place.

Contingent liability

Define the term contingent liability and discuss the criteria accountants and auditors use to classify these accounting events.

Contingent liability: a potential future obligation to an outside party for an unknown amount resulting from activities that have already taken place. Three conditions are required for a contingent liability to exist: (1) there is a potential future payment to an outside party or the impairment of an asset that resulted from an existing condition; (2) there is uncertainty about the amount for the future payment or impairment; and (3) the outcome will be resolved by some future event or events. Accounting standards describe three levels of likelihood of occurrence and the appropriate financial statement treatment for each likelihood as follows:. a. Probable-future event likely to occur and amount can be reasonably estimated then the financial statement accounts are adjusted. If amount cannot be reasonably estimated, then a footnote disclosure is necessary. b. Reasonably possible-chance of occurring is more than remote, but less than probable. Footnote disclosure is necessary. c. Remote-chance of occurrence is slight, no disclosure is necessary.

If the auditor concludes that there are contingent liabilities, he or she must evaluate the significance of the potential liability and the nature of the disclosure needed in the financial statements. Which of the following statements is not true? A) The potential liability is sufficiently well known in some instances to be included in the financial statements as an actual liability. B) Disclosure may be unnecessary if the contingency is highly remote or immaterial. C) Frequently, the CPA firm obtains a separate evaluation of the potential liability from its own legal counsel rather than relying on management or management's attorneys. D) Answers B and C are correct, but answer A is not.

D) Answers B and C are correct, but answer A is not.

Commitments include all but which of the following? A) agreements to purchase raw materials B) pension plans C) agreements to lease facilities at set prices D) Each of the above is a commitment.

D) Each of the above is a commitment.

Which of the following statements regarding the letter of representation is not correct? A) It is prepared on the client's letterhead. B) It is addressed to the CPA firm. C) It is signed by high-level corporate officials, usually the president and chief financial officer. D) It is optional, not required, that the auditor obtain such a letter from management.

D) It is optional, not required, that the auditor obtain such a letter from management.

Which of the following is not a reason why the auditor requests that the client provide a letter of representation? A) Professional auditing standards require the auditor to obtain a letter of representation. B) It impresses upon management its responsibility for the accuracy of the information in the financial statements. C) It provides written documentation of the oral responses already received to inquiries of management. D) It provides written documentation, which is a higher quality of evidence than management's oral responses to inquiries.

D) It provides written documentation, which is a higher quality of evidence than management's oral responses to inquiries.

The auditor's responsibility for "reviewing the subsequent events" of a public company that is about to issue new securities is normally limited to the period of time: A) beginning with the balance sheet date and ending with the date of the auditor's report. B) beginning with the start of the fiscal year under audit and ending with the balance sheet date. C) beginning with the start of the fiscal year under audit and ending with the date of the auditor's report. D) beginning with the balance sheet date and ending with the date the registration statement becomes effective.

D) beginning with the balance sheet date and ending with the date the registration statement becomes effective.

The standard letter of inquiry to the client's legal counsel should be prepared on: A) plain paper (no letterhead) and be unsigned. B) lawyer's stationery and signed by the lawyer. C) auditor's stationery and signed by an audit partner. D) client's stationery and signed by a company official.

D) client's stationery and signed by a company official.

Which of the following is the most efficient audit procedure for the detection of unrecorded liabilities at the balance sheet date? A) obtain an attorney's letter from the client's attorney B) confirm large accounts payable balances at the balance sheet date C) examine purchase orders issued for several days prior to the close of the year D) compare cash disbursements in the subsequent period with the accounts payable trial balance at year-end

D) compare cash disbursements in the subsequent period with the accounts payable trial balance at year-end

Which of the following would be a subsequent discovery of facts which would not require a response by the auditor? A) discovery of the inclusion of material nonexistent sales B) discovery of the failure to write off material obsolete inventory C) discovery of the omission of a material footnote D) decrease in the value of investments

D) decrease in the value of investments

At the completion of the audit, management is asked to make a written statement that it is not aware of any undisclosed contingent liabilities. This statement would appear in the: A) management letter. B) letter of inquiry. C) letters testamentary. D) management letter of representation.

D) management letter of representation.

