Biology 103 Final Exam Review
Acetyl CoA is produced from A) pyruvate and CoA. B) citric acid and CoA. C) ATP and pyruvate. D) CO2 and pyruvate. E) citric acid and CO2.
Answer: A
During glycolysis ________ carbons will enter the pathway and ________ carbons will leave in the form of pyruvates. A) 6; 6 B) 6; 3 C) 3; 6 D) 12; 6 E) oxaloacetate
Answer: A
The correct sequence for aerobic metabolic breakdown of glucose is A) glycolysis—preparatory reaction—citric acid cycle—electron transport system. B) preparatory reaction—glycolysis—electron transport—citric acid cycle. C) electron transport system—citric acid cycle—preparatory reaction—glycolysis. D) None of the choices are correct.
Answer: A
The event that signals the start of anaphase is A) division of the centromeres to separate sister chromatids. B) migration of the centrioles to opposite poles of the nuclear space. C) a cleavage furrow starts to form. D) asters disappear.
Answer: A
What is the correct summary for the energy investment vs. energy harvesting steps of glycolysis? A) 2 ATP are invested and 4 ATP are harvested to produce a net gain of 2 ATP. B) 4 ATP are invested and 6 ATP are harvested to produce a net gain of 2 ATP. C) No ATP are invested and 2 ATP are harvested to produce a net gain of 2 ATP. D) 2 ATP are invested and no ATP are harvested to produce a net loss of 2 ATP.
Answer: A
Which of the following coenzymes will accept two electrons and two hydrogen ions during the oxidation of glucose? A) FAD B) NAD+ C) FADH D) NADH
Answer: A
Which process produces both NADH and FADH2 ? A) the citric acid cycle B) glycolysis C) the electron transport system D) fermentation E) the preparatory reaction
Answer: A
The first phase of cellular respiration is A) the citric acid cycle. B) glycolysis. C) the electron transport system. D) fermentation. E) the preparatory reaction.
Answer: B
The membrane protein _____ will catalyze the reaction ADP + P ATP as H+ flow down a gradient from the intermembrane space into the matrix. A) the sodium-potassium pump B) ATP synthase C) cholesterol D) NADH-Q reductase
Answer: B
Which of these processes occurs in the cytosol? A) the citric acid cycle B) glycolysis C) the electron transport system D) the preparatory reaction
Answer: B
Which process reduces molecular oxygen to water? A) the citric acid cycle B) glycolysis C) the electron transport system D) fermentation E) the preparatory reaction
Answer: C
Aerobic cellular respiration yields about ________ of the energy of glucose in ATP molecules. A) 2% B) 15% C) 28% D) 39%
Answer: D
Complete oxidative breakdown of glucose results in ________ ATP molecules. A) 2 B) 4 C) 32 D) 36 E) 39
Answer: D
Eukaryotic chromosomes A) consist of both DNA and protein. B) may occur as chromatin. C) contain histones responsible for packaging DNA to fit into a small space. D) All of the choices are correct. E) Only A and B are correct.
Answer: D
Interphase A) occupies the majority of the cell cycle B) includes G1, S, and G2 stages C) results in an increase in cell size D) All of the answer choices are correct. E) Only A and C are correct.
Answer: D
The first reaction in the citric acid cycle binds which of the following molecules together? A) carbon dioxide to a four-carbon (C4) molecule. B) carbon dioxide to a five-carbon (C5) molecule. C) acetyl CoA to a C5 molecule. D) acetyl CoA to a C4 molecule.
Answer: D
The majority of the carbon dioxide we exhale is produced in A) glycolysis. B) the electron transport system. C) lactate fermentation. D) the citric acid cycle.
Answer: D
Which process produces alcohol or lactate? A) the citric acid cycle B) glycolysis C) the electron transport system D) fermentation E) the preparatory reaction
Answer: D
Which stage is most associated with a cell that is unable to divide again, such as a muscle or nerve cell? A) M phase B) G1 phase C) G2 phase D) S phase E) G0 phase
Answer: E
A lattice holds the members of a bivalent together in such a way that the RNA of the nonsister chromatids is aligned.
Answer: FALSE
Cloning can only be carried out using adult stem cells.
Answer: FALSE
Each molecule of NADH produced in the mitochondria provides enough energy to form two ATP molecules.
Answer: FALSE
Glycolysis produces 1 pyruvate and 3 NADH coenzymes.
