Biology Final

Question 12 Match the term to the correct body part.

1. #1 --> :e. 2. #2 --> l. thymus gland 3. #3 --> p. heart 4. #4 --> k. gall bladder 5. #5 --> d. pancreas 6. #6 --> m. kidney 7. #7 --> b. rectum 8. #8 --> f. trachea 9. #9 --> n. thyroid 10. #10 --> i. lung 11. #11 --> :a. diaphragm 12. #12 --> j. liver 13. #13 --> g. stomach 14. #14 --> :c. spleen 15. #15 --> :h. large intestine 16. #16 --> o. bladder

Question 13 Match the term with the correct part of the circulatory system.

1. #1 --> e. right atriumT 2. #2 --> c. right ventricle 3. #3 --> a. coronary artery 4. #4 --> b. left atrium 5. #5 --> d. left ventricle

Question 11 Match the term with the correct structure. You don't have to identify #11.

1. #1 --> h. nasopharynx 2. #2 --> j. esophagus 3. #3 --> c. trachea 4. #4 --> a. epiglottis 5. #5 --> e. papillae 6. #6 --> b. tongue 7. #7 --> i. soft palate 8. #8 --> g. hard palate 9. #9 --> f. canine 10. #10 --> d. incisor

Question 17 Match the term with the correct structure.

1. #1 b. --> Nasopharynx 2. #2 c. --> Esophagus 3. #3 --> d. Trachea 4. #4 --> a. Epiglottis

Question 12 Analyze the concept map below and match the terms into the correct box.

1. Box (a) --> f. Genetic Drift 2. Box (b) --> c. Gene Flow 3. Box (c) --> a. Natural Selection 4. Box (d) --> g. Small Population 5. Box (e) --> e. Founder Effect 6. Box (f) --> b. Bottleneck Effect 7. Box (g) --> d. Differential Reproductive Success

Question 26 In the concept map below, match the term with the correct box.

1. Box (a) --> h. nucleotides 2. Box (b)--> b. transcription 3. Box (c) --> c. RNA polymerase 4. Box (d) --> i mRNA 5. Box (e) --> d. rRNA 6. Box (f) --> e. tRNAT 7. Box (g) --> f. translation 8. Box (h) --> g. ribosomes 9. Box (i) --> a. amino acids

Question 1 Analyze the concept map below and match the terms with the correct box.

1. Box (a)Selected:a. proto-oncogeneThis answer is correct.The correct answer is:proto-oncogene2. Box (b)Selected:b. operatorThis answer is incorrect.The correct answer is:repressor (or activator)3. Box (c)Selected:f. cancerThis answer is correct.The correct answer is:cancer4. Box (d)Selected:d. repressor (or activator)This answer is incorrect.The correct answer is:operator5. Box (e)Selected:c. X inactivationThis answer is correct.The correct answer is:X inactivation6. Box (f)Selected:g. transcription factorsThis answer is correct.The correct answer is:transcription factors7. Box (g)Selected:e. alternative RNA splicingThis answer is correct.The correct answer is:alternative RNA splicing

Question 2 Match the correct terms in the boxes of the concept map below.

1. Box a --> e. Hybrid Zone 2. Box b --> c. Reinforcement 3. Box c --> d. Fusion 4. Box d --> b. Stability 5. Box e --> :f. Strengthened 6. Box f --> a. Eliminated

Question 15 Analyze the concept map below and match the term with the correct box.

1. Box a --> f. alleles 2. Box b --> e. lociT 3. Box c --> c. homozygous 4. Box d. --> d. dominant 5. Box e --> a. recessive 6. Box f --> b. incomplete dominance

Question 4 Often gene expression is controlled at the transcription step, but in eukaryotes, gene expression is also regulated after transcription of genes into mRNA and during and after translation of mRNA into protein. Match each process below with the correct description.

