Biology Cell Signals Practice

Directions: Each group of questions below concerns an experimental or laboratory situation or data. In each case, first study the description of the situation or data. Then choose the one best answer to each question following it. The following questions refer to the data in Figures 1 through 4 below, which were collected during a study of the growth of plant seedlings. When the concentration of GAl is highest, the average height of the control seedlings is approximately A 10 cm B 30 cm C 60 cm D 85 cm E 95 cm

A.) 10 cm

The diagram above shows a developing worm embryo at the four-cell stage. Experiments have shown that when cell 3 divides, the anterior daughter cell gives rise to muscle and gonads and the posterior daughter cell gives rise to the intestine. However, if the cells of the embryo are separated from one another early during the four-cell stage, no intestine will form. Other experiments have shown that if cell 3 and cell 4 are recombined after the initial separation, the posterior daughter cell of cell 3 will once again give rise to normal intestine. Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for these findings? A A cell surface protein on cell 4 signals cell 3 to induce formation of the worm's intestine. B The plasma membrane of cell 4 interacts with the plasma membrane of the posterior portion of cell 3, causing invaginations that become microvilli. C Cell 3 passes an electrical signal to cell 4, which induces differentiation in cell 4. D Cell 4 transfers genetic material to cell 3, which directs the development of intestinal cells.

A.) A cell surface protein on cell 4 signals cell 3 to induce formation of the worm's intestine.

Insulin, a hormone secreted by pancreatic cells, stimulates glucose uptake in skeletal muscle cells by mobilizing glucose transporter proteins (GLUT4) to the plasma membrane. As depicted in Figure 1, binding of insulin to the insulin receptor triggers an intracellular signaling cascade in which certain molecules activate other molecules in a relay of the hormone signal to cell targets. One outcome of the signaling cascade is mobilization of GLUT4 from vesicle storage sites in the cytoplasm to sites at the cell surface, where GLUT4 allows glucose to enter the cell. In type 2 diabetes, the cellular response to insulin is disrupted, and individuals with type 2 diabetes cannot properly regulate their blood glucose levels. In an investigation of the insulin signaling pathway, samples of skeletal muscle were isolated from individuals who have type 2 diabetes and from individuals who do not. The results of several experiments that were performed on the muscle samples are shown in Figure 2, Figure 3, and Figure 4. Based on the information presented, which of the following genetic changes in an individual without diabetes is most likely to result in a disrupted cellular response to insulin signaling similar to that of an individual with type 2 diabetes? A A deletion in the gene encoding the insulin receptor that removes only the cytoplasmic domain of the protein B Duplication of the gene encoding a PI-3 kinase that results in synthesis of a muscle-specific variant of the enzyme in skin cells as well as in muscle cells C A mutation in the gene encoding IRS-1 that causes the protein to be active in muscle cells even in the absence of insulin signaling D Insertion of a small segment of DNA into the promoter of the Glut4 gene that results in increased synthesis of GLUT4 proteins in muscle cells

A.) A deletion in the gene encoding the insulin receptor that removes only the cytoplasmic domain of the protein

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is important in maintaining homeostasis in mammals. ADH is released from the hypothalamus in response to high tissue osmolarity. In response to ADH, the collecting duct and distal tubule in the kidney become more permeable to water, which increases water reabsorption into the capillaries. The amount of hormone released is controlled by a negative feedback loop. Based on the model presented, which of the following statements expresses the proper relationship between osmolarity, ADH release, and urine production? A As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as urine. B As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as urine. C As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing more water to be excreted as urine. D As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing more water to be excreted as urine.

A.) As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as urine.

Ethylene gas is an organic molecule that serves many cell signaling roles in flowering plants. Which of the following best explains how a positive feedback mechanism involving ethylene works? A Cells of ripening fruit produce ethylene, which activates the ripening response in other fruit cells. B Low water stress causes cells to produce ethylene, which binds to root cells and initiates cell division. C Cells damaged by leaf-eating insects produce ethylene, which is released into the air, and repels insects. D Fertilized ovules produce ethylene, which initiates apoptosis in flower petal cells.

A.) Cells of ripening fruit produce ethylene, which activates the ripening response in other fruit cells.

Epinephrine is a protein hormone found in many animals. Epinephrine stimulates a signaling pathway that results in the breakdown of glycogen to glucose in the liver cells. Which of the following describes the initial steps in the process whereby epinephrine stimulates glycogen breakdown? A Epinephrine binds to a cell-surface receptor; the activated receptor stimulates production of the second messenger, cAMP. B Epinephrine binds to a cell-surface receptor; the activated receptor catalyzes the conversion of glycogen to glucose. C Epinephrine diffuses through the plasma membrane; the hormone dimerizes in the cytosol. D Epinephrine is taken into the cell by endocytosis; glycogen is converted to glucose in the endocytotic vesicle.

A.) Epinephrine binds to a cell-surface receptor; the activated receptor stimulates production of the second messenger, cAMP.

Figure 1. Pathway activated by insulin binding to the insulin receptor Figure 2: Blood insulin levels in normal mice and Esp mutant mice after exposure to glucose Hormones are chemical signals that are released by cells in one part of the body that travel through the bloodstream to signal cells in another part of the body. Insulin is a hormone that is released by the pancreas that induces the uptake of glucose molecules from the bloodstream into cells. In this way, insulin lowers the overall blood glucose levels of the body. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts are two types of bone cells that play a role in regulating blood glucose levels (Figure 1). Binding of insulin to the insulin receptor on osteoblasts activates a signaling pathway that results in osteoblasts releasing a molecule, OPG, that binds to neighboring osteoclasts. In response, the osteoclasts release protons (H+) and create an area of lower pH outside the cell. This low pHactivates osteocalcin, a protein secreted in an inactive form by osteoblasts. The Esp gene encodes a protein that alters the structure of the insulin receptor on osteoblasts and interferes with the binding of insulin to the receptor. A researcher created a group of osteoblasts with an Esp mutation that prevented the production of a functional Esp product (mutant). The researcher then exposed the mutant strain and a normal strain that expresses Esp to glucose and compared the levels of insulin in the blood near the osteoblasts (Figure 2). Which of the following claims is most consistent with the data shown in Figure 2 ? A Esp expression is necessary to prevent the overproduction of insulin. B Esp protein does not regulate blood-sugar levels in normal mice. C Normal mice require a higher blood concentration of insulin than mutant mice do. D Mutant mice have a cyclical pattern of insulin secretion.

A.) Esp expression is necessary to prevent the overproduction of insulin.

Anabaena is a simple multicellular photosynthetic cyanobacterium. In the absence of fixed nitrogen, certain newly developing cells along a filament express genes that code for nitrogen-fixing enzymes and become nonphotosynthetic heterocysts. The specialization is advantageous because some nitrogen-fixing enzymes function best in the absence of oxygen. Heterocysts do not carry out photosynthesis but instead provide adjacent cells with fixed nitrogen, in exchange receiving fixed carbon and reduced energy carriers. As shown in the diagram above, when there is low fixed nitrogen in the environment, an increase in the concentration of free calcium ions and 2-oxyglutarate stimulates the expression of genes that produce two transcription factors (NtcA and HetR) that promote the expression of genes responsible for heterocyst development. HetR also causes production of a signal, PatS, that prevents adjacent cells from developing as heterocysts. Based on your understanding of the ways in which signal transmission mediates cell function, which of the following predictions is most consistent with the information given above? A In an environment with low fixed nitrogen, treating the Anabaena cells with a calcium-binding compound should prevent heterocyst differentiation. B A strain that overexpresses the patS gene should develop many more heterocysts in a low fixed nitrogen environment. C In an environment with abundant fixed nitrogen, free calcium levels should be high in all cells so that no heterocysts develop. D In environments with abundant fixed nitrogen, loss of the hetR gene should induce heterocyst development.

A.) In an environment with low fixed nitrogen, treating the Anabaena cells with a calcium-binding compound should prevent heterocyst differentiation.

Figure 1. Pathway activated by insulin binding to the insulin receptor Figure 2: Blood insulin levels in normal mice and Esp mutant mice after exposure to glucose Hormones are chemical signals that are released by cells in one part of the body that travel through the bloodstream to signal cells in another part of the body. Insulin is a hormone that is released by the pancreas that induces the uptake of glucose molecules from the bloodstream into cells. In this way, insulin lowers the overall blood glucose levels of the body. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts are two types of bone cells that play a role in regulating blood glucose levels (Figure 1). Binding of insulin to the insulin receptor on osteoblasts activates a signaling pathway that results in osteoblasts releasing a molecule, OPG, that binds to neighboring osteoclasts. In response, the osteoclasts release protons (H+) and create an area of lower pH outside the cell. This low pHactivates osteocalcin, a protein secreted in an inactive form by osteoblasts. The Esp gene encodes a protein that alters the structure of the insulin receptor on osteoblasts and interferes with the binding of insulin to the receptor. A researcher created a group of osteoblasts with an Esp mutation that prevented the production of a functional Esp product (mutant). The researcher then exposed the mutant strain and a normal strain that expresses Esp to glucose and compared the levels of insulin in the blood near the osteoblasts (Figure 2). Which of the following best describes the effect of insulin binding to the receptor on the osteoblast cells? A Insulin binding ultimately increases pancreatic secretion of additional insulin. B Insulin binding blocks the release of osteocalcin from the osteoblasts. C Insulin binding inhibits the expression of Esp. D Insulin binding increases the pH of the extracellular matrix.

