Biology exam 3 practice tests

what marks the end of a gene and causes transcription to stop a) a terminator b) rna ligase c) the poly A tail d) methionine e) a stop codon

a terminator

Suppose he flipped three different coins all at the same time. What would be the probability that they would all come up heads in a single toss? a) 12% b) 25% c) 33% d) 50% e) 75%

a) 12%

According to Mendel or his experimental results the offspring of a mono hybrid cross should always have a genotypic ratio of a) 1:2:1 b) 3:1 c) 9:3:3:1 d) 1:1 e) 1:2:3:4

a) 1:2:1

How many amino acids would be contained in a short peptide translated from the hypothetical mRNA transcript shown below? -GAAUAUGCCAUGCGAAUGAAACGCUAG- a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7 e) 9

a) 4

Which of the following phenotypic ratios indicates at two different genes parentheses or genetic traits) or segregating independently in a dihybrid cross ? a) 9:3:3:1 b) 1:2:1 c) 12:1:1:3 d) 1:1:1:1 e) 3:1

a) 9:3:3:1

Which of the following general comparisons between mitosis versus meiosis is false? a) DNA and chromosomes are duplicated in prep for mitosis, but they are not duplicated in prep for meiosis b) meiosis involves two nuclear divisions; while mitosis involves only one nuclear division c) in humans, meiosis produces haploid cells; while mitosis produces diploid cells d) mitosis is associated with asexual reproduction; meiosis is sexual reproduction e) mitotic daughter cells are genetically identical; meitotic daughter cells are genetically different from each other

a) DNA and chromosomes are duplicated in prep for mitosis, but they are not duplicated in prep for meiosis

Which scientist/geneticist is incorrectly matched with his contribution to the early studies of genetics or DNA structure? a) Gregor Mendel: propose the widely accepted blending concept of inheritance B) Linus Pauling: propose that the structure of DNA was a triple helix C) Phoebus Levene: propose the simple tetra nucleotide structure for DNA d) Charles Darwin: propose that new species rise by natural selection and evolution e) Thomas Morgan: studied recombination frequency and chromosome mapping in flies

a) Gregor Mendel: propose the widely accepted blending concept of inheritance

which pair of scientists is incorrectly matched with their contribution to DNA science or genetics? a) Nirenberg and Mathaei: proposed, then later proved that DNA replication was semi-conservative b) Bateson and Punnett: discovered and observed recombination in sweet peas c) watson and crick: proposed the correct double helix structure for DNA d) flemming and sutton: observed chromosome behavior in relation to mitosis and meiosis e) hershey and chase: provided conclusive proof that DNA (not protein) was the genetic materaial

a) Nirenberg and Mathaei: proposed, then later proved that DNA replication was semi-conservative

Which of the following of Mendel's breeding results with Pea helped the most to disprove the previous blending concept of inheritance a) The F1 generation in a cross between true breeding parents were given dominant and recessive trait always resembled the trait of the dominant parent. b) The recessive trait of the recessive parent always reappeared in the F2 generation. c) All generations resulting from an original cross between true breeding short plans with wrinkled seeds always produce more short plans with wrinkled seeds. d) The phenotypic ratios of the offspring resulting from a mono hybrid cross whenever perfectly 3:1 e) Across between plans with purple flowers and plants with white flowers always result in an offspring with intermediate ( i.e. lightly purple) flower color

a) The F1 generation in a cross between true breeding parents were given dominant and recessive trait always resembled the trait of the dominant parent.

Which of the following codons is incorrectly matched with its genetic meaning? a) UAG - leucine (leu) b) UUU - phenylalaine (phe) c) AUG - methionine (met) d) AUG - start e) UAA - stop

a) UAG - leucine (leu)

Biochemist measured amount of DNA in cells grow in the laboratory and found that the quantity of DNA in the cell doubled... a) between the G1 and G2 phases of the cell cycle b) between prophase and anaphase of mitosis c) between anaphase and telophase of mitosis. d) Between prophase I and prophase II of meiosis. e) During the M phase of the cell cycle

a) between the G1 and G2 phases of the cell cycle

the correct function of the operator in an operon (like the trp operon) is to... a) bind the active repressor in order to prevent the expression of the structural genes b) bind the inactive repressor in order to promote the expression of the structural genes c) mark or specify the locations of the start and stop codons in the operon d) serve as a recognition site for RNA polymerase in order to start transcription e) receive incoming phone calls and transfer them to the appropriate operon department

a) bind the active repressor in order to prevent the expression of the structural genes

Which of the following terms or phrases used for an apparently healthy or normal individual that can pass on a gene or allele for a recessively inherited disorder? a) carrier. b) Mutant. c) Deviant. d) Homozygotes. e) Polyploid.

a) carrier.

