Aviation 2100 Midterm 2
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours? a. 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds b. 1 mile visibility , 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds c. 3 miles visibility and clear clouds
a. 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds
(Refer to Figure 26, area 2) Inflight and approaching the Bryn (Pvt) Airship, the weather minimums are a. 1 statute mile visibility b. 3 statute miles in all airspace c. no visibility, remain clear of clouds
a. 1 statute mile visibility
While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency? a. 121.5 MHz b. 122.5 MHz c. 128.725 MHz
a. 121.5 MHz
(Refer to Figure 22, area 1) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate at night over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are a. 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud b. 3 miles and clear of clouds c. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud
a. 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud
VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and Below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of a. 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace b. 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes c. 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace
a. 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace
If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only a. 30 days after the date of the move b. 60 days after the date of the move c. 90 days after the date of the move
a. 30 days after the date of the move
To maintain BasicMed privileges you are required to complete the comprehensive medical examination checklist (CMEC) every a. 48 months b. 24 months c. 12 months
a. 48 months
To operate under BasicMed the pilot-in-command must have completed a physical examination by a state-licensed physician within the preceding a. 48 months b. 24 months c. 12 months
a. 48 months
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is a. 500 feet b. 1,000 feet c. 1,500 feet
a. 500 feet
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure? a. 500 feet b. 700 feet c. 1,000 feet
a. 500 feet
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding a. 8 hours b. 12 hours c. 24 hours
a. 8 hours
To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding a. 90 days b. 12 calendar months c. 24 calendar months
a. 90 days
Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding a. 90 days b. 60 days c. 30 days
a. 90 days
What is the definition of a high performance airplane? a. An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower b. An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed pitch propeller c. An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots
a. An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere a. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface b. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure c. An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1000 feet
a. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? a. Glider b. Airship c. Aircraft refueling other aircraft
a. Glider
Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft? a. In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care b. Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilots compartment c. Under no condition
a. In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care
How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division? a. No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action b. No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action c. Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate
a. No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action
An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is to the left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right of way? a. The airship b. The airplane c. Each pilot should alter course to the right
a. The airship
When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance? a. Within 48 hours if requested by ATC b. Immediately c. Within 7 days
a. Within 48 hours if requested by ATC
Each recreational or private pilot is required to have a. a biennial flight review b. an annual flight review c. a semiannual flight review
a. a biennial flight review
In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may a. not pay less than pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees b. act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment c. not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight
a. not pay less than pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees
What minimum pilot certificate is required for a flight departing out of Hayward executive (area 6)? a. student pilot certificate b. private pilot certificate c. sport pilot certificate
a. student pilot certificate
Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during a. takeoffs and landings b. all flight conditions c. flight in turbulent air
a. takeoffs and landings
With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during a. taxi, takeoff, and landings b. all flight conditions c. flight in turbulent air
a. taxi, takeoff, and landings
To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot-in-command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in a. the same category and class of aircraft to be used b. the same type of aircraft to be used c. any aircraft
a. the same category and class of aircraft to be used
The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from a. sunset to sunrise b. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise c. the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight
b. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is a. 500 feet b. 1,000 feet c. 1,500 feet
b. 1,000 feet
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is a. 500 feet b. 1,000 feet c. 1,500 feet
b. 1,000 feet
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are a. 500 foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility b. 1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility c. clear of clouds and 2 mile visibility
b. 1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility
A certified private pilot may not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of a. 100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft, that the pilot is using to tow a glider b. 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider c. 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider
b. 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider
An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding a. 120 days b. 180 days c. 365 days
b. 180 days
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is a. 1 mile b. 3 miles c. 5 miles
b. 3 miles
What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL? a. 1 mile b. 3 miles c. 4 miles
b. 3 miles
For private pilot operations under BasicMed, the pilot-in-command is allowed to fly with no more than a. 6 passengers b. 5 passengers c. 5 occupants
b. 5 passengers
The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is a. remain clear of clouds b. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally c. 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below and 2,000 feet horizontally
b. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally
What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace? a. Automated Flight Service Station b. Air Traffic control tower c. Air Route Traffic Control Center
b. Air Traffic control tower
The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft? a. Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the administrator b. Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds c. Aircraft involved in ferry lights, training flights or test flights
b. Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds
With resect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft? a. Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon b. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air c. Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea
b. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic? a. A balloon b. An aircraft in distress c. An aircraft on final approach to land
b. An aircraft in distress
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area? a. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface b. An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except when over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure c. An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet
b. An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except when over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure
A third class medical certificate was issued to a 19 year old pilot August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on a. August 10, 2 years later b. August 31, 5 years later c. August 31, 2 years later
b. August 31, 5 years later
A third class medical certificate was issued to a 36 year old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on a. August 10, 3 years later b. August 31, 5 years later c. August 31, 3 years later
b. August 31, 5 years later
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight? a. Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries b. Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight c. Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures
b. Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane? a. Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions b. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed c. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
b. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed
A third class medical certificate is issued to a 51 year old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on a. May 3, 1 year later b. May 31, 1 year later c. May 31, 2 years later
c. May 31, 2 years later
For private pilot operations, a first class medical certificate issued to a 23 year old pilot on October 21, this year will expire at midnight on a. October 21, 2 years later b. October 31, next year c. October 31, 5 years later
c. October 31, 5 years later
Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened? a. Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing b. Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing while en route c. Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing
c. Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing
What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night? a. The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace b. The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder c. The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped
c. The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator? a. Within 7 days b. Within 10 days c. Upon request
c. Upon request
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include a. the designation of an alternate airport b. a study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use c. an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned
c. an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned
To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months a. at least three flights as an observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft b. at least three flights in a powered glider c. at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot
c. at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft a. that has the other to its right b. that is the least maneuverable c. at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another
c. at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another
An ATC clearance provides a. priority over all other traffic b. adequate separation from all traffic c. authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace
c. authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace
To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same a. make and model b. category and class, but not type c. category, class, and type, if a type rating is required
c. category, class, and type, if a type rating is required
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is a. 1 mile b. 3 miles c. 5 miles
a. 1 mile
What is the minimum weather condition required from airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace? a. 1 mile flight visibility b. 1 mile flight visibility and 1,000 foot ceiling c. 3 miles flight visibility and 1,000 foot ceiling
a. 1 mile flight visibility
What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority? a. Take no special action since you are pilot in command b. File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested c. File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible
b. File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested
What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight? a. If the passengers pay for all the operating expenses b. If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight c. There is no exception
b. If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight
A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crew member, must have in his or her personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current a. logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactory accomplished b. Medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate c. Endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactory accomplished
b. Medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate
Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when? a. Pilots only, during takeoff and landing b. Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only c. Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight
b. Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only
With respect to the certification of airmen, which are classes of aircraft? a. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air b. Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea c. Lighter-than air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon
b. Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on? a. The faster aircraft shall give way b. The aircraft on the left shall give way c. Each aircraft shall give way to the right
b. The aircraft on the left shall give way
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight? a. A certified aircraft mechanic b. The pilot-in-command c. The owner or operator
b. The pilot-in-command
With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts? a. The pilot-in command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight b. The pilot-in-command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing c. The pilot-in-command has no obligation in regard to passengers use of safety belts
b. The pilot-in-command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing
A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way? a. The motorboat b. The seaplane c. Both should alter course to the right
b. The seaplane
With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute? a. When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers b. When intentionally pitching the nose of an aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more c. When intentionally banking in excess of 30 degrees
b. When intentionally pitching the nose of an aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more
No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the a. flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds b. airplane is equipped for instrument flight c. flight visibility is at least 3 miles
b. airplane is equipped for instrument flight
When ATC clearance has been obtained, no PIC may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is a. When the clearance states "at pilots discretion" b. an emergency c. If the clearance contains a restriction
