Bauman ch. 20-25 gold MC

A contact lens wearer and cat owner begins to experience problems with her eye. The eye is inflamed and painful, and examination of the eye reveals that the conjunctiva is ulcerating. Which of the following parasites could be responsible? A) Cryptosporidium parvum B) Toxoplasma gondii C) Trypanosoma cruzi D) Acanthamoeba E) Entamoeba histolytica

D

A lesion called ________ is characteristic of infection with Haemophilus ducreyi. A) a bubo B) ophthalmia neonatorum C) an eschar D) a chancroid or soft chancre E) petechiae

D

A scientist discovers a new virus that causes mild respiratory disease in humans. He is able to isolate, purify, and characterize the virus. The virus preparation contains double-stranded DNA and no lipid. To which of the following virus families does this new virus likely belong? A) Papillomarviridae B) Adenoviridae or Papillomaviridae C) Herpesviridae or Poxviridae D) Adenoviridae E) Herpesviridae

D

Adenoviruses infect A) the nervous system. B) the respiratory tract. C) the digestive tract. D) both the digestive tract and the respiratory tract. E) both the respiratory tract and the nervous system.

D

An avid gardener in eastern North America begins to have a fever and cough. A sample from her lungs contains yeast cells. She may be infected with A) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis. B) Mucor. C) Claviceps purpurea. D) Blastomyces dermatitidis. E) Amanita phalloides.

D

An elderly woman is experiencing fever, chest pain, difficulty breathing, and a cough that occasionally brings up mucus containing blood. She reports having visited family in rural New Mexico over the Labor Day weekend. A GMS-stained sample from her lungs shows the presence of large spherules. Which of the following is the most likely infecting agent? A) Histoplasma capsulatum B) Trichophyton rubrum C) Blastomyces dermatitidis D) Coccidioides immitis E) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

D

An immunocompromised patient has a severe nasal infection that has blocked his ability to breathe through his nose. A sample taken from the nose is treated with KOH and is found to contain large hyphae with very few septa. Which of the following diseases may the patient have? A) candidiasis B) cryptococcosis C) blastomycosis D) zygomycosis E) mycetoma

D

Brown pigmented hyphae in specimens from cutaneous or subcutaneous lesions are characteristic of A) mycetoma. B) chromoblastomycosis. C) pityriasis. D) phaeohyphomycosis. E) sporotrichosis.

D

Cat scratch disease is caused by A) Bartonella angiomatosis. B) Bartonella quintana. C) Bartonella bacilliformis. D) Bartonella henselae. E) Bartonella peliosis.

D

Dark staining masses of virions, called Negri bodies, in the brains of victims are diagnostic of A) eastern equine encephalitis virus. B) HTLV-2. C) Venezuelan encephalitis virus. D) rabies. E) California encephalitis virus.

D

Ebola hemorrhagic virus is caused by which type of virus? A) rubulavirus B) pneumovirus C) rhabdovirus D) filovirus E) paramyxovirus

D

Epidemic typhus can recur many years after an initial episode; the recurrent disease is called A) scrub typhus. B) avian typhus. C) murine typhus. D) Brill-Zinsser disease. E) parrot fever.

D

Ergometrine, which is used to stimulate labor contractions, is a product of A) Amanita phalloides. B) Piedraia hortae. C) Aspergillus flavus. D) Claviceps purpurea. E) Exophiala.

D

Gamma interferon is sometimes used to treat infections with A) poxviruses. B) both herpesviruses and poxviruses. C) herpesviruses. D) adenoviruses. E) parvoviruses

D

How do Prevotella differ from Bacteroides? A) Prevotella are found in the intestinal, respiratory, and urinary tracts. B) Prevotella are pleomorphic bacilli. C) Prevotella are anaerobic. D) Prevotella are sensitive to bile. E) Prevotella possess antiphagocytic capsules

D

Humans may become infected with ________ by inhaling aerosols of dried rodent excrement. A) coronaviruses B) influenza virus C) West Nile virus D) hantavirus E) Venezuelan encephalitis virus

D

Lipid A causes which of the following symptoms? A) fever B) hemorrhaging C) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) D) fever and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) E) fever and hemorrhaging

D

Most mycoses are difficult to treat because A) many fungi have developed resistance antifungal agents and fungicides have numerous side effects. B) fungicides have numerous side effects. C) fungal cells are similar to human cells. D) fungicides have numerous side effects, including cross-reactivity to human cells. E) many fungi have developed resistance antifungal agents.

D

Pityriasis, characterized by patches of hyperpigmented and depigmented skin on the trunk and arms, is due to cutaneous infection with A) Epidermophyton floccosum. B) Microsporum canis. C) Trichophyton rubrum. D) Malassezia furfur. E) Cryptococcus neoformans

D

Pneumocystis jiroveci is A) actually a protozoan and not a fungus. B) easy to grow in the laboratory. C) not a danger to AIDS patients. D) an obligate parasite that cannot survive outside the lungs. E) a common member of the human respiratory microbiota.

D

Public health scientists discover and become concerned about a new strain of RNA virus among farm animals, especially geese and pigs, in the Midwest. Each virion is composed of lipid, helical proteins, and multiple pieces of RNA. This new virus may be A) a dengue virus. B) a rotavirus. C) a coronavirus. D) an influenza virus. E) a hantavirus.

D

Red mites (chiggers) spread ________ among both humans and rodents. A) Rickettsia typhi B) Borrelia recurrentis C) Ehrlichia chaffeensis D) Orientia tsutsugamushi E) Rickettsia rickettsii

D

Ringworm is caused by A) a hypersensitivity caused by superficial contact with dermatophytes. B) toxins produced by dermatophytes. C) worms infected with fungi invading the skin. D) dermatophytes growing in the outer dead tissue layers of the skin (epidermis). E) dermatophytes that have invaded deep into the living tissue.

D

Schistosoma A) is a roundworm. B) is a liver fluke. C) has proglottids. D) uses snails as an intermediate host. E) is a cestode.

D

The STD characterized by three distinctly different symptomatic stages is the result of infection with A) Leptospira interrogans. B) Chlamydia trachomatis. C) Treponema pallidum pertenue. D) Treponema pallidum pallidum. E) Treponema carateum.

D

The West Nile virus is considered a(n) A) enterovirus. B) togavirus. C) rhinovirus. D) flavivirus. E) coronavirus.

D

The ________ causes a T cell leukemia. A) HIV B) hantavirus C) hepatitis B virus D) HTLV-1 E) hepatitis C virus

D

The human T-lymphotropic virus 1 causes A) Burkitt's lymphoma. B) hepatic cancer. C) hairy cell leukemia. D) adult acute T-cell lymphocytic leukemia. E) Hodgkin's lymphoma

D

The major damage caused by Neisseria meningitidis is a result oF A) its presence in the respiratory tract of 40% of healthy individuals. B) its invasion into the central nervous system. C) its ability to be transmitted by droplets among people who live in close contact. D) the release of the lipid A component of lipooligosaccharide (LOS) into the tissues, triggering serious symptoms. E) the fact that it can survive in cells after phagocytosis

D

The protozoans known as apicomplexans A) are motile intracellular parasites. B) are motile. C) reproduce by schizogony. D) reproduce by schizogony and are intracellular parasites. E) are intracellular parasites.