Which of the following events or processes is the first or earlier to occur in the overall process of mitosis? a) centrosomes replicate and separate. b) The chromosomes are duplicated. c) Nucleoli start to form. d) Kinetochores attach to centromeres. e) Sister chromatids separate

a) centrosomes replicate and separate.

which of the following statements best represents the "chromosome theory of inheritance" a) genes are located on chromosomes undergoes Segregation independent assortment b) chromosomes normally occur homologous pairs were usually one is dominant and the other is recessive c) chromosomes are made up of proteins and DNA in the DNA is what genes are made up of d) different things on the same chromosome are normally inherited together as pairs e) diploid organisms receive one set of chromosomes from one parent, and the other set of chromosomes from the other parent

a) genes are located on chromosomes undergoes Segregation independent assortment

Which of the following pairs of scientists are credited with proving scientific proof that DNA was the hereditary or genetic material of life? a) nierenberg and mathaei b) wilkens and franklin c) chargaff and levene d) watson and crick a) hershey and chase

a) hershey and chase

Green fluorescent protein is important to transformation technology because... a) it helps scientist know if or when their Gene of interest has been transferred into, and it's being expressed in the recipient organism. b) It helps scientist during the isolation and purification of the gene of interest. c) It blocks the expression of any genes that might interfere with the expression of their gene of interest. d) It's serves as a signal or marker in order for RNA polymerase to express a gene. e) it is the protein or signal that directs a foreign gene into the genome of the recipient organism

a) it helps scientist know if or when their Gene of interest has been transferred into, and it's being expressed in the recipient organism.

Agrobacterium tumefaciens is important in modern biotechnology mainly because... a) it is used as a vector to help transfer foreign genes of interest into plants b) it provided the gene(s) for insecticidal proteins that have been used to engineer insect resistance in plants c) it is the first genetically modified organism used to produce therapeutic or medicinal proteins in fermentation cultures d) it can be used to store genomic DNA fragments in what is referred to as a DNA library e) it is the only bacterium known to infect and kill animal viruses in a way that can be modified to cure virus-based diseases of humans

a) it is used as a vector to help transfer foreign genes of interest into plants

RNA fragments of approximately 20 nucleotides in length that can regulate the translation of mRNA are called... a) micro RNA b) transfer RNA c) ribosomal RNA's d) mini RNA e) poly RNA

a) micro RNA

telomeres are a) non-coding regions of DNA at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes b) regions of chromosomes that fluoresce under uv light c) constricted regions of eukaryotic chromosomes where spindle microtubules attach during mitosis d) extensions of centriole/centrosomes that form during cytokinesis e) the name given to nuclei that are reforming during telophase of mitosis

a) non-coding regions of DNA at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes

Normally all viruses are made up of at least __ and ____ a) nucelic acid and protein b) dna and rna c) sulfur and phosphorous d) protein and dna e) protein and carbs

a) nucelic acid and protein

in DNA tech, scientists use "restriction enzymes" as tools for creating recombinant DNA. However, in nature, bacteria uses the same enzymes to .... a) prevent their cells from being taken over by foreign viral DNA b) synthesize DNA from an RNA template c) restrict the size of their genome to a manageable number of total base pairs d) insert newly acquired DNA in their own chromosomes e) exchange their DNA with other compatible microbes

a) prevent their cells from being taken over by foreign viral DNA

which correctly identifies the order of mitosis as shown? a) prophase, metaphase, telophase, interphase, anaphase b) interphase, metaphase, telophase, prophase, anaphase c) telophase, prophase, metaphase, interphase, anaphase d) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, interphase, telophase e) prophase, interphase, anaphase, telophase, metaphase

a) prophase, metaphase, telophase, interphase, anaphase

multiple origins of replication in the DNA molecules of eukaryotic cells serve to... a) shorten the time necessary for DNA replication b) provide a place for RNA polymerase to attach to the DNA c) remove errors that occur during DNA replication d) create multiple copies of the DNA molecule at the same time e) assure the correct orientation of the two strands in the newly growing double helix

a) shorten the time necessary for DNA replication

suppose a eukaryotic cell has a nuclear envelope that allows tRNA molecules, but not mRNA molecules, to leave the nucleus. Which of the following processes will not be able to take place in this cell? a) tRNA's binding to codons b) RNA processing and splicing c) RNA being made from DNA d) DNA replication e) tRNA's binding to amino acids

a) tRNA's binding to codons

Which of the following statements about the human immunodeficiency virus is false or incorrect a) the host cells for HIV are red blood cells b) some people are resistant to HIV c) HIV is an example of an enveloped virus d) the genetic material inHIV is RNA e) HIV reverse transcriptase makes DNA

a) the host cells for HIV are red blood cells

the situation or condition where the cells of a person have one X chromosome and no Y chromosome is best or correctly known as a) turner syndrome b) sex-linked inheritance c) klinefelter syndrome d) down syndrome e) independent assortment

a) turner syndrome

If the diagram below represents transcription which letter, A - E, represents the 3' end of the template strand? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

b) B

Is the diagram below represents transcription which letter represents the three prime and the template strand? a) A b) b c) c d) d e) e

b) B

Which of the following statements are characteristics is not a stipulation of Watson and crick model for DNA? a) the two strands of nucleotides in DNA are anti-parallel. b) DNA is always replicated in the 5' to 3' direction. c) A always pairs with T and C always pairs with G. d) The sugar phosphate backbone of DNA is on the outside of the molecule. e) There are 28 bonds between A and T, and 3 H-bonds between C and G

b) DNA is always replicated in the 5' to 3' direction.