b. an emergency
A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is a. less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet b. at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds c. at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds
b. at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds
If a inflight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot-in-command may a. deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours b. deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency c. not deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator
b. deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency
The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the a. Federal Aviation Administration b. pilot-in-command c. aircraft manufacturer
b. pilot-in-command
Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts for a flight is the responsibility of a. all passengers b. the pilot-in-command c. the right-seat pilot
b. the pilot-in-command
For private pilot operations a second class medical certificate issued to a 42 year old pilot on July 15, this year will expire at midnight on a. July 15, 2 years later b. July 31, 1 year later c. July 31, 2 years later
c. July 31, 2 years later
No person may attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft with a. 0.008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood b. 0.004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood c. 0.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood
c. 0.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood
For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is a. 1,000 feet b. 2,000 feet c. 1 mile
c. 1 mile
(Refer to Figure 26, area 2) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown after departing and climbing out of Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are a. 3 miles clear of clouds b. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds c. 1 mile and clear of clouds
c. 1 mile and clear of clouds
(Refer to Figure 78) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa (K36) airport during the day? a. 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds b. 0 statute miles, clear of clouds c. 1 statute mile, clear of clouds
c. 1 statute mile, clear of clouds
If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is a. 1829 b. 1859 c. 1929
c. 1929
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is a. 1,000 feet b. 1,500 feet c. 2,000 feet
c. 2,000 feet
To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding a. 6 calendar months b. 12 calendar months c. 24 calendar months
c. 24 calendar months
(Refer to Figure 22, area 1) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are a. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud b. 1 mile and clear of clouds c. 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud
c. 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud
(Refer to Figure 26, area 2) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are a. 1 mile and clear of clouds b. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds c. 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds
c. 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is a. 1 mile b. 3 miles c. 5 miles
c. 5 miles
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? a. Gyroplane b. Airship c. Aircraft towing other aircraft
c. Aircraft towing other aircraft
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas? a. An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure b. An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft c. An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft
c. An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft
What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft? a. Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current flight review b. A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience c. An appropriate pilot certification and an appropriate current medical certificate is required
c. An appropriate pilot certification and an appropriate current medical certificate is required
When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft? a. When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery b. Only when passengers are carried c. Anytime when acting as pilot-in-command or as a required crew member
c. Anytime when acting as pilot-in-command or as a required crew member
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required? a. August 8, 2 years later b. August 31, next year c. August 31, 2 years later
c. August 31, 2 years later
What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course? a. The airplane pilot should give way to the left b. The glider pilot should give way to the right c. Both pilots should give way to the right
c. Both pilots should give way to the right
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane? a. Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions b. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed c. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
c. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
As pilot in command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance? a. When operating in a class A airspace at night b. If an ATC clearance is not understood and in VFR conditions c. In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory
c. In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to a. review traffic control light signal procedures b. check accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) c. determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data
c. determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the a. flight visibility at the airport is at least 1 mile b. ground visibility at the airport is at least 1 mile c. ground visibility at the airport is at least 3 miles
c. ground visibility at the airport is at least 3 miles
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any a. Authorized representative of the Department of Transportation b. person in a position of authority c. local law enforcement officer
c. local law enforcement officer
The takeoffs and landing required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane a. may be touch and go or full stop b. must be touch and go c. must be a full stop
c. must be a full stop
According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may a. be paid for operating expenses of a flight if at least three takeoffs and landings were made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days b. not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight c. not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures or rental fees
c. not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures or rental fees
In order to act as pilot-in-command of a high performance airplane, a pilot must have a. made and logged three solo takeoffs and landings in a high performance airplane b passed a flight test in a high performance airplane c. received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower
c. received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower
Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high performance airplane, that person must have a. passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector b. an endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent in to act as pilot-in-command c. received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook
c. received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook
The definition of nighttime is a. sunset to sunrise b. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise c. the time between the end of the evening civil twilight and the beginning of the morning civil twilight
c. the time between the end of the evening civil twilight and the beginning of the morning civil twilight