Answer: FALSE
Glycolysis will yield a net of 2 ATP only during aerobic respiration.
Answer: FALSE
Oogenesis always involves an equal division of cell contents in the formation of an egg and polar bodies.
Answer: FALSE
Organisms produced as a result of mitosis exhibit a great deal of genetic variation.
Answer: FALSE
The first event in the Calvin cycle is the attachment of carbon dioxide to the five-carbon RuBP molecule, which immediately becomes a six-carbon sugar that is the base for starch, sucrose, cellulose, etc.
Answer: FALSE
Chloroplasts are capable of performing photosynthesis which is the most common anabolic process on the planet.
Answer: TRUE
Glycolysis is a catabolic process.
Answer: TRUE
Why are plants green? A) They absorb only green wavelengths of light. B) They absorb only yellow and blue wavelengths of light, which when mixed within the leaf, give plants their characteristic green color. C) They reflect all of the ultraviolet wavelengths and absorb all of the visible light spectrum. D) They reflect green wavelengths of light and absorb other colors of the visible light spectrum. E) They reflect the colors of the visible light spectrum and absorb all of the wavelengths associated with the ultraviolet spectrum.
Answer: D
The first event in the Calvin cycle is the attachment of carbon dioxide to the five-carbon RuBP molecule, which is a reaction assisted by large quantities of RuBP carboxylase enzyme.
Answer: TRUE
Why is it beneficial for pyruvate to be reduced via fermentation when oxygen is not available? A) The organism can survive short spells of anaerobic conditions and maintain growth and reproduction. B) The fermentation reaction regenerates NAD+, which is required for the first step in the energy-harvesting phase of glycolysis. C) Fermentation can provide a rapid burst of ATP. D) All of the choices are advantages. E) None of the choices is an advantage.
Answer: D
f a sperm cell contains 8 chromosomes, it comes from an animal whose regular body cells have ________ chromosomes. A) 4 B) 8 C) 12 D) 16 E) 24
Answer: D
If a parent cell has 48 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each daughter cell have after mitosis and cytokinesis occurs? A) 24 chromosomes B) 48 chromosomes C) 12 chromosomes D) 96 chromosomes
Answer: B
In some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This results in A) cell death. B) a multinucleated cell. C) cells arrested in the G0 phase. D) cells with no nucleus. E) uncontrolled cell division.
Answer: B
One turn of the citric acid cycle produces A) 2 NADH, FADH2, and 2 ATP. B) 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 ATP. C) 1 NADH, 3 FADH2, and 2 ATP. D) 3 NADH, 2 FADH2, and 1 ATP. E) 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 2 ATP.
Answer: B
Which statement is correct about the input and output of carbon during glycolysis? A) There is an input of 6 carbons (glucose) and an output of 6 carbons (2 pyruvates). B) There is an input of 6 carbons (2 pyruvates) and an output of 6 carbons (1 glucose). C) There is an input of 6 carbons (glucose) and an output of 6 carbons (6 CO2). D) There is an input of 6 carbons (glucose) and an output of 3 carbons (pyruvate).
Answer: A
Compared with other components found in a plant cell such as the cell membrane, the chloroplasts or the nucleus, the mitochondria would be the only one that would A) form an electrochemical gradient across a membrane. B) use significant amounts of oxygen to produce ATP. C) use a chemiosmotic complex to produce ATP. D) produce ATP via glycolysis. E) release protons (H+).
Answer: B
During which stage of meiosis are the bivalents arranged along the equator of the spindle? A) prophase I B) metaphase II C) anaphase II D) prophase II E) metaphase I
Answer: E
Protons (H+) accumulate in the thylakoid space during electron transport between photosystems II and I. Which of the following describes what will happen to these protons next? A) The protons will reenter the electron transport chain and be used to generate water. B) The protons will be used to oxidize NADPH to NADH, generating ATP in the process. C) The protons will diffuse out of the lipid layer surrounding the thylakoid and exit the plant during gas exchange. D) The protons will raise the pH of the thylakoid space until it becomes alkaline at which point the protons are pumped out of the thylakoid, generating ATP. E) The protons will move from the thylakoid space to the stroma through an ATP synthase complex that generates ATP.
Answer: E
What might prevent a cell from passing the G1 checkpoint? A) The DNA has not completed replication. B) The cell may need to enter the G) stage. C) The cell may have damaged DNA and need to undergo apoptosis. D) Only A and B are correct. E) Only B and C are correct.
