BIOL201 - Pre-Lecture Quizzes

Different classes of antibody play important roles in the body's defense against pathogens. These functions include 1. _________, 2 ___________, 3. ___________, 4. _________, 5. ________. For most of these functions, antibodies also provide an important link between 6. _________ and 7. ___________.

1. neutralization of pathogens 2. opsonization for phagocytosis 3. agglutination 4. complement activation 5. antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity 6. adaptive specific immunity 7. innate nonspecific immunity

Patients are diagnosed with AIDS when their CD4 T-cell count drops below ____ cells/ μL.

200

according to figure 9.4, bacterial cells should be expected from one single cell after 5 generations.

32

A rod-shaped bacterium is 1 μm wide and 2 μm long. Approximately, how many bacteria of the same kind can fit into an area of 1 mm2? Your answer should consist of one single number. It should contain no words, no punctuation marks, and no scientific notation.

500000

Which of the following statements about tooth decay is correct? The initial decay of the enamel shown in Fig. 24.7 is caused by the invasive growth of cariogenic bacteria. Bacteria form biofilms on teeth. These biofilms known as plaque can develop into tartar as shown in Fig. 24.8 when they become hardened and calcified. The most important cariogenic species is Streptococcus mutans Fig. 24.7 shows that if dental caries are not treated, bacterial infection can become an abscess that spreads to the deeper tissues of the teeth, near the roots, or to the bloodstream Tooth cavities or dental caries are microbial lesions that cause damage to the teeth. Formation of biofilms on teeth is an important step for bacteria to colonize the teeth. Fig. 24.7 shows that tooth decay will always lead to an abscess.

Bacteria form biofilms on teeth. These biofilms known as plaque can develop into tartar as shown in Fig. 24.8 when they become hardened and calcified. The most important cariogenic species is Streptococcus mutans Fig. 24.7 shows that if dental caries are not treated, bacterial infection can become an abscess that spreads to the deeper tissues of the teeth, near the roots, or to the bloodstream Tooth cavities or dental caries are microbial lesions that cause damage to the teeth. Formation of biofilms on teeth is an important step for bacteria to colonize the teeth.

Which of the following statements about Fig.14.6 is incorrect? A. It illustrates the development of a superinfection. B. A superinfection is a secondary infection in a patient having a preexisting infection. C. A superinfection develops when the protective microbiota is killed by a broad-spectrum antibiotic. D. A superinfection that follows antibiotic treatment of a preexisting infection is caused by the same pathogen for the preexisting infection. E. These statements are all correct. F. B and D.

D. A superinfection that follows antibiotic treatment of a preexisting infection is caused by the same pathogen for the preexisting infection.

Our body has several mechanisms for removing pathogens that cause respiratory infections. They include __. A. the ciliary escalator B. alveolar macrophages C. IgA antibodies D. all of the above E. A and B

D. all of the above

Which of the statements about strep throat is incorrect? A. It is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes B. It is also known as streptococcal pharyngitis C. If untreated, it may lead to rheumatic fever D. Person-to-person transmission does not occur. E. C and D

D. person to person transmission does not occur

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to diarrhea and diarrheal disease? Diarrhea is a body's response to agents that affect the small and large intestines. Diarrhea is a disease Compared to other infectious diseases, diarrheal diseases are not a significant cause of child mortality worldwide. An infectious diarrheal disease is caused by a microbe. Etiological agents for infectious diarrheal diseases include bacteria, viruses, and protozoa.

Diarrhea is a body's response to agents that affect the small and large intestines. An infectious diarrheal disease is caused by a microbe. Etiological agents for infectious diarrheal diseases include bacteria, viruses, and protozoa.

Multi-select. Points will be deducted if a correct answer is not selected or an incorrect answer is selected. Which of the following matches is correct? Fig. 23.10 (a) / gonorrhea or urethritis with discharge in a male Fig. 23.10 (c) / gram-positive diplococci (paired cells) both inside and outside the leukocytes (large cells with lobed nuclei) from urethral discharge chlamydia / a major cause of nongonococcal urethritis Fig. 23.12 / the three stages of syphilis Fig. 23.12(a) / primary syphilis / highly contagious Fig. 23.12(b) / this stage of syphilis is not contagious Fig. 23.13(a) and (b) / etiological agent of syphilis Fig. 23.18 / a bacterial disease Fig. 23.19 / a Pap smear

Fig. 23.10 (a) / gonorrhea or urethritis with discharge in a male chlamydia / a major cause of nongonococcal urethritis Fig. 23.12 / the three stages of syphilis Fig. 23.12(a) / primary syphilis / highly contagious Fig. 23.13(a) and (b) / etiological agent of syphilis Fig. 23.19 / a Pap smear

Multi-select question. Which of the following statements about periodontal disease is correct? Gingivitis is irreversible. Fig. 24.10 shows that as periodontal disease progresses, bacterial infection can destroy the gums and bone. Fig. 24.9 shows that in periodontitis, gums recede and expose parts of the tooth normally covered. Gingivitis is more serious than periodontitis. Fig. 24.9 shows that redness and irritation of the gums are evidence of gingivitis. Figs. 24.9 and 24.10 show that gingivitis, periodontitis, and periodontal disease are three separate diseases. "Gingivitis is diagnosed by visual inspection, including measuring pockets in the gums". The word "pocket" refers to the space between the gum and the tooth. Periodontal diseases is the chronic inflammation and erosion of the gums. Redness and irritation of the gums as seen in Fig. 24.9 is a result of the body's inflammatory response to bacterial products such as lipopolysaccharides, proteases, lipoteichoic acids, and others.

Fig. 24.10 shows that as periodontal disease progresses, bacterial infection can destroy the gums and bone. Fig. 24.9 shows that in periodontitis, gums recede and expose parts of the tooth normally covered. Fig. 24.9 shows that redness and irritation of the gums are evidence of gingivitis. "Gingivitis is diagnosed by visual inspection, including measuring pockets in the gums". The word "pocket" refers to the space between the gum and the tooth. Periodontal diseases is the chronic inflammation and erosion of the gums. Redness and irritation of the gums as seen in Fig. 24.9 is a result of the body's inflammatory response to bacterial products such as lipopolysaccharides, proteases, lipoteichoic acids, and others.

The most common community-acquired bacterial pneumonia is caused by ___. A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae C. Chlamydia pneumoniae D. Legionella pneumophila E. Staphylococcus aureus F. Any one of the above G. None of the above

G. none of the above

Multi-select question. Points will be deducted if a correct answer is not selected or an incorrect answer is selected. Study Fig. 2.1, Fig. 4.13, Fig. 25.15, and Table 4.7. Which of the statements below is correct with regard to Borrelia burgdorferi? It does not have any flagellum. It can be readily viewed by a bright field microscope. It is a thin and long spiral bacterium. It is a Gram-negative-like bacterium. It is a spirochete.

It is a thin and long spiral bacterium. It is a Gram-negative-like bacterium. It is a spirochete.

_______________ bacteria, which are an important part of the normal microbiota of the vagina, contribute to the acidity of the vagina through their metabolic production of ____________ The vagina's acidity plays an important role in inhibiting other microbes that are less tolerant of acidity.

Lactobacillus, lactic acid

Name the two building blocks for the bacterial peptidoglycan

N-acetylglucosamine, N-acetylmuramic acid

Name the chemical structures as shown. No abbreviations. (NAM + NAG)

N-acetylmuramic acid N-acetylglucosamine

Which of the statements or interpretations below is correct with regard to what is illustrated in Figs A, B, or C? One common feature shown in these figures is the selective permeability of the plasma membrane. Osmosis occurs under each of the three conditions as shown in Figs. A, B, and C. Fig. C shows that the plasma membrane prevents the cell from osmotic lysis. When bacteria land in a jar of strawberry jelly, they are likely to encounter a condition similar to that shown in Fig. C. The condition shown in Fig. B is more favorable to Gram positive bacteria than to Gram negative bacteria. Fig. A shows an isotonic growth environment. The bacterial cell shown in Fig. B has undergone plasmolysis. Osmotic lysis can occur under the condition shown in Fig. A or Fig. C.

One common feature shown in these figures is the selective permeability of the plasma membrane. Osmosis occurs under each of the three conditions as shown in Figs. A, B, and C. The condition shown in Fig. B is more favorable to Gram positive bacteria than to Gram negative bacteria. Fig. A shows an isotonic growth environment. The bacterial cell shown in Fig. B has undergone plasmolysis.

Multi-select question. Watch the two videos and answer the question below. Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) & Peptic Ulcer Disease https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=HO9sAUctPEI The surprising cause of stomach ulcers https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=V_U6czbDHLE Which of the following statement is correct with regard to peptic ulcers and Helicobacter peptic ulcers? The discovery that the etiological agent for most peptic ulcers is bacterial is very important because it helps us to treat and prevent peptic ulcers. Helicobacter pylori infection is typically treated with a triple therapy that involves three antibiotics. Infection of the stomach by Helicobacter pylori may lead to inflammation of the stomach, a condition known as gastritis. Helicobacter pylori is a Gram-positive bacillus. The blood test for diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori infection is to determine whether the bacterium is present in the bloodstream. Helicobacter peptic ulcer disease is not infectious. Peptic ulcers are ulcers of the stomach (or the duodenum) as shown in Fig. 24.20. Colonization of the stomach epithelium by Helicobacter pylori as shown in Fig. 24.20 involves multiple bacterial virulence factors that include flagellar for motility, urease to neutralize the stomach acid, and adhesins for binding to the epithelial cells. The breath test for diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori infection is to detect urease produced by the bacterium. Most peptic ulcers are caused by Helicobacter pylori. Multiple methods are available for diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori. They include blood test, stool test, breath test, and stomach wall biopsy. Fig. 24.20 shows that Helicobacter infection decreases mucus production and gastric acids cause the formation of peptic ulcers.

The discovery that the etiological agent for most peptic ulcers is bacterial is very important because it helps us to treat and prevent peptic ulcers. Infection of the stomach by Helicobacter pylori may lead to inflammation of the stomach, a condition known as gastritis. Peptic ulcers are ulcers of the stomach (or the duodenum) as shown in Fig. 24.20. Colonization of the stomach epithelium by Helicobacter pylori as shown in Fig. 24.20 involves multiple bacterial virulence factors that include flagellar for motility, urease to neutralize the stomach acid, and adhesins for binding to the epithelial cells. The breath test for diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori infection is to detect urease produced by the bacterium. Most peptic ulcers are caused by Helicobacter pylori. Multiple methods are available for diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori. They include blood test, stool test, breath test, and stomach wall biopsy. Fig. 24.20 shows that Helicobacter infection decreases mucus production and gastric acids cause the formation of peptic ulcers.