1. First step in RNA splicing --> f. Removal of noncoding introns from RNA 2. Second step in RNA splicing --> c. Joining of exons to produce mRNA 3. Alternative RNA splicing --> g. Joining exons in different ways to produce more than one kind of mRNA (and polypeptide) from a single gene 4. RNA interference --> b.Binding of microRNA (miRNA) to mRNA, blocking translation 5. Selective breakdown of mRNA --> e. Retaining or destroying mRNA molecules, controlling how much they are translated 6. Control of initiation of translation --> d. Action of proteins that may control the start of protein synthesis 7. Activation of finished protein --> h. Altering a protein to form an active final product 8. Selective breakdown of proteins --> a. Retaining or destroying proteins, depending on cell's needs

Question 3 Match each example with a specific type of reproductive barrier.

1. The salamanders Ambystoma tigrinum and A. maculatum breed in the same areas. A. tigrinum mates from late February through March. A. maculatum does not start mating until late March or early April. --> a. temporal isolation 2. Two species of mice are mated in the lab and produce fertile hybrid offspring, but offspring of the hybrids are sterile. --> f. hybrid breakdown 3. When fruit flies of two particular species are crossed in the lab, their offspring are unable to produce eggs and sperm. --> e. reduced hybrid fertility 4. A zoologist observed two beetles of different species that were trying to mate with little success because they apparently did not "fit" each other. --> g. mechanical isolation 5. Male fiddler crabs (genus Uca) wave their large claws to attract the attention of females. Each species has a slightly different wave. --> c. behavioral isolation 6. When different species of tobacco plants are crossed in a greenhouse, the pollen tubes usually burst before the eggs are fertilized. --> d. gametic isolation 7. Blackjack oak (Quercus marilandica) growns in dry woodlands, and scrub oak (Q. ilicifolia) growns in dry, rocky, open areas. Pollen of one species seldom pollinates the other. --> b. habitat isolation 8. The tiglon offspring of a lion and tiger are often weak and unhealthy. --> h. reduced hybrid viability

Question 8 Match each of the descriptions with a species concept.

1. The smallest group that shares a common ancestor; one branch on the tree of life. --> c. Phylogenetic species concept 2. Body form; shape, size, and other features; what the organism looks like. --> b.Morphological species concept 3. Populations whose members can interbreed in nature and produce fertile offspring. --> a. Biological species concept 4. Organisms with particular niches or roles in the biological community. --> d. Ecological species concept

Question 11 Directions: Match each vocabulary term to its correct definition.

1. evolution --> b. change in allele frequency over time 2. natural selection--> d. the mechanism of evolution wherein traits beneficial to survival become common over time in populations 3. environmental pressure -->a. natural factor that dictates which variations of a trait are beneficial or detrimental in a certain environment 4. adaptation --> c. beneficial version of a trait that increases survival 5. biological fitness --> e. ability to leave behind offspring that are fertile

Question 10 Cloning demonstrates that differentiated cells retain all of their genetic potential. Stem cells of embryos and adults are able to differentiate into many kinds of cells, which are useful for reproduction and treating disease. Match each phrase with the correct term.

1.Partially differentiated cells present in mature animals --> Adult stem cells 2. Producing genetically identical organisms for agriculture, research, or saving endangered species --> Reproductive cloning 3. Naturally occurring animal or human clones --> Identical twins 4. Cells that give rise to all specialized cells in the body --> Embryonic stem cells 5. Regrowth of lost body parts --> Regeneration 6. The process of cell specialization --> Differentiation 7. Ability of adult cell to reverse specialization --> Dedifferentiation 8. Growing cells for replacement or repair of damaged or diseased organs --> Therapeutic cloning 9. Dolly the sheep --> Clone 10. Replacing the nucleus of an egg or zygote with a nucleus from a differentiated cell --> Nuclear transplantation

Question 24 Population ecology is the study of how and why populations change. True False

True

Question 10 Two spotted chickens (BW) were crossed. What is the probability they would have a black chicken? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100%

a. 25%

Question 1 Which of the following terms represents the frequency of heterozygotes in a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? a. 2pq b. p c. q2 d. q

a. 2pq

Question 9 You're a professional guinea pig breeder investigating fur color and roughness. The dominant allele for black fur is "B" and the recessive allele for white fur is "b". The dominant allele for rough fur is "R" and the recessive allele for smooth fur is "r". You perform a dihybrid cross with both parents being heterozygous for both alleles. What is the probability of producing a guinea pig with white, rough fur? a. 3/16 b. 1/16 c. 0/16 d. 9/16

a. 3/16

Question 4 Which of the following is not a key point to Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection? a. Acquired characteristics can be passed on to offspring. b. Individuals do not evolve: populations evolve. c. Evolution is not goal directed and does not lead to perfection. d. Natural selection can amplify or diminish only heritable traits.

a. Acquired characteristics can be passed on to offspring.