Answer: E
Which of the following is NOT true about daughter cells of mitosis or meiosis? A) In meiosis, daughter cells are haploid. B) In meiosis, there are four daughter cells. C) In mitosis, there are two daughter cells. D) In mitosis, the daughter cells are genetically identical. E) In meiosis, the daughter cells are genetically identical.
Answer: E
Which statement is NOT true about the noncyclic electron pathway? A) Electrons are boosted to higher energy level in photosystem I. B) Sunlight excites electrons in photosystem II. C) It produces ATP. D) It produces NADPH. E) It produces carbohydrates through carbon dioxide fixation.
Answer: E
In meiosis, the reduction from 2n to n is accomplished by sister chromatids splitting apart and migrating to opposite daughter cells.
Answer: FALSE
Only one of the four daughter cells becomes a functional gamete in spermatogenesis.
Answer: FALSE
Spindle formation, centrosome migration, the fragmentation of the nuclear envelope, and the disappearance of the nucleolus are characteristic of prophase I of meiosis but not prophase of mitosis.
Answer: FALSE
The final electron acceptor in glycolysis is oxygen and this step will occur within the matrix of the mitochondria.
Answer: FALSE
The light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis occur in the stroma of the chloroplast.
Answer: FALSE
Contact inhibition stops normal cells from dividing when they come in contact with neighboring cells, but this is not functional in cancer cells.
Answer: TRUE
Fermentation follows glycolysis in some cells when oxygen is not available.
Answer: TRUE
Fermentation is the process that produces bubbles of carbon dioxide that makes bread dough rise.
Answer: TRUE
Fossil fuels are full of energy stored from photosynthesis millions of years ago.
Answer: TRUE
Glycolysis occurs before fermentation.
Answer: TRUE
Glycolysis occurs before the preparatory reaction and the citric acid cycle.
Answer: TRUE
The breakdown of glucose in cellular respiration is a catabolic reaction.
Answer: TRUE
The enzymes that bring about apoptosis are called caspases.
Answer: TRUE
The first event in the Calvin cycle is the attachment of carbon dioxide to the five-carbon RuBP molecule, which decreases cell carbon dioxide levels, which increases the diffusion gradient.
Answer: TRUE
The first event in the Calvin cycle is the attachment of carbon dioxide to the five-carbon RuBP molecule, which forms a six-carbon molecule that breaks down into two 3PG molecules.
Answer: TRUE
Cancer cells require many nutrients which are supplied by blood vessels. The growth of new blood vessels into cancerous tissue is called A) angiogenesis. B) metastasis. C) carcinogenesis. D) apoptosis.
Answer: A
The haploid (n) number of chromosomes for a human being is A) 23. B) 24. C) 44. D) 46. E) 48.
Answer: A
If gametes had the same number of chromosomes as body cells, and an organism had 12 chromosomes in its body cells, how many chromosomes would it have after three generations? How does this illustrate the necessity of meiosis for gamete formation?
The number of chromosomes would double each generation. After three generations, the organisms would have 96 chromosomes. Meiosis, also known as reduction division, produces gametes with half the number of chromosomes (1n) as the parent cell (2n) from which it comes. As two haploid gametes combine during fertilization to form a diploid (2n) zygote, the number of chromosomes for each species is maintained from generation to generation.
During ________, the homologous chromosome pairs independently align themselves at the equator of the cell. A) independent assortment B) anaphase I C) crossing-over D) mitosis
Answer: A
During which phase of mitosis and meiosis will the state of the chromosome be the same? A) anaphase II and anaphase B) prophase II and prophase C) metaphase I and metaphase D) telophase I and telophase
Answer: A
During which stage of meiosis does crossing-over occur? A) prophase I of meiosis I B) anaphase I of meiosis II C) telophase I of meiosis I D) prophase II of meiosis II E) anaphase II of meiosis I
Answer: A
Identify which event will occur during prophase I of meiosis but does not occur during prophase of mitosis. A) Bivalents will form. B) Nuclear envelope will dissolve. C) Spindles form as centrosomes migrate away from each other. D) Chromatin will condense into chromosomes.