which of the following enzymes involved in DNA replication is incorrectly matched with its description or function? a) helicase: uncoils and separates the two unreplicated strands of DNA b) DNA ligase: cuts lagging DNA into smaller fragments so that they can easily be replicated c) RNA polymerase: synthesizes a short RNA primer so that DNA polymerase can continue with DNA replication d) DNA polymerase III: the main enzyme that synthesizes complementary DNA while proof-reading and repairing it e) DNA polymerase I: replaces the RNA primer with DNA

b) DNA ligase: cuts lagging DNA into smaller fragments so that they can easily be replicated

Which of the following statements about Gregor Mendel is false? a) he intentionally studied seven different traits that were eventually found to be on seven different chromosomes. b) He coined the term gene as a name for his heritable particles. c) He is both a devout or religious monk and a scientist. d) He formulated what became known as the law of independent assortment. e) He was a skilled breeder of pea plants

b) He coined the term gene as a name for his heritable particles.

Which of the following enzymes involved in DNA replication is incorrectly matched with its description or function? a) DNA polymerase I: replaces the RNA primer with DNA b) Helicase: converts single-stranded DNA back into double stranded helical DNA c) RNA polymerase: synthesize a short RNA primer so that DNA polymerase can continue with DNA replication d) DNA ligase: joins Okazaki fragments together so that they are one continuous strand e) DNA polymerase III: I mean is I am that synthesizes complementary DNA well proofreading and repairing it

b) Helicase: converts single-stranded DNA back into double stranded helical DNA

Which of the following statements describing autosomal recessive disorders is false? a) two affected parents will always have affected children. b) Heterozygote children will only be moderately or partly be affected. c) Males and females are equally affected by this order. d) inbreeding families are more likely to have children affected by the disorder. e) An effective child can/will often have normal parents

b) Heterozygote children will only be moderately or partly be affected.

Which of the following terms or phrases below is correctly defined? a) reciprocal cross: a breeding experiment where homozygous dominant parent is crossed with a homozygous recessive parent. b) Incomplete dominance: the situation where the entire F1 generation of a cross has a phenotype that is roughly halfway between the two parent phenotypes. c) Pleiotropy: a pattern of inheritance where a single trait is controlled by more than one gene d) x-linked inheritance: a pattern of inheritance that is linked to the sex of the offspring e) true-breeding population: a group of organisms whose traits converge on the optimum genetic combination during evolution

b) Incomplete dominance: the situation where the entire F1 generation of a cross has a phenotype that is roughly halfway between the two parent phenotypes.

Which is the following statements regarding genetic testing is false? a) genetic testing me some daily to discrimination. b) Most human genetic diseases are treatable is caught early. c) The screening of newborns can catch inherited disorders right after birth. d) Carrier testing helps determine whether a person carries potentially harmful disorder. e) Genetic testing before birth requires a collection of fetal cells.

b) Most human genetic diseases are treatable is caught early.

Polygenic traits that are affected by the environment known as ____ traits a) multiple allelic. b) Multi factorial. c) Pleiotropic. d) Blended. e_) inconsistent.

b) Multi factorial.

The outward physical display at the genetic trait by an organism is referred to as it's a) prototype. b) Phenotype. c) Karyotype. d) Gametotype. e) Genotype

b) Phenotype.

a pattern of inheritance where a genetic defect or disease occurs more frequently in males than females is best (or more correctly) known as ____ inheritance a) male-linked b) X-linked c) gender-specified d) incomplete e) Y-linked

b) X-linked

which of the following scenarios best serves as a line of evidence indicating that the "blending concept" of inheritance is not the correct explanation for how traits (e.g. dominant red vs recessive white flowers) are passed from one generation to the next? a) a cross btwn plants with white flowers almost always yields plants with white flowers, but occassionally pink b) cross btwn plants with pink yields offspring with red, pink, and white c) a cross btwn plants with red always yield red d) a cross btwn red and white always yield all white e) cross btwn red and white always yield pink

b) cross btwn plants with pink yields offspring with red, pink, and white

Which of the following human traits or conditions is controlled by recessive gene? a) achondroplasia b) cystic fibrosis c) freckles d) curly hair e) polydactyly

b) cystic fibrosis

Which of the following statements describing codons of the genetic code is false or incorrect? a) it takes three sequential bases of mRNA to make up a single codon b) each amino acid can have only one codon c) there are a total of three "stop" codons, but only one "start" codon d) there are a total of 64 possible codons, but only 61 specify amino acids e) none of the above (i.e. all are true)

b) each amino acid can have only one codon

which of the following comparisons between prokaryotic vs. eukaryotic chromosomes is false (or incorrect)? a) replication of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA/chromosomes occur in two directions away from the replication bubble b) eukaryotic chromosomes have operons while prokaryotic chromosomes have introns and exons c) prokaryotic chromosomes have only one origin of replication; while eukaryotic chromosomes have many origins of replication d) prokaryotic chromosomes are circular; while eukaryotic chromosomes are linear e) eukaryotic chromosomes are made up mostly of "junk" or non-coding DNA; while prokaryotic chromosomes are made up mostly of structural or coding DNA

b) eukaryotic chromosomes have operons while prokaryotic chromosomes have introns and exons