A.) Insulin binding ultimately increases pancreatic secretion of additional insulin.

Insulin is a protein hormone that is secreted in response to elevated blood glucose levels. When insulin binds to its receptors on liver cells, the activated receptors stimulate phosphorylation cascades that cause the translocation of glucose transporters to the plasma membrane. Based on the information provided, which of the following best describes the role of insulin in this liver cell signal transduction pathway? A It acts as a ligand. B It acts as a receptor. C It acts as a secondary messenger. D It acts as a protein kinase.

A.) It acts as a ligand.

Directions: Each group of questions below concerns an experimental or laboratory situation or data. In each case, first study the description of the situation or data. Then choose the one best answer to each question following it. The following questions refer to the data in Figures 1 through 4 below, which were collected during a study of the growth of plant seedlings. Which of the following is a correct conclusion that can be drawn from the data in Figures 1, 2, and 3? A Most of the increase in the concentration of all gibberellins 40 to 45 days after planting is due to an increase in the concentration of GAl. B The concentration of all gibberellins is three times as great at 75 days as it is at 30 days after planting. C An increase in GAl levels occurs a day or two before the seedlings start to grow rapidly. D An increase in the concentration of GAl inhibits the synthesis of other gibberellins. E The concentration of GAl is a thousand times as great at 45 days as it is at 30 days after planting.

A.) Most of the increase in the concentration of all gibberellins 40 to 45 days after planting is due to an increase in the concentration of GAl.

A student claims that the Y chromosome contains the sex-determining region gene, known as the SRY gene, which causes male fetuses to develop testes. Which of the following provides correct information about cell signaling that supports the claim? A The SRY gene produces a protein that binds to specific regions of DNA in certain tissues, which affects the development of these tissues. B The SRY gene produces a protein that deletes portions of the X chromosome in males so that male characteristics can develop. C The SRY gene produces an RNA segment that is exported from specific cells and targets the developing gonads. D The SRY gene is found only in tissues of the developing gonads.

A.) The SRY gene produces a protein that binds to specific regions of DNA in certain tissues, which affects the development of these tissues.

Type 1 diabetes results from the destruction of insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. Individuals with type 1 diabetes produce insufficient amounts of insulin, a hormone that regulates the concentration of glucose in the blood. Which of the following best explains how treatment with a drug that stimulates the production of insulin receptors on target cells will affect the insulin signaling pathway in an individual with type 1 diabetes? A The drug will have little or no effect on the signaling pathway because the receptors will not be activated in the absence of insulin. B The drug will have little or no effect on the signaling pathway because insulin receptors will not be allowed to enter the cells. C The drug will restore the function of the signaling pathway because insulin levels will return to normal. D The drug will restore the function of the signaling pathway because nonpancreatic cells will begin to produce insulin receptors.

A.) The drug will have little or no effect on the signaling pathway because the receptors will not be activated in the absence of insulin.

The epinephrine signaling pathway plays a role in regulating glucose homeostasis in muscle cells. The signaling pathway is activated by the binding of epinephrine to the beta-2 adrenergic receptor. A simplified model of the epinephrine signaling pathway is represented in Figure 1. Figure 1. A simplified model of the epinephrine signaling pathway in muscle cells Which of the following outcomes will most likely result from the irreversible binding of GDP to the G protein? A The intracellular concentration of glycogen will increase. B The intracellular concentration of activated protein kinase A will increase. C The intracellular concentration of cyclic AMP will increase. D The intracellular concentration of glucose-1-phosphate will increase.

A.) The intracellular concentration of glycogen will increase.

Figure 1. Pathway activated by insulin binding to the insulin receptor Figure 2: Blood insulin levels in normal mice and Esp mutant mice after exposure to glucose Hormones are chemical signals that are released by cells in one part of the body that travel through the bloodstream to signal cells in another part of the body. Insulin is a hormone that is released by the pancreas that induces the uptake of glucose molecules from the bloodstream into cells. In this way, insulin lowers the overall blood glucose levels of the body. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts are two types of bone cells that play a role in regulating blood glucose levels (Figure 1). Binding of insulin to the insulin receptor on osteoblasts activates a signaling pathway that results in osteoblasts releasing a molecule, OPG, that binds to neighboring osteoclasts. In response, the osteoclasts release protons (H+) and create an area of lower pH outside the cell. This low pH activates osteocalcin, a protein secreted in an inactive form by osteoblasts. The Esp gene encodes a protein that alters the structure of the insulin receptor on osteoblasts and interferes with the binding of insulin to the receptor. A researcher created a group of osteoblasts with an Esp mutation that prevented the production of a functional Esp product (mutant). The researcher then exposed the mutant strain and a normal strain that expresses Esp to glucose and compared the levels of insulin in the blood near the osteoblasts (Figure 2). A researcher observes that mice from the mutant strain experience low blood sugar. Which of the following best describes the feedback mechanism in the pathway (Figure 1) causing the low blood sugar in the mutant strain? A The positive feedback of insulin production B The negative feedback of inactive osteocalcin production C The positive feedback of the Esp protein D The negative feedback of insulin-secreting pancreatic cell proliferation

A.) The positive feedback of insulin production

Pyruvate dehydrogenase is an enzyme that converts pyruvate to acetyl-CoA. Acetyl-CoA is further metabolized in the Krebs cycle. A researcher measured the accumulation of acetyl-CoA in a reaction containing pyruvate and pyruvate dehydrogenase under several different conditions (Figure 1). Figure 1. Accumulation of acetyl-CoA under different conditions Which of the following observations provides the best evidence that acetyl-CoA negatively regulates pyruvate dehydrogenase activity? A The rate of the pyruvate dehydrogenase-catalyzed reaction is slower in the presence of a higher concentration of acetyl-CoA. B The gene that encodes pyruvate dehydrogenase is transcribed when excess acetyl-CoA is detected. C The accumulation of acetyl-CoA stops after 70 seconds, regardless of the reaction mixture. D Acetyl-CoA is continuously broken down in the Krebs cycle.

A.) The rate of the pyruvate dehydrogenase-catalyzed reaction is slower in the presence of a higher concentration of acetyl-CoA.

Insulin, a hormone secreted by pancreatic cells, stimulates glucose uptake in skeletal muscle cells by mobilizing glucose transporter proteins (GLUT4) to the plasma membrane. As depicted in Figure 1, binding of insulin to the insulin receptor triggers an intracellular signaling cascade in which certain molecules activate other molecules in a relay of the hormone signal to cell targets. One outcome of the signaling cascade is mobilization of GLUT4 from vesicle storage sites in the cytoplasm to sites at the cell surface, where GLUT4 allows glucose to enter the cell. In type 2 diabetes, the cellular response to insulin is disrupted, and individuals with type 2 diabetes cannot properly regulate their blood glucose levels. In an investigation of the insulin signaling pathway, samples of skeletal muscle were isolated from individuals who have type 2 diabetes and from individuals who do not. The results of several experiments that were performed on the muscle samples are shown in Figure 2, Figure 3, and Figure 4. Which of the following is a valid interpretation of the experimental results that explains how individuals with type 2 diabetes differ from individuals without diabetes? A The relatively low levels of glucose uptake in individuals with type 2 diabetes indicate that mobilization of GLUT4 to the cell surface is reduced in muscle cells of those individuals. B The relatively low levels of glucose uptake in individuals with type 2 diabetes indicate that no functional GLUT4 protein is produced in the muscle cells of those individuals. C The absence of activated insulin receptors in individuals with type 2 diabetes indicates that no insulin is secreted by the pancreatic cells of those individuals. D The absence of activated IRS-1 in individuals with type 2 diabetes indicates that no functional insulin receptor protein is produced in the muscle cells of those individuals.

A.) The relatively low levels of glucose uptake in individuals with type 2 diabetes indicate that mobilization of GLUT4 to the cell surface is reduced in muscle cells of those individuals.

In response to elevated blood glucose levels, beta (β) cells in the pancreas release insulin, a regulatory hormone. Insulin signals body cells to take up glucose from the blood, which returns blood glucose levels back to normal. Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disorder that destroys β-cells, resulting in elevated blood glucose levels. Researchers have proposed that diabetes could be treated by implanting human embryonic stem cells (hESCs) that have been induced to develop into β-cells (hESC-β). To test the proposed treatment, the researchers set up two groups of genetically identical mice and implanted the mice from one group with hESC-β cells. Several weeks after the hESC-β implant, both groups of mice were given a drug (STZ) that selectively destroys the naturally occurring mouse β-cells but does not affect the implanted hESC-β cells. Figure 1 shows a comparison of average blood glucose levels in both groups of mice. Figure 1. Average blood glucose levels in mice after STZ treatment. Error bars indicate standard deviation. In a continuation of the experiment, the researchers removed the hESC-β implant from one of the mice 16 weeks after STZ treatment. Figure 2 shows the blood glucose levels in the mouse over the duration of the experiment. Figure 2. Blood glucose levels for an individual mouse over the duration of the experiment. In contrast to type 1 diabetes, where there is no insulin production, type 2 diabetes is characterized by a failure of body cells to respond normally to insulin. Based on the results of the experiment, which of the following best predicts the effectiveness of using hESC-β implantation to treat type 2 diabetes? A The treatment would fail because insulin produced by implanted hESC-β cells will not stimulate glucose uptake by body cells. B The treatment would fail because the implanted hESC-β cells would require more glucose than the body can produce. C The treatment would succeed because the implanted hESC-β cells can express the gene that codes for human insulin. D The treatment would succeed because the body cells would secrete more insulin in the presence of the implanted hESC-β cells.