Question 7 You're a professional guinea pig breeder investigating fur color and roughness. The dominant allele for black fur is "B" and the recessive allele for white fur is "b". The dominant allele for rough fur is "R" and the recessive allele for smooth fur is "r". You perform a dihybrid cross with both parents being heterozygous for both alleles. What are possible genotypes that would produce the phenotype black, smooth fur? Choose all that apply. a. Bbrr b. bbrr c. BBrr d. BbRr e. BBRR

a. Bbrr c. BBrr

Question 1 Which of the following statements about plant speciation and hybridization is false? a. Bread wheat is the ancestral diploid wheat plant. b. Modern plant geneticists use chemicals to induce meiotic and mitotic errors to try to create new hybrid plants with special qualities. c. Plant biologists estimate that 80% of all living plant species are descended from ancestors that formed by polyploid speciation. d. Bread wheat grown widely today is the result of several hybridization events.

a. Bread wheat is the ancestral diploid wheat plant.

Question 16 Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand? a. DNA polymerase b. helicase c. ligase d. single-stranded binding protein

a. DNA polymerase

Question 8 Enhancers are a. DNA sequences to which activator proteins bind. b. required to turn on gene expression when transcription factors are in short supply. c. required to facilitate the binding of DNA polymerases. d. adjacent to the gene that they regulate.

a. DNA sequences to which activator proteins bind.

Question 7 Which of the following statements about eukaryotic RNA is true? a. Exons are spliced together. b. Introns are added to the RNA. c. A small cap of extra nucleotides is added to both ends of the RNA. d. The modified RNA molecule is transported into the nucleus.

a. Exons are spliced together.

Question 5 What is the sex of this pig? a. Female b. Male

a. Female

Question 17 Identify all of the primary consumers from the food web. a. Greenfly. b. Mouse c. Rabbit d. Berries e. Grasshopper f. Ladybird g. Titmouse h. Butterfly

a. Greenfly b. Mouse c. Rabbit e. Grasshopper g. Titmouse h. Butterfly

Question 9 A homeotic gene does which of the following? a. It regulates the expression of groups of other genes during development. b. It serves as the ultimate control for prokaryotic operons. c. It represses the histone proteins in eukaryotic chromosomes. d. It helps splice mRNA after transcription.

a. It regulates the expression of groups of other genes during development.

Question 15 What is the function of the trachea's cartilaginous rings? Choose all that apply. a. Keeps trachea open. b. Allows the neck to grow bigger. c. Prevents the trachea from collapsing. d. Regulates the metabolic rate of mitochondria.

a. Keeps trachea open. c. Prevents the trachea from collapsing.

Question 18 Two bird species overlap in a hybrid zone. They are isolated by a slight difference in the male songs and by the females' tendency to select males with the "correct" song. Hybrid offspring tend to have reduced fertility compared to either of the parent species. What effect might natural selection have in this situation? a. Natural selection might favor males with more distinctive calls and/or females that are more "choosy." As a result, the reproductive barrier between the two species could be reinforced. b. Natural selection could lead to the stronger of the two species taking over and eliminating the other species. c. Natural selection might favor males with less distinctive calls and/or females that are less "choosy." d. Natural selection could lead to the hybrid species taking over and eliminating the weaker parent species.

a. Natural selection might favor males with more distinctive calls and/or females that are more "choosy." As a result, the reproductive barrier between the two species could be reinforced.