Cancer cells or tumors exhibit all of the following traits or characteristics except that they... a) fail to exhibit apoptosis b) fail to undergo angiogenesis c) have abnormal nuclei d) fail to exhibit contact inhibition e) lack differentiation or specialization

b) fail to undergo angiogenesis

In humans, males are XY and females are XX. however and Bees and ants, males are ___ and females are ___ a) diploid;haploid b) haploid;diploid c) ZZ;ZW d) XO; XX e) dominant recessive

b) haploid;diploid

Bt toxin is toxic because it... a) blocks photosynthesis electron transport b) interferes with digestion and absorption c) inhibits DNA replication d) blocks respiratory electron transport e) inhibits synthesis of certain amino acids

b) interferes with digestion and absorption

which male (a-d) if any, in the hypothetical paternity test illustrated below is the most likely father of the child? a) male A b) male B c) male C d) male D e) none

b) male B

No I'm gonna leave a virus is made up of at least ___and ____ a) protein and carbohydrate b) nucleic acid and protein c) protein and dna d) DNA and RNA e) sulfur and phosphorous

b) nucleic acid and protein

The diagram below best represents a a) spliceosome b) nucleosome c) chromosome d) ribosome e) dictyosome

b) nucleosome

Which of the following genetic structure is most important in order to initiate transcription? a) AUG codon b) promoter c) origin of replication d) 5' cap e) poly A tail

b) promoter

Which of the following correctly represents a form of RNA processing? a) the removal of the DNA primer b) the addition of a poly A tail c) the addition of start and stop codons to the transcript d) the removal of the 5' e) the insertion of introns in between exons

b) the addition of a poly A tail

The protocell is most likely a fermentor mainly because... a) the protocell did not have any enzymes b) the atmosphere did not have any oxygen c) fermentation provides the most energy d) ATP had not yet "evolved" e) ethanol was abundant on early earth

b) the atmosphere did not have any oxygen

Scientists have discovered how to put together a bacteriophage with the protein coat of phage T2 and the DNA of phage lambda. If this composite phage was allowed to infect a bacterium, the phages produced in the host cell would have... a) the protein of phage lambda and the DNA of Phage T2 b) the protein and DNA of phage lambda c) a mixture of proteins and DNA of both phages d) the protein and DNA of phage T2 e) the protein of Phage t2 and the DNA of phage lambda

b) the protein and DNA of phage lambda

what is the probability of getting a heterozygous dominant offspring in a monohybrid cross? a) 0% b) 25% c) 50% d) 75% e) 100%

c) 50%

Theoretically how many different types of gametes can be produced by an F1 parent organism that has three pairs of alleles on three separate chromosomes? A) 2 b) 3 c) 8 d) 9 e) 16

c) 8

What exactly happens during termination of translation? a) RNA polymerase reaches the poly a tail which causes RNA synthesis to stop and protein synthesis to immediately begin b) the poly A tail is attached to the mRNA causing the transcript to leave the nucleus c) A release factor binds to a stop codon in the a site causing the entire complex to dissociate or fall apart. d) their application bubbles merge and or DNA polymerase runs off the end of the DNA molecule. e) The large and small subunit of the ribosome attach the five prime end of the mRNA molecule

c) A release factor binds to a stop codon in the a site causing the entire complex to dissociate or fall apart.

Which of the following genetically modified organisms is incorrectly matched with a trait for which it is being engineered? a) AquaAdvantage salmon: faster growth for earlier harvest in marketing b) Laurical: a source of the main raw material to make soaps, shampoos and detergents c) Biopharming dairy cattle: more nutritious and larger amounts of milk earlier in life d) Xenotransplant pigs: a source of organs for transport into humans e) Goldent rice: a rich source of pro vitamin a for Third World developing countries

c) Biopharming dairy cattle: more nutritious and larger amounts of milk earlier in life

Which of the following answer choices list the structures of a eukaryotic in order from least super coil to most super coiled? a) nucleosome, euchromatin, DNA, heterochromatin, metaphase chromosome. b) DNA, heterochromatin, euchromatin, nucleosome, metaphase chromosome. c) DNA, nucleosome, euchromatin, heterochromatin, metaphase chromosome. d) Euchromatin, heterochromatin, DNA, metaphase chromosome, nucleus zone. e) Heterochromatin, euchromatin, DNA, nucleosome, metaphase chromosome

c) DNA, nucleosome, euchromatin, heterochromatin, metaphase chromosome.

Which scientist is/are incorrectly matched with his/her/their contribution to DNA science? a) Watson and crick: discovered/provided the correct structure for DNA. b) Franklin and Wilkins: performed x-ray crystallography studies of DNA. c) Erwin Chargaff: prove that DNA was made up of equal amounts of four different nucleotides. d) Oswald Avery: prove that DNA had to be genetic material e) Phoebus Levene: concluded that DNA was too simple to be the genetic material

c) Erwin Chargaff: prove that DNA was made up of equal amounts of four different nucleotides.