D

The vectors of ________ are sand flies. A) beaver fever B) Chagas' disease C) filariasis D) leishmaniasis E) giardiasis

D

What cell type can the Simplexviruses infect latently? A) B cells B) multiple cell types C) neurons D) epithelial cells E) T cells

D

What is the causative pathogen for bubonic and pneumonic plague? 1 A) Salmonella enterica B) Yersinia enterocolitica C) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis D) Yersinia pestis E) Salmonella flexneri

D

Which form of Leishmania lacks flagella and multiplies in a mammalian host's macrophages? A) epimastigotes B) promastigotes C) trophozoites D) amastigotes E) cystic forms

D

Which of the following bacteria can metabolize a large range of organic compounds and is a frequent nosocomial pathogen of cystic fibrosis patients? (There is no abnormal coloration of the mucus in these patients.) A) Haemophilus influenzae B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa C) Klebsiella pneumoniae D) Burkholderia E) Coxiella burnetii

D

Which of the following causes pinta, a skin disease primarily of children, in which spirochetes are detectable in specimens from the lesions? A) Borrelia recurrentis B) Treponema pallidum pallidum C) Leptospira interrogans D) Treponema carateum E) Treponema pallidum pertenue

D

Which of the following cells are a major reservoir for HIV? A) helper T cells B) cytotoxic T cells C) B lymphocytes D) monocytes and macrophages E) infected dendritic cells

D

Which of the following cells is NOT infected by HIV? A) microglia B) helper T cells C) macrophages D) B lymphocytes E) dendritic cells

D

Which of the following dermatophytes infects hair as well as skin? A) Fonsecaea pedrosoi B) Epidermophyton floccosum C) Microsporum canis D) Trichophyton rubrum E) Malassezia furfur

D

Which of the following diseases can be prevented by vaccination? A) chancroid B) gonorrhea C) cat scratch disease D) typhoid fever E) salmonellosis

D

Which of the following fungal infections can be contracted through thorn pricks or wood splinters? A) Cladophialophora bantiana B) Aspergillus flavus C) Gyromitra esculenta D) Sporothrix schenckii E) Malassezia furfur

D

Which of the following is an intracellular parasite of humans that usually causes a mild pneumonia? A) Rickettsia typhi B) Anaplasma C) Ehrlichia chaffeensis D) Chlamydophila pneumoniae E) Chlamydophila psittaci

D

Which of the following is the most common pathogenic fungus affecting humans? A) Coccidioides immitis B) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis C) Histoplasma capsulatum D) Aspergillus fumigatus E) Blastomyces dermatitidis

D

Which of the following is the most important vector of human diseases? A) mites B) lice C) sand flies D) mosquitoes E) fleas

D

Which of the following is transmitted by the fecal-oral route?

D

Which of the following statements about truly pathogenic fungi that cause systemic mycoses is FALSE? A) They produce yeast forms at 37°C. B) They can infect any susceptible host regardless of its immune status. C) They are dimorphic. D) They have the ability to form mycelial thalli that are very invasive. E) They are relatively resistant to phagocytic killing.

D

Which of the following statements concerning infection with Toxoplasma is FALSE? A) It is typically contracted by eating undercooked meat. B) It is one of the world's most widely distributed protozoan parasites in humans. C) The majority of infected people are asymptomatic. D) Even though it can be transmitted across the placenta, it is harmless to the fetus. E) It usually results in no permanent damage and is self-limiting.

D

Which of the following statements concerning the hepatitis B vaccine is FALSE? A) It is protective against the virus in 95% of vaccinated individuals. B) It is recommended for high-risk groups. C) Immunity can last at least 20 years and may be for life. D) It must be repeated every five years. E) It must be given in three doses.

D

Which of the following viruses are oncogenic? A) human herpesvirus 4 B) papillomavirus C) adenovirus D) both human herpesvirus 4 and papillomavirus E) adenovirus, human herpesvirus 4, and papillomavirus

D

Which of the following viruses is responsible for erythema infectiosum? A) adenoviruses B) human herpesvirus 4 C) varicella D) B19 virus E) human herpesvirus 1

D

Why is snail fever a common name for infections with Schistosoma? A) Snails are the intermediate host. B) They are contracted by eating snails. C) The worms look like snails. D) Infection is contracted by contact with fresh water where the snail intermediate hosts occur. E) Physical contact with snails may result in infection.

D

antibiotics. A specimen from the lungs is greenish in color and contains aerobic motile Gram-negative bacilli. The patient is probably infected with A) Serratia marcescens. B) Klebsiella pneumoniae. C) Bordetella pertussis. D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. E) Burkholderia cepacia.

D

Among adults Chlamydia trachomatis is an STD, but among children who are not sexually active it can cause ocular infections which may be spread A) in respiratory droplets. B) by contact with saliva. C) by contact with saliva or blood. D) by fecal contamination. E) by fecal contamination or respiratory droplets

E

Diseases caused by coxsackie A virus include A) viral meningitis. B) myocarditis. C) hepatitis. D) hand-foot-and-mouth disease. E) both hand-foot-and-mouth disease and viral meningitis.

E

Enteric hepatitis is fatal for 20% of people in which of the following groups? A) teenagers B) elderly men C) young adults D) infants under the age of one year E) pregnant women

E

Hepatitis B virus releases a large amount of viral antigen, which benefits the patient by A) activating humoral immunity. B) allowing for better treatment. C) making it easier to develop a vaccine. D) producing a stronger cellular immune response. E) ensuring plentiful substrate for binding with labeled antibodies in diagnostic tests

E

Histoplasma capsulatum A) produces arthrospores. B) produces yeast cells with a "steering wheel" formation. C) produces capsules. D) is an opportunistic fungus. E) is an intracellular parasite.

E

Human herpesvirus 4 (EBV) is implicated in which of the following diseases? A) oral hairy leukoplakia B) chronic fatigue syndrome C) Burkitt's lymphoma D) cervical cancer E) Burkitt's lymphoma, chronic fatigue syndrome, and oral hairy leukoplakia

E

Infection of the respiratory system by ________ may develop into symptoms of a common cold. A) papillomaviruses B) cytomegaloviruses C) polyomaviruses D) parvoviruses E) adenoviruses

E

Infection with ________ produces symptoms similar to RMSF, except for the rash, making it difficult to diagnose A) Chlamydophila psittaci B) Chlamydia trachomatis C) Vibrio vulnificus D) Treponema carateum E) Anaplasma phagocytophilium

E

Inhalation of dried bodily fluids of infected animals may result in A) brucellosis. B) tularemia. C) Q fever. D) both tularemia and brucellosis. E) tularemia, brucellosis, and Q fever

E

Ocular histoplasmosis is a(n) A) delayed hypersensitivity reaction. B) autoimmune disease.C) example of contact dermatitis. D) cytotoxic immune cell reaction. E) type I hypersensitivity immune reaction.

E

Pinkeye is caused by A) human herpesvirus 4. B) a poxvirus. C) human herpesvirus 7. D) a polyomavirus. E) an adenovirus.

E

Psilocybin is a A) growth factor produced by mycoplasmas. B) toxin that causes bloody diarrhea. C) toxin that causes kidney failure. D) virulence factor produced by bacteria. E) toxin that acts as a hallucinogen.

E

Rickettsiosis is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii, a pathogen that A) produces powerful exotoxins. B) interferes with the host cell's Krebs cycle. C) provokes a severe immune response. D) lyses the host's cells. E) infects the lining of blood vessels and leads to leaking of plasma into tissue

E

Several cases of nonbloody diarrhea with nausea, fever, and abdominal pain have occurred among a number of people who ate at the same restaurant. Public health officers find a food sample containing motile noncoliform, Gram-negative bacteria capable of metabolizing glucose. The "food poisoning" resulted from contamination with A) Yersinia. B) Shigella. C) Escherichia coli. D) Citrobacter. E) Salmonella.

E

Severe watery diarrhea with a "rotten-egg" smell accompanied by abdominal pain, bloating, and fever are signs and symptoms consistent with A) cryptosporidiosis. B) leishmaniasis. C) balantidiasis. D) Chagas' disease. E) giardiasis.