A.) The treatment would fail because insulin produced by implanted hESC-β cells will not stimulate glucose uptake by body cells.

Platelets are fragments of larger cells and normally circulate in the blood without adhering to blood vessel walls. When the wall of a blood vessel is damaged, collagen fibers in the wall are exposed to the interior of the blood vessel. The exposed fibers and chemicals released from the endothelial cells that line the blood vessel attract platelets, which start to form a plug and release other chemicals (Figure 1). Figure 1. Formation of a platelet plug in a damaged blood vessel wall Which of the following best explains the feedback mechanism illustrated in Figure 1? A This is an example of positive feedback, because the few platelets that initially bind attract more platelets to the damaged area. B This is an example of positive feedback, because it results from the interactions among collagen, endothelial cells, and platelets. C This is an example of negative feedback, because a large clump of platelets can block the blood vessel and prevent blood flow through it. D This is an example of negative feedback, because the accumulation of platelets returns the open blood vessel wall to a closed state.

A.) This is an example of positive feedback, because the few platelets that initially bind attract more platelets to the damaged area.

Which of the following diagrams best represents hormone-activated gene expression? A Translation B Apoptosis C Induction D Exocytosis

A.) Translation

The mechanism of action of many common medications involves interfering with the normal pathways that cells use to respond to hormone signals. Which of the following best describes a drug interaction that directly interferes with a signal transduction pathway? A A medication causes the cell to absorb more of a particular mineral, eventually poisoning the cell. B A medication enters the target cell and inhibits an enzyme that normally synthesizes a second messenger. C A medication enters the target cell's nucleus and acts as a mutagen. D A medication interrupts the transcription of ribosomal RNA genes.

B.) A medication enters the target cell and inhibits an enzyme that normally synthesizes a second messenger.

The model shown in the figure represents the role of two hormones, calcitonin and parathyroid hormone (PTH), in maintaining normal blood calcium levels in humans. If a dietary change results in an increase in blood calcium concentration above normal levels, which of the following is the most likely effect on calcium homeostasis? A Calcitonin levels will decline, thus stimulating the release of PTH. B Calcitonin levels will rise, thus promoting the deposit of calcium into bones. C PTH levels will decline, thus stimulating the loss of calcium from bones. D PTH levels will increase, thus preventing the release of calcitonin.

B.) Calcitonin levels will rise, thus promoting the deposit of calcium into bones.

The diagram above represents a model of signal transduction pathways (I and II) in a cell that is targeted by two different hormones (H1 and H2). The components of the signal transduction pathways are identified in the figure legend. Each cellular molecule in both pathways can exist in an inactive or active form. When the components in pathway I are sequentially activated, the TAP molecules promote cell division. When the components in pathway II are sequentially activated, downstream signaling by the G protein is inhibited. Based on the model, which of the following mutations is most likely to result in a cell that will generate a cancerous tumor? A A mutation in the gene encoding PP that results in a nonfunctional protein B A mutation in the gene encoding G-PIP that results in a nonfunctional protein C A mutation in the gene encoding R1 so that it is inactive even in the presence of H1 D A mutation in the gene encoding R2 so that it is active even in the absence of H2

B.) A mutation in the gene encoding G-PIP that results in a nonfunctional protein

Certain reef-building corals contain photosynthetic, symbiotic algae that have the ability to make dimethylsulphoniopropionate (DMSP), a chemical involved in the marine sulfur cycle. DMSP is released into the surrounding water, where it is converted to the gas dimethyl sulfide (DMS) by microorganisms and enters the atmosphere. Once in the atmosphere, it triggers the formation of sulfate aerosols, which induce cloud formation and block sunlight from heating up the water. The symbiotic algae produce DMSP when they are stressed by a high water temperature. If water temperature is too high, corals will expel the symbiotic algae that produce DMSP. Researchers measured the amount of DMSP produced by juvenile and adult coral and their symbionts under normal and thermally stressed conditions. The data are shown in the graphs in Figure 1. Figure 1: DMSP concentration in juvenile and adult corals and their symbionts in normal and thermally-stressed conditions. Error bars represent ±2SEx¯. The researchers also measured the density of the symbiont as well as the photosynthetic yield in adult corals at the two temperatures. Photosynthetic yield is an index measure of energy output compared to sunlight energy input in which larger photosynthetic yield values represent photosynthetic organisms producing more energy. Figure 2: Variation in symbiont density and photosynthetic yield in adult corals grown in normal and thermally-stressed conditions. Error bars represent ±2SEx¯. Which of the following best describes the production of DMSP by coral and coral symbionts? A A negative feedback mechanism that increases the environmental change B A negative feedback mechanism that reverses the environmental change C A positive feedback mechanism that increases the environmental change D A positive feedback mechanism that reverses the environmental change

B.) A negative feedback mechanism that reverses the environmental change

In mammals, an increase in the concentration of sodium in the blood triggers the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland. As the concentration of sodium in the blood returns to previous levels, the release of ADH from the pituitary gland is reduced. Based on the information presented, which of the following describes the most likely role of ADH in maintaining blood osmolarity? A ADH promotes an increase in the movement of sodium into the bloodstream. B ADH promotes an increase in the movement of water into the bloodstream. C ADH promotes an increase in the excretion of water from the body. D ADH promotes an increase in the secretion of additional ADH from the pituitary gland.

B.) ADH promotes an increase in the movement of water into the bloodstream.

The endocrine system incorporates feedback mechanisms that maintain homeostasis. Which of the following demonstrates negative feedback by the endocrine system? A During labor, the fetus exerts pressure on the uterine wall, inducing the production of oxytocin, which stimulates uterine wall contraction. The contractions cause the fetus to further push on the wall, increasing the production of oxytocin. B After a meal, blood glucose levels become elevated, stimulating beta cells of the pancreas to release insulin into the blood. Excess glucose is then converted to glycogen in the liver, reducing blood glucose levels. C At high elevation, atmospheric oxygen is more scarce. In response to signals that oxygen is low, the brain decreases an individual's rate of respiration to compensate for the difference. D A transcription factor binds to the regulatory region of a gene, blocking the binding of another transcription factor required for expression.

B.) After a meal, blood glucose levels become elevated, stimulating beta cells of the pancreas to release insulin into the blood. Excess glucose is then converted to glycogen in the liver, reducing blood glucose levels.

The vertebrate forelimb initially develops in the embryo as a solid mass of tissue. As development progresses, the solid mass near the end of the forelimb is remodeled into individual digits. Which of the following best explains the role of apoptosis in remodeling of the forelimb? A Apoptosis replaces old cells with new ones that are less likely to contain mutations. B Apoptosis involves the regulated activation of proteins in specific cells of the developing forelimb that leads to the death of those cells. C Apoptosis involves the destruction of extra cells in the developing forelimb, which provides nutrients for phagocytic cells. D Apoptosis in the developing forelimb triggers the differentiation of cells whose fate was not already determined.

B.) Apoptosis involves the regulated activation of proteins in specific cells of the developing forelimb that leads to the death of those cells.

Melanocytes are skin cells that can become cancerous and develop into a cancer known as melanoma. Some cancerous melanocytes have developed resistance to the drugs currently used to treat melanoma. As a result, researchers are investigating the effects of a new compound (drug X) on four different melanoma cell lines. Researchers analyzed cell survival in two cell lines (Figure 1) and oxygen consumption in the presence of drug X in all four cell lines (Figure 2). Figure 3 shows the proposed mechanism by which drug X affects cells. Figure 1. Percent survival of normal melanocytes and cancerous melanocyte (melanoma) lines 1 and 2 after treatment with different concentrations of drug X Figure 2. Oxygen consumption per cell in four melanoma lines after treatment with either solvent alone or solvent containing drug X. Error bars represent ±2SEx¯. Figure 3. Pathway leading to cell survival, growth, and proliferation and the likely effect of drug X Which of the following best describes the data in Figure 1 ? A As the concentration of drug X increases, there is an increase in melanoma cell survival. B At a concentration above 10 μM, drug X reduces melanoma cell survival. C At a concentration below 25 μM, drug X increases survival in all melanoma cell lines. D At a concentration of 25 μM, drug X has a greater effect on melanoma line 1 than on melanoma line 2.

B.) At a concentration above 10 μM, drug X reduces melanoma cell survival.