Question 27 Which blood type is considered the "universal donor"? a. O type b. A type c. AB type d. B type

a. O type

Question 14 All your cells contain proto-oncogenes, which can change into cancer-causing genes. Why do cells possess such potential time bombs? a. Proto-oncogenes normally control cell division. b. Viruses infect cells with proto-oncogenes. c. Proto-oncogenes are genetic "junk" with no known function. Selected:d. Cells produce proto-oncogenes as a by-product of mitosis.

a. Proto-oncogenes normally control cell division.

Question 15 Which species of wheat shown is polyploid? a.T. turgidun b. T. tauschii c. the AB sterile hybrid d. T. monococcum

a. T. turgidun

Question 13 What nucleotide sequence would be found on the partner DNA strand of the strand shown? a. TGACA b. ACTGT c. TGUGU d. UGAGA

a. TGACA

Question 8 A color-blind woman marries a man who is not color-blind. All of their sons, but none of their daughters, are color-blind. Which of the following statements correctly explains these results? a. The gene for color vision is found on the X chromosome. b. The gene for color vision is incompletely dominant to the gene for sex determination. c. The gene for color vision is codominant with the gene for sex determination. d. The gene for color vision is found on the Y chromosome.

a. The gene for color vision is found on the X chromosome

Question 4 What will happen to the butterflies is the berries die? a. The population of butterflies will decrease b. The population of butterflies will increase c. The population of butterflies will stay the same

a. The population of butterflies will decrease

Question 27 Which of the following statements regarding the flow of genetic information is false? a. Transcription occurs in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells. b. Eukaryotic mRNA is processed in several ways before export out of the nucleus. c. Ribosomes function as factories that coordinate the functioning of mRNA and tRNA. d. Polypeptides form proteins that determine the appearance and function of the cell and organism.

a. Transcription occurs in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.

Question 16 Who developed a theory of evolution almost identical to Darwin's? a. Wallace b. Lyell c. Lamarck d. Aristotle

a. Wallace

Question 4 A botanist treats some tissue from a strawberry plant (2n=14) with a chemical that disrupts the mitotic spindle. This doubles the number of chromosomes in a cell. This cell is then cultured on a special medium, until it eventually develops into a strawberry plant that can self-pollinate. What is the resulting chromosome number? Would this species be able to reproduce? (Yes or No) Does this represent a new species? (Yes or No) *Choose all that apply a. Yes, this is a new species. b. No, this organism will not be able to reproduce. c. 14 chromosomes d. No, this is not a new species. e. 21 chromosomes f. Yes, this organism will be able to reproduce. g. 28 chromosomes

a. Yes, this is a new species. f. Yes, this organism will be able to reproduce. g. 28 chromosomes

Question 2 The way that genetic material of a bacteriophage enters a bacterium is most like the way that a. a drug is injected with a hypodermic needle. b. water soaks into a sponge. c. a person swallows a pill. d. skin lotion is rubbed onto the hands.

a. a drug is injected with a hypodermic needle.

Question 3 About how much of the energy in the producers of an ecosystem will be available to secondary consumers in this ecosystem? a. about 1% b. about 10% c. about 50% d. 100%

a. about 1%

Question 11 Which of the following methods of gene regulation do eukaryotes and prokaryotes have in common? a. activator and repressor proteins, which attach to DNA b. the removal of noncoding portions of RNA c. elaborate packing of DNA in chromosomes d. the addition of a cap and tail to mRNA after transcription

a. activator and repressor proteins, which attach to DNA

Question 24 What are the tiny air sacs in the lung called? a. alveoli b. bronchi c. capillaries d. ventricle

a. alveoli

Question 5 Most plants have a variety of chemicals, spines, and thorns because the plants a. cannot run away from herbivores. b. feed on the organisms that try to eat them. c. are relying upon Batesian mimicry. d. are camouflaged into their surroundings.

a. cannot run away from herbivores.

Question 24 The expression of both alleles for a trait in a heterozygous individual illustrates a. codominance. b. incomplete dominance. c. polygenic inheritance. d. pleiotropy.

a. codominance.