Which term or phrase is incorrectly matched with its description or role in molecular genetics of biotechnology? a) Glysophate: an herbicide that kills all normal plants b) Point mutation: a mutation involving or changing a single base pair in a gene c) Green fluorescent protein: the firefly enzyme used to remove foreign genes from a recombinant genome d) Spliceosome: a complex that joins together after it removes introns e) cytochrome c: a protein whose amino acid sequence is/has been used to study evolutionary relationships between different species

c) Green fluorescent protein: the firefly enzyme used to remove foreign genes from a recombinant genome

Which of the following terms or phrases is incorrectly defined or described? a) stem cell: an unspecialized cell that is capable of prolonged cell division, but eventually becomes specialized b) malignant tumor: a tumor that can or has spread it to other locations. c) Pap test: a test that determines whether or not all homologous chromosomes are present in the cellar individual. d) Hayflick's limit: the theoretical maximum number of time to sell or so lion king divide. e) Reductive division: a cell nuclear division a diploid cells give rise to haploid cells

c) Pap test: a test that determines whether or not all homologous chromosomes are present in the cellar individual.

A karyotype is most like... a) an alphabetical list of August at a birthday party. b) A movie showing the stages of the reproductive cycle of a beetle. c) Photographs of every couple of high school prom. d) A map showing the hidden location of a buried treasure. e) The answer key to a multiple-choice exam.

c) Photographs of every couple of high school prom.

Which of the following terms correctly defined are described? a) Z -W system: the sex determining system and sex like grasshoppers and roaches b) heterozygous: a genetic condition where an individual has more than one gene that controls a specific trait c) Pleiotropy: a pattern of inheritance where single gene affects many phenotype and characteristics d) phenotype: a list of all of the dominant and recessive chromosomes contain in the e) none of the above (i.e. all terms are in correctly defined or described)

c) Pleiotropy: a pattern of inheritance where single gene affects many phenotype and characteristics

Illustrated below is a punnett square that can be used to study a dihybrid cross between pea plants with purple (P) and axial flowers (A). answer the next few questions based on your knowledge of the mendelian genetics of pea and the use of Punnet squares What would be the most abundant genotype in the offspring resulting from the above dihybrid cross? a) PPAA b) PPaa c) PpAa d) ppAa e) ppaa

c) PpAa

Which of the following comparisons between prokaryotic versus eukaryotic chromosomes and replication is incorrect or false? a) prokaryotic chromosomes are circular all eukaryotic chromosomes are linear. b) Prokaryotic chromosomes have only one origin of replication while eukaryotic chromosomes have many origins of replication. c) Replication of prokaryotic DNA/chromosomes occurs in only One Direction while replication of eukaryotic DNA/chromosomes occurs in two directions. d) Eukaryotic chromosomes have telomeres while prokaryotic chromosomes dont. e) Eukaryotic chromosomes and prokaryotic chromosomes are both made up of proteins and DNA

c) Replication of prokaryotic DNA/chromosomes occurs in only One Direction while replication of eukaryotic DNA/chromosomes occurs in two directions.

A test cross is most useful in determining... a) the phenotype of an individual that displays the recessive genotype. b) The number of alleles an individual has forgiven trait. c) The genotype of an individual that displays a dominant phenotype. d) The number of generations required to arrive at a specific phenotypic ratio. e) whether or not recombination has occurred during sexual reproduction

c) The genotype of an individual that displays a dominant phenotype

If the sequence of bases in the coding strand of DNA is TAGC, the corresponding sequence of bases in the mRNA will be... a) AUCG b) TAGC c) UAGC d) CGAU e) UTCG

c) UAGC

which of the types of cells i considered to be the best (or most versatile) for basic reproductive or therapeutic scientific research in human biology? a) an enucleated egg cell b) a mutated germ cell c) an embryonic stem cell d) a totipotent gamete cell e) a nucleated somatic cell

c) an embryonic stem cell

which of the following statements about apoptosis is false? a) failure to pass a cell cycle checkpoint normally results in apoptosis b) cancer cells do not normally undergo apoptosis c) apoptosis is normally followed by karyokinesis d) apoptosis occurs in both plant and animal cells e) the plant vacuole functions in apoptosis

c) apoptosis is normally followed by karyokinesis

cytochalasin B is a chemical that disrupts actin filament formation. This chemical would most likely interfere with... a) DNA replicaioon b) crossing over c) cell cleavage d) formation of the mitotic spindle e) formation of the cell plate

c) cell cleavage

which of the following chemical substances is least likely to be produced in commercial or industrial fermentation processes? a) insulin b) acetone c) cellulose d) citric acid e) penicillin

c) cellulose

a true or correct difference between classical biotech vs modern biotech is that... a) classical biology involves the creation of genetically modified plants; while modern biotech involves the creation of genetically modified animals b) classical biotech serves no real benefit to mankind; modern biotech results in a major benefit to mankind c) classical biotech uses normal living organisms for the benefit of mankind; modern biotech uses genetically modified organisms for the benefit of mankind d) classical biotech involves mainly the agricultural production of plants and animals for the benefit of mankind; modern biotech involves mainly the growth of microbes in fermentation cultures for the benefit of mankind e) classical biotech involves the manipulation of an organism's chromosomes; while modern biotech involves the manipulation of an organism's individual genes

c) classical biotech uses normal living organisms for the benefit of mankind; modern biotech uses genetically modified organisms for the benefit of mankind