Multi-select question. There is currently no licensed vaccine on the market. However, significant progress has been made. Recently, a malaria vaccine from the Jenner Institute of Oxford University has proved to be 77% effective in early trials. Read the news article at https://www.theguardian.com/world/2021/apr/23/oxford-malaria-vaccine-proves-highly-effective-in-burkina-faso-trial and determine which of the statements below is correct. The Oxford vaccine is the first one that has been through a clinical trial. The vaccine contains an adjuvant, a substance that enhances immune system response. One argument for emergency approval for the malarial vaccine is that malaria kills a lot more people than Covid (19) in Africa. Since the Oxford vaccine has proved to be so effective, no further trials would be necessary. Even when the Oxford vaccine is approved for use, insecticide-treated (impregnated) bednets and malaria drugs will still be needed. The WHO's goal for a vaccine is 75% efficacy against the mosquito-borne parasite disease. Use of the Oxford vaccine alone can potentially eradicate malaria in the next five years. The children in the trial were split into three groups; two had the vaccine, while the third group were given a rabies vaccine. Malaria kills 400,000 mostly small children every year. The initial trial involved 450 children in Burkina Faso.

The vaccine contains an adjuvant, a substance that enhances immune system response. One argument for emergency approval for the malarial vaccine is that malaria kills a lot more people than Covid (19) in Africa. Even when the Oxford vaccine is approved for use, insecticide-treated (impregnated) bednets and malaria drugs will still be needed. The WHO's goal for a vaccine is 75% efficacy against the mosquito-borne parasite disease. The children in the trial were split into three groups; two had the vaccine, while the third group were given a rabies vaccine. Malaria kills 400,000 mostly small children every year. The initial trial involved 450 children in Burkina Faso.

In general, virions (viral particles) are small and _______ be observed using a regular light microscope. A. cannot B. may C. can D. B or C depending upon specific viruses

a. cannot

Which of the classes of antibacterial drugs as shown in Fig. 14.9 does vancomycin belong to? A. Cell wall B. Ribosomes C. Metabolic Pathways D. DNA and RNA synthesis E. Plasma membrane F. B and C

a. cell wall

Watch the video https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=91tcyvm7adM to review antigenic shift and antigenic drift. Fig. 15.18 shows that ____. A. Changes to the surface proteins on the influenza virus are smaller through antigenic drift than through antigenic shift. B. In antigenic shift, one influenza virus alters its own surface proteins through point mutations. C. In antigenic drift, two different influenza viruses mix their genes to produce a flu virus that displays surface proteins from the original two viruses. D. All of the above E. B and C

a. changes to the surface proteins on the influenza virus are smaller through antigenic drift than through antigenic shift

According to the classifications of organisms by energy and carbon source in Table 1, Saccharomyces cerevisiae (the baker's yeast) is best described as _____. A. chemoheterotroph B. chemoautotroph C. photoheterotroph D. photoautotroph E. none of them

a. chemoheterotroph

In which layer of the skin as shown in Fig. 17.3 is keratin found? A. Epidermis B. Dermis C. Hypodermis D. All of the above E. A and B

a. epidermis

14.17 shows that ____ inhibit the binding of HIV to CD4 cells. A. Fusion inhibitors B. Reverse-transcriptase inhibitors C. Integrase-inhibitors D. Protease-inhibitors E. Any one of the above

a. fusion inhibitors

Lactobacillus bacteria use _____ from vaginal epithelial cells for metabolism and production of lactic acid. A. glycogen B. glucose C. lactose D. all of the above E. B or C

a. glycogen

Antibodies that target _____ inhibit the attachment of the flu virus to the respiratory tract. A. hemagglutinin spikes B. neuraminidase spikes C. the envelope D. the viral RNA E. A and B

a. hemagglutinin spikes

The curve in Figure 9.5 shows the number of ____ bacteria over time. A. live B. dead C. both live and dead D. More information is needed for this question. E. The curve has nothing to do with the number of bacteria.

a. live

Review "Classes of Vaccines" on pp. 809-910 (Ch18). The BCG vaccine is best described as a/an ____. A. live attenuated vaccine B. toxoid vaccine C. inactivated vaccine D. conjugated vaccine E. subunit vaccine

a. live attenuated vaccine

The onset of Clostridium difficile associated diarrhea illustrates the importance of ___ in host resistance to microbial infection. A. normal microbiota B. the acquired immunity C. secretory IgA D. an intact intestinal wall E. all of them

a. normal microbiota

Which of the following statements is supported by Fig. 3.16? a. plasmolysis is the process where the cell membrane detaches from the cell wall and contracts b. plasmolysis occurs in hypotonic medium c. plasmolysis leads to cell lysis (bursting) d. all of the above e. a and c

a. plasmolysis is the process where the cell membrane detaches from the cell wall and contracts

In the peptidoglycan, strands of glycan are linked together by ____. A. Polypeptides B. Polysaccharides C. Polylipids D. Hydrogen bonds E. A and B

a. polypeptides

Ribosomes similar to the one shown in the figure are found in the cytoplasm of _____. A. Prokaryotes B. Eukaryotes C. Cryptococcus neoformans D. All of the above E. A and C

a. prokaryotes

According to Figs. 25.27, which of the following pairs is correct with regard to the lifecycle of the Plasmodium protozoa for malaria? A. sporozoites / transmission to human by a mosquito bite B. formation of male and female gametocytes / mosquito C. formation of zygote / human body D. All of the above E. A and C

a. sporozoites / transmission to human by a mosquito bite

Intoxication is best illustrated by _______. A. Staphylococcal food poisoning B. Shigellosis C. Cholera D. Salmonellosis E. All of them except D F. A and C

a. staphylococcal food poisoning

ATP production as shown in Fig. 8.11 involves ___. A. substrate-level phosphorylation B. oxidative phosphorylation C. photophosphorylation D. all of the above E. A and B

a. substrate-level phosphorylation

Superoxide radicals can be neutralized (detoxified) by ______. A. superoxide dismutase B. catalase C. peroxidase D. all of the above E. B and C

a. superoxide dismutase

Which of the following statements is inconsistent with Fig. 18.23? (Read the relevant paragraphs.) A. The antigen encountered during the primary antigen exposure differs from the one encountered during the secondary antigen exposure. B. There is a lag before an antibody response to an antigen can be detected. C. IgG is dominant in the secondary antibody response. D. The secondary antibody response occurs more rapidly than the primary antibody response. E. A and D

a. the antigen encountered during the primary antigen exposure differs from the one encountered during the secondary antigen exposure

25.15(a) shows ___. A. the local stage of Lyme disease B. skin manifestation of the systemic stage of Lyme disease C. the third stage of Lyme disease where the central nervous system is involved. D. A or B

a. the local stage of lyme disease

The onset of infant botulism illustrates the importance of _____. A. the normal microbiota of the intestine B. the antibody-mediated immunity C. opsonophagocytosis D. inflammation E. all of the above

a. the normal microbiota of the intestine

The purpose of the pathways shown in Fig. 8.17 and Table 8.3 is _____. A. To provide NAD+ for glycolysis B. To make ATP from pyruvate C. To make acetyl CoA for the Krebs cycle D. All of the above E. A and B

a. to provide NAD+ for glycolysis

3.51 shows that unlike the bacterial plasma membrane (Fig. 3.21), some eukaryotic membranes contain cholesterol. A. True B. False

a. true

According to Fig. 17.21, killing of ingested bacteria by macrophages occurs in _____. A. Phagosome B. Lysosome C. Phagolysosome D. All of the above E. A and C

a. true

Cell walls are found in some eukaryotic microorganisms and they are made of the same materials. A. True B. False

a. true

Certain cells of the human immune system are able "recognize" bacterial pathogens by detecting peptidoglycan on the surface of a bacterial cell; these cells then engulf and destroy the bacterial cell, using enzymes such as lysozyme, which breaks down and digests the peptidoglycan in their cell walls. A. True B. False

a. true

Chemotaxis as illustrated in Fig. 3.34 is an overall directional movement toward the higher concentration of an attractant. A. True B. False

a. true

Chlamydia trachomatis is the most common cause of NGU (nongonococcal urethritis). A. True B. False

a. true

Fig. 26.3 shows that cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is found between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater. True False

a. true

Figs. 8.10 and 8.17 together show that NADH from glycolysis is oxidized to NAD+ through the reactions that convert pyruvate to ethanol. A. True B. False

a. true

Healthcare-associated infections (nosocomial infections) are often caused by opportunistic pathogens. Question options: a. True b. false

a. true

In eukaryotic cells, aerobic cellular respiration occurs in mitochondria. A. True B. False

a. true

Lysosomes as described on p. 129 and illustrated in Fig. 17.21 contain digestive enzymes that play an important role in breaking down various particles including microorganisms. A. True B. False

a. true

Organisms that cannot make certain nutrients and require them to be added to the medium are described as fastidious. A. True B. False

a. true

Phagocytosis as shown in Fig. 3.52 (a) is unique to eukaryotic cells. A. True B. False

a. true

Prior to the engulfment of a bacterium as shown in Fig. 17.21, the phagocyte must first recognize the bacterium and bind to it. A. True B. False

a. true

Septic shock can be caused by endotoxins when present in large amounts. A. True B. False

a. true

The cell wall of fungi contains chitin. A. True B. False

a. true

The endomembrane system as shown in Fig. 3.40 is only found in eukaryotic cells. A. True B. False

a. true

The ring forms in red blood cells as shown in Fig. 25.28 are a form of the parasite for malaria and can be used for diagnosis of malaria. A. True B. False

a. true

The three complement activation pathways shown in Fig. 17.9 have different triggers, but they all result in the activation of the complement protein C3. A. True B. False

a. true

Vaccines for the three most common bacterial meningitis are available. A. True B. False

a. true

Watch the video https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=202hkf43HXQ to review tuberculosis. Fig. 6.12 shows that human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) targets CD4 cells. In 2017, the disease tuberculosis caused one third of HIV-related deaths. These facts indicate that CD4 cells play an important role in host defense against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A. True B. False

a. true

Use Fig. 24.18 and the video at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=OBf64TEo7gA as a guide to answer this question. What is the name of the bacterial apparatus that is involved in the invasion of the intestinal epithelium by Salmonella bacteria? A. Type III secretion system B. Pilus C. Fimbria D. all of the above E. A and C

a. type iii secretion system

Study Figs. 18.4 and 18.5 and read relevant paragraphs. The antigen binding site shown in Fig. 18.5 is located in the ____ of an antibody. A. variable region B. constant region C. Fc region D. all of the above E. A and B

a. variable region

Study Figs. 18.4 and 18.5 and read relevant paragraphs. The difference between the antibodies shown in Fig. 18.4 is mostly located in the ____ of an antibody. A. variable region B. constant region C. Fc region D. all of the above E. A and B

a. variable region

Which of the following means, known as 7 F's, can transmit etiological agents for infectious diarrheal disease through the fecal-oral route? Fomites Fornication Feces Food Fluids Fingers Flies

all of them

Which of the following figures shows a non-enveloped or naked virus? A. Fig. 6.10 B. Fig. 6.5(a) C. Fig. 6.5(b) D. None of the above E. A and C

b. Fig 6.5(a)

Which of the following observations made by van Leeuwenhoek is the most significant? A. Live creatures can be found in the tooth scrapings. B. Abundant tiny creatures are present in a world that is invisible to the naked eye. C. Some little creatures are motile. D. Microscopic organisms can differ in morphology. E. All of the above

b. abundant tiny creatures are present in a world that is invisible to the naked eye.