Question 19 According to this figure, heterozygotes for this form of hypercholesterolemia suffer from the disease because they a. don't produce enough LDL receptors.This is the correct answer. b. produce too many LDL receptors. c. produce an abnormally shaped LDL receptor. d. don't produce any LDL receptors.

a. don't produce enough LDL

Question 2 Thirty people from N.A.S.A. are selected for a long-term mission to colonize a planet many light years away from Earth. The mission is successful and the population rapidly grows to several hundred individuals. However, certain genetic diseases are unusually common in this group, and their gene pool is quite different from that of the Earth population they have left behind. Which of the following phenomena has left its mark on this population? a. founder effect b. high rates of mutation c. bottleneck effect d. natural selection

a. founder effect

Question 25 Imagine that beak color in a finch species is controlled by a single gene. You mate a finch homozygous for orange (pigmented) beak with a finch homozygous for ivory (unpigmented) beak and get numerous offspring, all of which have a pale, ivory-orange beak. This pattern of color expression is most likely to be an example of a. incomplete dominance. b. pleiotropy. c. polygenic inheritance. d. codominance.

a. incomplete dominance.

Question 16 What structure is the arrow in the image pointing to? a. kidney b. stomach c. small intestine d. thyroid

a. kidney

Question 7 Where does most of the absorption of water take place in the digestive system? a. large intestine b. stomach c. appendix d. small intestine

a. large intestine

Question 15 In populations of the greater prairie chicken in Illinois, genetic diversity was a. lost through genetic drift and restored by gene flow. b. lost through gene flow and restored by mutation. c. lost through genetic drift and restored by natural selection. d. lost through mutation and restored by natural selection.

a. lost through genetic drift and restored by gene flow.

Question 20 What type(s) of digestion take place in the stomach? Choose all that apply. a. mechanical digestion b. water absorption. c. nutrient absorption Selected:d. chemical digestion

a. mechanical digestion

Question 19 When two different populations in a community benefit from their relationship with each other, the result is called a. mutualism. b. competition. c. benefism. d. parasitism.

a. mutualism.

Question 20 Which of the following could happen the fastest? a. polyploid speciation b. natural selection c. sympatric speciation d. allopatric speciation e. adaptive radiation

a. polyploid speciation

Question 13 Which plants in this figure must all be heterozygous? a. purple-flowered plants in the F1 generation b. purple-flowered plants in the P generation c. purple-flowered plants in the F2 generation d. white-flowered plants in the P generation

a. purple-flowered plants in the F1

Question 12 The tortoiseshell pattern on a cat a. results from X chromosome inactivation. b. is a result of alleles on the Y chromosome. c. is the result of a homozygous recessive condition. d. usually occurs in males.

a. results from X chromosome inactivation.

Question 17 Which of the following is a valid difference between embryonic stem cells and the stem cells found in adult tissues? a.In nature, only embryonic stem cells give rise to all the different types of cells in the organism. b. In laboratory culture, only adult stem cells are immortal. c. Only embryonic stem cells are found in every tissue of the adult body. d. Only adult stem cells can differentiate in culture.

a.In nature, only embryonic stem cells give rise to all the different types of cells in the organism.

Question 5 The recessive allele of a gene causes cystic fibrosis. For this gene among Caucasians, p = 0.98. If a Caucasian population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with respect to this gene, what proportion of babies is born homozygous recessive, and therefore suffers cystic fibrosis? a. 0.02 b. 0.0004 c. 0.9604 d. 0.0392

b. 0.0004

Question 9 Which of the following is an example of commensalism? a. Two dogs fight for a bone b. A nest in a tree c. A wolf eats a sheep that belonged to a human d. A fox eats a rabbit

b. A nest in a tree

Question 21 Which of the following would tend to promote adaptive radiation? a. An organism has a very stable set of features and capabilities over long spans of evolutionary time. b. A single species goes extinct, but it has several competitors that quickly expand to assume its ecological roles. c. An organism colonizes an area that already has a high level of existing species diversity. d. An organism colonizes an isolated area that is habitable but relatively devoid of life.

b. A single species goes extinct, but it has several competitors that quickly expand to assume its ecological roles.