Which of the following is not one of the categories of items included in the client letter of representation? A) subsequent events B) Completeness of information C) recognition, measurement, and disclosure D) materiality

D) materiality

An attorney is responding to an independent auditor as a result of the client's letter of inquiry. The attorney may appropriately limit the response to: A) asserted claims and litigation. B) asserted, overtly threatened, or pending claims and litigation. C) items which have an extremely high probability of being resolved to the client's detriment. D) matters to which the attorney has given substantive attention in the form of legal consultation or representation.

D) matters to which the attorney has given substantive attention in the form of legal consultation or representation.

After an auditor has issued an audit report on a nonpublic entity, there is no obligation to make any further audit tests or inquiries with respect to the audited financial statements covered by that report unless: A) material adverse events occur after the date of the auditor's report. B) final determination or resolution was made of a contingency which had been disclosed in the financial statements. C) final determination or resolution was made on matters which had resulted in a qualification in the auditor's report. D) new information comes to the auditor's attention concerning an event that occurred prior to the date of the auditor's report that may have affected the auditor's report.

D) new information comes to the auditor's attention concerning an event that occurred prior to the date of the auditor's report that may have affected the auditor's report.

Audit procedures related to contingent liabilities are initially focused on: A) accuracy. B) completeness. C) existence. D) occurrence.

D) occurrence.

Auditing standards (SAS No. 99 and SAS No. 54) require the auditor to communicate all management frauds and illegal acts to the audit committee: A) only if the act is immaterial. B) only if the act is material. C) only if the act is highly material. D) regardless of materiality.

D) regardless of materiality.

The auditor has a responsibility to review transactions and activities occurring after the year-end to determine whether anything occurred that might affect the statements being audited. The procedures required to verify these transactions are commonly referred to as the review for: A) contingent liabilities. B) subsequent year's transactions. C) late unusual occurrences. D) subsequent events.

D) subsequent events.

Which of the following would the auditor find most useful in relation to its previous audit procedures from the client representation letter? A) to impress upon the audit firm its responsibility for the audit B) to impress upon management its responsibility for the financial statement assertions C) to remind management of potential misstatements or omissions in the financial statements D) to document the responses from management to inquiries about various aspects of the audit

D) to document the responses from management to inquiries about various aspects of the audit

Which of the following procedures and methods are important in assessing a company's ability to continue as a going concern? Discussions with management regarding future plans related to sales activities, cost controls, and marketing efforts. Reviewing quarter on the internal control questionnaire specifically asking the client to evaluate the ability to continue.

Discussions with management regarding future plans related to sales activities, cost controls, and marketing efforts. - Yes Reviewing quarter on the internal control questionnaire specifically asking the client to evaluate the ability to continue. - No

The use of one audit report date for normal subsequent events and a later date for one or more subsequent events.

Dual-dated audit report

A review of the financial statements and the entire set of audit files by an independent reviewer to whom the audit team must justify the evidence accumulated and the conclusions reached.

Independent review

A written communication from the client to the auditor formalizing statements that the client has made about matters pertinent to the audit.

Letter of representation

If an auditor concludes there are contingent liabilities, then he or she must evaluate the: Materiality of the potential liability- Nature of the disclosure to be included in the financial statements-

Materiality of the potential liability-Yes Nature of the disclosure to be included in the financial statements-Yes

Which of the following is not a contingent liability with which an auditor is particularly concerned? Notes receivable discounted- Product warranties-

Notes receivable discounted-Yes Product warranties-Yes

Transactions that occurred after the balance sheet date, which affect the fair presentation or disclosure of the statements being audited.

Subsequent events

Which type of subsequent event requires consideration by management and evaluation by the auditor? Subsequent events that have a direct effect on the financial statements & require adjustment- Subsequent events that have no direct effect on the financial statements but for which disclosure is considered-

Subsequent events that have a direct effect on the financial statements & require adjustment- Yes Subsequent events that have no direct effect on the financial statements but for which disclosure is considered-Yes

Auditors often integrate procedures for presentation and disclosure objectives with: Tests for planning objectives- Tests for balance-related objectives-

Tests for planning objectives-No Tests for balance-related objectives-Yes

With what types of contingencies might an auditor be concerned?

The auditor is generally concerned with contingencies arising from pending litigation for patent infringement, income tax disputes, product warranties, notes receivable discounted, guarantees of obligations of others, and unused balances of outstanding letters of credit.