ATP as shown in Fig. 8.4 stands for ____. A. adenosine B. adenosine triphosphate C. adenine nucleotide D. deoxyadenosine triphosphate E. B and C

b. adenosine triphosphate

Which of the following matches is incorrect? A. facultative anaerobes -- capable of aerobic and anaerobic growth B. aerotolerant anaerobes -- killed by oxygen C. obligate anaerobes -- no enzymes to neutralize toxic forms of oxygen D. microaerophiles -- unable to grow without oxygen E. B and D

b. aerotolerant anaerobes --- killed by oxygen

which of the following matches is not supported by fig 3.12 with regard to bacterial structures and their cellular locations? a. ribosome/cytoplasm b. capsule/plasma membrane c. chromosome/cytoplasm d. fimbriae/cell wall e. these matches are all correct

b. capsule/plasma membrane

3.14 shows that "streptococcus" means ____. a. chain of rods b. chain of cocci c. cluster of cocci d. pair of two cocci e. b or c

b. chain of cocci

17.19 shows that when attracted to the site of infection, neutrophils and monocytes can leave the bloodstream by squeezing through the walls of small capillary blood vessels. What is this process called? A. adherence B. diapedesis C. diffusion D. opsonization E. migration

b. diapedesis

A 22-year-old female experiences frequent and painful urination. Gram-negative rods are cultured from her urine. The etiology is ___. A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. B. Escherichia coli C. Enterococcus D. Both B and C

b. escherichia coli

A baby who receives antibodies to chicken pox across the placenta will likely develop a long-lasting immunity against chicken pox. A. True B. False

b. false

Abscess or pus formation is also known as pyrogenic. A. True B. False

b. false

Abscess or pus formation is also known as pyrogenic. Question options: A. True B. False

b. false

Bacteria typically have a linear double-stranded DNA. A. True B. False

b. false

Before traveling to an endemic area for malaria, one should get vaccinated. A. True B. False

b. false

Biofilms like the one shown in Fig. 9.17 are uncommon in nature. They are mostly found on medical devises like urinary catheters and on human teeth. A. True B. False

b. false

Drugs are available to cure chronic hepatitis B. A. True B. False

b. false

During the lag phase as shown in Fig. 9.5, the number of cells does not change as cells are metabolically inactive. A. True B. False

b. false

Escherichia coli O157:H7 is pathogenic and can cause disease in humans. The "O157" in the name indicates that the bacterium contains a unique O-protein found in its cell wall.

b. false

Fig. 8.20 shows that photosynthetic bacteria use a membrane-bound organelle similar to chloroplasts for photosynthesis. A. True B. False

b. false

Lysozyme can break down bacterial peptidoglycans. Both gram positive and gram negative bacteria contain peptidoglycans in their cell walls. Therefore, lysozyme can effectively kill both gram positive and gram negative bacteria. A. True B. False

b. false

The purpose of Louis Pasteur's experiment, as illustrated, was to determine whether heating can kill the germs responsible for the spoilage of beef broth. A. True B. False

b. false

Unlike the bacterial plasma membrane (Fig. 3.21), the eukaryotic plasma membrane as illustrated in Fig. 3.51 does not exhibit selective permeability. A. True B. False

b. false

When two antibacterial drugs are used together, a synergistic interaction that is better than the efficacy of either drug alone should always be expected. A. True B. False

b. false

the cellular structures shown in fig 3.12 can be found in any bacterium a. true b. false

b. false

West Nile virus is spread by the bite of infected mosquitoes and can infect people. This type of transmission is illustrated in ____. Question options: a. Fig. 16.12(a) b. Fig. 16.12(b) c. Fig. 16.11 d. Fig. 16.10 e. a and b

b. fig 16.12(b)

To determine the number of live bacteria, the method shown in ___ should be used. A. Figure 9.8 B. Figure 9.11 C. Figure 9.15 D. all of them E. A and B

b. figure 9.11

Which of the characteristics below is not found in Treponema pallidum? A. Spirochete B. Flagella as illustrated in either Fig. 3.31 or 3.33 C. Obligate human pathogen D. Cause of syphilis E. These are all correct.

b. flagella as illustrated in either fig. 3.31 or 3.33

Most of the influenza vaccine manufactured for annual flu vaccination programs is cultured in _____. A. Chickens B. hens' eggs C. Cell cultures D. Pigs E. All of the above

b. hens' eggs

When a person encounters a bacterial pathogen for the first time, the initial resistance to the bacterial infection is provided by __________. A. T-lymphocytes B. Innate immunity C. Adaptive immunity D. All of the above E. A and B

b. innate immunity

Which of the following statements is incorrect with regard to the "provirus" shown in Fig. 6.12? A. It is a permanent part of the host chromosome B. It can undergo excision. C. It is responsible for chronic (or latent) HIV infection. D. It may be activated to produce viral RNA. E. These statements are all correct.

b. it can undergo excision

According to Fig. 8.15, the concentration of H+ in the cytoplasm is __________ . A. higher than that in the extracellular space B. lower than that in the extracellular space. C. about the same as that in the extracellular space. D. Either A or C E. More information is needed.

b. lower than that in the extracellular space

Normal human microbiota and pathogens likely belong to the group of ____________. A. psychrophiles B. mesophiles C. thermophiles D. hyperthermophiles E. B and C

b. mesophiles

Which of the following words is used to describe the incidence and prevalence of a disease? Question options: a. Etiology b. Morbidity c. Epidemiology d. Notifiable disease e. Mortality

b. morbidity

Which of the following matches is incorrect with regard to fimbriae and pili (Fig. 3.30)? A. fimbriae / allowing bacteria to adhere to host cells B. pili / typically shorter than fimbriae C. pili / involved in DNA transfer D. all of the above E. B and C

b. pili/typically shorter than fimbriae

Reverse transcription occurs at Step ____ as shown in Fig. 6.12. A. Step 2 B. Step 3 C. Step 4 D. Step 5 E. Step 6

b. step 3

Which of the following statements is incorrect with regard to the ribosomes found in eukaryotic cells? A. Both 80S and 70S are present. B. The 80S ribosome is composed of a 40S small subunit and a 50S large subunit. C. The red dots shown in Fig. 3.40 that are associated with the endoplasmic reticulum are 80S ribosomes. D. The ribosomes as shown in Fig. 3.49 are 70S ribosomes. E. These statements are all correct. F. C and D

b. the 80s ribosome is composed of a 40s small unit and a 50s large subunit

Watch the video at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Gp6Kqx1A3TU and study Fig. 1 at https://www.mdpi.com/1422-0067/20/6/1484/xml (this figure is also included with the lecture slides). Which interpretation of Fig. 1 is incorrect? A. the initial parasite has changed its surface antigen four times as illustrated by the four colors B. the host has had 4 separate infections C. when the parasite changed its "orange" surface antigen to "blue", all "orange" antibodies became useless. D. Host defense alone can't clear trypanosomes. E. These are all correct interpretations.

b. the host has had 4 separate infections

Many anaerobically respiring bacteria, including Escherichia coli, switch to using nitrate (NO3-) as a final electron acceptor and producing nitrite (NO2^-) when oxygen levels have been depleted. This anaerobic respiration contributes directly to ____. A. the sulfur cycle (Fig. 8.25) B. the nitrogen cycle (Fig. 8.26) C. the synthesis of carbohydras in the carbon cycle (Fig. 8.24) D. None of the above E. A and C

b. the nitrogen cycle

Which statement below is incorrect about biofilms? A. Some are responsible for bacterial infections. B. They are as sensitive as free floating microbes to antibiotics. C. Quorum sensing is critical to initiation of biofilm formation. D. They are all correct. E. A and C

b. they are as sensitive as free floating microbes to antibiotics

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to Fig. 18.4? A. Thirty-six antigen molecules are shown. B. Three types of epitopes are shown. C. The antibodies bind to the same epitopes. D. Each antibody can bind to two different epitopes. E. all of the above

b. three types of epitopes are shown

The normal microbiota of the male urogenital system is found ______ A. to colonize the entire urethra B. to be commonly associated with the skin microbiota C. to be absent from the urethra D. None of the above E. A and B

b. to be commonly associated with the skin microbiota

Epidemiology includes all of the following except __. Question options: a. the study of etiology of disease b. treating a patient who has a disease c. the study of incidence of disease d. the study of transmission of disease e. the study of factors influencing occurrence of a disease

b. treating a patient who has a disease

Watch the video on transmission of Lyme disease at https://youtu.be/_IoOJu2_FKE. Lyme disease would be best described as ____. Question options: a. bloodborne b. vector-borne c. waterborne d. a and b

b. vector-borne

The most common mechanism of cell replication in bacteria is a process called _______-

binary fission

Hepatitis B can be classified as a ___. vector borne disease foodborne disease bloodborne disease sexually transmitted infection airborne disease

bloodborne, STI

The actinomycetes, including soil bacteria in the genus Streptomyces, are the source of more than __ of all natural antibiotics. A. 10% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% E. Between 25% and 75%

c. 50%

Which of the complement products shown in Fig. 17.9 is an opsonin? A. C9 B. C3a C. C3b D. C5a E. All of them

c. C3b

Study Table 18.6. and read pp. 782-783. Which of the following pairs is incorrect? A. IgA / found in mucus secretions, milk, tears, and saliva B. IgM / the first antibody produced in response to initial infection C. IgM / the most abundant D. IgG / providing passive immunity to the developing fetus during pregnancy E. A and C

c. IgM/the most abundant

Which part of lipopolysaccharide shown in Fig. 3.28 is likely related to "O157" as in the name Escherichia coli O157:H7? A. Lipid A B. Core polysaccharide C. O antigen D. None of the above E. B and C

c. O antigen

Which of the following statements is not supported by Fig. 3.26? A. Teichoic acid is only found in the cell wall of Gram positive bacteria. B. Gram negative bacteria have an outer membrane as part of the cell wall C. A thick layer of peptidoglycan is found in both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria. D. These statements are all supported. E. A and C

c. a thick layer of peptidoglycan is found in both gram positive and gram negative bacteria