Researchers investigating the regulation of neurotransmitter release from presynaptic neurons proposed a model (Figure 1) in which CDK5, a protein expressed in axon terminals, inhibits the movement of synaptic vesicles to the presynaptic membrane. To test their model, the researchers used a modified version of green fluorescent protein (GFP*) GFP* exhibits a bright green fluorescence. In acidic conditions, GFP* exhibits no fluorescence. Using standard techniques, the gene encoding GFP* is easily introduced into living cells. By engineering the expression of GFP* in laboratory-cultured nerve cells, the researchers found that a bright green fluorescence was exhibited only when a presynaptic neuron was given a certain stimulus. Previous experiments indicate that CDK5 is active only when attached to a protein called p35. Which of the following best predicts how CDK5 might play a role in regulating neuron function? A Elevated intracellular levels of p35 result in increased synaptic activity. B Degradation of p35 results in increased synaptic activity. C Reabsorption of p35 from the synaptic cleft results in increased synaptic activity. D Attachment of p35 to synaptic vesicles results in increased synaptic activity.

B.) Degradation of p35 results in increased synaptic activity

Scientists compared the chemical structure of several molecules that various bacterial species use for quorum sensing. Quorum sensing is an ability some bacteria have to detect the number of related cells nearby. The chemical structure of some of these molecules found in certain species of bacteria are shown in Figure 1. Figure 1. The chemical structure of several molecules used for quorum sensing in three species of bacteria Which of the following research questions would best guide an investigation of the link between the structure of the signaling molecules and the evolution of quorum sensing? A Do these molecules require the same receptors in each bacteria species to generate a response? B Did these species evolve from a common ancestor that used a similar signaling molecule? C Do these species all perform the same action when the concentration of the signaling molecules is high enough? D Did these species evolve from the same common ancestor that is still living today and uses the same receptors?

B.) Did these species evolve from a common ancestor that used a similar signaling molecule?

Researchers investigating the regulation of neurotransmitter release from presynaptic neurons proposed a model (Figure 1) in which CDK5, a protein expressed in axon terminals, inhibits the movement of synaptic vesicles to the presynaptic membrane. To test their model, the researchers used a modified version of green fluorescent protein (GFP*) GFP* exhibits a bright green fluorescence. In acidic conditions, GFP* exhibits no fluorescence. Using standard techniques, the gene encoding GFP* is easily introduced into living cells. By engineering the expression of GFP* in laboratory-cultured nerve cells, the researchers found that a bright green fluorescence was exhibited only when a presynaptic neuron was given a certain stimulus. Based on the model, which of the following best explains how regulation of neurotransmitter release might increase the range of responses to a stimulus in the nervous system? A In the absence of any stimulus, neurons can still release neurotransmitters. B Different neurons in the same neural network can release different amounts of neurotransmitter. C In the depolarization phase of an action potential, postsynaptic neurons can adjust the amount of neurotransmitter bound to receptors on their surface. D In the recovery phase following a stimulus, enzymes can be mobilized to degrade molecules present in the synaptic vesicles.

B.) Different neurons in the same neural network can release different amounts of neurotransmitter.

Ethylene is an organic compound produced by ripening fruits. In a controlled experiment, researchers found that ethylene gas stimulated the ripening process in newly harvested fruits. Which of the following describes the most likely connection between natural ethylene production and fruit ripening? A As a result of metabolic inactivity, newly harvested fruits are unable to absorb ethylene gas from the atmosphere. B Ethylene gas is a chemical signal through which ripening fruits trigger the ripening process in other fruits. C Because of normal phenotypic variation, only some of the fruits in a given generation are expected to produce ethylene gas. D The rate of ethylene gas production by ripening fruits is an indicator of the relative age of an ecosystem.

B.) Ethylene gas is a chemical signal through which ripening fruits trigger the ripening process in other fruits.

The epinephrine signaling pathway plays a role in regulating glucose homeostasis in muscle cells. The signaling pathway is activated by the binding of epinephrine to the beta-2 adrenergic receptor. A simplified model of the epinephrine signaling pathway is represented in Figure 1. Figure 1. A simplified model of the epinephrine signaling pathway in muscle cells Based on Figure 1, which of the following statements best describes the epinephrine signaling pathway? A It involves the opening and closing of ion channels. B In involves enzymes activating other enzymes. C It involves changes in the expression of target genes. D It involves protons moving down a concentration gradient.

B.) In involves enzymes activating other enzymes.

The brain coordinates the circulatory and respiratory systems of the human body. The control of breathing, for example, involves neural pathways among the structures represented in the figure above. One important stimulus in the control of breathing is an increase in blood CO2concentration, which is detected as a decrease in blood pH. Which of the following best describes the physiological response to an overall increase in cellular respiration in the body? A In response to depleted blood CO2 levels, the pH sensors send signals directly to the rib muscles, resulting in an increase in the rate of CO2 uptake by the lungs and a decrease in CO2 utilization by the brain. B In response to low blood pH, the pH sensors send a signal to the brain, which then sends a signal to the diaphragm, resulting in an increased rate of breathing to help eliminate excess blood CO2 . C In response to high blood pH, the pH sensors send a signal directly to the lungs, resulting in a slower rate of breathing, and the lungs send a signal back to the heart once CO2 availability has been restored. D In response to an increased rate of breathing, the rib muscles send a signal to the brain, which then sends a signal to the heart, resulting in a decrease in heart activity and slower flow of blood through the body.

B.) In response to low blood pH, the pH sensors send a signal to the brain, which then sends a signal to the diaphragm, resulting in an increased rate of breathing to help eliminate excess blood CO2.

Figure 1 is a proposed model of the feedback system controlling erythrocyte (red blood cell) production. Figure 1. Model of erythrocyte production control Air is less dense at very high elevations, so less oxygen is available than in the denser air at sea level. Based on the model in Figure 1, if a person travels from sea level to a high elevation location, which of the following correctly predicts the response to the decreased blood oxygen level? A More erythropoietin will be secreted from the kidneys, decreasing production of erythrocytes. B More erythropoietin will be secreted from the kidneys, increasing production of erythrocytes. C Less erythropoietin will be secreted from the kidneys, decreasing production of erythrocytes. D Less erythropoietin will be secreted from the kidneys, increasing production of erythrocytes.

B.) More erythropoietin will be secreted from the kidneys, increasing production of erythrocytes.

Glucocorticoids are steroid hormones that control cellular responses through several different signaling pathways. One of the signaling pathways involves the glucocorticoid receptor, an intracellular protein that is activated by binding to a glucocorticoid molecule. A simplified model of the glucocorticoid receptor signaling pathway is represented in Figure 1. Figure 1. A simplified model of the glucocorticoid receptor signaling pathway Which of the following statements best predicts the effect of a mutation that results in a loss of the glucocorticoid receptor's ligand binding function? A The transduction of the glucocorticoid signal across the plasma membrane will be blocked. B The glucocorticoid receptor will remain associated with the accessory proteins. C The rate of diffusion of glucocorticoid molecules into the cell will increase. D The concentration of glucocorticoid receptors inside the nucleus will increase.

B.) The glucocorticoid receptor will remain associated with the accessory proteins.

Directions: Each group of questions below concerns an experimental or laboratory situation or data. In each case, first study the description of the situation or data. Then choose the one best answer to each question following it. The following questions refer to the data in Figures 1 through 4 below, which were collected during a study of the growth of plant seedlings. Which of the following is a correct conclusion that can be drawn based only on the data in Figure 4? A Seedling growth rates decrease between 50 and 80 days after planting at all concentrations of the inhibitor. B The greater the inhibition of GAl synthesis, the lower the plant height after 80 days. C The spraying of GAl on seedlings results in an increase in seedling growth rates. D The inhibitor kills the seedlings when it is applied in very high concentrations. E The growth of the seedlings is directly proportional to the concentrations of inhibitor.

B.) The greater the inhibition of GAl synthesis, the lower the plant height after 80 days.

Which of the following statements best describes how a growth factor stimulates cell division from outside a cell? A The growth factor binds to other cells in the same area and holds them together to form a large, multicellular structure. B The growth factor binds to receptors on the cell surface, initiating a signal transduction pathway that activates specific target genes. C The growth factor binds to sugar molecules in the extracellular fluid and provides them to the cell as a source of energy. D The growth factor binds to phospholipids in the plasma membrane, creating a channel through which substances enter the cell.

B.) The growth factor binds to receptors on the cell surface, initiating a signal transduction pathway that activates specific target genes.

Figure 1 shows a model of a signal transduction cascade, initiated by the binding of a ligand to the transmembrane receptor protein A. Figure 1. Model of signal transduction cascade incorporating protein A produced by the cell. Which of the following predictions is the most likely consequence of the mutation? A DNA mutation changes the shape of the extracellular domain of transmembrane receptor protein A produced by the cell. Which of the following predictions is the most likely consequence of the mutation? A Production of activated molecule 1 will stop, but production of activated molecules 2 and 3 will continue. B The molecule that normally binds to protein A will no longer attach, deactivating the cellular response. C The molecule that normally binds to protein A will not enter the cell, thus no cellular response will occur. D Since protein A is embedded in the membrane, the mutation will be silent and not affect the cellular response.