E

Strains of Neisseria spp. need which of the following structural features to be pathogenic? A) lipooligosaccharide (LOS) in its wall B) fimbriae C) a capsule D) both a capsule and LOS E) a capsule, fimbriae and an LOS

E

The Ixodes tick can become infected with Borrelia burgdorferi A) only as a nymph. B) as an adult. C) as a larva. D) either as a nymph or an adult. E) either as a larva or a nymph.

E

The easiest way to prevent Taenia infection in humans is to A) identify patients with cysticerci in their muscles. B) vaccinate humans who are in contact with cows and pigs. C) spray pastures and grazing lands with toxins that kill the parasite. D) vaccinate cows and pigs. E) thoroughly cook or freeze meat.

E

The infectious stage of a beef tapeworm for humans is the A) gravid proglottids in feces. B) mature worm. C) larvae in feces. D) eggs in contaminated water. E) cysticerci in beef.

E

The only helminth disease of humans spread by an insect vector is A) ascariasis. B) schistosomiasis. C) fascioliasis. D) hydatid disease. E) filariasis.

E

The primary risk to humans infected with Echinococcus granulosus is A) anemia. B) infection of the fetus. C) development of cysticerci. D) intestinal obstruction. E) formation of hydatid cysts.

E

The zoonotic infection ________ in humans is characterized by fluctuating fever and chills, sweating, myalgia, and headache A) rabbit fever B) bartonellosis C) Q fever D) trench fever E) brucellosis

E

Transovarian transmission is a process in which A) a pathogen is transmitted to the host when the host ingests contaminated eggs. B) the pathogen is transmitted from an infected male to a healthy female during mating. C) a pathogen infects the ovaries of the host. D) the pathogen is spread from one host to the next by unprotected sexual intercourse. E) an infected female vector transmits the pathogen to the eggs forming in its ovaries.

E

Treponema pallidum can be transmitted A) through sexual intercourse. B) from an infected mother to her unborn child. C) by contact with infected fomites. D) both by contact with infected fomites and through sexual intercourse. E) both through sexual intercourse and from an infected mother to her unborn child.

E

Vaccinia, or cowpox, was used to eradicate the related smallpox virus. This would make it a(n) A) reservoir. B) subunit vaccine. C) cofactor. D) Dane particle. E) attenuated vaccine.

E

Virions known as Dane particles are the infectious form of A) hepatitis D. B) EBV. C) human herpesvirus 1. D) VZV. E) hepatitis B.

E

What conditions may trigger reactivation of latent herpesvirus infections? A) immune suppression B) severe stress C) major hormonal changes D) fever E) Fever, stress, immune suppression, or hormonal changes can all trigger reactivation.

E

What do Echinococcus granulosus, Entamoeba histolytica, and Enterobius vermicularis have in common? A) They are transmitted by insect vectors. B) They cause zoonoses in humans. C) They are diagnosed by examination of a blood smear. D) They are intracellular parasites. E) They live in the intestines of their definitive host.

E

What is unique about the Hepadnaviridae family of viruses? A) They contain RNA. B) They contain double-stranded RNA. C) They contain double-stranded DNA. D) They contain single-stranded DNA. E) They contain both single-stranded DNA and double-stranded DNA.

E

Where does human herpesvirus 4 (EBV) become latent? A) in oligodendrocytes B) in the dorsal root ganglion C) in cytotoxic T lymphocytes D) in brachial ganglia E) in B lymphocytes

E

Which of the following bodily fluids is commonly a source of infection by HIV? A) semen B) vaginal secretions C) breast milk D) both semen and vaginal secretions E) breast milk, semen, and vaginal secretions

E

Which of the following characteristics are common to Poxviridae, Herpesviridae, and Hepadnaviridae? A) a complex capsid B) double-stranded DNA in the virion C) the presence of an envelope D) double-stranded DNA in the virion with a complex capsid E) double-stranded DNA in the virion and the presence of an envelope

E

Which of the following coliforms is the most common cause of non-nosocomial urinary tract infections? 10) A) Proteus mirabilis B) Enterobacter C) Serratia marcescens D) Klebsiella pneumoniae E) Escherichia coli

E

Which of the following contributes to infection with Trichomonas vaginalis? A) compromised immunity B) living in an undeveloped area of the world C) careless handwashing habits D) contact with contaminated fomites E) preexisting disease (chlamydia, for example)

E

Which of the following enzymes allows retroviruses to transcribe DNA from ssRNA? A) integrase B) nuclease C) protease D) trypsinase E) reverse transcriptase

E

Which of the following fungal infections may progress to infection of the brain? A) Cryptococcus neoformans B) Coccidioides immitis C) Mucor D) both Coccidioides immitis and Cryptococcus neoformans E) Coccidioides immitis, Cryptococcus neoformans, and Mucor

E

Which of the following fungal infections was rare prior to the AIDS epidemic? A) hypersensitivity aspergillosis B) pulmonary cryptococcosis C) cutaneous candidiasis D) mycetomas E) Pneumocystis pneumonia

E

Which of the following intestinal protozoa are considered parasites of humans only? A) Balantidium coli B) Entamoeba histolytica C) Giardia intestinalis D) Cyclospora cayentanensis E) both Entamoeba histolytica and Cyclospora cayentanensis

E

Which of the following is an accidental parasite of humans? A) Balantidium coli B) Ascaris lumbricoides C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Plasmodium E) Acanthamoeba

E

Which of the following is referred to as the "death cap" mushroom? A) Amanita muscaria B) Psilocybe cubensis C) Gyromitra esculenta D) Cortinarius gentilis E) Amanita phalloides

E

Which of the following is the correct pairing of rickettsial pathogen and vector? A) R. rickettsia; flea B) R. typhi; tick C) R typhi; tick D) R rickettsia; louse E) R prowazeki; louse

E

Which of the following is the correct sequence for stages of Ehrlichia development in infected host cells? 2) A) initial body, morula, elementary body B) morula, initial body, morula, elementary body C) morula, elementary body, initial body D) initial body, elementary body, morula E) elementary body, initial body, morula

E

Which of the following is the result of inhalation of aerosols of fresh water containing a bacterial parasite of protozoa? A) acute bacterial meningitis B) Q fever C) meningococcal meningitis D) pertussis E) Legionnaires' disease

E

Which of the following microorganisms have been referred to as energy parasites? A) spirochetes B) vibrios C) Borrelia D) rickettsias E) chlamydias

E

Which of the following nematodes can be transmitted by mosquitoes? A) Necator americanus B) Enterobius vermicularis C) Ancylostoma duodenale D) Ascaris lumbricoides E) Wuchereria bancrofti

E

Which of the following organisms can colonize the nasal cavity and enter the brain to cause meningoencephalitis? A) Acanthamoeba B) Balantidium C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Giardia E) Naegleria

E

Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED? A) coliform Enterobacteriaceae; opportunistic pathogens B) coliform Enterobacteriaceae; rapid lactose fermenters C) noncoliform Enterobacteriaceae; non-lactose-fermenters D) noncoliform opportunistic Enterobacteriaceae; Proteus, Morganella E) nonpathogenic Enterobacteriaceae; Salmonella, Shigella

E

Which of the following parasites infects the lymphatic system? A) Echinococcus B) Schistosoma C) Ascaris D) Fasciola E) Wuchereria

E

Which of the following poxviruses are zoonoses? A) molluscum contagiosum B) smallpox C) monkeypox D) cowpox E) both cowpox and monkeypox

E

Which of the following statements concerning genital warts is FALSE? A) They can be transmitted via fomites. B) The virus may remain latent in neighboring cells and cause lesions at a later time. C) They can be sexually transmitted. D) They can travel to different locations on the same individual by autoinoculation. E) The incidence is relatively low because treatment is available

E

Which of the following statements concerning the causative agent of syphilis is TRUE? A) It is a large bacillus with peritrichous flagella. B) It is an intracellular parasite. C) It is pleomorphic and motile by means of gliding motility. D) It is a non-motile comma-shaped bacterium. E) It is a large helically coiled bacterium motile by means of endoflagella.