Answer: A
If the diploid number of chromosomes for an organism is 52, what will the haploid number of chromosomes be? A) 26 B) 48 C) 112 D) 24
Answer: A
The fixation of carbon dioxide in the first step of the Calvin cycle is facilitated by which enzyme? A) RuBP carboxylase B) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) C) PEP carboxylase D) lactate dehydrogenase
Answer: A
What structure is required for an eukaryotic organism to be classified as an autotroph? A) chloroplast B) mitochondria C) nucleus D) Golgi body
Answer: A
Which does NOT occur in meiosis? A) two daughter cells at completion B) four daughter cells at completion C) two nuclear divisions D) formation of bivalents
Answer: A
Which of the following statements applies to mitosis but not to cytokinesis? A) It contains a checkpoint that will evaluate the quality of the cell. B) It requires a large amount of ATP in order for the cellular mechanisms to function. C) If it is disrupted, it can lead to an abnormal cell. D) It results in two daughter cells that are half the size of the original cell.
Answer: A
Which of the following statements correctly compares the events of meiosis and mitosis? A) During metaphase I of meiosis, the bivalents are present at the metaphase plate; during metaphase of mitosis, the duplicated chromosomes are at the metaphase plate. B) After telophase I of meiosis, each daughter cell is diploid; after telophase I of mitosis, each daughter cell is haploid. C) During prophase II of meiosis, the homologous chromosomes cross-over; there is no crossing-over during prophase of mitosis. D) During anaphase I of meiosis, the homologues pairs separate; during anaphase of mitosis, the homologous pairs stay together.
Answer: A
Which of the following statements is true about the life cycle of animals? A) The gametes are the haploid phase of the animals' life cycle. B) The gametes are the diploid phase of the life cycle. C) The products of the haploid phase of the life cycle are larger than those of the diploid phase. D) Meiosis is not a necessary component of the animal life cycle.
Answer: A
Which statement below best describes the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis? A) Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the nuclear material while cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm. B) Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the cytoplasm while cytokinesis divides the nuclear material. C) Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that uses a contractile ring to divide the nuclear material while cytokinesis uses the contractile ring to divide the cell membrane. D) Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that uses a cell plate to divide the cell membrane in plant cells while cytokinesis uses a contractile ring to divide the cell membrane in animal cells.
Answer: A
Which statement below lists the correct steps for binary fission? A) 1. attachment of chromosome to the plasma membrane, 2. enlargement of cell volume, 3. DNA replication occurs, 4. cell elongates and chromosomes are pulled apart, 5. a new cell wall and plasma membrane divide the cell in half B) 1. attachment of chromosome to the plasma membrane, 2. enlargement of cell volume, 3. DNA replication occurs, 4. a new cell wall and plasma membrane divide the cell in half, 5. cell elongates and chromosomes are pulled apart C) 1. a new cell wall and plasma membrane divide the cell in half, 2. attachment of chromosome to the plasma membrane, 3. enlargement of cell volume, 4. DNA replication occurs, 5. cell elongates and chromosomes are pulled apart D) 1. enlargement of cell volume, 2. attachment of chromosome to the plasma membrane, 3. DNA replication occurs, 4. cell elongates and chromosomes are pulled apart, 5. a new cell wall and plasma membrane divide the cell in half
Answer: A
Which statement is NOT true about eukaryotic chromosomes? A) There is only one chromosome of each type in each body cell. B) Chromosomes contain both DNA and associated histones. C) Chromosomes condense from chromatin at the start of mitosis. D) Chromosomes disperse back into chromatin at the end of mitosis. E) Chromosomes are not located within the nuclear envelope during mitosis.
Answer: A
If plants were no longer able to perform the light reactions and they could only utilize the Calvin cycle, which of the following would be true? Select all that apply. A) Plants would not produce oxygen. B) G3P would be produced in much smaller quantities. C) NADPH production would decrease while ATP production increased. D) G3P would be produced in much greater quantities.
Answer: A, B
A human cell contains at least 2 m of DNA, yet all of this DNA is packed into a nucleus that is about 6μm in diameter. How is this accomplished? Select all that apply. A) DNA is wrapped around histone proteins giving it the appearance of a string of beads. B) DNA is folded into a zigzag structure. C) The DNA is coiled into radial loops. D) The DNA is cut at several locations and each section is loosely wrapped into a bead-like shape.
Answer: A, B, C
Which of the following is/are true statements about mitosis? Select all that apply. A) Animal cells, but not plant cells, have centrioles. B) Both plant and animal cells undergo cytokinesis. C) Mitosis is the process by which both plants and animals grow in size. D) Animal cells form a cell plate during cytokinesis while plant cells form a cleavage furrow and then pinch into two daughter cells.