B.) The molecule that normally binds to protein A will no longer attach, deactivating the cellular response.

Which of the following best explains how small molecules move between adjacent cells in a plant shoot? A The molecules are actively transported by motor proteins along the cytoskeleton. B The molecules pass freely through plasmodesmata, which are cytoplasmic strands connecting two cells. C The molecules are swept along in the extracellular fluid by cilia projecting from cell membranes. D The molecules bind reversibly to receptors on the cell membranes of xylem.

B.) The molecules pass freely through plasmodesmata, which are cytoplasmic strands connecting two cells.

Figure 1. A signaling cascade triggers the relaxation of smooth muscle cells. Blood vessels are surrounded by cells called smooth muscle cells. Nitric oxide triggers a signaling cascade in smooth muscle cells that causes the cells to relax (Figure 1). Which of the following is represented by the gradual increase in thickness of the arrows from the top to the bottom of Figure 1? A The rate at which nitric oxide triggers signaling gradually increases over time. B The number of signaling molecules that are produced or activated increases with each step in the pathway. C The size of the proteins in the pathway increases as the signaling cascade moves through the cell. D The signaling pathway uses an increase in negative feedback to reduce intracellular Ca2+ levels and cell sensitivity to Ca2+.

B.) The number of signaling molecules that are produced or activated increases with each step in the pathway.

Figure 1. Pathway activated by insulin binding to the insulin receptor Figure 2: Blood insulin levels in normal mice and Esp mutant mice after exposure to glucose Hormones are chemical signals that are released by cells in one part of the body that travel through the bloodstream to signal cells in another part of the body. Insulin is a hormone that is released by the pancreas that induces the uptake of glucose molecules from the bloodstream into cells. In this way, insulin lowers the overall blood glucose levels of the body. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts are two types of bone cells that play a role in regulating blood glucose levels (Figure 1). Binding of insulin to the insulin receptor on osteoblasts activates a signaling pathway that results in osteoblasts releasing a molecule, OPG, that binds to neighboring osteoclasts. In response, the osteoclasts release protons (H+) and create an area of lower pH outside the cell. This low pHactivates osteocalcin, a protein secreted in an inactive form by osteoblasts. The Esp gene encodes a protein that alters the structure of the insulin receptor on osteoblasts and interferes with the binding of insulin to the receptor. A researcher created a group of osteoblasts with an Esp mutation that prevented the production of a functional Esp product (mutant). The researcher then exposed the mutant strain and a normal strain that expresses Esp to glucose and compared the levels of insulin in the blood near the osteoblasts (Figure 2). Based on the information provided, which of the following best justifies the claim that osteocalcin is a hormone? A The phosphorylation of the insulin receptor causes a response in osteoblast bone cells. B The osteoblasts in the bone secrete osteocalcin, which causes cells in the pancreas to change their activity. C The change in expression of Esp changes the insulin receptor activity of the osteoblast. D The activation of the osteocalcin by a bone cell is pH dependent.

B.) The osteoblasts in the bone secrete osteocalcin, which causes cells in the pancreas to change their activity.

The coagulation cascade controls blood clot formation in response to blood vessel injury. Thrombin is an enzyme that plays a key role in regulating the coagulation cascade. A simplified model of thrombin's role in regulating the coagulation cascade is represented in Figure 1. Figure 1. A simplified model of thrombin's role in regulating the coagulation cascade Argatroban is a competitive inhibitor of thrombin. Which of the following effects on the coagulation cascade is most likely to result from inhibiting thrombin activity with argatroban? A The activation of clotting factors will be blocked. B The rate of fibrin formation will decrease. C Thrombin will be converted to prothrombin. D The rate of blood clot formation will increase.

B.) The rate of fibrin formation will decrease.

Trypsinogen is split by the enzyme enterokinase to form an activated molecule of the protease trypsin. Which of the following would confirm that the activation of trypsin is an example of how a positive feedback mechanism can amplify a biological process? A The activated trypsin enzyme can use enterokinase as a substrate. B The trypsin produced by the reaction is capable of splitting and activating additional trypsinogen molecules. C If levels of trypsin were to get too high, the trypsin molecules would inhibit the enzyme enterokinase. D Each mRNA molecule that codes for trypsinogen can be translated repeatedly to form many peptide molecules.

B.) The trypsin produced by the reaction is capable of splitting and activating additional trypsinogen molecules.

Which of the following best represents two different signaling pathways that share a second messenger? A | | B /\ \/ C \/ /\ D | | | |

C.) \/ /\

Directions: Each group of questions below concerns an experimental or laboratory situation or data. In each case, first study the description of the situation or data. Then choose the one best answer to each question following it. The following questions refer to the data in Figures 1 through 4 below, which were collected during a study of the growth of plant seedlings. The concentration of all gibberellins 65 days after planting is approximately A 5 ng/gram B 10 ng/gram C 20 ng/gram D 120 ng/gram E 150 ng/gram

C.) 20 ng/gram

The graph above shows changes in glucagon and insulin secretions at different concentrations of blood glucose. Which of the following feedback mechanisms is best supported by the data? A A falling glucagon level causes a rise in the insulin level, which maintains equal amounts of both hormones in the blood. B A high glucagon level causes a rise in the insulin level, which maintains high levels of both hormones in the blood. C A low glucose level causes the release of glucagon, which stimulates the release of more glucose from tissues, which in turn lowers the amount of glucagon being released. D A low glucose level causes the release of insulin, which stimulates the release of more glucose from tissues, which in turn increases the amount of insulin being released.

C.) A low glucose level causes the release of glucagon, which stimulates the release of more glucose from tissues, which in turn lowers the amount of glucagon being released.

Melanocytes are skin cells that can become cancerous and develop into a cancer known as melanoma. Some cancerous melanocytes have developed resistance to the drugs currently used to treat melanoma. As a result, researchers are investigating the effects of a new compound (drug X) on four different melanoma cell lines. Researchers analyzed cell survival in two cell lines (Figure 1) and oxygen consumption in the presence of drug X in all four cell lines (Figure 2). Figure 3 shows the proposed mechanism by which drug X affects cells. Figure 1. Percent survival of normal melanocytes and cancerous melanocyte (melanoma) lines 1 and 2 after treatment with different concentrations of drug X Figure 2. Oxygen consumption per cell in four melanoma lines after treatment with either solvent alone or solvent containing drug X. Error bars represent ±2SEx¯. Figure 3. Pathway leading to cell survival, growth, and proliferation and the likely effect of drug X A researcher has identified a compound that reverses the effect of drug X. Based on Figure 3, which of the following best explains how the compound acts in the pathway to reverse the effects of drug X? A Compound --> Molecule A B Compound --[ Molecule A C Compound --[ Molecule B D Compound --[ Molecule C

C.) Compound --[ Molecule B

Notch is a receptor protein displayed on the surface of certain cells in developing fruit fly embryos. Notch's ligand is a membrane-bound protein called Delta that is displayed on the surface of adjacent cells. When Notch is activated by its ligand, the intracellular tail of the Notch protein becomes separated from the rest of the protein. This allows the intracellular tail to move to the cell's nucleus and alter the expression of specific genes. Which of the following statements best explains Delta's role in regulating cell communication through the Notch signaling pathway? A Delta transmits a chemical signal to all the cells of a developing embryo. B Delta allows the cells of a developing embryo to communicate without making direct contact. C Delta restricts cell communication to short distances within a developing embryo. D Delta determines which cells in a developing embryo express the gene that encodes the Notch protein.

C.) Delta restricts cell communication to short distances within a developing embryo.

Figure 1. A model of epinephrine signaling Two types of cells, alpha and beta cells, produce signaling molecules that affect blood sugar levels in opposite ways (Figure 1). Epinephrine is a chemical, often released during periods of exercise, that ultimately causes an increase in blood sugar levels in the body. Based on Figure 1, which of the following best explains how exercise causes blood glucose levels to rise? A Epinephrine inhibits alpha cells, causing the release of glucagon, and activates beta cells, blocking the release of insulin. B Epinephrine activates alpha cells, blocking the release of glucagon, and inhibits beta cells, causing the release of insulin. C Epinephrine activates alpha cells, causing the release of glucagon, and inhibits beta cells, blocking the release of insulin. D Epinephrine inhibits alpha cells, blocking the release of glucagon, and activates beta cells, causing the release of insulin.

C.) Epinephrine activates alpha cells, causing the release of glucagon, and inhibits beta cells, blocking the release of insulin.

The functions of the loci of the lac operon shown in the diagram are described in the table below. The diagram above represents a segment of the E. coli chromosome that contains the lacI gene and part of the lac operon, a coordinately regulated set of genes that are required for the metabolism of lactose. The presence of lactose, which causes the repressor to be released from the operator, results in increased transcription of the lac operon. Which of the following describes the most likely consequence of a negative feedback pathway involving the lac operon? A The breakdown products of lactose block cell division. B Diffusion of lactose across the plasma membrane would stop in the presence of lactose. C Expression of the lac operon diminishes as lactose is depleted. D Binding of DNA by the repressor would increase in the presence of lactose.