If the auditor determines that a subsequent event that affects the current period financial statements occurred after fieldwork was completed but before the audit report was issued, what date(s) may the auditor use on the report? The date of the original last day of fieldwork only. The date of the subsequent event only. The date on which the last day of fieldwork occurred along with the date of the subsequent event.

The date of the original last day of fieldwork only.-Yes The date of the subsequent event only.-No The date on which the last day of fieldwork occurred along with the date of the subsequent event.-Yes

Discuss two of the three matters which Sarbanes-Oxley requires auditors of public companies to report to the audit committee.

The three items that must be reported to the audit committee are: • all fraud and illegal acts, • significant internal control deficiencies and material weaknesses in the design or operation of internal control to those charged with governance, and • additional information such as all alternative treatments of financial information within requirements of accounting standards that have been discussed with management, ramifications of the alternative disclosures and treatments, and the treatment preferred by the auditor; initial selection of and changes in significant accounting policies or their application during the current audit period, as well as reasons for any changes; and methods used to account for any significant unusual transactions and the effect of significant accounting policies in controversial emerging areas.

An environmental clean-up lawsuit is pending against your client. What information about the lawsuit would you as the auditor need in order to determine the "correct" accounting?

Three conditions are required for a contingent liability to exist: (1) there is a potential future payment to an outside party or the impairment of an asset that resulted from an existing condition; (2) there is uncertainty about the amount for the future payment or impairment; and (3) the outcome will be resolved by some future event or events. Accounting standards describe three levels of likelihood of occurrence and the appropriate financial statement treatment for each likelihood as follows: a. Probable-future event likely to occur and amount can be reasonably estimated then the financial statement accounts are adjusted. If amount cannot be reasonably estimated, then a footnote disclosure is necessary. b. Reasonably possible-chance of occurring is more than remote, but less than probable. Footnote disclosure is necessary. c. Remote-chance of occurrence is slight No disclosure is necessary.

A potential legal claim against a client where the condition for a claim exists but no claim has been filed.

Unasserted claim

On February 19, 2008, Treble settled a lawsuit out of court that had originated in 2002 and is currently listed as a contingent liability.

a. Adjust the December 31, 2007 financial statements.

On February 17, 2012, you discovered that, on November 30, 2011, a flood destroyed the entire uninsured inventory in one of Schmidt's warehouses.

a. Adjust the December 31, 2011 financial statements.

On February 2, 2008, you discovered an uninsured lawsuit against Treble that had originated on August 30, 2007.

b. Disclose the information in a footnote in the December 31, 2007 financial statements.

On January 16, 2008, a lawsuit was filed against Treble for a patent infringement action that allegedly took place in early 2005. In the opinion of Treble's attorneys, there is a reasonable (but not probable) danger of a significant loss to Treble.

b. Disclose the information in a footnote in the December 31, 2007 financial statements.

On February 17, 2012, you discovered that, on February 16, 2012, a flood destroyed the entire uninsured inventory in one of Schmidt's warehouses.

b. Disclose the information in a footnote in the December 31, 2011 financial statements.

On April 7, 2012, you discovered that a debtor of Schmidt went bankrupt on January 6, 2012, due to gradual declining financial health.

c. Request the client revise and reissue the December 31, 2011 financial statements. The revision should involve an adjustment to the December 31, 2011 financial statements.

On April 7, 2008, you discovered that a debtor of Treble went bankrupt on January 22, 2008, due to a major uninsured fire that occurred on January 2, 2008.

d. Request the client revise and reissue the December 31, 2007 financial statements. The revision should involve the addition of a footnote, but no adjustment, to the December 31, 2007 financial statements.

On April 5, 2012, you discovered that, on February 16, 2012 a flood destroyed the entire uninsured inventory in one of Schmidt's warehouses.

d. Request the client revise and reissue the December 31, 2011 financial statements. The revision should involve the addition of a footnote, but no adjustment, to the December 31, 2011 financial statements.

On April 5, 2012, you discovered that, on March 30, 2012, a fire destroyed one of Schmidt's 13 plants.

e. No action is required.

On March 30, 2008, Treble settled a lawsuit out of court that had originated in 2004 and is currently listed as a contingent liability.

e. No action is required.