Answer: A, B, C
Dogs have 39 chromosome pairs. Based on this information, determine which of the following statements are true. Select all that apply. A) The haploid number for dogs is 39. B) At the end of mitosis, a cell would have 78 chromosomes. C) At the end of prophase I, a cell would have 78 chromosomes. D) At the end of prophase II, a cell would have 39 chromosomes. E) Meiosis does not occur in dogs.
Answer: A, B, D
G3P (glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate) can be used by plants to form which of the following? Select all that apply. A) fatty acids B) amino acids C) carbon dioxide D) starch E) NADPH
Answer: A, B, D
What would happen if the stomata of a leaf remained closed all day? Select all that apply. A) Carbon dioxide in the air spaces of the leaf would decrease. B) Oxygen in the air spaces would increase. C) The amount of water within the air spaces would decrease. D) Photorespiration would increase in C3 plants. E) Photorespiration would increase in CAM plants.
Answer: A, B, D
Which of the following accurately describe anaphase I and anaphase II? Select all that apply. A) At the end of anaphase I, each chromosome is composed of two chromatids and at the end of anaphase II, sister chromatids have separated. B) Anaphase I occurs in a haploid cell while anaphase II occurs in a diploid cell. C) Homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I and sister chromatids separate during anaphase II. D) Anaphase I occurs in both males and females but anaphase II only occurs in females.
Answer: A, C
Which of the following is a common photosynthetic pigment found in plants? Select all that apply. A) chlorophyll a B) chlorophyll c C) carotenoids D) chlorophyll b
Answer: A, C, D
Which of the following descriptions of malignant and benign tumors are true? Select all that apply. A) Both benign and malignant tumors are forms of abnormal cell growth. B) Benign tumors tend to grow very large while malignant tumors stay small. C) Malignant tumors have more genetic mutations than benign tumors. D) Benign tumors can metastasize while malignant tumors tend to stay in one location. E) Malignant tumors have more genetic mutations than benign tumors
Answer: A, C, E
Which of the following accurately describe mitosis? Select all that apply. A) Mitosis is a process that divides the nuclear contents only. B) Mitosis uses a diploid (2n) parent cell to form daughter cells containing a haploid number(n) of chromosomes. C) Mitosis produces two daughter cells that are exactly the same size and have the same number of organelles as the parent cell. D) Mitosis produces two daughter cells that contain the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. E) Mitosis is involved in development of a fertilized egg into a multicellular organism.
Answer: A, D, E
Although cancer may originate in many regions of the body, why do many patients die from cancerous growth in the lungs, lymph glands, or liver? A) Cancer in these areas of the body spread easily by angiogenesis. B) Metastasis occurs more commonly in these organs because they have a filter effect. C) These organs are more significantly damaged by proteinase enzymes. D) Cancerous growth in all other areas of the body is benign.
Answer: B
During which stage of meiosis do the homologous chromosomes separate? A) prophase I B) anaphase I C) telophase I D) prophase II E) anaphase II
Answer: B
Species X reproduces asexually by fission and species Y reproduces sexually. Consider that all other relevant characteristics are similar between these species. When the environment changes, then A) species X and Y will have an equal chance of surviving. B) species Y should have a better chance of surviving than species X. C) species X should have a better chance of surviving than species Y. D) neither species should have an advantage in surviving since organisms often become extinct when the environment changes.
Answer: B
The region that contains the genetic information in a bacterial cell is called the A) nucleus. B) nucleoid. C) nucleolus. D) nucleosome. E) nucleoprotein.
Answer: B
What occurs in anaphase? A) Centrioles move to opposite poles. B) Chromatids are separated and move to opposite poles. C) Chromosomes line up along the equator of the dividing cell. D) The nuclear envelope disappears. E) The nuclear envelope is constructed.
Answer: B
Which is NOT correctly associated with cancer? A) Angiogenesis forms new blood vessels and brings nutrients and oxygen to the tumor. B) The cells are organized in a single layer. C) Metastasis establishes new tumors distant from the site of the primary tumor. D) Cells may have abnormally large nuclei.
Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of homologous chromosomes? A) They are similar in size. B) They carry the same alleles for all traits. C) They carry genes for the same traits. D) They are similar in shape and location of the centromere.
Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT true about cancer cells? A) They never fully differentiate. B) They exhibit contact inhibition. C) They exhibit uncontrolled growth. D) They exhibit disorganized growth. E) They may undergo metastasis.