Question 21 What is the function of the papillae of the tongue? a. gastrointestinal flow b. Contains taste buds c. metabolism regulation d. Sense of smell

b. Contains taste buds

Question 3 What is the function of the thyroid gland? Choose all that apply. a. Regulates the immune system. b. Controls cellular respiration rate. c. Allows hormones to function correctly for growth. Selected:d. Regulates cellular metabolism.

b. Controls cellular respiration rate.

Question 6 You're a botanist studying two traits for plant height and flower color. The dominant allele for tall plants is "D" and the recessive allele for dwarf plants is "d". The dominant allele for purple flowers is "W" and the recessive allele for white flowers is "w". You perform a dihybrid cross with both parents being heterozygous for both traits. What possible genotypes would give you tall plants with white flowers? Choose all that apply. a. DdWw b. DDww. c. DDWw d. ddWW e. Ddww

b. DDww e. Ddww

Question 8 What will happen to the food web if the number of buzzards decrease? Choose all that apply. a. Butterfly population will decrease b. Frog population will decrease c. Nothing will change in the food web d. Snake population will increase

b. Frog population will decrease d. Snake population will increase

Question 22 Put the following in order from smallest to largest : Population, Organism, Ecosystem, Community, Biosphere, Biome a. Population, Community, Organism, Biosphere, Ecosystem, Biome b. Organism, Population, Community, Ecosystem, Biome, Biosphere c. Population, Organism, Community, Biome, Ecosystem, Biosphere d. Organism, Population, Community, Ecosystem, Biosphere, Biome

b. Organism, Population, Community, Ecosystem, Biome, Biosphere

Question 6 Which of the following statements regarding RNA is false? a. RNA molecules have a sugar-phosphate backbone. b. RNA uses the sugar dextrose. c. One RNA molecule can include four different nucleotides in its structure. d. RNA uses the nitrogenous base uracil.

b. RNA uses the sugar dextrose.

Question 1 You're a biologist that works for the Food and Drug Administration investigating corn kernal color and taste. The dominant allele for purple corn kernals is "R" and the recessive allele for yellow color is "r". The dominant allele for starchy kernals is "T" and the recessive allele for sweet kernals is "t". You perform a dihybrid cross between two parents that are heterozygous for both alleles. What are the possible genotypes that produce purple, starchy kernals? Choose all that apply. a. rrTT b. RRTT c. rrtt d. RrTt e. RrTT f. RRTt g. RRtt

b. RRTT d. RrTt e. RrTT f. RRTt

Question 20 Which of the following statements regarding sickle-cell disease is false? a. Persons who are heterozygous for sickle-cell disease are also resistant to malaria. b. Sickle-cell disease causes white blood cells to be sickle-shaped. c. All of the symptoms of sickle-cell disease result from the actions of just one allele. d. About one in ten African-Americans is a carrier of sickle-cell disease.

b. Sickle-cell disease causes white blood cells to be sickle-shaped.

Question 23 What is the function of the thymus gland? Choose all that apply. a. Controls metabolism during puberty. b. Stimulates T-cell development. c. Regulates the blood flow during extreme exercise. d. Enables the body to manufacture antibodies to fight disease.

b. Stimulates T-cell development. d. Enables the body to manufacture antibodies to fight disease.

Question 2 What is the function of the gall bladder? a. Holds intestines in place b. Stores bile c. Produces insulin d. Stores lymphocytes

b. Stores bile

Question 25 Which of the following features characterizes the lytic cycle of a viral infection? a. The cycle typically ends when the host bacterium divides. b. The cycle typically leads to the lysis of the host cell. c. The viral genes typically remain inactive once they are inside the host cell. d. The virus reproduces outside of the host cell.

b. The cycle typically leads to the lysis of the host cell.

Question 21 Which of the following statements regarding cross-breeding and hybridization is false? a. The offspring of two different varieties are called hybrids. b. The hybrid offspring of a cross are the P1 generation. c. The hybrid offspring of an F1 cross are the F2 generation. d. The parental plants of a cross are the P generation.

b. The hybrid offspring of a cross are the P1 generation.