Inquiries of management regarding the possibility of unrecorded contingencies will be useful in uncovering: managements intentional failure to disclose existing contingencies- when management does not comprehend accounting disclosure requirements-

managements intentional failure to disclose existing contingencies-No when management does not comprehend accounting disclosure requirements-Yes

List two lists or requests that should be included in a standard "inquiry of attorney" letter.

• A list, prepared by management, of (1) pending threatened litigation and (2) asserted or unasserted claims or assessments with which the attorney has had significant involvement. An alternative is for the letter to request the attorney to prepare the list. • A request that the attorney furnish information or comment about the progress of each item listed, the legal action the client intends to take, the likelihood of an unfavorable outcome, and an estimate of the amount or range of the potential loss. • A request for the identification of any unlisted pending or threatened legal actions or a statement that the client's list is complete. • A statement by the client informing the attorney of his or her responsibility to inform management whenever in the attorney's judgment there is a legal matter requiring disclosure in the financial statements. The letter of inquiry should also request the attorney to respond directly to the auditor that he or she understands this responsibility. • A request that the attorney identifies and describes the nature of any reasons for any limitations in the response.

Besides the search for contingent liabilities and the review for subsequent events, the auditor has four important final evidence accumulation responsibilities, all of which are required by current professional auditing standards. Discuss each of these four responsibilities.

• Final analytical procedures performed as a final review for material misstatements or financial problems and to help the auditor take a final objective look at the financial statements. • Evaluate the going concern assumption. • Obtain a client representation letter documenting management's most important oral representations during the audit. • Consider supplementary information included in published annual reports pertaining directly to the financial statements.

LIST four of the procedures commonly used to search for contingent liabilities.

• Inquire of management (orally and in writing) about the possibility of unrecorded contingencies. • Review current and previous years' internal revenue agent reports for income tax settlements. • Review the minutes of directors' and stockholders' meetings for indications of lawsuits or other contingencies. • Analyze legal expense for the period under audit, and review invoices and statements from legal counsel for indications of contingent liabilities. • Obtain a letter from each major attorney performing legal services for the client as to the status of pending litigation or other contingent liabilities. • Review audit documentation for any information that may indicate a potential contingency. • Examine letters of credit in force as of the balance sheet date and obtain a confirmation of the used and unused balances.

List 2 types of information normally contained in a legal letter to the client's attorneys.

• List and evaluation of pending or threatened litigation to which the attorney has devoted significant attention • A list of unasserted claims and assessments considered by management to probable and reasonably possible of an unfavorable outcome • A description and evaluation of the outcome of each pending or threatened litigation • Comments on unasserted claims where their views are different than managements

List four specific matters that should be included in a client representation letter.

• Management's acknowledgment of its responsibility for the fair presentation in the statements of financial position, results of operations, and cash flows in conformity with applicable accounting standards. • Availability of all financial records and related data. • Completeness and availability of all minutes of meetings of stockholders, directors, and committees of directors. • Management's belief that the effects of any uncorrected financial statement misstatements are immaterial to the financial statements. • Information concerning fraud involving (a) management, (b) employees who have significant roles in internal control, or (c) others where fraud could have a material effect on the financial statements. • Information concerning related-party transactions and related amounts receivable or payable. • Unasserted claims or assessments that the entity's lawyer has advised are probable of assertion and must be disclosed in accordance with accounting standards. • Bankruptcy of a major customer with an outstanding account receivable at the balance sheet date. • A merger or acquisition after the balance sheet date.

State two of the three purposes of the client letter of representation.

• To impress upon management its responsibility for the assertions in the financial statements. • To remind management of potential misstatements or omissions in the financial statements. • To document the responses from management to inquiries about various aspects of the audit.

State the two primary types of subsequent events that require consideration by management and evaluation by the auditor, and give an example of each type.

• Type 1: Events that have a direct effect on the financial statements and require adjustment of the current year's financial statement amounts. Examples include declaration of bankruptcy by a customer with an outstanding accounts receivable balance due to deteriorating financial condition; settlement of litigation at an amount different from the amount recorded on the books, disposal of equipment not being used in operations at a price below the current book value; sale of investments at a price below recorded cost. • Type 2: Events that have no direct effect on the financial statements but for which disclosure is required. Examples include a decline in the market value of securities held for temporary investment or resale; issuance of bonds or equity securities; a decline in the market value of inventory as a consequence of government action barring further sale of a product; the uninsured loss of inventories as a result of fire; a merger or an acquisition.