E

Which of the following statements is true of mycotoxicosis but NOT mycetismus? A) Organ damage can result. B) The portal of entry is the mouth. C) It causes toxicosis. D) Mushrooms are ingested. E) The fungus is not present.

E

Which of the following statements regarding trachoma is FALSE? A) Infants may contract the disease while passing through an infected birth canal. B) It is the leading cause of nontraumatic blindness in humans. C) It first infects the conjunctiva and kills cells there. D) It leads to corneal scarring. E) It is most often a disease of adults who suffer from sexually transmitted chlamydia.

E

Which of the following techniques reveal(s) the presence of fungal cells in tissues? A) KOH treatment B) Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) staining C) Gram staining combined with KOH treatment D) Gram staining E) both KOH treatment and Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) staining

E

Which of the following toxins produced by Bordetella pertussis results in the accumulation of excess mucus in the trachea? A) tracheal cytotoxin B) pertussis toxin C) adenylate cyclase toxin D) both adenylate cyclase toxin and tracheal cytotoxin E) both pertussis toxin and adenylate cyclase toxin

E

Which of the following viruses exist only in laboratory stocks? A) vaccinia B) erythrovirus C) varicella D) cowpox E) smallpox

E

Which of the following viruses may cause viral meningitis? A) coxsackie viruses B) rhinoviruses C) echoviruses D) both echoviruses and rhinoviruses E) both echoviruses and coxsackie viruses

E

Which of the following is a family of double-stranded RNA viruses? A) Reoviridae B) Coronaviridae C) Rhabdoviridae D) Retroviridae E) Picornaviridae

a

Fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, and a yellow color of the sclera and skin, without hemorrhaging or kidney damage, are typically observed with A) hepatitis. B) gastroenteritis. C) dengue fever. D) yellow fever. E) rubella.

A

High fever, headache, extreme fatigue, and a rash on the face that progresses to fluid- and pus-filled sores before crusting over and healing are signs and symptoms consistent with infection with A) poxvirus. B) herpesvirus. C) polyomavirus. D) papillomavirus. E) adenovirus

A

How is pneumonic plague transmitted? A) inhalation of respiratory aerosols from a person infected with Yersinia pestis B) contact with the blood of a person infected with Yersinia pestis C) bite of a flea carrying Yersinia pestis D) bite of a tick carrying Yersinia pestis E) fomite contact

A

In asthmatic individuals, the "common cold" caused by rhinoviruses can be treated A) for symptoms or with the prescription antiviral pleconaril. B) with interferons. C) for symptoms only (antihistamine, decongestant, pain reliever). D) with the prescription antiviral ribavirin. E) with the prescription antiviral pleconaril.

A

Infection with ________ usually produces acute upper respiratory disease but may cause meningitis in infants 3-18 months old. A) Haemophilus influenzae B) Francisella tularensis C) Coxiella burnetii D) Klebsiella pneumoniae E) Hafnia species

A

Legionnaires' disease is diagnosed by A) fluorescent antibody or other serological diagnostic procedures. B) the microbe's staining properties under the microscope. C) the microbe's sensitivity to all antimicrobial agents. D) the microbe's characteristic growth on common laboratory media. E) the clinical symptoms in infected patients

A

Nematodes A) are known as roundworms. B) are all monoecious. C) do not have a digestive system. D) have males of the species larger than females of the species. E) are known as flukes

A

Opportunistic fungi A) are normal microbiota for many individuals. B) always have two physiological and structural forms. C) have the same geographical distribution as pathogenic fungi. D) have special proteins for colonizing the body. E) are not tracked by epidemiologists.

A

Reactivation of ________ in immunosuppressed persons may produce Kaposi's sarcoma, a cancer of the blood vessels. A) HHV-8 B) EBV C) BK virus D) HHV-6 E) cytomegalovirus

A

Resistance of Pseudomonas to a wide range of antibacterial agents is partly due to its 34) A) ability to form biofilms. B) lack of special requirements for growth. C) production of exoenzyme S. D) ability to utilize a wide range of organic and nitrogen sources. E) use of the Entner-Doudoroff pathway as its major means of catabolizing glucose.

A

) How do coronaviruses differ from togaviruses? A) Coronaviruses are RNA viruses. B) Coronaviruses have helical capsids. C) Coronaviruses contain positive RNA. D) Coronaviruses have an envelope. E) Coronaviruses individual capsids can be visualized.

B

A homeschooled child recently visited an ailing great-grandparent who was complaining of a painful rash. Even though the child had had no contact with children suffering from chickenpox, the child developed chickenpox. How did the child contract the infection? A) The virus was likely contracted from fomites. B) The adult had shingles and the child was exposed to virus particles. C) The adult had chickenpox and exposed the child. D) An insect vector infected the child. E) There is insufficient information for a conclusion.

B

A human fecal sample is examined and found to contain a few strobila. The person is probably infected with A) Schistosoma. B) Taenia. C) Echinococcus granulosus. D) Giardia intestinalis. E) Necator americanus.

B

The arenaviruses are unique because A) their virions contain ribosomes. B) they "highjack" the glycoproteins of co-infecting viruses. C) they undergo rapid antigenic drift and antigenic shift. D) their virions contain reverse transcriptase. E) they are transmitted by direct contact with the blood of animals.

A

The fungus ________ produces toxins which have beneficial clinical applications. A) Claviceps purpurea B) Rhizopus C) Aspergillus flavus D) Epidermophyton floccosum E) Amanita phalloides

A

The signs and symptoms of infection with Helicobacter pylori are the result of A) invasion by H. pylori into the mucosa of the stomach. B) damage to the lining of blood vessels by H. pylori. C) the production of exotoxins by H. pylori in the intestines. D) the production of toxins by H. pylori in contaminated food. E) invasion by H. pylori into the mucosa of the large intestine.

A

Triatoma, commonly called "kissing bugs," are vectors of A) Chagas' disease. B) Leishmania. C) Cyclosporiasis. D) schistosomiasis. E) African sleeping sickness

A

Trypanosoma cruzi is introduced into the body by A) feces containing trypomastigotes contaminating a bite wound. B) the bite of a sand fly that has ingested phagocytes containing the parasite. C) the bite of a tsetse fly, which introduces the trypomastigotes into the body. D) wearing contact lenses cleaned with contaminated tap water. E) ingesting food contaminated with the parasite.

A

What is the antimicrobial agent of choice for treating Bacteroides infections? A) metronidazole B) erythromycin C) bacitracin D) tetracycline E) cephalosporin

A

Which of the following RNA virus families include the smallest viral pathogens in animals? A) Picornaviridae B) Coronaviridae C) Arenaviridae D) Paramyxoviridae E) Rhinoviridae

A

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes coronaviruses from rhinoviruses? A) envelope is present B) replicate best at 33°C C) cause common colds D) transmitted via respiratory droplets E) virions contain single-stranded positive RNA

A

Which of the following diseases is considered an emerging disease because it was unknown before 1987? A) human monocytic ehrlichiosis B) lymphogranuloma venereum C) Brill-Zinsser disease D) murine typhus E) Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of human body lice? A) trench fever B) brucellosis C) bubonic plague D) Pontiac fever E) tularemia

A

Which of the following families of DNA viruses is the most prevalent in humans? A) Herpesviridae B) Polyomaviridae C) Poxviridae D) Adenoviridae E) Rhinoviridae

A

Which of the following is a false morel that causes bloody diarrhea, convulsions, and death within two days? A) Gyromitra esculenta B) Aspergillus flavus C) Amanita phalloides D) Mucor E) Sporothrix schenckii

A

Which of the following is the cause of the STD lymphogranuloma venereum? A) Chlamydia trachomatis B) Chlamydophila psittaci C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Treponema pallidum E) Haemophilus ducreyi

A

Which of the following is the most common parasitic disease in industrialized nations? A) Trichomonas infection B) toxoplasmosis C) schistosomiasis D) balantidiasis E) giardiasis

A

Which of the following is the most common parasitic worm in the United States? A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Ascaris lumbricoides C) Schistosoma mansoni D) Echinococcus granulosus E) Taenia saginata

A

Which of the following regarding all of the tapeworms that infect humans is TRUE? A) They all have non-human intermediate hosts. B) They are transmitted by insect vectors. C) The larva can directly infect humans upon contact with skin. D) Humans are the normal intermediate hosts. E) They reside in the muscle tissue of the definitive host.