Answer: B
Which of the following would NOT contribute to genetic variation? A) crossing-over of homologous chromosomes B) crossing-over of sister chromatids C) the random alignment of the chromosomes during metaphase I D) the combination of sperm and egg genes
Answer: B
Which stage of the cell cycle focuses on cell growth, replication of organelles, and the accumulation of material for synthesizing DNA? A) M phase B) G1 phase C) G2 phase D) S phase E) G0 phase
Answer: B
Why is crossing-over important? A) It provides extra genetic material for the daughter cells. B) It increases the likelihood that daughter cells contain different genetic material. C) It produces the proteins that are associated with DNA in chromosomes. D) It increases chromosome condensation. E) It separates the homologous chromosomes.
Answer: B
Oxygen production in photosynthesis involves which of the following? Select all that apply. A) photosystem I B) photosystem II C) splitting of water D) light reactions E) Calvin cycle
Answer: B, C, D
What are the end products of photosynthesis? A) water and carbon dioxide B) water and oxygen C) oxygen and carbohydrate D) carbohydrate and water
Answer: C
All of the following are true about the chromosomes of a multicellular organism EXCEPT: A) They are made up of DNA and protein. B) Each chromosome is replicated into two chromatids during the S phase of interphase. C) Each chromosome separates into two daughter chromosomes by binary fission. D) All cells contain chromosomes that carry the same genetic information.
Answer: C
At which stage of meiosis is each chromosome composed of a single chromatid? A) prophase I B) metaphase II C) telophase II D) prophase II E) telophase I
Answer: C
Cytokinesis in plant cells differs from animal cells because A) the lysosomes within the plant cell forms a cell plate. B) microtubules are used to form the cell plate. C) the Golgi apparatus produces vesicles that migrate along microtubules and fuse to become a cell plate. D) the inner plasma membrane divides by cytokinesis as in animal cells and then secretes a cellulose cell wall.
Answer: C
The cell formed after fertilization of an egg by a sperm is called a(n) A) gamete. B) sperm cell. C) zygote. D) egg cell. E) ovum.
Answer: C
The function of sunlight in photosynthesis is to A) reduce NADPH to NADP. B) fix O2 in the Calvin cycle. C) excite electrons in chlorophyll. D) combine carbon dioxide and water to form ATP and NADPH. E) split water releasing oxygen.
Answer: C
The polar body is A) another name for an egg cell. B) a precursor cell that becomes an egg cell. C) a nonfunctional cell formed at the same time as an egg cell. D) the cell produced when fertilization occurs.
Answer: C
To what does the term grana refer? A) the double membrane that surrounds the chloroplast B) a flattened disk or sac in the chloroplast C) a stack of thylakoid membranes D) the fluid-filled space of the chloroplast E) the pores on the underside of a leaf that facilitate gas exchange
Answer: C
What would happen if a drug directly interfered with the functioning of RuBP carboxylase? A) Water would not be split at the start of photosystem II, halting the light reactions. B) Chemiosmosis and ATP production would cease, halting the Calvin cycle. C) Carbon dioxide would not be fixed to RuBP, stalling the Calvin cycle. D) RuBP would not be regenerated from G3P, halting the Calvin cycle.
Answer: C
Which is most closely associated with the Calvin cycle? A) ATP production B) oxygen production C) carbon dioxide fixation D) carbon dioxide production E) removal of electrons from water for passage through an electron transport system
Answer: C
Which of the following are the critical checkpoints during interphase? A) M to G1 stage and G2 to M stage B) S to G2 stage and G2 to M stage C) G1 to S stage and G2 to M stage D) M to G1 stage and S to G2 stage
Answer: C
Which of the following events does NOT occur during telophase? A) The beginning of cytokinesis B) The nuclear envelope is reconstructed. C) The centromeres split apart. D) Chromosomes de-condense into chromatin. E) The nucleolus reforms.
Answer: C
Which of the following is a true statement concerning meiosis in males and females? A) Males provide more genes in sperm than females provide in eggs. B) Crossing-over occurs more often in the formation of sperm than in eggs. C) Spermatogenesis in males results in four functional sperm while oogenesis in females results in only one egg. D) Sperm that contain a recombination of genes are usually more successful in fertilizing an egg.