C.) Expression of the lac operon diminishes as lactose is depleted.

Many human cells can be stimulated to divide by hormonelike growth factors that bind to receptor proteins (R) on the plasma membrane and trigger an internal signal-transduction cascade. In many cases, however, the process of contact inhibition prevents mitosis when cells are in direct contact with one another. Contact inhibition occurs when proteins called cell adhesion molecules (CAMs CAMs are replaced by another protein, called M. Both pathways are depicted in the figures below. Which of the following statements accurately uses the information presented to support the hypothesis that interruption of M function in a single body cell can result in cancer? A Protein 3 will be prevented from interacting withCAMs, causing the cell cycle to stop permanently. B The ras protein will remain bound to DNA C Growth-factor signaling can trigger mitosis in cells that are in direct contact with other cells. D The receptor proteins of body cells will no longer bind to growth-factor proteins.

C.) Growth-factor signaling can trigger mitosis in cells that are in direct contact with other cells.

Insulin, a hormone secreted by pancreatic cells, stimulates glucose uptake in skeletal muscle cells by mobilizing glucose transporter proteins (GLUT4) to the plasma membrane. As depicted in Figure 1, binding of insulin to the insulin receptor triggers an intracellular signaling cascade in which certain molecules activate other molecules in a relay of the hormone signal to cell targets. One outcome of the signaling cascade is mobilization of GLUT4 from vesicle storage sites in the cytoplasm to sites at the cell surface, where GLUT4 allows glucose to enter the cell. In type 2 diabetes, the cellular response to insulin is disrupted, and individuals with type 2 diabetes cannot properly regulate their blood glucose levels. In an investigation of the insulin signaling pathway, samples of skeletal muscle were isolated from individuals who have type 2 diabetes and from individuals who do not. The results of several experiments that were performed on the muscle samples are shown in Figure 2, Figure 3, and Figure 4. Based on the experimental results, which of the following describes the most likely defect in muscle cells of patients with type 2 diabetes? A Insulin receptor proteins do not reach the cell surface. B Insulin does not activate its receptor. C IRS-1 activation is reduced at high insulin concentrations. D GLUT4 blocks glucose from entering cells.

C.) IRS-1 activation is reduced at high insulin concentrations.

In response to elevated blood glucose levels, beta (β) cells in the pancreas release insulin, a regulatory hormone. Insulin signals body cells to take up glucose from the blood, which returns blood glucose levels back to normal. Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disorder that destroys β-cells, resulting in elevated blood glucose levels. Researchers have proposed that diabetes could be treated by implanting human embryonic stem cells (hESCs) that have been induced to develop into β-cells (hESC-β). To test the proposed treatment, the researchers set up two groups of genetically identical mice and implanted the mice from one group with hESC-β cells. Several weeks after the hESC-β implant, both groups of mice were given a drug (STZ) that selectively destroys the naturally occurring mouse β-cells but does not affect the implanted hESC-β cells. Figure 1 shows a comparison of average blood glucose levels in both groups of mice. Figure 1. Average blood glucose levels in mice after STZ treatment. Error bars indicate standard deviation. In a continuation of the experiment, the researchers removed the hESC-β implant from one of the mice 16 weeks after STZ treatment. Figure 2 shows the blood glucose levels in the mouse over the duration of the experiment. Figure 2. Blood glucose levels for an individual mouse over the duration of the experiment. Based on the data, which of the following best represents how the mice with the implanted hESC-β cells use negative feedback to return blood glucose levels to normal if blood glucose levels increase? A Decreased insulin secretion by body cells → increased glucose uptake by mouse β-cells → increased insulin secretion by body cells B Increased insulin production by mouse β-cells → increased glucose uptake by hESC-β cells → decreased glucose metabolism by body cells C Increased insulin secretion by hESC-β cells → increased glucose uptake by body cells → decreased insulin secretion by hESC-β cells D Increased metabolism of glucose by hESC-β cells → differentiation of hESC-β cell into body cells → increased glucose production by body cells

C.) Increased insulin secretion by hESC-β cells → increased glucose uptake by body cells → decreased insulin secretion by hESC-β cells

The epinephrine signaling pathway plays a role in regulating glucose homeostasis in muscle cells. The signaling pathway is activated by the binding of epinephrine to the beta-2 adrenergic receptor. A simplified model of the epinephrine signaling pathway is represented in Figure 1. Figure 1. A simplified model of the epinephrine signaling pathway in muscle cells Which of the following statements best describes the role of adenylyl cyclase in the epinephrine signaling pathway? A It converts a polymer to its monomer subunits. B It moves substances across the plasma membrane. C It accelerates the production of a second messenger. D It transfers phosphate groups from ATP to protein substrates.

C.) It accelerates the production of a second messenger.

In a certain signal transduction pathway, the binding of an extracellular molecule to a cell-surface protein results in a rapid increase in the concentration of cyclic AMP inside the cell. The cyclic AMP binds to and activates cytosolic enzymes that then activate other enzymes in the cell. Which of the following statements best describes the role of cyclic AMP in the signal transduction pathway? A It acts as a signaling molecule that passes the signal from the cell to other cells. B It acts as a receptor that carries the signal from outside the cell to inside the cell. C It acts as a second messenger that helps relay and amplify the signal within the cell. D It acts as a channel protein that transmits the signal across the cell's nuclear membrane.

C.) It acts as a second messenger that helps relay and amplify the signal within the cell.

The epinephrine signaling pathway plays a role in regulating glucose homeostasis in muscle cells. The signaling pathway is activated by the binding of epinephrine to the beta-2 adrenergic receptor. A simplified model of the epinephrine signaling pathway is represented in Figure 1. Figure 1. A simplified model of the epinephrine signaling pathway in muscle cells Cyclic AMP phosphodiesterase is an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of cyclic AMP to a different molecule. Which of the following best predicts the effect of inhibiting cyclic AMP phosphodiesterase in a muscle cell stimulated by epinephrine? A The concentration of cyclic AMP will decrease because adenylyl cyclase will no longer be activated. B The G protein will diffuse out of the cell because it will no longer bind to the plasma membrane. C Phosphorylase kinase will remain active because protein kinase A will no longer be deactivated. D Glycolysis will stop because epinephrine signaling will no longer stimulate glycogen breakdown.

C.) Phosphorylase kinase will remain active because protein kinase A will no longer be deactivated.

Cell communication is critical for the function of both unicellular and multicellular eukaryotes. Which of the following is likely true of cell signaling? A Cell signaling uses the highest molecular weight molecules found in living cells. B Cell signaling has largely been replaced by other cell functions in higher mammals. C Similar cell signaling pathways in diverse eukaryotes are evidence of conserved evolutionary processes. D Cell signaling functions mainly during early developmental stages.

C.) Similar cell signaling pathways in diverse eukaryotes are evidence of conserved evolutionary processes.

Vertebrate immune responses involve communication over short and long distances. Which of the following statements best helps explain how cell surface proteins, such as MHC proteins and T cell receptors, mediate cell communication over short distances? A The proteins receive electrical signals from nerve cells. B The proteins leave the cell and travel in the bloodstream to other cells. C The proteins interact directly with proteins on the surfaces of other cells. D The proteins bind to molecules secreted by cells located in other parts of the body.

C.) The proteins interact directly with proteins on the surfaces of other cells.

Certain reef-building corals contain photosynthetic, symbiotic algae that have the ability to make dimethylsulphoniopropionate (DMSP), a chemical involved in the marine sulfur cycle. DMSP is released into the surrounding water, where it is converted to the gas dimethyl sulfide (DMS) by microorganisms and enters the atmosphere. Once in the atmosphere, it triggers the formation of sulfate aerosols, which induce cloud formation and block sunlight from heating up the water. The symbiotic algae produce DMSP when they are stressed by a high water temperature. If water temperature is too high, corals will expel the symbiotic algae that produce DMSP. Researchers measured the amount of DMSP produced by juvenile and adult coral and their symbionts under normal and thermally stressed conditions. The data are shown in the graphs in Figure 1. Figure 1: DMSP concentration in juvenile and adult corals and their symbionts in normal and thermally-stressed conditions. Error bars represent ±2SEx¯. The researchers also measured the density of the symbiont as well as the photosynthetic yield in adult corals at the two temperatures. Photosynthetic yield is an index measure of energy output compared to sunlight energy input in which larger photosynthetic yield values represent photosynthetic organisms producing more energy. Figure 2: Variation in symbiont density and photosynthetic yield in adult corals grown in normal and thermally-stressed conditions. Error bars represent ±2SEx¯. Which of the following best describes the scientists' findings concerning the density of symbionts presented in Figure 2 ? A The symbiont density at 32°C on day 5 was less than the density on day 0 of the experiment. B The symbiont density at 27°C on day 0 was less than the density on day 5 of the experiment. C The symbiont density at 32°C was different from the density at 27°C on days 5 and 10 of the experiment. D The symbiont density at 27°C was higher than the density at 32°C for the entire length of the experiment.

C.) The symbiont density at 32°C was different from the density at 27°C on days 5 and 10 of the experiment.