According to Table 8.2, the amount of ATP produced from one molecule of glucose is the highest through ____. A. fermentation B. anaerobic respiration C. aerobic respiration D. either B or C E. more information is needed.

c. aerobic respiration

Which of the following characteristics is not found in all viruses? A. one single type of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA B. a protein coat C. an envelope D. All of the above E. A and B

c. an envelope

Read pp. 331-332 and Fig. 8.15 and determine which statement below is incorrect. A. Aerobic respiration requires an electron transport chain. B. In aerobic respiration, O2 serves as the final election acceptor. C. Anerobic respiration may occur with or without an electron transport chain. D. In anerobic respiration, an inorganic molecule serves as a final electron acceptor. E. A and C

c. anaerobic respiration may occur with or without an electron transport chain

As illustrated in Fig. 18.24, the type of protection provided by the injection of a flu vaccine is a(n) ___. A. natural active immunity B. natural passive immunity C. artificial active immunity D. artificial passive immunity E. A or D

c. artificial active immunity

Pastry Chef noticed a soft swelling at a cut in his forearm and days later was diagnosed to have osteomyelitis with abscess and Staphylococcus aureus in his blood. People who ate his pies showed gastrointestinal symptoms including vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramping. Which of the following is not illustrated by this case? Question options: A. superficial abscesses B. deep abscess C. community acquired methicillin resistance D. enterotoxin-mediated disease E. bacteremia

c. community acquired methicillin resistance

Which of the following functions of interferons (alpha, beta) is not illustrated in Fig. 17.11 ? A. signaling neighboring uninfected cells to destroy RNA and reduce protein synthesis B. signaling neighboring infected cells to undergo apoptosis C. Curing the cell releasing the interferons or other infected cells D. These functions are all illustrated E. A and B

c. curing the cell releasing the interferons or other infected cells

14.17 shows strategies that microbes use to develop resistance to antimicrobal drugs. Beta-lactamases made by some bacteria destroy the beta-lactam ring as shown in Fig. 14.10. Drug resistance due to beta-lactamases belongs to the drug-resistance strategy called ___. A. Efflux pump B. Blocked penetration C. Drug modification or inactivation D. (Drug) target modification E. C or D

c. drug modification or inactivation

Which of the characteristics below is common to the three bacteria pathogens that are responsible for more than 70% of meningitis cases? A. Gram positive B. Coccus C. Encapsulated D. All of them E. A and C

c. encapsulated

A disease that is constantly present in a certain population is called a(n)___ disease. Question options: a. pandemic b. epidemic c. endemic d. sporadic

c. endemic

Which strain of Escherichia coli below can produce Shiga-like toxins? A. Uropathogenic E. coli (UPEC) B. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) C. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) D. Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) E. They all can.

c. enterohemorrhagic e. coli (EHEC)

Which of the figures below illustrates a mechanical or passive vector -mediated transmission? Question options: a. Fig. 16.13 b. Fig. 16.10 c. Fig. 16.12(a) d. Fig. 16.12(b) e. a and b

c. fig 16.12(a)

Ringworm is caused by a/an ____. A. protozoan B. helminth C. fungus D. bacterium E. tick

c. fungus

Ringworm is caused by a/an ____. Question options: A. protozoan B. helminth C. fungus D. bacterium E. tick

c. fungus

The secondary response (antibody production) as illustrated in Fig. 18.23 is due to __________. A. long-lived T helper cells B. long-lived antibody-producing plasma cells C. long-lived memory B cells D. persistent high levels of antibody after the initial exposure to antigen E. B and C

c. long-lived memory B cells

The _______ contains digestive enzymes that play an important role in breaking down ingested compounds and microbes. A. Pilus B. Capsule C. Lysosome D. Mitochondrion E. Fimbria

c. lysosome

Study Figs. 3.17, 3.37, and 3.39 and Table 3.2. Which of the following matches is incorrect? A. Bacteria / single circular chromosome B. Eukaryotes / multiple linear chromosomes C. Nucleoid / single membrane-bound D. Nucleus / double membrane-bound E. These matches are all correct. F. C and

c. nucleoid/single membrane-bound

Read Fig. 21.23 and relevant paragraphs. Which of the following events that lead to blindness due to untreated trachoma occurs first? A. Corneal clouding B. Eyelid scarring C. Repeated infection of the conjunctiva by Chlamydia trachomatis leading to chronic inflammation D. In-turning of the eyelashes

c. repeated infection of the conjuctiva by chlamydia trachomatis leading to chronic inflammation

6.10 illustrates the replication of the RNA of the influenza virus occurs at Step ____. A. Step 2 B. Step 3 C. Step 4 D. Step 5 E. Step 6

c. step 4

Which of the following matches is incorrect with regard to the treatment and prevention options for tetanus? A. passive immunization with tetanus immune globulin / temporary immunity B. passive immunization with tetanus immune globulin / neutralization of tetanus toxins C. tetanus vaccine / induction of cell-mediated immunity D. tetanus vaccine / long-term immunity E. These are all correct.

c. teatuns vaccine / induction of cell-mediated immunity

Study Fig. 18.18 and read relevant paragraphs. What is the function of cytotoxic T lymphocytes? A. They produce antibodies. B. They activate B cells. C. They induce apoptosis of virus-infected host cells. D. They phagocytize pathogens. E. C and D

c. they induce apoptosis of virus-infected host cells

The purpose of Louis Pasteur's experiments that involved swan-neck flasks as shown was _____. A. To determine whether heating can kill the germs responsible for the spoilage of beef broth. B. To determine whether bacteria can cause food spoilage. C. To prove the presence of microorganisms in the air. D. All of the above E. B and C

c. to prove the presence of microorganisms in the air

What are the the three types of motility in protozoa?

cilia, flagella, pseudopodia

Pastry Chef noticed a soft swelling at a cut in his forearm and days later was diagnosed to have osteomyelitis with abscess and Staphylococcus aureus in his blood. People who ate his pies showed gastrointestinal symptoms including vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramping. Which of the following is not illustrated by this case? A. superficial abscesses B. deep abscess C. community acquired methicillin resistance D. enterotoxin-mediated disease E. bacteremia

communty acquired methicillin resistance

The β-lactam structure is similar to the structure of the peptidoglycan subunit component that is recognized by the ____________ also known as a _____________ (PBP)

crosslinking transpeptidase enzyme; penicillin-binding protein

14.17 shows strategies that microbes use to develop resistance to antimicrobal drugs. Some bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae and Staphylococcus aureus can produce altered penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) that are resistant to β-lactam drugs like penicillin. This type of drug resistance should be placed with ____. A. Efflux pump B. Blocked penetration C. Drug modification or inactivation D. (Drug) target modification E. C or D

d. (drug) target modification

3.18 shows that complete bacterial ribosomes have a size of ____. A. 30S B. 50S C. 80S D. 70S E. 60S

d. 70s

According to Fig. 17.9, which complement protein directly forms the membrane attach complex (MAC)? A. C1 B. C3b C. C5a D. C9 E. C2/C4

d. C9

14.16 shows that ___. A. Acyclovir is a structural analog of guanosine. B. Acyclovir does not contain a ribose. C. Viral DNA synthesis stops when acyclovir is added to the growing strand of viral DNA. D. All of the above E. A and C

d. all of the above

According to the video "Understanding COVID-19 testing", current diagnostic tests for COVID 19 include ___. A. Antibody test B. Antigen test C. Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction D. All of the above E. B and C

d. all of the above

Because meningococcoal meningitis progresses so rapidly, a greater variety of clinical specimens are required for the timely detection of N. meningitidis. Required specimens can include _____. A. blood B. CSF C. naso- and oropharyngeal swabs D. All of the above E. A and B

d. all of the above

C5a as shown in Fig. 17.19(2) ___. A. is a complement protein as shown in Fig. 17.9 B. is chemotactic and proinflammatory C. attracts phagocytes to the site of infection D. All of the above E. A and B

d. all of the above

Candida albicans ___ A. is a fungus B. has both yeast and flameouts forms (Fig. 23.21) C. is a member of the normal microbiota D. All of the above E. A and C

d. all of the above

Dermatophyte ___. A. is a fungus B. requires keratin for growth C. can cause skin infection like athlete's foot (Fig. 21.29(b) D. All of the above E. A and B

d. all of the above

Dermatophyte ___. Question options: A. is a fungus B. requires keratin for growth C. can cause skin infection like athlete's foot (Fig. 21.29(b) D. All of the above E. A and B

d. all of the above

Fig. 26.6 shows __. A. diplococci inside a neutrophil B. a gram-stained CSF sample C. a positive test for meningococcal infection D. all of the above E. B and C

d. all of the above

Fig. 8.15 illustrates ______. A. ATP synthesis through oxidative phosphorylation B. chemiosmosis of hydrogen ions C. an electrochemical gradient of hydron ions D. All of the above E. A and C

d. all of the above

Figs. 3.26 and 3.28 show that the outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria ____. A. is a lipid bilayer B. contains the molecule lipopolysaccharide in its outer leaflet C. covers peptidoglycan D. All of the above E. B and C

d. all of the above

Figs. 3.40 and 3.42 show that ___. A. The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane is connected to the nuclear envelope B. Transport vesicles leaving from the ER fuse with a Golgi apparatus on its receiving, or cis, face. C. Secretory vesicles emerging from the trans face of the Golgi commonly fuse with the plasma membrane. D. All of the above E. B and C

d. all of the above

In the 1940s, additional natural antibiotics were discovered, including ____. A. actinomycin B. streptomycin C. neomycin D. All of the above E. B and C

d. all of the above

Phagocytes are cells whose main function is to __ pathogens. A. seek B. ingest C. kill D. All of the above E. B and C