Which of the diagrams, A-D, given below best represents the structure and/or function of a ribosome? a) diagram A b) diagram B c) diagram c d) diagram D e) diagram e

c) diagram c

which of the following comparisons between the lac operon and the trp operon is false or incorrect? a) the lac operon is an example of an inducible operon; while the trp operon is an example of a repressible operon b) the lac operon codes for an active repressor, while the trp operon codes for an inactive repressor c) expression of the lac operon promotes the synthesis of lactose, while expression of the trp operon promotes the uptake and breakdown of tryptophan d) both the lac operon and the trp operon have been studied and characterized by e.coli e) the lac operon regulates the expression of three structural genes, while the trp operon regulates the expression of five structural genes

c) expression of the lac operon promotes the synthesis of lactose, while expression of the trp operon promotes the uptake and breakdown of tryptophan

Which of the following treatments to the structure shown below will lead to gene activation? a) DNA methylation b) proteolytic cleavage c) histone acetylation d) heterochromatin synthesis e) protein phosphorylation

c) histone acetylation

accidental or uncontrolled cell death is best referred to as a) apoptosis b) phagocytosis c) necrosis d) cytokinesis e) synapsis

c) necrosis

Which of the following terms is correctly defined or described? a) plasmid: a virus that infects bacteria b) viroid: a virus that has lost its nucleic acid and is no longer infectious c) prion: an infectious protein vertical associated with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease d) transduction: the uptake of foreign DNA from the environment by bacteria e) prophage: a phage Cyrus capsule that has not yet received its nucleic acid

c) prion: an infectious protein vertical associated with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

crossing over is best defined as a) chromatids of homologous chromosomes fail to separate during abnormal meiosis b) a single chromosome crosses over from one side of the cell to the other during abnormal meiosis c) segments of non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes exchange during meiosis d) homologous chromosomes move past each other in opposite directions during meiosis e) segments of non-homologous chromosomes exchange during prophase I of meiosis

c) segments of non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes exchange during meiosis

Which bases found in DNA but not in RNA? a) guanine b) uracil c) thymine d) cytosine e) adenine

c) thymine

Whether an allele is dominant or recessive depends on... a) how common the allele is relative to other alleles b) whether it is inherited from the mother or the father c) whether it or another allele determines the phenotype and both are present d) which chromosome it is on e) whether or not is linked to other genes

c) whether it or another allele determines the phenotype and both are present

The best (or most likely) explanation for why Mendel did not perform (or publish) breeding experiments dealing with the yield of peas (e.g. numbers or weights of seeds per plant) is that... a) none of the above is a good or likely explanation for why he chose not to work with yield b) Mendel didn't have a statistically significant way to accurately measure the numbers or weights of seeds produced by his pea plants c) yield is a multi factorial trait that did not fit any of his patterns of inheritance or laws d) each of his lines of pea plants consistently produce the same numbers or weights of seeds after every crossed that he tried e) high yield vs. low yield represents an 8th pair of traits, but pea only has 7 pairs of chromosomes

c) yield is a multi factorial trait that did not fit any of his patterns of inheritance or laws

Which of the following is considered to be a form of mRNA processing? a) Addition to 5' cap b) addition of a poly A tail c) excision of introns d) All of the above e) none of the above

d) All of the above

Which of the following was the most important of chargaff's rules? a) each species has its own distinctive base composition. b) In any given species nucleotides are always made up of what nitrogenous base on ribose sugar and one phosphate. c) Human DNA is always comprise of approximately 31% each of Aa and T and 19% each of C and G. d) And then he given species amount of A always equals the amount of T and C always pairs with G. e) DNA is made up of four different nucleotides or bases

d) And then he given species amount of A always equals the amount of T and C always pairs with G.

Recombination frequency is best or correctly used to ... a) predict the number of combinations of gametes an individual can reduce meiosis. b) Predict the phenotypic ratio in the offspring resulting from a poly hybrid cross. c) Estimate the total number of jeans on each of the chromosomes of an organism. d) Estimate the relative distance between two different genes on the same chromosome. e) Determine the number of times crossing over can occur between a single pair of homologous chromosomes

d) Estimate the relative distance between two different genes on the same chromosome.

Transcription factors are best defined for described as a) RNA molecules that regulate gene expression in prokaryotes. b) Cofactors required for ribosome assembly in eukaryotes. c) Enzymes that proof-read incorrect basically it says an mRNA molecules. d) Proteins that turn genes on or off by binding to DNA. e) Copies of nonfunctional genes interfere with normal gene function.

d) Proteins that turn genes on or off by binding to DNA.