A

Which of the following species of Plasmodium causes cerebral malaria? A) only P. falciparum B) P. ovale and P. malariae C) P. ovale and P. vivax D) P. vivax and P. malariae E) P. vivax, P. malariae, and P. vivax

A

Which of the following statements about Malassezia is FALSE? A) It causes phaeohyphomycosis. B) It is a basidomycete. C) It is part of the microbiota of the skin. D) It causes pityriasis. E) It tends to develop into a chronic infection.

A

Which of the following statements about rhinoviruses is FALSE? A) They are the only viruses that can cause a common cold. B) They are limited to infecting the upper respiratory tract. C) Person-to-person contact is the most common mode of transmission. D) They are extremely infectious. E) They thrive at 33°C.

A

Which of the following statements is true of both molluscum contagiosum and smallpox? A) The causative agent is a large dsDNA virus with a complex capsid. B) A genital form of the disease exists. C) The rash forms fluid-filled vesicles that become pustules. D) It has a morality rate of 20%. E) A vaccine is available.

A

Which of the following statements regarding Coxiella is TRUE? A) It produces an infective body similar in structure and function to Gram-positive endospores. B) It is an obligate intracellular parasite that escapes phagolysosomes to grow in the cytoplasm. C) It is a gastrointestinal pathogen. D) It is communicable from person to person. E) It prefers a neutral environment

A

Which of the following statements regarding Neisseria meningitidis is FALSE? 18) A) There are vaccines available to prevent infection with all strains. B) Up to 40% of the population are carriers. C) Transmission is via respiratory droplets. D) Humans are the only natural carriers. E) It often causes meningitis

A

Which of the following vectors may spend their entire life associated with a single host individual? A) lice B) fleas C) mites D) spiders E) ticks

A

White patches on the surface of the tongue and the oral mucosa accompanied by inflammation and swelling are signs consistent with A) thrush. B) sporotrichosis. C) cryptococcosis. D) coccidioidomycosis. E) aspergillosis.

A

he monomorphic fungus Rhizopus is a(n) A) common bread mold and an opportunistic pathogen. B) toxic mushroom. C) true pathogen. D) common bread mold. E) opportunistic pathogen.

A

A young woman who was recently hiking in the mountains and discovered a tick on her torso has a fever that came on quite suddenly. She has no rash, but she develops leukopenia. Which of the following diseases is she most likely to have contracted? A) relapsing fever B) anaplasmosis C) scrub typhus D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever E) Lymedisease

B

After a trip to several South American countries, a middle-aged man becomes ill. He becomes anemic, loses weight, and runs a fever. The clinician notes a recently healed sore near his nose. Microscopic examination of a blood smear does not reveal anything other than the anemia. What parasitic infection is consistent with this scenario? A) giardiasis B) leishmaniasis C) malaria D) balantidiasis E) Chagas' disease

B

Agricultural workers may develop respiratory problems resulting from ________ responses to fungal allergens. A) type III hypersensitivity B) either type I or type III hypersensitivities C) toxemia D) type I hypersensitivity E) type II hypersensitivity

B

Among the areas of the female genital tract, which of the following is NOT colonized by Neisseria gonorrhoeae? A) the pelvic organs B) the vagina C) the cervix D) the uterus E) the Fallopian tubes

B

An emerging fatal disease in humans caused by one of the members of the Paramyxoviridae is known as A) respiratory syncytial virus. B) Nipahvirus. C) Morbillivirus. D) Rubulavirus. E) Pneumovirus.

B

Balantidium coli uses ________ to penetrate the intestinal mucosa. A) suckers B) cilia C) adhesion discs D) pseudopodia E) flagella

B

Bordetella pertussis causes disease by A) irritating the diaphragm, which leads to severe coughing attacks. B) interfering with the action of the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea. C) the development of pneumonia. D) suppressing the production of mucus by the respiratory lining. E) forming a pseudomembrane that obstructs the larynx.

B

Chronic inhalation of particular fungal allergens would lead to a(n) A) type IV hypersensitivity reaction. B) type III hypersensitivity reaction. C) type II hypersensitivity reaction. D) autoimmune disease. E) type I hypersensitivity reaction.

B

Epidemic typhus, spread by lice, is caused by A) Rickettsia typhi. B) Rickettsia prowazekii. C) Chlamydophila pneumonia. D) Chlamydophila psittaci. E) Ehrlichia caffeensis.

B

Fever, jaundice, and hemorrhaging which often results in "black vomit" are characteristic of A) hepatitis C infection. B) yellow fever. C) Dengue fever. D) West Nile fever. E) coronavirus.

B

Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by A) Enterobacter. B) Escherichia coli O157:H7. C) Serratia marcescens. D) Bacteroides fragilis. E) Proteus mirabilis.

B

How are HIV virions rendered virulent? A) They contact the cytoplasmic membrane via gp41. B) The action of protease releases reverse transcriptase and capsomeres after the virion buds from the cell. C) They bind to smooth muscle cells. D) They bud to the surface of the host cell. E) They use a chemokine receptor to remove gp120.

B

Humans become infected with Fasciola by A) the penetration of cercariae through the skin. B) ingesting the encysted metacercariae on watercress or other vegetation. C) the bite of infected mosquitoes. D) consuming cysticerci in contaminated meat. E) ingesting water contaminated with eggs shed in infected dog's urine.

B

Injuries which introduce ________ into the subcutaneous tissue may result in mycetoma, a tumor-like abscess containing pus and fungus. A) Sporothrix schenckii B) Pseudallescheria C) Histoplasma capsulatum D) Coccidioides immitis E) Blastomyces dermatitidis

B

Leptospira interrogans gets its name from A) its spiral shape. B) the fact that one end of the spirochete is curved like a question mark. C) its ability to infect many wild and domestic animals. D) the presence of two axial filaments, each of which is anchored at one end. E) its corkscrew movement

B

Once infected with Trypanosoma brucei, the patient's immune system cannot clear the infection and develop immunity because the parasite A) reproduces by binary fission. B) changes its glycoprotein surface antigens every time it replicates. C) invades the central nervous system. D) has flagella that allow it to travel all over the body. E) matures into infectious trypomastigotes.