d. all of the above

Polymyxins are ____. A. natural polypeptide antibiotics B. lipophilic with detergent-like properties C. able to interact with lipopolysaccharides, disrupting the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria D. All of the above E. A and C

d. all of the above

Salmonella dysenteriae type 1 is able to produce Shiga toxin. The toxin ___. A. Enters the endothelial cells of small blood vessels in the intestines B. Targets the large ribosomal subunit, thus affecting protein synthesis of these cells. C. Produces hemorrhaging and lesions in the colon. D. All of the above E. B and C

d. all of the above

Study Fig. 21.29 (b). Athlete's foot ___. A. is caused by a fugus B. is a cutaneous mycosis C. can be transmitted by contaminated fomites D. All of the above E. A and B

d. all of the above

Study Fig. 21.29 (b). Athlete's foot ___. Question options: A. is caused by a fugus B. is a cutaneous mycosis C. can be transmitted by contaminated fomites D. All of the above E. A and B

d. all of the above

Table 17.13 and Fig. 17.18 show that phagocytes include ___. A. Neutrophils B. Monocytes C. Macrophages D. All of the above E. A and B

d. all of the above

The primary purposes of the circulatory system as shown in Fig. 25.2 are to A. deliver nutrients and oxygen to tissues B. delivery immune factors to tissues C. to carry away waste products for elimination D. All of the above E. A and C

d. all of the above

Vaginal candidiasis ___ A. is also known as yeast infection B. is caused by Candida albicans C. predisposing factors including pregnancy and use of broad-spectrum antibiotics D. All of the above E. A and B

d. all of the above

Watch the animation on immune responses to rhinovirus infection https://massasoit.instructure.com/courses/181005/pages/microflix-immunology?module_item_id=2296184 . What types of host defense is discussed? A. innate immunity B. antibody-mediated immunity C. cell-mediated immunity D. all of the above E. A and C

d. all of the above

Watch the video at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=3hTsve9jjsQ and determine which of the following statements is correct with regard to pneumonia. A. Pneumonia is an infection that causes the air sacs (alveoli) of the lungs to fill up with fluid or pus. B. The fluid shown in the video that fills up the air sacs is produced by our body's inflammatory response to an infection C. The disease pneumonia illustrates that our body's own defense can sometimes cause damage to our body. D. All of the above E. A and B

d. all of the above

Watch the video at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CtsQ6lZ3RI4 . Invasion of the intestinal epithelium by Shigella bacteria involves _____. A. M cells B. the basolateral surface of the epithelium C. use of host cell actin to infect neighboring epithelial cells D. All of the above E. B and C

d. all of the above

Watch the video https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=202hkf43HXQ to review tuberculosis. Fig. 22.13 shows that host defense against Mycobacterium tuberculosis includes ___. A. Formation of granulomas B. Activation of macrophages by (helper) T-cells C. Killing of ingested bacteria by activated macrophages D. All of the above E. B and C

d. all of the above

Watch the video on Targeting HIV Replication by Boehringer Ingelheim GmbH and study Fig. 6.12. Which of the following matches is correct? A. HIV reverse transcriptase / making DNA from RNA B. HIV integrase / integration of the viral DNA into the host cell chromosome C. Viral integrase / formation of a provirus D. All of the above E. A and B

d. all of the above

Which of the following characteristics is applicable to Staphylococcus aureus? A. Gram positive and catalase positive B. Coagulase positive C. 30% nasal carrier rate in the healthy individuals D. All of the above E. A and C

d. all of the above

Which of the following characteristics is applicable to Staphylococcus aureus? Question options: A. Gram positive and catalase positive B. Coagulase positive C. 30% nasal carrier rate in the healthy individuals D. All of the above E. A and C

d. all of the above

Which of the following events occurs when a bacterial cell divides as shown in Figure 9.2? A. replication of DNA B. cell elongation C. formation of division septum D. all of the above E. A and C

d. all of the above

Which of the following examples illustrates the importance of the normal microbiota in host defenses? A. Inhibition of the growth of Candida (responsible for yeast infection) by the resident microbiota in the vagina B. Diarrhea caused by Clostridium difficile due to the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics (a superinfection, see Ch14). C. Transfer of fecal materials from a donor to the patient with Clostridium difficile infections as a treatment D. All of the above E. A and B

d. all of the above

Which of the following microbial substances can be an immunogen? A. Bacterial toxins B. Viral protein coats C. The capsule of Streptococcus pneumoniae D. All of the above E. A and B

d. all of the above

Which of the following observations is in support of the bacterial origin of mitochondria? A. Mitochondria have 70S ribosomes. B. Mitochondrial DNA was derived from bacterial DNA. C. The inner membrane was derived from the bacterial plasma membrane. D. All of the above E. A and B

d. all of the above

Which of the following statements or examples illustrates the meaning of "tissue tropism"? A. A virus that only infects certain types of cells within tissues. B. The poliovirus targets the tissues of the brain and spinal cord. C. The influenza virus targets the respiratory tract. D. All of the above E. B and C

d. all of the above

Which of the statements below is correct with regard to the electron transport chain shown in Fig. 8.15? A. It requires a membrane. B. It consists of membrane-associated proteins. C. Some of the proteins are electron carriers and others are ion (proton) pumps. D. All of the above E. B and C

d. all of the above

The common sites of among all healthcare-associated infections. Question options: a. Urinary tract infections b. Bloodstream infections c. Lower respiratory infections d. all of them

d. all of them

Which of the following characteristics is applicable to the blood-brain barrier? A. Selective permeability of the capillaries that carry blood to the brain and spinal cord tissue B. Permeable to lipid soluble drugs C. Increased permeability by inflammation D. All of them E. A and C

d. all of them

Which of the following statements or characteristics is applicable to the arbovirus? A. An arbovirus is an arthropod-borne virus. B. A virus that is transmitted via mosquitoes is an arbovirus. C. West Nile virus is an arbovirus. D. All of them E. A and C

d. all of them

A positive tuberculin skin test indicates ____. A. an active infection with Mycobacterium B. a latent infection with Mycobacterium C. a prior BCG vaccination D. any one of the above E. A or C

d. any of the above

In most prokaryotic cells, morphology is maintained by the ______ in combination with cytoskeletal elements. a. plasma membrane b. cytoplasm c. chromosome d. cell wall e. all of the above f. a and d

d. cell wall

The video on "How Giant Tube Worms Survive at Hydrothermal Vents" shows that marine life is abundant in the darkness of the deep sea near volcanic vents. At the center of the deep sea food web are ____. A.heterotrophic fungi that can decompose dead fish and other organisms B.chemoautotrophic algae C.chemoautotrophic protozoa D.chemoautotrophic bacteria E.all of the above

d. chemoautotrophic bacteria

Which of the following bacteria is an obligate intracellular pathogen? A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Treponema pallidum C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Chlamydia trachomatis E. C and D

d. chlamydia trachomatis

Which strain of Escherichia coli below can cause bacterial diarrhea in a way similar to Vibrio cholerae? A. Uropathogenic E. coli (UPEC) B. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) C. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) D. Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) E. They all can.

d. enterotoxigenic e. coli (ETEC)

What is not illustrated in Fig. 26.18? A. Green circles represent normal prion proteins. B. Red circles represent abnormal prion proteins. C. Interaction of an abnormal prion protein with a normal one converts the normal one to an abnormal one. D. How accumulated abnormal prion proteins cause Mad cow disease. E. All of the above are illustrated in the figure.

d. how accumulated abnormal prion proteins cause mad cow disease

Which of the following matches is incorrect? A. Pilus / exchange of DNA B. Capsule / attachment C. Lysosome / phagocytotic killing D. Mitochondrion / fermentation of glucose E. These matches are all correct

d. mitochondrion / fermentation of glucose

A culture from the pus-containing urethral discharge of a male grows gram-negative diplococci. His infection is caused by ___. A. Candida albicans B. Treponema pallidum C. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae E. A and D

d. neisseria gonorrhoeae

Which of the images shown in Fig. 6.5 is a light micrograph? A. Fig. 6.5 (a) B. Fig. 6.5 (b) C. A and B D. Neither A nor B

d. neither a nor b

According to the classifications of organisms by energy and carbon source in Table 8.1, microbes that can carry out the reactions shown in Fig. 8.22 should be best described as ____. A. chemoheterotroph B. chemoautotroph C. photoheterotroph D. photoautotroph E. B or D

d. photoautotroph

Death caused by the tetanus neurotoxin results from spasms in the _____ muscles. A. jaw B. back C. Leg D. respiratory E. All of the above

d. respiratory

Watch the video at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9m-EpupYkRg. Which of the statements below is incorrect with regard to human papillomaviruses (HPV)? A. Serotypes types 6 and 11 are responsible for most genital wats. B. Serotypes 16 and 18 can cause cervical cancer. C. The Pap smear (test) is to detect cervical cancer. D. The HPV vaccine protects again all serotypes. E. A, B, and C

d. the hpv vaccine protects against all serotypes

Microscopic examination of the vaginal discharge of a patient with vaginitis reveals flagellated eukaryotic cells. The patient has ___. A. bacterial vaginosis B. gonorrhea C. Candida vaginitis D. trichomoniasis E. B and C

d. trichomoniasis

Which of the following methods will allow you to determine the actual number of individual bacterial cells in a sample? A. Plate counts B. Direct microscopic count C. Turbidity by absorbance D. None of the above E. A and B

direct microscopic count

3.25 shows that peptidoglycan is composed of long chains of alternating molecules of ____. A. N-acetylglucosamine B. N-acetylmuramic acid C. tetrapeptide D. all of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

3.39 shows that the nucleolus is ___? A. located within the nucleus. B. the side of rRNA synthesis and pre-ribosomal assembly C. bound by a membrane D. all of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

According to Fig. 24.28, a vaccine for _______ is currently available. A. hepatitis A B. hepatitis B C. hepatitis C D. all of them E. A and B

e. a and b

Each plaque shown in Fig. 6.17 ___. A. Corresponds to a single virus in the initial suspension of bacteria and viruses B. Forms as a result of destruction of all the bacteria in the area surrounding the original virus C. Represents a bacterial colony D. All of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

Fig. 8.10 shows that for one molecule of glucose, __________ in glycolysis. A. 2 ATP molecules are used B. A net of 2 ATP molecules are produced. C. 2 NAD+ are produced. D. All of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