The following scientists incorrectly matched with its contribution genetics? a) Phoebus Levene: proposed the tetranucleotide hypothesis. b) Walter Sutton: propose the chromosome theory of inheritance. c) Gregor Mendel: propose the particular theory of inheritance. d) Thomas Morgan: propose the blending concept of inheritance. e) Hippocrates: proposed the concept of pangenesis

d) Thomas Morgan: propose the blending concept of inheritance.

which diagram (A-E) best is correctly associated with its function or description a) diagram A = conjugation in bacteria b) diagram B = RNA processing in prokaryotes c) diagram C = crossing over in viruses d) diagram D = eukaryotic transcription initiation e) diagram E = post-translational covalent modification

d) diagram D = eukaryotic transcription initiation

meiosis in human female begins a) at puberty b) at birth c) during ovulation d) during fetal development e) at 35

d) during fetal development

the type of recombinant bacteria most often used to mass-produce genes is ___ a) Bacillus thuringiensis b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae c) pseudomonas aeruginosa d) escherichia coli e) pennicillium notatum

d) escherichia coli

Which of the following enzymes incorrectly matched with its role in DNA replication? a) DNA polymerase I: replaces RNA primer DNA. B) DNA polymerase II: synthesize complementary DNA from 5' to 3' direction. c) RNA polymerase: synthesizes RNA primer d) helicase: recoil DNA back into a double helix after replication. e) DNA ligase: joints get discontinuous fragments of DNA together

d) helicase: recoil DNA back into a double helix after replication.

A genetic cross between red snapdragons and white snapdragons that yields only pink snap dragons in the F1 generation is best or correctly referred to as an example of a) Multi factorial dominance b) polygenic inheritance c) phenotypic variance d) incomplete dominance e) blended inheritance

d) incomplete dominance

which of the following is the most likely explanation for why Mendel chose to work with only seven specific pairs of traits in pea? a) only seven specific genes in peas were known at the time he did his studies b) mendel only had access to seven different varieties of true-breeding peas c) pea plants can only produce a max of seven different types of gametes d) peas only have seven pairs of homologous chromosomes e) these were the only traits that were linked to a single chromosome

d) peas only have seven pairs of homologous chromosomes

A geneticist found that a particular mutation had no effect on the polypeptide included by the gene. This mutation probably involved... a) alteration of the start codon b) insertion of one nucleotide c) deletion of one nucleotide d) substitution of one nucleotide e) deletion of the entire gene

d) substitution of one nucleotide

which of the following is least likely to be an application of reproductive cloning in today's society? a) the cloning of human embryonic stem cells for medical purposes b) the cloning of your favorite pet once it passes away c) the cloning of endangered wildlife to increase existing populations d) the cloning of humans without brains as a source of organs for donations e) the cloning of pigs as a source of donor organs for human transplant

d) the cloning of humans without brains as a source of organs for donations

the DNA profiles used as evidence in a murder trial look something like a supermarket bar code. The pattern of bars in DNA profiles shows... a) the order of genes alone a particular chromosome b) the order of bases in a particular gene c) the exact location of a specific gene in a genomic library d) the presence of various-sized fragments of DNA e) the presence of dominant or recessive alleles for particular traits

d) the presence of various-sized fragments of DNA

Illustrated below is a punnett square that can be used to study a dihybrid cross between pea plants with purple (P) and axial flowers (A). answer the next few questions based on your knowledge of the mendelian genetics of pea and the use of Punnet squares What would be the least abundant flower phenotype in the offspring resulting from the above dihybrid cross? a) purple, axial b) purple, terminal c) white, axial d) white, terminal e) all are equally abundant

d) white, terminal

A man with type B blood and a woman who has type A blood could have children of which of the following phenotypes? a) A or B only b) AB only c) AB or O d) A,B, or O e) A, B, AB, or O

e) A, B, AB, or O

Which of the following statements describing the genetic code is incorrect? a) each codon can specify up to six different amino acids. b) Three sequential braces of mRNA in the 3' to 5' direction make up a codon c) They're only 61 possible codons. d) A given amino acid has only one codon e) All of the above are incorrect.

e) All of the above are incorrect.

Single-strand DNA binding proteins functions to... a) promote the separation of double stranded DNA to single strands. b) Keep single-stranded DNA from reforming double-stranded DNA. c) Mark the beginning and end of a gene on a single strand of DNA. d) Protect single-stranded DNA from degradation by nucleus is. e) Both b and d

e) Both b and d

In genetics a Testcross is used to determine a) determine the phenotype of an individual showing the recessive character for a given gene b) whether or not the environment has an affect on the expression of a gene c) how many genes control a specific trait d) whether a specific trait is dominant or recessive e) the genotype of an individual (or true-breeding population) showing a dominant phenotype

e) The genotype of an individual (or true-breeding population) showing a dominant phenotype