B

Parrot fever, caused by ________, is usually a pneumonia-like disease but can sometimes lead to hepatitis or endocarditis. A) Orientia tsutsugamushi B) Chlamydophila psittaci C) Chlamydophila pneumoniae D) Chlamydia trachomatis E) Rickettsia prowazekii

B

Rickettsia prowazekii is transmitted by A) the rat flea Xenopsylla cheopis. B) the human body louse Pediculus humanus. C) the cat flea Ctenocephalides felis. D) mites of the genus Leptotrombidium. E) the dog tick Dermacentor

B

Serratia is a coliform that A) is easy to treat because it is sensitive to most antibiotics. B) produces red pigment when grown at room temperature. C) does not grow in hospital supplies such as saline and other salt solutions. D) is totally benign in humans. E) is nonmotile

B

Shingles, or herpes zoster, is caused by the virus that also causes A) cold sores. B) chickenpox. C) warts. D) molluscum contagiosum. E) smallpox

B

Some patients who have suffered from polio develop symptoms 30-40 years later in the form of A) encephalitis. B) crippling deterioration and dysfunction in the polio-affected muscles. C) meningitis. D) repeated cold symptoms. E) deterioration of the nerves that control polio-affected muscles.

B

The bacterium ________ is a common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis contracted from contaminated food, especially poultry. A) Leptospira interrogans B) Campylobacter jejuni C) Helicobacter pylori D) Vibrio parahaemolyticus E) Vibrio cholerae

B

The common name for the disease caused by human parvovirus B19 is A) fourth disease. B) fifth disease. C) Reyes' syndrome. D) shingles. E) kissing disease

B

The disease known as dengue hemorrhagic fever is actually A) an immediate immune reaction to the initial infection with the dengue virus. B) a hyperimmune response to reinfection with the dengue virus. C) the chronic carrier state of the dengue virus. D) an antibody-antigen complex reaction. E) an autoimmune disease.

B

The emerging disease known as anaplasmosis is transmitted by A) sand flies. B) ticks. C) fleas. D) mites. E) lice.

B

The intracellular parasite ________ can infect mucous membranes in various organ systems of the body. A) Anaplasma phagocytophilium B) Chlamydia trachomatis C) Helicobacter pylori D) Ehrlichia caffeensis E) Orientia tsutsugamushi

B

The large size of poxviruses allows them to A) provoke a strong immune response in the host. B) be potential vectors for introduction of genetic material in vaccinations for gene therapy. C) travel in droplets. D) be easily isolated in infected cells. E) attach to both animal and human cells.

B

The most common disease produced in humans by Cryptococcus is A) primary pulmonary cryptococcosis. B) cryptococcal meningitis. C) secondary pulmonary cryptococcosis. D) cutaneous cryptococcosis. E) cryptococcoma.

B

The most important virulence factor of Vibrio cholerae is A) the fact that it is oxidase positive. B) its ability to produce a potent exotoxin. C) the presence of two axial flagella. D) its ability to live in estuarine and marine environments all over the world. E) its ability to survive in fresh water

B

The presence of active motile multiflagellated trophozoites in vaginal or urethral secretion is indicative of infection with A) Chlamydia trachomatis. B) Trichomonas vaginalis. C) Balantidium coli. D) Acanthamoeba. E) Giardia intestinalis

B

The recent epidemic of SARS virus was caused by a(n) A) togavirus. B) coronavirus. C) adenovirus. D) rhinovirus. E) flavivirus.

B

The sexually transmitted invasive form of chlamydia A) is symptomatic in 85% of infected females. B) is caused by the LGV strain of Chlamydia trachomatis. C) is easily differentiated from gonorrhea. D) does not recur because of the immune response the host produces against reinfection. E) never infects the baby of an infected mother during birth.

B

The subcutaneous infection known as ________ can produce a series of lesions spreading from the initial infection point resulting from the fungus' ability to invade the lymphatic vessels. A) zygomycosis B) sporotrichosis C) aspergillosis D) candidiasis E) mycetoma

B

The transmission of enteric hepatitis is most effectively prevented by A) vector control. B) good public sanitation and personal hygiene. C) reducing aerosol dispersion. D) immunization. E) safe sex practices.

B

The tsetse fly is responsible for the spread of A) filariasis. B) African sleeping sickness. C) toxoplasmosis. D) Chagas' disease. E) kala-azar.

B

The type of polio that involves the infection of the brain stem and medulla is A) asymptomatic polio. B) bulbar poliomyelitis. C) postpolio syndrome. D) nonparalytic polio. E) minor polio.

B

Undiagnosed or untreated infections with Neisseria gonorrhoeae in can progress to A) meningococcal meningitis. B) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). C) Q fever. D) bubonic plague. E) trench fever.

B

Urinary tract infections with ________ are frequently complicated by the formation of kidney stones. 41) A) Bacteroides species B) Proteus mirabilis C) Escherichia coli D) Klebsiella pneumoniae E) Salmonella species

B

What characteristic does Vibrio share with Salmonella? A) Both are spread primarily by fecal contamination. B) Both have O polysaccharide antigens. C) Both have similar shape. D) Both have polar flagella. E) Both are oxidase positive

B

What characteristic of Borrelia burgdorferi makes it an unusual bacterium? A) It is a spirochete that is larger than Treponema pallidum. B) It utilizes manganese instead of iron in its proteins and enzymes. C) It causes dermatological, cardiovascular, and neurological abnormalities, as well as arthritis. D) Infected ticks must remain on a host for 48 hours in order to spread Lyme disease. E) Transovarian transmission of the pathogen is rare.

B

What do Echinococcus granulosus, Entamoeba histolytica, and Enterobius vermicularis have in common? A) They are transmitted by insect vectors. B) They cause zoonoses in humans. C) They are diagnosed by examination of a blood smear. D) They are intracellular parasites. E) They live in the intestines of their definitive host.

B

What is a prophylactic drug of choice for malaria? A) pyrimethamine B) proguanil C) nifurtimox D) artemisinin E) tetracycline

B

What is the causative pathogen of Q fever? A) Moraxella catarrhalis B) Coxiella burnetii C) Bacteroides fragilis D) Acinetobacter E) Prevotella

B

What is the characteristic lesion of Yersinia pestis? A) a chancroid B) a bubo C) oozing abscesses in the intestinal wall D) petechiae E) a soft chancre

B

Which among the following are the largest DNA viruses that infect humans? A) Adenoviridae B) Poxviridae C) Papillomaviridae D) Polyomaviridae E) Herpesviridae

B

Which of the following agars is preferred for the culture of fungi? A) chocolate agar B) Sabouraud dextrose agar C) sheep blood agar D) MacConkey agar E) Thayer-Martin media

B

Which of the following bacteria requires heme for its growth? A) Shigella B) Haemophilus C) Bordetella D) Yersinia E) Salmonella

B

Which of the following contributes to the pathogenesis of Cryptococcus neoformans? A) the production of mucinase B) the production of melanin and the presence of a phagocyte-resistant capsule C) the ability to resist killing after phagocytosis D) the ability to produce hyphae which penetrate tissues E) the production of leukocidins

B

Which of the following human herpesvirus infections is associated with a 30-80% fatality rate? A) whitlow B) neonatal herpes C) oral herpes D) genital herpes E) ocular herpes

B

Which of the following is a family of six-pointed, star-shaped viruses that cause gastrointestinal diseases? A) Picornaviridae B) Caliciviridae C) Rhabdoviridae D) echovirus E) Coronaviridae

B

Which of the following is a member of the Flaviviridae that is NOT an arbovirus? A) dengue virus B) hepatitis C virus C) eastern equine encephalitis virus D) West Nile virus E) hepatitis E virus

B

Which of the following is diagnostic for Neisseria meningitidis? 15) A) its inability to ferment maltose B) the presence of Gram-negative diplococci in phagocytes of the central nervous system C) the presence of lipid A D) the lack of lipooligosaccharide E) the lack of fimbriae

B

Which of the following is the only DNA virus that can cause viral hepatitis? A) hepatitis A virus B) hepatitis B virus C) hepatitis C virus D) hepatitis D virus E) hepatitis E virus

B

Which of the following is the same for both Trypanosomacruzi and Trypanosoma brucei? A) central nervous system infection B) importance of early diagnosis and treatment C) type of arthropod vector D) where the protozoan matures in the vector E) means of entry into the host