Excess intracellular iron is toxic to cells (iron-induced toxicity). Ferritin is an intracellular iron storage protein that binds excess iron. The presence of ferritin can protect cells from iron-induced toxicity. In an experiment to investigate the effects of dietary iron intake on ferritin synthesis, rats were given food containing different amounts of iron. Subsequently, the levels of ferritin protein in the liver were measured. The results are shown in Figure 1. Based on these and other data, researchers have developed the following model demonstrating how ferritin synthesis is regulated by iron. When iron levels are low, a repressor of translation, iron response protein (IRP), binds to an iron response element (IRE), which is a stem-loop structure near the 5¢ end of ferritin mRNA. When iron levels are high, intracellular iron binds to the IRP, and the iron-IRP complex dissociates from the IRE, permitting ribosomes to proceed with the translation of ferritin mRNA. Figure 2 represents the model of the regulation of ferritin mRNA translation by iron. Figure 2. Model of regulation of ferritin synthesis by iron Based on the model of ferritin synthesis presented in Figure 2, which of the following best describes the mechanism whereby iron most likely regulates ferritin production? A Translation occurs under low intracellular iron concentration when the IRP recruits ribosomes to the ferritin mRNA. B Translation occurs under low intracellular iron concentration when the IRP stabilizes the stem-loop structure in the ferritin mRNA. C Translation occurs under high intracellular iron concentration when the IRP-iron complex dissociates from ferritin mRNA, permitting ribosomes access to the ferritin coding region. D Translation occurs under high intracellular iron concentration when the IRP-iron complex brings the 5¢ end of the mRNA closer to the ferritin coding region.

C.) Translation occurs under high intracellular iron concentration when the IRP-iron complex dissociates from ferritin mRNA, permitting ribosomes access to the ferritin coding region.

The Hedgehog protein (Hh) plays a critical role during a certain period of embryo development, but it normally has no role in adults except for the maintenance of adult stem cells. However, the Hedgehog protein has been detected in 70 percent of pancreatic cancer cell samples. As illustrated in the figures below, the Hedgehog protein binds to an integral membrane protein receptor known as Patched (Ptc), thus initiating a pathway of gene expression. When Hedgehog is absent, Ptc inhibits another protein known as Smoothened (Smo), which, in turn, blocks the activation of a group of proteins collectively known as the Hedgehog signaling complex (HSC). The inactivation is the result of proteolytic cleavage of one component of the HSC complex, a transcription factor known as Cubitus interruptus (Ci). When Hedgehog is present, it binds to Ptc, which prevents the inhibition of Smo by Ptc. The result is that Ci remains intact and can enter the nucleus, where it binds to and activates certain genes. One approach to treating patients with pancreatic cancer and other cancers in which the Hedgehog protein is detected is to modify the Hedgehog signaling pathway. Which of the following is the most useful approach? A Treating patients with a molecule that is structurally similar to Hedgehog and that will bind to and interact with Ptc in the same fashion as Hedgehog B Injecting patients with embryonic cells so that Hedgehog will bind to those cells instead of the cancer cells C Treating patients with a membrane-soluble compound that can bind to Smo and block its activity D Injecting patients with a preparation of purified membrane-soluble Ci that will enter the nuclei of the cancer cells and induce gene transcription

C.) Treating patients with a membrane-soluble compound that can bind to Smo and block its activity

The diagram above illustrates feedback control as exerted by the hormone thyroxine. Following surgical removal of the thyroid gland, the level of TSH in the blood will increase. Which of the following best explains this increase? A Residual blood thyroxine, from prior to thyroid gland removal, will bind to cells in the anterior pituitary, signaling more TSH secretion. B Thyroxine will remain bound to thyroxine receptors on various body cells, and these body cells will secrete additional hormones that stimulate the anterior pituitary to secrete TSH. C Thyroxine that was stored in the anterior pituitary prior to thyroid gland removal will signal more TSH secretion. D A decrease in thyroxine levels means a loss of inhibition to the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary, leading to increased TSH secretion.

D.) A decrease in thyroxine levels means a loss of inhibition to the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary, leading to increased TSH secretion.

The figure above shows a model of a ligand precursor being cleaved to produce an active ligand that binds to a specific receptor. Which of the following is most likely to reduce the binding of the active ligand to its receptor? A A change in the cytoskeletal attachment of transmembrane proteins B The presence of a large amount of the precursor form of the ligand C An increase in the ratio of the number of unsaturated to the number of saturated fatty acid tails of the membrane lipids D A mutation in the receptor gene that causes a substitution of a charged amino acid for a nonpolar amino acid in the ligand binding site of the receptor

D.) A mutation in the receptor gene that causes a substitution of a charged amino acid for a nonpolar amino acid in the ligand binding site of the receptor

Damaged tissue releases chemicals that activate platelets and stimulate the formation of blood clots. Which of the following predictions about the activity of platelets best describes a positive feedback mechanism? A Activated platelets release chemicals that inhibit blood clot formation. B Activated platelets release signaling molecules that inhibit cell division in damaged tissue. C Activated platelets constrict the blood vessels, stopping blood flow. D Activated platelets release chemicals that activate more platelets.

D.) Activated platelets release chemicals that activate more platelets.

Excess intracellular iron is toxic to cells (iron-induced toxicity). Ferritin is an intracellular iron storage protein that binds excess iron. The presence of ferritin can protect cells from iron-induced toxicity. In an experiment to investigate the effects of dietary iron intake on ferritin synthesis, rats were given food containing different amounts of iron. Subsequently, the levels of ferritin protein in the liver were measured. The results are shown in Figure 1. Based on these and other data, researchers have developed the following model demonstrating how ferritin synthesis is regulated by iron. When iron levels are low, a repressor of translation, iron response protein (IRP), binds to an iron response element (IRE), which is a stem-loop structure near the 5¢ end of ferritin mRNA. When iron levels are high, intracellular iron binds to the IRP, and the iron-IRP complex dissociates from the IRE, permitting ribosomes to proceed with the translation of ferritin mRNA. Figure 2 represents the model of the regulation of ferritin mRNA translation by iron. Figure 2. Model of regulation of ferritin synthesis by iron Based on the model of ferritin synthesis presented in Figure 2, which of the following describes the role of feedback on the control of intracellular iron levels? A A decrease in iron levels activates the IRP. The IRP in turn activates iron transport proteins in the cell membrane, thereby returning free iron levels to normal. B A decrease in iron levels activates synthesis of ferritin protein. Ferritin protein in turn releases bound iron, thereby returning free iron levels to normal. C An increase in iron levels activates the IRP. The IRP in turn binds iron, thereby decreasing both free iron levels and ferritin synthesis. D An increase in iron levels activates synthesis of ferritin protein. Ferritin protein in turn binds iron, thereby decreasing both free iron levels and ferritin synthesis.

D.) An increase in iron levels activates synthesis of ferritin protein. Ferritin protein in turn binds iron, thereby decreasing both free iron levels and ferritin synthesis.

Figure 1. A model of an endocrine signaling pathway showing involved body parts and hormones. GnRH = gonadotropin-releasing hormone, LH = luteinizing hormone, and FSH = follicle-stimulating hormone. Figure 1 shows a model of the endocrine signaling pathway that regulates ovulation. Which of the following observations would provide evidence of a positive feedback mechanism in this system? A Estrogen from the ovaries inhibits the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus. B Progesterone from the ovaries stimulates the thickening of the uterine lining. C Progesterone from the ovaries inhibits the release of LH and FSH from the anterior pituitary. D Estrogen from the ovaries stimulates the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary to secrete more GnRH, LH, and FSH.

D.) Estrogen from the ovaries stimulates the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary to secrete more GnRH, LH, and FSH.

The epinephrine signaling pathway plays a role in regulating glucose homeostasis in muscle cells. The signaling pathway is activated by the binding of epinephrine to the beta-2 adrenergic receptor. A simplified model of the epinephrine signaling pathway is represented in Figure 1. Figure 1. A simplified model of the epinephrine signaling pathway in muscle cells A researcher claims that the epinephrine signaling pathway controls a catabolic process in muscle cells. Which of the following statements best helps justify the researcher's claim? A Epinephrine is a signaling molecule that binds to a transmembrane protein. B The G protein in the epinephrine signaling pathway consists of three different subunits. C Phosphorylase kinase catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP. D Glycogen phosphorylase catalyzes the conversion of glycogen to glucose-1-phosphate.

D.) Glycogen phosphorylase catalyzes the conversion of glycogen to glucose-1-phosphate.