Which of the following codons incorrectly matched with its genetic meaning? a) AUG - start b) AUG - methionine (met) c) UAA - stop d) UUU - Phenylalanine (Phe) e) UAG - Luecine (Leu)

e) UAG - Luecine (Leu)

which of the following statements describing the genetic code is false? a) each codon can specify up to six different amino acids b) there are only 61 possible codons c) each amino acid has only one codon d) three sequential bases of mRNA (in the 3' to 5' direction) make up a codon e) all of the above are incorrect

e) all of the above are incorrect

DNA nucleotide similarities between organisms... a) indicate the degree of relatedness among organisms b) may reflect or explain phenotypic similarities between organisms c) are to be expected if the organisms are related due to common ancestry d) are reflected mainly in similarities of base sequences e) all of these are correct

e) all of these are correct

Jessie Gelsinger accidentally died as a result of... a) an overdose of the first recombinant humulin b) a spontaneous point mutation in his hemoglobin gene c) an allergic reaction to green fluorescent protein d) eating a toxic genetically modified food product e) an unsuccessful clinical trail of gene therapy

e) an unsuccessful clinical trail of gene therapy

why does single stranded binding protein attach to DNA during replication? a) to serve as a marker or attachment site for RNA polymerase b) to protect single-stranded DNA from nuclease degradation c) to prevent the two strands of DNA from base pairing back together d) to mark the beginning and ends of each okazaki fragament e) both b and c

e) both b and c

The control of gene expression is more complex in the multicellular eukaryotes than in prokaryotes because ... a) eukaryotic genes code for proteins b) prokaryotes are restricted to stable environments c) eukaryotic cells are much smaller than prokaryotic cells d) eukaryotes have fewer genes, so each gene must do several jobs e) in a multicellular eukaryote, different cells are specialized for different functions

e) in a multicellular eukaryote, different cells are specialized for different functions

Mendel's law of independent assortment correctly applies to or is enforced during... a) metaphase two of meiosis b) anaphase of mitosis c) metaphase of mitosis d) anaphase 2 of meiosis e) metaphase one of meiosis

e) metaphase one of meiosis

Which of the following experimental results correctly enabled Hershey and chase to conclude that DNA and not protein what is the genetic material? a) the DNA from phage viruses was not destroyed by treatment with protease b) Radioactivity from 35^S-labeled viruses was recovered in bacterial cells c) he killed phage viruses could still infect bacteria cells d) phage viruses were made out of radioactive proteins and radioactive nucleic ac e) radioactivity from 32^ P- labeled viruses was recovered in bacterial cells

e) radioactivity from 32^ P- labeled viruses was recovered in bacterial cells

in genetics, the opposite of "dominant" is ___ a) minor b) heterozygous c) pleiotropic d) co-dominant e) recessive

e) recessive

Color blindness and hemophilia are both good examples of a) polygenic inheritance b) multifactorial traits c) incomplete dominance d) autosomal conditions e) se(x) linked disorders

e) se(x) linked disorders

Amniocentesis is best or correctly defined as... a) the pattern of inheritance with the offspring receive abnormal chromosomes from one or both of the parents b) the process whereby sex chromosome segregate to form the sex determining gametes produced during meiosis in the human male c) the use of ultrasound to create an anatomical image of the developing fetus d) the process whereby abnormal zygote from a genetic cross failed to correctly develop e) the sampling of the bathing fluid around an unborn fetus to determine if it has any genetic defects

e) the sampling of the bathing fluid around an unborn fetus to determine if it has any genetic defects

Which of the following statements is not a stipulation of Mendels law of segregation? a) each organism contains two factors for each trait. b) The two factors for given trait separate during the formation of gametes. c) Each gamete contains only one factor from each original pair of factors. d) Fertilization gives each new individual two factors for each trait. e) the two factors for a given trait are always inherited independently from each other

e) the two factors for a given trait are always inherited independently from each other

Varieties of plants in which cell fertilization consistently produces offspring that are identical to the parents or referred to a a) F2 generation plants b) monohybrid plants c). uni-sexual plants d) dihybrid plants e) true-breeding plants

e) true-breeding plants

what would happen to a person wtih type A blood if he received type B blood from a donor? a) both type A and B blood cells would lyse, resulting in severe anemia b) the type A cells would hybridize with the type B cells to form type AB cells c) nothing - type B blood cells are compatible in recipients with type A blood d) all of the type B blood cells would form sickled shapes and then be destroyed by his immune system e) type B antibodies would cause the type B blood cells to clump together and form clots that would plug the tiny arteries and veins in his body

e) type B antibodies would cause the type B blood cells to clump together and form clots that would plug the tiny arteries and veins in his body

normally, when two different genes are located on the same chromosome, they are said to be a) diploid b) linked c) co-dominant d) alleles e) homologous

linked

which of the following about the structure of DNA is true a) two strands of DNA are held by covalent bonds b) two strands of DNA are arranged in a parallel manner c) in DNA, a purine in one strand always pairs with an adenine or guanine in the other strand d) the diameter of a DNA molecule alternates between 2.4 nm and 3.4 nm e) all are false; none of the above

none of the above

the first organism ever "cloned" was a ____

sheep

down syndrome is a genetic disorder in which

trisomy 21