Question 11 Which of the following is an example of a postzygotic reproductive barrier? a. Two pheasant species perform different courtship dances. b. Two fruit flies of different species produce offspring that are sterile. c. One species of flower grows in forested areas, another in meadows. d. One species of frog mates in April; another mates in May. e. The sperm of a marine worm only penetrate eggs of the same species.

b. Two fruit flies of different species produce offspring that are sterile.

Question 21 A population is a. a group of individuals of different species living in the same place at the same time. b. a group of individuals of the same species that live in the same area and interbreed. c. all individuals of a species, regardless of location or time period in which they live. d. a group of individuals of a species plus all of the other species with which they interact.

b. a group of individuals of the same species that live in the same area and interbreed.

Question 13 One of the finest available sequences of fossils shows how horses have changed slowly and by subtle steps from small shrub-browsing ancestors to the large, grass-grazing modern horse. A large number of fossil species have been named, and it is often difficult to decide on the identity of a fossil horse because transitional forms are common. This record of evolution best fits the idea of a. hybrid breakdown. b. adaptive radiation c. punctuated equilibrium. d. the gradual model of speciation.

b. adaptive radiation

Question 23 Carbon mainly cycles between the biotic and abiotic worlds through the processes of a. cellular respiration and transpiration. b. cellular respiration and photosynthesis. c. transpiration and photosynthesis. d. evaporation and photosynthesis.

b. cellular respiration and photosynthesis.

Question 14 After reading the paragraph, answer the question that follows. Exposure to the HIV virus doesn't necessarily mean that a person will develop AIDS. Some people have genetic resistance to infection by HIV. Dr. Stephen O'Brien from the U.S. National Cancer Institute has recently identified a mutant form of a gene, called CCR5, that can protect against HIV infection. The mutation probably originated in Europe among survivors of the bubonic plague. The mutated gene prevents the plague bacteria from attaching to cell membranes and, therefore, from entering and infecting body cells. Although the HIV virus is very different from the bacteria that causes the plague, both diseases affect the exact same cells and use the same method of infection. The presence of the mutated gene in descendants of plague survivors helps prevent them from contracting AIDS. Pharmaceutical companies are using this information as the basis for a new approach to AIDS prevention. This would be very important in areas of the world where the mutation is scarce or absent, such as Africa. The most likely method by which the mutated CCR5 gene prevents AIDS is by a. attacking and destroying the HIV virus particles. b. coding for a protective protein in the cell membrane. c. covering the cell membrane. d. rupturing the nuclear membrane.

b. coding for a protective protein in the cell membrane.

Question 5 Your bone cells, muscle cells, and skin cells look different because a. they contain different numbers of genes. b. different genes are active in each kind of cell. c. each cell contains different kinds of genes. d. they are present in different organs.

b. different genes are active in each kind of cell.

Question 6 Which of the following best expresses the concept of natural selection? a. inheritance of acquired characteristics b. differential reproductive success based on inherited characteristics c. change in response to need d. a process of constant improvement, leading eventually to perfection

b. differential reproductive success based on inherited characteristics

Question 19 Cancer cells have escaped from the normal control systems responsible for regulating cell __________. a. regeneration b. division c. cycle d. differentiation

b. division

Question 16 The control of gene expression is more complex in multicellular eukaryotes than in prokaryotes because ____________________ . a. eukaryotes have fewer genes, so each gene must do several jobs. b. in a multicellular eukaryote, different cells are specialized for different functions c. eukaryotic cells are much smaller d. prokaryotes are restricted to stable environments

b. in a multicellular eukaryote, different cells are specialized for different functions

Question 15 Which of the following occurs when RNA polymerase attaches to the promoter DNA? a. initiation of a new polypeptide chain b. initiation of a new RNA molecule. c. termination of the RNA molecule d. elongation of the growing RNA molecule

b. initiation of a new RNA molecule.