B

Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED? A) Chlamydophila psittaci; parrot fever B) Chlamydia trachomatis; pneumonia C) Chlamydophila pneumonia; sinusitis D) Chlamydophila psittaci; endocarditis E) Chlamydia trachomatis; nongonococcal urethritis

B

Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED? A) inclusion bodies; RB filled endosomes B) elementary bodies; dormant noninfectious form C) elementary bodies; small cocci D) reticulate bodies; large variable shape E) reticulate bodies; replicate via binary fission in endosomes

B

Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED? A) measles; Koplik's spots B) influenza; hemorrhagic fever C) rabies; hydrophobia D) parainfluenza virus; croup E) mumps; parotitis

B

Which of the following produces a hallucinogenic toxin? A) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis B) Psilocybe cubensis C) Pseudallescheria D) Amanita phalloides E) Claviceps purpurea

B

Which of the following statements about the polyoma BK virus is TRUE? A) It infects only the oligodendrocytes of the brain. B) It can reactivate and cause severe urinary tract disease. C) Its name comes from the initials of the scientist who discovered it. D) Latent infections always develop. E) It is rarely found in humans.

B

Which of the following statements concerning Pasteurella is FALSE? A) Humans are typically infected via animal bites. B) It is very resistant to a wide variety of antibacterial drugs including fluoroquinolones. C) It is nonmotile. D) It is oxidase positive. E) It is fastidious in its growth and must be cultivated on blood or chocolate agar.

B

Which of the following statements regarding Ehrlichia is FALSE? A) It is transmitted by ticks. B) It usually causes a spotted rash similar to Rocky Mountain spotted fever. C) It is an emerging infectious disease. D) It has three stages: elementary body, initial body, and morula. E) The organism reproduces inside the host's phagosomes.

B

Which of the following viruses are the only ssDNA viruses that cause disease in humans? A) Polyomaviridae B) Parvoviridae C) Hepadnaviridae D) Poxviridae E) Herpesviridae

B

Which of the following viruses is a DNA virus that infects liver cells? A) adenoviruses B) hepadnaviruses C) polyomaviruses D) poxviruses E) herpesviruses

B

A child has fever, chills, muscle aches, and conjunctivitis. She is also developing a rash caused by subcutaneous hemorrhaging and complains about exposure to sunlight. With which of the following viruses might she be infected? A) coxsackie B virus B) mumps virus C) coltivirus D) hantavirus E) rotavirus

C

A lung specimen from a pneumonia patient contains Gram-negative bacilli. Laboratory test results on the bacteria show they are nonmotile coliforms with a thick capsule. Which pathogen is the likely cause of the pneumonia? 8) A) Escherichia coli B) Enterobacter C) Klebsiella D) Serratia E) Hafnia

C

A sample of the tissue from an inflamed, pus-filled area on the lower leg is treated with KOH and stained with GMS. Under the microscope golden brown spheres are visible. With what disease are these observations consistent? A) fungemia B) sporotrichosis C) chromoblastomycosis D) mycetoma E) pityriasis

C

A scientist discovers a new virus affecting birds. After isolation, the virus is characterized as having single-strand RNA in an icosahedral capsid and an envelope. To which of the following virus families might this new virus belong? A) Reoviridae B) Orthomyxoviridae C) Flaviviridae D) Coronaviridae E) Picornaviridae

C

An older adult is complaining of an intensely painful rash that has appeared as a patch on one side of his chest. This description is consistent with A) roseola. B) chickenpox. C) shingles. D) whitlow. E) smallpox.

C

Characteristic features of the herpesvirus used for diagnosis include the A) presence of recurring lesions in the lip or genital regions. B) presence of viruses intracellularly years after recovery from the infection. C) presence of recurring lesions in the lip or genital regions and syncytia in infected tissue. D) presence of syncytia in infected tissue. E) ability of the virus to be transmitted to neonates

C

Chronic low-level ingestion of ________ may cause liver cancer. A) ergotamine B) aspergillin C) aflatoxin D) psilocybin E) phalloidin

C

Diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting are signs and symptoms associated with which of the following viruses? A) enterovirus B) echovirus C) norovirus D) coxsackie A E) rhinovirus

C

Differentiating between Taenia saginata and Taenia solium is carried out by examination of the A) cysticerci. B) proglottids. C) scoleces. D) eggs. E) larvae.

C

Enteroviruses gain their name from the fact that they A) infect the gastrointestinal tract. B) spread from the intestinal lining into the bloodstream to cause viremia. C) are transmitted by the fecal-oral route. D) are able to withstand the low pH of the stomach. E) remain latent inside cells in the stomach and intestines.

C

Gastritis from infection of the stomach wall with ________ can cause inflammation leading to peptic ulcers. A) Anaplasma phagocytophilium B) Campylobacter jejuni C) Helicobacter pylori D) Rickettsia rickettsii E) Borrelia recurrentis

C

How are the different types of Schistosoma identified? A) by the treatments they respond to B) by the location of the swimmer's itch they cause C) by the position of their spine and the shape of their eggs D) by their intermediate host E) by the lesion they cause

C

Infection of the skin by Trichophyton rubrum results in raised red scaly patches of skin, a condition known as A) pityriasis. B) sporothrichosis. C) dermatophytosis. D) candidiasis. E) mucormycosis.

C

Members of the Enterobacteriaceae can be distinguished from each other by A) the presence or absence of the enzyme oxidase. B) both motility and the presence or absence of the enzyme oxidase. C) both motility and the ability to ferment lactose. D) the ability to ferment lactose. E) motility.

C

Mycetismus is caused by A) inhalation of allergy causing fungi. B) ingestion of milk from a cow that has ingested feed contaminated with fungal toxins. C) ingestion of toxic mushrooms. D) contamination of a wound with pathogenic fungi present in the skin. E) ingestion of food contaminated with fungus.

C

Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in men is A) usually a bladder infection. B) symptomatic in about 50% of the population, causing mild urethritis. C) an acute painful infection with pus discharge. D) usually asymptomatic. E) only symptomatic in advanced stages of disease

C

Reactivation of latent ________ in immunosuppressed individuals may result in disease of the brain known as progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PLM). A) B19 virus B) HHV-6 C) JC virus D) HHV-8 E) BK virus

C

Rodents are the normal hosts for which of the following encephalitis viruses? A) St. Louis encephalitis B) West Nile virus C) Venezuelan equine encephalitis (VEE) D) western equine encephalitis (WEE) E) eastern equine encephalitis (EEE)

C

Several new fungal opportunists have been found to infect AIDS patients including A) Trychophyton. B) Blastomyces dermatitidis. C) Penicillium marneffei. D) Amanita phalloides. E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

C

Sexually transmitted chlamydia is similar to infection with Yersinia pestis in that they both can produce A) pelvic inflammatory disease in females. B) urethritis. C) buboes. D) conjunctivitis. E) pneumonia.

C

Shigellosis can be differentiated from salmonellosis by A) the presence of nonmotile noncoliforms. B) the lack of fever. C) the presence of nonmotile noncoliforms in bloody diarrhea. D) abdominal cramps and fever. E) the presence of bloody diarrhea.

C

Shortly after returning from a trip to several continents, a young man experiences episodes of fever, chills, muscle aches, and headache that recur at irregular intervals. The young man reports carrying only a large backpack and commonly staying in hostels along the way while traveling. Which of the following diseases is he likely to have? A) scrub typhus B) Lyme disease C) louse-borne relapsing fever D) yaws E) anaplasmosis

C

Superficial mycoses are more common than cutaneous and subcutaneous mycoses because A) only immunocompromised persons are susceptible to subcutaneous mycoses. B) the human body is a toxic environment for fungi. C) only a few fungi are invasive. D) the surface of the body is constantly bombarded by fungal spores. E) there are far more fungi that cause superficial mycosis than the ones that cause cutaneous and subcutaneous infections.