Lyme disease is a ____ disease. A. vector borne B. zoonotic C. blood borne D. all of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is ___. A. a Gram positive bacillus B. acid fast due to the presence of glycolipids in the cell wall C. an obligate intracellular bacterium D. all of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

Streptococcus pneumoniae ___. A. is the etiological agent of pneumococcal pneumonia B. can often colonize the nasopharynx without producing symptoms C. is transmitted from animals to humans D. All of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

Study Figs. 3.12 and 3.35 and Table 3.2. Which of the following cellular structures is present only in eukaryotic cells? A. nucleus B. membrane-bound organelles C. 70S ribosomes D. All of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

The pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13) or pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23) is expected to protect against ___. A. pneumococcal pneumonia B. pneumococcal meningitis C. bacterial pneumonias D. All of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

The structural components that are common to the virions shown in Fig. 6.3 and Fig. 6.5 include ___. A. Capsid B. Nucleic acid C. Envelope D. Spikes E. A and B

e. a and b

The toxic forms of oxygen include ____. A. superoxide anions B. hydrogen peroxide C. oxygen D. all of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

Toll-like receptors (TLRs) on the surface of phagocytes ______. A. are a group of pattern recognition receptors B. facilitate phagocytosis by recognizing microbes that display pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) C. can kill microbes directly D. All of them E. A and B

e. a and b

Use Table 6.2 to determine which of the following matches is correct. A. Common cold / Rhinovirus / +ss RNA B. HIV for AIDS / Retroviridae / +ss RNA / enveloped C. Influenza virus A / ss DNA / enveloped D. All of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

Use the information from Ch. 8 Microbial Metabolism to determine whether the cell division shown in Fig. 9.2 is _______ active. A. catabolically B. anabolically C. aerobically D. all of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

Viruses that infect bacteria are commonly called ___. A. Bacteriophages B. Phages C. plaques D. All of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

Which of the characteristics or features is found in Streptococcus pneumoniae that contributes to the pathogenesis of pneumococcal pneumonia? A. The bacterial cell wall components can induce a strong inflammatory response that can compromise a person's ability to breathe. B. Its capsules evades phagocytosis such that the infection can progress quickly. C. Its lipopolysaccharides in the outer membrane can cause septic shock. D. All of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

Which of the figures below illustrates contact transmission? Question options: a. Fig. 16.9 b. Fig. 16.10 c. Fig. 16.11 d. Fig. 16.12 e. a and b

e. a and b

Which of the following disease is an example of intoxication? A. staphylococcal food poisoning (Fig. 24.16 and pp. 1065-66) B. Botulism (Ch. 26) C. Cholera (Ch24) D. All of them E. A and B

e. a and b

Which of the following disease is an example of intoxication? Question options: A. staphylococcal food poisoning (Fig. 24.16 and pp. 1065-66) B. Botulism (Ch. 26) C. Cholera (Ch24) D. All of them E. A and B

e. a and b

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to synthetic antimicrobials? A. A synthetic antimicrobial is a drug that is developed from a chemical not found in nature. B. Sulfa drugs like sulfanilamide are synthetic antimicrobials. C. Penicillin is a synthetic antimicrobial. D. All of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the drugs shown in Fig. 14.10? A. They all contain a Beta-lactam ring. B. They inhibit the biosynthesis of peptidoglycan. C. They are penicillin derivatives. D. All of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

Which of the following symptoms and signs is typical of cholera? A. watery stools B. loss of water and electrolytes from the small intestine C. blood and white blood cells commonly found in the stool D. all of the above. E. A and B

e. a and b

Which of the statements below is correct with regard to glycolysis? A. It is the most common pathway for all living organisms. B. It is an ancient universal metabolic process. C. It occurs in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes and in the mitochondria of eukaryotes. D. all of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

Which of the statements below is correct with regard to the mucociliary escalator? A. It consists of ciliated epithelial cells as shown in Fig. 17.5. B. It propels debris-laden mucus out. C. It protects both the lungs and the digestive tracts where the mucous membranes are found. D. All of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

Why is chlamydia regarded as a silent epidemic? A. A large number of infected individuals show no symptoms B. Untreated chlamydial infections may lead to serious medical consequences C. Lack of vaccines and treatments for chlamydia D. All of the above E. A and B

e. a and b

14.12 shows that ___. A. Sulfonamides (sulfa drugs) are structural analogues of PABA (para-aminobenzoic acid), an early intermediate in folic acid synthesis. B. Trimethoprim is another synthetic antibacterial drug that is a structural analogue of PABA. C. Sulfonamides and trimethoprim competitively inhibit the bacterial synthesis of folic acid. D. All of the above E. A and C

e. a and c

17.20 shows ____. A. a phagocytic cell B. the display of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) on the plasma membrane of a phagocytic cell C. recognition of peptidoglycan by peptidoglycan receptor D. All of the above E. A and C

e. a and c

24.26 shows that _____ contains ssRNA(+). A. Hepatitis A virus B. Hepatitis B virus C. Hepatitis C virus D. All of them E. A and C

e. a and c

Based on Fig. 23.4, the reason that urinary tract infections are more common in women than in men is likely due to ____. A. the shorter urethra in women B. the lack of microbiota in the urethra in women C. the shorter distance between the urethra and the anus in women D. All of the above E. A and C

e. a and c

How do bacterial cells respond to the growth conditions at the stationary phase as shown in Fig. 9.5? A. They switch to a survival mode of metabolism B. They increase the synthesis of peptidoglycans for survival. C. In bacteria capable of producing endospores, they undergo sporulation. D. All of the above. E. A and C

e. a and c

Peptidoglycan ____. A. is the major component of bacterial cell walls B. is found in eukaryotic cells that have cell walls C structurally resembles a layer of meshwork or fabric D. All of the above E. A and C

e. a and c

Study Figs. 18.5, 18.7, 18.8, 18.9, and 18.10 and read relevant paragraphs. The Fc region of an antibody ____. A. interacts with Fc receptors on phagocytes B. blocks adhesion of bacteria or viruses to host cells C. activates NK cells in antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity. D. All of the above E. A and C

e. a and c

Use Fig. 8.2 as a guide to determine which of the following matches is correct. A. Figs. 8.14 and 8.15- catabolism B. Figs. 8.10 and 8.17 - anabolism C. Fig. 8.22 - anabolism D. These are correct. E. A and C

e. a and c

Which of the follow statements is not applicable to flu? A. Influenza virus A infects humans only. A. The flu virus is enveloped with protein spikes known as hemagglutinin and neuraminidase. C. The protein spike neuraminidase is required for the virus to enter the cells of the respiratory tract. D. A secondary bacterial infection of the lungs may follow flu. E. A and C

e. a and c

Which of the following cellular structures is only found in the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria? A. lipoteichoic acid B. peptidoglycan C. (wall) teichoic acid D. All of the above E. A and C

e. a and c

Which of the following statements about bacterial chromosome and plasmids is correct? A. Both contain DNA. B. Bacterial chromosomes are typically linear whereas bacterial plasmids are typically circular. C. Bacterial plasmids are known as extrachromosomal DNA. D. All of them are correct E. A and C

e. a and c

Which of the following statements about the vaccines for Streptococcus pneumoniae is correct? A. The 23-valent vaccine consists of capsules from 23 serotypes. B. Both the 23-valent and 13-valent vaccines are conjugate vaccines. C. The vaccines are expected to induce the production of antibodies against the pneumococcal capsule to promote opsonophagocytosis D. All of the above E. A and C

e. a and c

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the mitochondrion as illustrated in Fig. 3.49? A. It is surrounded by two membranes. B. The space between the inner and outer membranes is known as matrix. C. It contains its own DNA and ribosomes in the matrix, D. These statements are all correct. E. A and C.

e. a and c

According to Figs. 8.2 and 8.4, ATP is typically produced during ___. A. catabolic reactions B. anabolic reactions C. synthetic reactions D. degradative reactions E. A and D

e. a and d

Figs. 3.33 and 3.34 show that when flagellated bacteria move toward a chemical attractant, like food source, the length of ____ increases. A. runs B. tumbles C. clockwise rotations of flagella D. counter-clockwise rotations of flagella E. A and D

e. a and d

A throat swab culture from a healthy individual with no symptoms of pneumonia grew Streptococcus pneumoniae that can cause pneumonia. This observation indicates that this person ___. Question options: a. is having an infection by S. pneumoniae b. is a carrier of S. pneumoniae c. is having the disease pneumonia d. can transmit S. pneumoniae to others e. a, b, d

e. a, b, d

According to Fig. 14.11 and Table 14.3, which of the following pairs is correct? A. Targeting 30S subunit / neomycin B. Blocking association of tRNA with ribosome / tetracycline C. Targeting 50S subunit / erythromycin D. Blocking peptide bond formation between amino acids / clindamycin E. All of the above F. A and C

e. all of the above

According to Table 17.5, which of the following pairs is correct? A. Lactoferrin / binding and sequestering iron B. Defensins / antimicrobial peptides that attack bacterial membranes C. Complements C3b and C4b / opsonization of pathogens to aid phagocytosis D. Chemokines / Recruit white blood cells to infected area E. All of the above

e. all of the above

All bacteria contain _____. A. cytoplasm B. ribosomes C. a plasma membrane D. a nucleoid E. all of the above

e. all of the above

Bacterial vaginosis ___ A. is most commonly caused by Gardnerella vaginalis B. is due to the imbalance of vaginal bacteria C. illustrates the importance of the normal microbial in host defense D. can be diagnosed by microscopic observation of "clue cells" as shown in Fig. 23.9 E. All of the above

e. all of the above

Compare Fig. 18.8 and Fig. 17.21 and read relevant paragraphs. Which of the following statements is correct? A. Clearance of bacteria by phagocytes is part of innate immunity. B. Antibodies targeting bacteria can increase the binding of phagocytes to the bacteria C. Antibody-mediated host defense is part of adaptive immunity. D. Fig. 18.8 shows how innate immunity and adaptive immunity work together. E. All of the above

e. all of the above

Diseases frequently caused by Staphylococcus aureus include ___. A. Abscess B. Bacteremia C. Toxin diseases D. Healthcare associated infections E. all of the above

e. all of the above

Diseases frequently caused by Staphylococcus aureus include ___. Question options: A. Abscess B. Bacteremia C. Toxin diseases D. Healthcare associated infections E. all of the above

e. all of the above

Fig. 8.10 shows that ________________. A. Glucose has 6 carbons. B. Pyruvate has 3 carbons. C. One glucose molecule is converted to 2 pyruvate molecules. D. No carbon is lost from the initial glucose molecule in glycolysis. E. All of the above