Answer: C
Which sequence of the mitotic stages is correct? A) prophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase, telophase B) prophase, telophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase C) prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase D) telophase, anaphase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase E) anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase
Answer: C
Which statement is NOT true about homologous chromosomes in meiosis I? A) Homologous chromosomes form tetrads. B) Homologous chromosomes separate and go to different daughter cells. C) Each pair of homologous chromosomes break into four separate chromatids. D) Homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material between nonsister chromatids. E) Homologous chromosomes interact with the spindle as if they were one chromosome.
Answer: C
________ is a product of the Calvin cycle that is used to form glucose phosphate, amino acids or fatty acids. A) ATP B) ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) C) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) D) PEP carboxylase (PEPcase) E) carbon dioxide
Answer: C
f a cell contains 12 chromosomes at the end of meiosis I, how many chromosomes will the daughter cells contain at the end of meiosis II? A) 3 B) 6 C) 12 D) 24
Answer: C
Angiogenesis A) is the growth of blood vessels into the tumor. B) is directed by additional mutations in tumor cells. C) brings nutrients and oxygen to a tumor. D) All of these. E) None of these.
Answer: D
Apoptosis A) is programmed cell death. B) is a process that acts to decrease the number of somatic cells. C) frees the fingers and toes of the human embryo from their "webbed" structure to independent structures. D) All of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
Binary fission in bacteria differs from mitosis because A) the chromosome copies attach to the plasma membrane and are pulled apart by cell growth. B) the chromosome is a simple DNA strand without complex proteins and there is no spindle formation. C) there is no nuclear membrane to break down and rebuild. D) All of the choices are correct. E) None of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
Meiosis accomplishes all of the following EXCEPT A) gamete production. B) reduction of chromosome number (from 2n to n). C) providing genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms. D) growth and repair.
Answer: D
Meiosis occurs during all of the following EXCEPT A) gametogenesis. B) oogenesis. C) spermatogenesis. D) A, B, and C all involve meiosis. E) Neither A, B, or C. All of the above involve mitosis.
Answer: D
Sources of genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms include(s) which of the following? A) crossing-over in prophase I of meiosis B) independent assortment in metaphase I of meiosis C) fertilization D) All of the choices are sources of genetic variation. E) None of the choices are sources of genetic variation.
Answer: D
The diploid (2n) number of chromosomes for a human being is A) 23. B) 24. C) 44. D) 46. E) 48.
Answer: D
The function of mitosis is A) growth of the organism and tissue repair. B) to ensure that each new cell receives a complete set of genetic information. C) asexual reproduction in some species. D) All of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
To what does the term stroma refer? A) the double membrane surrounding the chloroplast B) a flattened disk or sac in the chloroplast C) a stack of thylakoid membrane structures D) the fluid-filled space of the chloroplast E) the pores on the underside of the leaf that facilitate gas exchange
Answer: D
To what does the term chiasma refer? A) the process of fertilization B) structures that hold the chromosomes in alignment on the metaphase plate C) the process of crossing-over D) a structure that holds together homologues during crossing-over E) the period between meiosis I and meiosis II
Answer: D
Virtually all of the specialized cells of multicellular organisms A) develop through mutation from less specialized cells of the organism. B) contain more genetic material than less specialized cells of the same organism. C) contain less genetic material than less specialized cells of the same organism. D) have the same amount of DNA and the same number of chromosomes as all other cells of the organism and develop from the same basic stem cells.
Answer: D
Which of the following are necessary for a cell to pass the G 1 checkpoint? A) Growth signals must be present. B) Sufficient nutrients must be available. C) The DNA must be undamaged. D) All of these. E) None of these.
Answer: D
Which of the following is/are true about sexual reproduction? A) Gametes are the only haploid phase of the human life cycle. B) The production of gametes is known as gametogenesis. C) A fertilized egg is known as a zygote. D) All of the choices are true. E) None of the choices are true.
Answer: D
Which of the following organisms are capable of photosynthesis? A) plants only B) plants and algae only C) plants and some bacteria only D) plants, algae, and some bacteria
Answer: D
Which represents the correct sequence of stages in the cell cycle? A) G1, G2, S, M B) G1, G2, M, S C) G1,M, G2, S D) G1, S, G2, M
Answer: D
Apoptosis refers to cell death and A) is always biologically detrimental to an organism. B) is merely the accumulation of genetic errors. C) is any failure of the genetic machinery to work properly. D) is a failure in the translation or transcription mechanism. E) can be programmed and is essential to normal development.
Answer: E