C

The HIV virion is best described as a(n) A) segmented RNA genome in helical capsids and an envelope. B) unsegmented RNA genome in a helical capsid with an envelope. C) segmented RNA genome in an irregular polyhedron capsid with envelope. D) segmented RNA genome in an icosahedral capsid, without envelope. E) unsegmented RNA genome in a long flexible helical capsid with envelope

C

What is the diagnostic structure produced by Paracoccidioides brasiliensis? A) spiny spores B) yeast buds that are not dissolved by KOH C) "steering wheel" or "captain's wheel" buds visible microscopically D) spherules E) dimorphism when grown in the lab

C

What is the most prevalent viral infection seen in neonates? A) varicella-zoster virus B) human herpesvirus 2 C) cytomegalovirus D) human herpesvirus 4 (EBV) E) human herpesvirus 1

C

What metabolic characteristic distinguishes Enterobacteriaceae from Pasteurellaceae? A) Enterobacteriaceae are facultative anaerobes. B) Pasteurellaceae are facultative anaerobes. C) Pasteurellaceae are oxidase positive. D) Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase positive. E) Enterobacteriaceae ferment lactose

C

What virulence factor(s) do all proteobacteria share? A) fimbriae B) proteases that destroy IgA antibodies C) lipid A D) a glycocalyx E) both fimbriae and a glycocalyx

C

Which of the following bacteria is responsible for the most common bacterial gastroenteritis in the United States, usually accompanied by frequent, bloody diarrhea? A) Vibrio cholerae B) Chlamydophila pneumoniae C) Campylobacter jejuni D) Borrelia recurrentis E) Vibrio vulnificus

C

Which of the following increases the risk of permanent liver damage with hepatitis B infection? A) coinfection with human herpesvirus 4 B) coinfection with HHV-6 C) coinfection with hepatitis D virus D) coinfection with human herpesvirus 4 and hepatitis D virus E) coinfection with hepatitis D virus and HHV-6

C

Which of the following is MISMATCHED? A) Sabin vaccine; live attenuated vaccine B) Salk vaccine; inactivated polio vaccine C) Salk vaccine; administered orally D) Sabin vaccine; less stable E) Salk vaccine; requires boosters

C

Which of the following is TRUE of spirochetes? A) They are Gram-positive. B) They are pleomorphic. C) They are able to penetrate a host's tissues. D) They are peritrichous. E) They are obligate intracellular organisms

C

Which of the following is a zoonosis caused by a spirochete? A) bejel B) yaws C) leptospirosis D) pinta E) syphilis

C

Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogenic fungus in humans? A) Histoplasma capsulatum B) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis C) Candida albicans D) Blastomyces dermatitidis E) Coccidioides immitis

C

Which of the following lesions is a hard, raised sore? A) pox B) macule C) papule D) pustule E) vesicle

C

Which of the following parasites is NOT generally microscopic in its mature form, even though microbiologists usually study them? A) cyclosporas B) leishmanias C) helminths D) toxoplasmas E) amoebae

C

Which of the following parasitic infections can be diagnosed using a blood smear? A) toxoplasmosis B) toxoplasmosis and malaria C) African sleeping sickness and malaria D) African sleeping sickness E) malaria

C

Which of the following statements about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is FALSE? A) The gonococci secrete a protease that destroys secretory IgA. B) The gonococci stick to epithelial cells via fimbriae and capsules. C) The gonococci induce lasting immunity. D) It causes disease in humans only. E) Infected women are often asymptomatic

C

Which of the following statements regarding the association of hepatitis B with liver cancer is FALSE? A) The HBV genome has been found integrated into hepatic cancer cells. B) Chronic carriers of the virus are 200 times more likely to develop hepatic cancer. C) Vaccination does not provide protection against the development of hepatic cancer. D) Geographic areas with a high incidence of liver cancer also have a high prevalence of hepatitis B. E) Hepatic cancer cells typically express HBV antigen

C

Which of the following viruses can establish a chronic infection of the liver which may progress to liver cancer? A) hepatitis D B) HTLV-1 C) hepatitis C D) hepatitis E E) hepatitis A

C

Which of the following viruses is considered a childhood disease, was first identified by a German physician, and is known to cause "three-day measles"? A) echovirus B) rhinovirus C) rubella D) coxsackie A virus E) roseola

C

Which of the following viruses is suspected of being a cause of diabetes mellitus? A) hepatitis A B) enteroviruses C) coxsackie B virus D) echoviruses E) coxsackie A virus

C

Deltavirus (hepatitis D virus) requires co-infection with ________ to produce infectious virions. A) hepatitis B virus B) hepatitis E virus C) hepatitis A virus D) arenaviruses E) hepatitis C virus

A

Elephantiasis is caused by A) filarial roundworms. B) tapeworms. C) flatworms. D) liver flukes. E) blood flukes

A

Endosomes filled with multiplying chlamydia are known as A) inclusion bodies. B) morula. C) reticulate bodies. D) initial bodies. E) elementary bodies

A

A blood sample showing neutropenia and large B lymphocytes with atypical nuclei is characteristic of infection with A) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). B) human papillomavirus (HPV). C) hepatitis B virus (HBV). D) human parvivirus. E) cytomegalovirus (CMV).

A

A child has a mild fever and a macular rash primarily on the torso. No lesions are evident in the mouth, and the child has not complained of pain. Which of the following diseases might the child have? A) three-day measles B) dengue fever C) red measles D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever E) hand-foot-and-mouth disease

A

A childhood illness caused by a herpesvirus and characterized by a "rosy" rash all over the body is known as A) roseola. B) chickenpox. C) monkeypox. D) kissing disease. E) CMV.

A

A gastroenteritis which usually resolves in 72 hours is contracted from eating shellfish contaminated with A) Vibrio parahaemolyticus. B) Ehrlichia caffeensis. C) Helicobacter pylori. D) Vibrio cholera. E) Campylobacter jejuni.

A

A patient in an urgent care clinic reports having frequent episodes of diarrhea with abdominal pain and fever for several days. The patient reports an allergy to shellfish. A recent bowel movement contains traces of blood. A fecal sample shows the presence of Gram-negative, curved, motile, urease-negative bacteria. Which of the following bacteria is most likely responsible for the patient's symptoms? A) Campylobacter jejuni B) Vibrio cholerae C) Vibrio parahaemolyticus D) Helicobacter pylori E) Chlamydia trachomatis

A

A teenager shows up at a clinic with lesions on his face. The sores are raised, light-colored bumps with a waxy texture. A few similar lesions are present on the torso as well. With which of the following viruses might he be infected? A) molluscum contagiosum B) human herpesvirus 4 C) B19 virus D) papillomavirus E) human herpesvirus 1

A

A young man goes to a clinic complaining of discomfort in his foot, especially when standing. Upon examination, the clinician observes raised bumps with rough surfaces on the sole of his foot. These lesions are consistent with A) warts. B) whitlow. C) molluscum contagiosum. D) erythema infectiosum. E) shingles.

A

A young woman has a pelvic infection. A specimen contains bacilli that are bile salt tolerant, as shown by black growth on a bile-esculin agar plate. Her infection is likely caused by A) Bacteroides fragilis. B) Bartonella henselae. C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. E) Haemophilus ducreyi.

A

All of the true pathogen fungi mentioned in this chapter are A) members of the Ascomycota and are dimorphic. B) members of the Zygomycota and are monomorphic. C) members of the Zygomycota. D) members of the Ascomycota. E) dimorphic.

A