Cortisol is a hormone produced in response to stress, including starvation, in humans. Which of the following is most likely an immediate effect of a starvation-induced increase in cortisol secretion? A Increased activation of the immune system B Increased urine production by the kidneys C Increased bone and collagen formation D Increased mobilization of fatty acids from fat cells

D.) Increased mobilization of fatty acids from fat cells

Researchers investigating the regulation of neurotransmitter release from presynaptic neurons proposed a model (Figure 1) in which CDK5, a protein expressed in axon terminals, inhibits the movement of synaptic vesicles to the presynaptic membrane. To test their model, the researchers used a modified version of green fluorescent protein (GFP*) GFP* exhibits a bright green fluorescence. In acidic conditions, GFP* exhibits no fluorescence. Using standard techniques, the gene encoding GFP* is easily introduced into living cells. By engineering the expression of GFP* in laboratory-cultured nerve cells, the researchers found that a bright green fluorescence was exhibited only when a presynaptic neuron was given a certain stimulus. Which of the following observations best supports the hypothesis that CDK5 negatively regulates neurotransmitter release? A Introduction of CDK5 protein into neurons results in the movement of synaptic vesicles to the plasma membrane in the absence of any stimulus. B Uptake of a gene encoding CDK5 by neurons results in the movement of synaptic vesicles to the plasma membrane in the absence of any stimulus. C Suppression of CDK5 expression in neurons inhibits the movement of synaptic vesicles to the plasma membrane in response to a specific stimulus. D Inhibition of CDK5 activity in neurons increases the movement of synaptic vesicles to the plasma membrane in response to a specific stimulus.

D.) Inhibition of CDK5 activity in neurons increases the movement of synaptic vesicles to the plasma membrane in response to a specific stimulus.

Ethylene causes fruits to ripen. In a signaling pathway, receptors activate transcription factors, which ultimately leads to ripening. Which of the following best supports the claim that ethylene initiates the signal transduction pathway that leads to ripening of fruit? A Ethylene is a simple gaseous molecule, which makes it easily detected by receptors. B Fruit will ripen in closed containers without exposure to air. C Ethylene synthesis is under both positive and negative feedback regulation. D Loss-of-function mutations in ethylene receptors result in changes to the ripening process.

D.) Loss-of-function mutations in ethylene receptors result in changes to the ripening process.

Figure 1. Pathway activated by insulin binding to the insulin receptor Figure 2: Blood insulin levels in normal mice and Esp mutant mice after exposure to glucose Hormones are chemical signals that are released by cells in one part of the body that travel through the bloodstream to signal cells in another part of the body. Insulin is a hormone that is released by the pancreas that induces the uptake of glucose molecules from the bloodstream into cells. In this way, insulin lowers the overall blood glucose levels of the body. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts are two types of bone cells that play a role in regulating blood glucose levels (Figure 1). Binding of insulin to the insulin receptor on osteoblasts activates a signaling pathway that results in osteoblasts releasing a molecule, OPG, that binds to neighboring osteoclasts. In response, the osteoclasts release protons (H+) and create an area of lower pH outside the cell. This low pHactivates osteocalcin, a protein secreted in an inactive form by osteoblasts. The Esp gene encodes a protein that alters the structure of the insulin receptor on osteoblasts and interferes with the binding of insulin to the receptor. A researcher created a group of osteoblasts with an Esp mutation that prevented the production of a functional Esp product (mutant). The researcher then exposed the mutant strain and a normal strain that expresses Esp to glucose and compared the levels of insulin in the blood near the osteoblasts (Figure 2). Which of the following was a positive control in the experiment? A Minutes after glucose injection B Blood insulin C Mutant strain D Normal strain

D.) Normal strain

Steroid hormones, such as testosterone, pass through the plasma membrane and bind to an intracellular protein, as shown in the diagram below. The hormone-receptor complex then enters the nucleus, where it interacts with DNA to promote transcription of a specific gene. Based on the information presented, which of the following will also occur in response to steroid signaling? A Histone protein synthesis will increase because histones maintain the DNA in an optimal conformation for chromosome assembly. B Ribosome production will increase because ribosomes are specific for the mRNA with which they bind during translation. C DNA replication will increase as a result of the binding of the hormone-receptor complex to the DNA D Production of a specific mRNA will increase as a result of the binding of the hormone-receptor complex to the DNA

D.) Production of a specific mRNA will increase as a result of the binding of the hormone-receptor complex to the DNA

In flowering plants, plasmodesmata are narrow channels through cell walls that connect the cytoplasms of adjacent cells. An explanation of how plant cells communicate across cell walls will most likely refer to the diffusion through plasmodesmata of which of the following? A Membrane-bound organelles B Condensed, duplicated chromosomes C Branched polysaccharides D Small, water-soluble molecules

D.) Small, water-soluble molecules

Thyroxin is a hormone that increases metabolic activities within various tissue targets. Low levels of circulating thyroxin trigger the secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) from the anterior pituitary. TSH secretion then stimulates thyroxin production and release by the thyroid gland. The increased level of circulating thyroxin inhibits further secretion of TSH from the anterior pituitary. Based on the information provided, which of the following can most likely be concluded about the TSH-thyroxin loop? A A person taking thyroxin to supplement low thyroxin secretion will produce more TSH. B Increased thyroxin production would cause elevated ribosomal activity in the anterior pituitary. C The structure of the loop would lead to elevated thyroid and tissue activity due to positive feedback. D The feedback mechanism would maintain relatively constant levels of thyroxin throughout tissue targets.

D.) The feedback mechanism would maintain relatively constant levels of thyroxin throughout tissue targets.

In response to elevated blood glucose levels, beta (β) cells in the pancreas release insulin, a regulatory hormone. Insulin signals body cells to take up glucose from the blood, which returns blood glucose levels back to normal. Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disorder that destroys β-cells, resulting in elevated blood glucose levels. Researchers have proposed that diabetes could be treated by implanting human embryonic stem cells (hESCs) that have been induced to develop into β-cells (hESC-β). To test the proposed treatment, the researchers set up two groups of genetically identical mice and implanted the mice from one group with hESC-β cells. Several weeks after the hESC-β implant, both groups of mice were given a drug (STZ) that selectively destroys the naturally occurring mouse β-cells but does not affect the implanted hESC-β cells. Figure 1 shows a comparison of average blood glucose levels in both groups of mice. Figure 1. Average blood glucose levels in mice after STZ treatment. Error bars indicate standard deviation. In a continuation of the experiment, the researchers removed the hESC-β implant from one of the mice 16 weeks after STZ treatment. Figure 2 shows the blood glucose levels in the mouse over the duration of the experiment. Figure 2. Blood glucose levels for an individual mouse over the duration of the experiment. Based on the data in Figure 2, which of the following best justifies the researchers' claim that hESC-β implants can functionally replace the mouse's naturally occurring β-cells? A The mouse with an hESC-β implant demonstrated a decrease in blood glucose levels for the duration of the experiment. B The mouse with an hESC-β implant demonstrated an increase in blood glucose levels before STZ treatment. C The mouse with an hESC-β implant successfully regulated blood glucose levels by regenerating its naturally occurring β-cells. D The mouse with an hESC-β implant successfully regulated blood glucose levels after STZ treatment but not after the implant was removed.

D.) The mouse with an hESC-β implant successfully regulated blood glucose levels after STZ treatment but not after the implant was removed.

Two types of cholesterol transport proteins, low-density lipoproteins (LDL) and high-density lipoproteins (HDL), bind to cholesterol and carry it through the bloodstream. Familial hypercholesterolemia (FH) is characterized by high cholesterol levels in the blood, which can lead to cardiovascular disease. FH is associated with a loss-of-function mutation of a gene that encodes LDL receptors in liver cells. Individuals who are heterozygous produce lower-than-normal amounts of the LDL receptors, and individuals who are homozygous for the mutant allele have no LDL receptor function. Individuals with FH can be treated with drugs that result in increased production of LDL receptors in liver cells. Which of the following best explains the observation that the drugs can effectively control blood cholesterol levels in individuals who are heterozygous but are not effective in individuals homozygous for the mutant allele? A The drugs repair the mutant allele by copying the wild-type allele. B The drugs prevent cholesterol from entering the liver cells in individuals who are heterozygous but not in individuals who are homozygous for the mutant allele. C Cholesterol molecules primarily bind to HDL receptors in individuals with FH. D There must be at least one copy of the wild-type LDL receptor allele to produce functional LDL receptors.

D.) There must be at least one copy of the wild-type LDL receptor allele to produce functional LDL receptors.

Precise regulation of specific hormone levels is required for optimal sperm production in mammals, as summarized in the figure above. Anabolic-androgenic steroids (AAS) are synthetic variants of testosterone that are sometimes abused by persons who desire to enhance their athletic performance or alter their physique. Assuming that AAS function in the same way as naturally occurring testosterone, it is most likely that long-term abuse of AAS would A stimulate FSH secretion B stimulate testosterone production C stimulate LH secretion D reduce sperm production

D.) reduce sperm production

Directions: Each group of questions below concerns an experimental or laboratory situation or data. In each case, first study the description of the situation or data. Then choose the one best answer to each question following it. A tissue culture of vertebrate muscle was provided with a constant excess supply of glucose under anaerobic conditions starting at time zero and the amounts of pyruvic acid and ATP produced were measured. The solid line in the graph above represents the pyruvic acid produced in moles per liter per minute. ATP levels were also found to be highest at points A and C, lowest at B and D. A second culture was set up under the same conditions, except that substance X was added, and the results are indicated by the dotted line. The rate of pyruvic acid formation fluctuates because A all glucose has reacted B all enzymes have been used up C the reaction is accelerated by positive feedback D the reaction is affected by negative feedback E coenzymes have begun to function

D.) the reaction is affected by negative feedback