e. all of the above

National notifiable diseases are those that must be reported by law to the US Public Health Service and include __ . Question options: a. syphilis b. hepatitis A, B, C c. tuberculosis d. coccidioidomycosis e. All of the above

e. all of the above

Neisseria meningitidis _________ A. is also known as meningococcus B. is encapsulated C. is Gram negative D. can produce endotoxins E. All of the above

e. all of the above

Read Table 18.3 and relevant paragraphs. A vaccine can be prepared from ____. A. dead or inactivated microbes B. Attenuated viruses C. Toxoids D. Bacterial capsule polysaccharide conjugated to protein E. All of the above

e. all of the above

SARS-CoV-2 _______. A. stands for severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 B. is responsible for COVID 19. C. can cause severe pneumonia in some individuals. D. is easily transmitted through respiratory secretions. E. All of the above

e. all of the above

Study Fig. 17.3 and Table 17.2 and read related paragraphs. The protection provided by the skin against microbial infection involves ___. A. dense layer of dead cells packed with Keratin B. Shedding of dead cells C. Fatty acids D. Normal microbiota (microbiome) E. All of the above F. A and B

e. all of the above

Study Figs. 18.7, 18.8, 18.9 and 18.18 and read the relevant paragraphs. Which of the following matches is correct? A. humoral immunity / antibody-mediated B. cellular immunity / cell-mediated C. humoral immunity / extracellular pathogens or products D. cellular immunity / intracellular pathogens E. All of the abov

e. all of the above

To cause an infection in the CNS, pathogens must successfully breach the blood-brain barrier or blood-spinal cord barrier. Various pathogens employ different virulence factors and mechanisms to achieve this, but they can generally be grouped into four categories: intercellular (also called paracellular), transcellular, leukocyte facilitated, and nonhematogenous. Which of the following matches is correct? A. Intercellular entry / passage between the cells of the blood-brain barrie B. Transcellular entry / trigger uptake by vacuole- or receptor-mediated mechanisms C. Leukocyte-facilitated entry / by infected peripheral blood leukocytes D. Nonhematogenous entry / via the (olfactory or trigeminal cranial) nerves that lead directly into the CNS E. All of the above F. A and B

e. all of the above

Toxic shock syndrome toxins (TSST) ___ A. are produced by some strains of Staphylococcus aureus B. are superantigens as shown in Fig. 18.19 C. are responsible for toxic shock syndrome (TSS, Ch. 25, pp. 1118-19) D. include TSST-1 that is responsible for all menstrual TSS cases E. All of the above

e. all of the above

Toxic shock syndrome toxins (TSST) ___ Question options: A. are produced by some strains of Staphylococcus aureus B. are superantigens as shown in Fig. 18.19 C. are responsible for toxic shock syndrome (TSS, Ch. 25, pp. 1118-19) D. include TSST-1 that is responsible for all menstrual TSS cases E. All of the above

e. all of the above

Trypanosoma species ____ A. are protozoa B. can cause human African trypanosomiasis C. are transmitted to humans by tsetse flies D. can infect the central nervous system E. all of the above

e. all of the above

Which of the characteristics below is common to the three bacteria pathogens that are responsible for more than 70% of meningitis cases? A. Humans as the reservoir B. Person-to-person transmission by respiratory secretions C. Initial nasopharyngeal colonization D. Invasion of the bloodstream for dissemination to the brain and spinal cord E. All of the above

e. all of the above

Which of the following diseases supports the idea that serious complications may result from an untreated sexually transmitted infection? A. Pelvic inflammatory disease B. Neonatal conjunctivitis and pneumonia C. Cervical cancer caused by human papillomaviruses D. Secondary and tertiary syphilis as shown in Fig. 23.12 E. All of the above

e. all of the above

Figure 9.5. shows that cell division occurs in which of the following phases? A. Lag B. Log C. Stationary D. Death or decline phage E. All of the above except A

e. all of the above except a

Which of the following characteristics is applicable to Cryptococcus neoformans? A. A fungus B. Evasion of phagocytosis by its capsule (Fig. 26.20) C. Cause of cryptococcal meningitis D. An opportunistic pathogen to the immunocompromised E. All of them

e. all of them

Which of the following characteristics or features is correct with regard to malaria? A. It is a Plasmodium protozoan disease. B. It is a vector borne disease. C. It can be transmitted through infected blood or needles. D. Infected humans are the reservoir. E. All of them

e. all of them

Which of the following groups of organisms contributes to the carbon cycle shown in Fig. 8.24? A. chemoheterotroph B. chemoautotroph C. photoheterotroph D. photoautotroph E. all of them

e. all of them

24.26 shows that _____ is enveloped. A. Hepatitis A virus B. Hepatitis B virus C. Hepatitis C virus D. All of them E. B and C

e. b and c

25.14 shows that ___. A. the tick is the natural reservoir of Borrelia burgdorferi B. three blood meals are required for the life cycle of Ixodes ticks C. infected deer can also serve as a reservoir of Borrelia burgdorferi D. All of the above E. B and C

e. b and c

According to Fig. 24.28, infection by __________ may become chronic. A. hepatitis A virus B. hepatitis B virus C. hepatitis C virus D. all of them E. B and C

e. b and c

According to Fig. 24.28, transmission of _______ is mainly through infected bodily fluids. A. hepatitis A B. hepatitis B C. hepatitis C D. all of them E. B and C

e. b and c

Endospores as shown in Fig. 3.20 can be produced by ____. A. all bacteria B. bacteria from the genus Bacillus C. bacteria from the genus Clostridium D. All of the above E. B and C

e. b and c

Fig. 8.14 shows that _______. A. Pyruvate from glycolysis continues directly with the Krebs cycle. B. Acetyl CoA has 2 carbons. C. 2 CO2 are produced from the Krebs cycle. D. All of the above E. B and C

e. b and c

Lipopolysaccharides are found in ____. A. the plasma membrane B. Escherichia coli C. in Gram negative bacteria D. All of the above E. B and C

e. b and c

Which of the following microorganisms can be routinely observed with the light microscope? A. Viruses B. Bacteria C. Yeast cells D. All of the above E. B and C

e. b and c

Which of the following viral hepatic diseases is also classified as a bloodborne disease? A. hepatitis A B. hepatitis B C. hepatitis C D. all of them E. B and C

e. b and c

Which of the statements below is not applicable to valley fever? A. It is caused by Coccidioides immitis B. It is a mycobacterial pulmonary disease, also known as coccidioidomycosis C. It is a vector borne disease. D. The endemic areas include the San Joaquin Valley E. B and C

e. b and c

Study Figs. 18.20, 18.21, and 18.22 and read the relevant paragraphs. Which of the following matches is correct? A. antibody response to a T-independent antigen / Fig. 18.22 B. antibody response to a T-dependent antigen / Fig. 18.21 C. antibody response to a T-dependent antigen / involvement of T helper cells D. B-cell receptors / membrane-bound immunoglobulins (IgD and IgM) E. C and D

e. c and d

Which of the following characteristics is not associate with cholera toxin (enterotoxin)? A. Produced by Vibrio cholerae B. an ADP-ribosyl transferase C. Stimulating production of cAMP D. Causing loss of fluid and electrolytes from the large intestine E. These characteristics are all correct.

e. these characteristics are all correct

Which of the following pairs is correct? A. Bacteriostatic drug / inhibiting bacterial growth B. Bactericidal drug / killing target bacteria C. Narrow-spectrum antimicrobial drug / targeting a specific subset of bacterial pathogens D. Broad-spectrum antimicrobial drug / targeting a wide variety of bacterial pathogens E. These pairs are all correct

e. these pairs are all correct

Study Fig. 18.22 and read relevant paragraphs in the book. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. A B-cell internalizes an extracellular antigen and subsequently processes it into fragments for display on the cell surface. B. The B-cell is an antigen presenting cell. C. A T helper cell that recognizes the antigen fragment activates the B-cell through cytokines. D. The antibodies produced by the plasma cell and the B-cell receptors recognize and attach to the same extracellular antigen. E. These statements are all correct.

e. these statements are all correct

The legend of Fig. 6.25 states that ____________ (PrPc) is converted into the ____________ (PrPsc) when it encounters this variant form of the protein.

endogenous normal prion protein; disease-causing form

A biofilm consists of clusters of microorganisms embedded in a matrix interspersed with open water channels as shown in Fig. 9.17. The extracellular matrix consists of __________________ secreted by the organisms in the biofilm

extracellular polymeric substances

Which of the following characteristics is shared by both Clostridium tetani and Clostridium botulinum or by their diseases? A. soilborne B. anaerobic C. intoxication D. flaccid paralysis E. All of them F. A and B

f. a and b

It has been observed that decreases in estrogen during the menstrual cycle and with menopause are associated with ________. A. decreased levels of vaginal glycogen B. increased lactic acid production by lactobacilli C. a higher vaginal pH D. All of the above E. B and C F. A and C

f. a and c

What is illustrated in Fig. 14.19? A. The five tubes contain varying amounts of an antimicrobal drug from 2 microgram/ml to 32 microgram/ml B. The two tubes to the left have been inoculated with a strain of test bacteria while the three tubes to the right are uninoculated controls. C. This assay is to determine the minimal bactericidal concentration (MBC) of an antimicrobal drug. D. The MIC (minimal inhibitory concentration) is 8 microgram/ml. E. All of the above are illustrated. F. A and D

f. a and d

When the antigenic coat of a microbial pathogen changes, which of the following antibody-mediated defense is likely affected? A. Neutralization B. Complement activation C. Agglutination D. opsonophagocytosis E. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity F. All of the above

f. all of the above

Which of the following anatomical sites is covered by a mucous membrane? A. nose B. mouth C. lungs D. urinary tract E. digestive tract F. All of the above G. C, D, and E

f. all of the above

Which of the following can be a reservoir of infection? Question options: a. A sick person b. A healthy person c. A sick animal d. A healthy animal e. A hospital f. All of them g. A, C, E Question options:a. A sick personb. A healthy personc. A sick animald. A healthy animale. A hospitalf. All of themg. A, C, E

f. all of the them

A skin infection can be caused by ____. A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. Fungi D. Protozoa E. Helminths F. Any of the above

f. any of the above

A skin infection can be caused by ____. Question options: A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. Fungi D. Protozoa E. Helminths F. Any of the above

f. any of the above

Which of the statements below is correct with regard the vaccine for meningococcal meningitis caused by Neisseria meningitidis? A. It protects again all twelve different capsular serotypes. B. It consists of capsules from a few different serotypes. C. The CDC recommends that children between 11-12 years of age be vaccinated. D. One vaccine injection is sufficient and a booster is not needed. E. All of the above F. B and C

f. b and c

Which of the cellular structures shown in Figs. 14.13 and 14.14 is targeted by antifungal drugs? A. Cholesterol B. Ergosterol C. Chitin D. Glucans E. All of the above F. B, C, and D

f. b, c, and d

Which of the following structures is an example of glycocalyx? A. outer membrane B. lipopolysaccharide C. capsule as shown in Fig. 3.29 D. slime layer E. all of the above F. C and D

f. c and d

Plasmolysis can occur under the condition illustrated by (hypertonic, isotonic, hypotonic)

hypertonic

Use Fig. 24.18 and the video at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=OBf64TEo7gA as a guide to answer this question. Which of the events below occurs first during the invasion of the intestinal epithelium by Salmonella bacteria? Injection of Salmonella proteins (effectors) Actin cytoskeleton remodeling Internalization Formation of membrane ruffles

injection of salmonella proteins (effectors)

An important quality for an antimicrobial drug is selective toxicity, meaning that _________________ Most antimicrobial drugs currently in clinical use are antibacterial because the ___________

it selectively kills or inhibits the growth of microbial targets while causing minimal or no harm to the host; prokaryotic cell provides a greater variety of unique targets for selective toxicity, in comparison to fungi, parasites, and viruses

In nature, some ___________ produce ________ that ___________ other microbes that might otherwise compete for the same resources. Humans have successfully exploited these abilities, using microbes to mass-produce substances that can be used as __________

microbes, substances, inhibit or kill, antimicrobial drugs

Prions are

proteinaceous infectious particles

Because of its proximity to the exterior, the vagina is a common site for infections in women. The general term for any inflammation of the vagina is ___vaginitis___(16 %) . Vaginitis often develops as a result of ___an overgrowth of bacteria or fungi that normally reside in the vaginal microbiota___(18 %) , although it can also result from infections by transient pathogens. Bacterial infections of the vagina are called ___bacterial vaginosis___(16 %) , whereas fungal infections (typically involving Candida spp.) are called ___yeast infections___(16 %) . Dynamic changes affecting ___the normal microbiota, acid production, and pH variations___(17 %) can be involved in the initiation of the microbial overgrowth and the development of vaginitis. Although some individuals may have no symptoms, vaginosis and vaginitis can be associated with ___discharge, odor, itching, and burning___(17 %

see left

Osteomyelitis is an ___inflammation of bone tissues___(25 %)most commonly caused by infection. These infections can either be acute or chronic and can involve a variety of different bacteria. The most common causative agent of osteomyelitis is ___S. aureus___(25 %). However, ___M. tuberculosis, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Streptococcus pyogenes, S. agalactiae___(50 %), species in the Enterobacteriaceae, and other microorganisms can also cause osteomyelitis, depending on which bones are involved.

see left

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infection of the female reproductive organs including the ___uterus, cervix, fallopian tubes, and ovaries___(15 %) . The two most common pathogens are the sexually transmitted bacterial pathogens ___Neisseria gonorrhoeae___(14 %) and ___Chlamydia trachomatis___(14 %) . Inflammation of the ___fallopian tubes___(14 %) , called salpingitis, is the most serious form of PID. Symptoms of PID can vary between women and include ___pain in the lower abdomen___(14 %) , vaginal discharge, fever, chills, nausea, diarrhea, vomiting, and painful urination. PID can also lead to infertility through ___scarring and blockage of the fallopian tubes___(14 %) (salpingitis); it may also increase the risk of a life-threatening ectopic pregnancy, which occurs when ___a fertilized egg begins developing somewhere other than the uterus___(15 %) (e.g., in the fallopian tube or ovary).

see left

Rheumatic fever occurs primarily in children a minimum of 2-3 weeks after an episode of ___untreated or inadequately treated___(34 %)pharyngitis. At one time, rheumatic fever was a major killer of children in the US; today, however, it is rare in the US because of early diagnosis and treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis with antibiotics. Rheumatic fever is characterized by a variety of diagnostic signs and symptoms caused by nonsuppurative, immune-mediated damage resulting from a cross-reaction between ___patient antibodies to bacterial surface proteins___(33 %)and ___similar proteins___(33 %)found on cardiac, neuronal, and synovial tissues.

see left

The circulatory (or cardiovascular) system is a ___closed___(10 %) network of organs and vessels that moves blood around the body. Under normal circumstances, the circulatory system and the blood should be ___sterile___(10 %); the circulatory system has ___no normal microbiota___(10 %). Because the system is closed, there are no easy portals of entry into the circulatory system for microbes. Those that are able to breach the body's physical barriers and enter the bloodstream encounter a host of circulating immune defenses, such as ___antibodies, complement proteins, phagocytes, and other immune cells___(10 %). Microbes often gain access to the circulatory system through a break in the skin (e.g., ___wounds, needles, intravenous catheters, insect bites___(10 %)) or spread to the circulatory system from___infections in other body sites___(10 %). Various terms are used to describe conditions involving microbes in the circulatory system. The term ___bacteremia___(10 %)refers to bacteria in the blood. If bacteria are reproducing in the blood as they spread, this condition is called ___septicemia___(10 %). The presence of viruses in the blood is called ___viremia___(10 %). Microbial toxins can also be spread through the circulatory system, causing a condition termed ___toxemia___(10 %).

see left

The human nervous system can be divided into two interacting subsystems: the___peripheral nervous system___(10 %) (PNS) and the ___central nervous system___(10 %)(CNS). The CNS consists of the ___brain and spinal cord___(10 %). The peripheral nervous system is an extensive network of nerves connecting the CNS ___to the muscles and sensory structures___(10 %). Below the boney layer of the skull are three layers of membranes called ___meninges___(10 %) that surround the brain. The term ___meningitis___(10 %)is used to describe an inflammation of the meninges. An inflammation of brain tissue is called ___encephalitis___(10 %). When inflammation affects both the meninges and the brain tissue, the condition is called ___meningoencephalitis___(10 %) . All three forms of inflammation are serious and can lead to blindness, deafness, coma, and death. Unlike the brain and spinal cord, the PNS is not protected by ___bone, meninges, or a blood barrier___(10 %), and, as a consequence, the nerves of the PNS are much more ___susceptible___(10 %)to injury and infection

see left

The urogenital system is a combination of ___the urinary tract and reproductive system___(20 %) . Because both systems are open to the external environment, they are prone to infections. Some infections are introduced ___from outside___(20 %) , whereas others result ___from imbalances in the microbiota___(20 %) of the urogenital tract. ___Urinary tract infections___(20 %) (UTIs) are one the most common bacterial infections worldwide, affecting over 100 million people each year. ___Sexually transmitted infections___(20 %) (STIs) also primarily affect the urogenital system and are an important cause of patient morbidity.

see left

Toxemia associated with infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus can cause ___staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome___(20 %) (TSS). Some strains of S. aureus produce a superantigen called ___toxic shock syndrome toxin-1___(20 %) (TSST-1). TSS may occur as a complication of other localized or systemic infections such as pneumonia, osteomyelitis, sinusitis, and skin wounds (surgical, traumatic, or burns). Those at highest risk for staphylococcal TSS are women with ___preexisting S. aureus colonization___(20 %) of the vagina who leave tampons, contraceptive sponges, diaphragms, or other devices in the vagina for ___longer than the recommended time___(20 %) . Staphylococcal TSS is characterized by sudden onset of vomiting, diarrhea, myalgia, body temperature higher than 38.9 °C (102.0 °F), and ___rapid-onset hypotension___(20 %) with a systolic blood pressure less than 90 mm Hg for adults.

see left

What are the three bacteria that are responsible for most cases of non-neonatal bacterial meningitis? A correctly spelled scientific name is required for credit. Answer for blank # 1: Neisseria meningitidis (33.33 %) Answer for blank # 2: Streptococcus pneumoniae (33.33 %) Answer for blank # 3: Haemophilus influenzae

see left

What are the three bacterial pathogens that are responsible for more than 70% of all bacterial meningitis? A correctly spelled scientific name is required for credit. Answer for blank # 1: Neisseria meningitidis (33.33 %) Answer for blank # 2: Streptococcus pneumoniae (33.33 %) Answer for blank # 3: Haemophilus influenzae

see left

__Streptococcus agalactiae___(50 %) , commonly found in the microbiota of the vagina and gastrointestinal tract, can also cause bacterial meningitis in ___newborns___(50 %)after transmission from the mother either before or during birth.

see left

Which of the following cellular structures can be found in Gram positive bacteria, Gram negative bacteria, or both? gram positive: teichoic acid lipoteichoic acid gram negative: lipopolysaccharide outer membrane both: nucleoid capsule plasma membrane peptidoglycan ribosomes

see to the left

Study Figs. 3.22, 3.23, and 3.24. All cells (prokaryotic and eukaryotic) have a plasma membrane (also called cytoplasmic membrane or cell membrane) that exhibits ________, allowing some molecules to enter or leave the cell while restricting the passage of others.

selective permeability

Organisms that grow at optimum temperatures of 50oC to a maximum of 80oC are called ___________

thermophiles

According to Fig 6.11, RdRP stands for ____. An exact match is required for credit.

viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

The inflammatory response, or inflammation, is triggered by a cascade of chemical mediators and cellular responses that may occur when cells are damaged and stressed or when pathogens successfully breach the physical barriers of the innate immune system. Although inflammation is typically associated with negative consequences of injury or disease, it is a necessary process insofar as it allows for recruitment of the cellular defenses needed to ___eliminate pathogens, remove damaged and dead cells, and initiate repair mechanisms___ . Excessive inflammation, however, can result in local tissue damage and, in severe cases, may even become deadly.

what she said

The nonspecific innate immune response provides a ___first line of defense___(12.5 %) that can often prevent infections from gaining a solid foothold in the body. These defenses are described as ___nonspecific___(12.5 %) because ___they do not target any specific pathogen___(12.5 %) ; rather, ___they defend against a wide range of potential pathogens___(12.5 %) . They are called ___innate___(12.5 %) because they are ___built-in mechanisms___(12.5 %) of the human organism. Unlike the specific adaptive defenses, they are ___not acquired over time___(12.5 %) and they have ___no "memory"___(12.5 %) (they do not improve after repeated exposures to specific pathogens).

what she said