Question 23 Which of the following is a function of a tRNA molecule? a. recognizing the appropriate anticodons in mRNA b. joining to only one specific type of amino acid c. helping to translate codons into nucleic acids d. transferring nucleotides to rRNA

b. joining to only one specific type of amino acid

Question 3 Genes located close together on the same chromosomes are referred to as ________ genes and generally ________. a. linked . . . sort independently during meiosis b. linked . . . do not sort independently during meiosis c. codependent . . . do not sort independently during meiosis d. homologous . . . are inherited together

b. linked . . . do not sort independently during meiosis

Question 22 In the genetic code, a. some codons consist of two nucleotides. b. many amino acids are specified by more than one codon. c. some codons specify more than one amino acid. d. some amino acids are not specified by any codons.

b. many amino acids are specified by more than one codon.

Question 14 Sympatric speciation commonly occurs through ________ in plants, but is more likely to occur through ________ in animals. a. self-pollination . . . polyploidy and other genetic mechanisms b. polyploidy . . . habitat differentiation and sexual selection c. habitat differentiation and sexual selection . . . polyploidy d. asexual reproduction . . . chromosome duplications

b. polyploidy . . . habitat differentiation and sexual selection

Question 16 A group of individuals of a single species that occupy the same general area defines a a. subspecies. b. population. c. clone. d. community.

b. population.

Question 20 A community is composed of a. one species of organism living in a specific environment on Earth. b. potentially interacting populations of different kinds of organisms. c. the factors that constitute an organism's niche. d. living organisms and their nonliving environment.

b. potentially interacting populations of different kinds of organisms.

Question 19 Three species of frogs - Rana pipiens, Rana clamitans, and Rana sylvatica - all mate in the same ponds, but they pair off correctly because they have different mating calls. This illustrates a ____________ and ___________. a. postzygotic barrier...behavioral isolation b. prezygotic barrier...behavioral isolation c. prezygotic barrier...gametic isolation d. prezygotic barrier...temporal isolation e. postzygotic barrier...hybrid breakdown

b. prezygotic barrier...behavioral isolation

Question 11 Within an ecosystem, a tree is a a. primary consumer. b. producer. c. secondary consumer. d. detritivore.

b. producer.

Question 21 What is the main abiotic factor that distinguishes primary from secondary succession? a. water b. soil c. sun light d. temperature

b. soil

Question 7 An elk herd is observed over many generations. Most of the full-grown bull elk have antlers of nearly the same size, although a few have antlers that are significantly larger or smaller than this average size. The average antler size remains constant over the generations. Which of the following effects probably accounts for this situation? a. directional selection b. stabilizing selection c. a high rate of gene flow d. a bottleneck effect that resulted in low genetic diversity

b. stabilizing selection

Question 16 Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates a pair of species that could interbreed except that one mates at dusk and the other at dawn? a. behavioral isolation b. temporal isolation c. mechanical isolation d. habitat isolation

b. temporal isolation

Question 6 In a food chain consisting of phytoplankton → zooplankton → fish → fishermen, the fishermen are a. secondary producers. b. tertiary consumers. c. secondary consumers. d. quaternary consumers

b. tertiary consumers.

Question 22 Which of the following mechanisms of controlling gene expression occurs outside of the nucleus? a. adding a cap and tail to RNA b. translation c. RNA splicing d. DNA packing/unpacking

b. translation

Question 26 A bird of genotype AABbCC is crossed with an AaBbCc bird. What is the probability of an offspring having the genotype AaBbCc? a. 1/16 or 6.25% b. 1/2 or 50 c. 1/8 or 12.5 % d. 1/4 or 25%

c. 1/8 or 12.5 %

Question 18 According to this graph of the population growth of fur seals, in what year did the population first reach its carrying capacity? a. 1925 b. 1930 c. 1940 d. 1950

c. 1940

Question 23 Based on the diagram below, what is the most likely blood type for this individual? a. B- type b. O+ type c. A+ type d. O- type

c. A+ type

Question 10 Which nitrogenous base is shown below? a. Cytosine b. Thymine c. Adenine d. Guanine

c. Adenine

Question 11 Use the DNA sequence below to determine the correct amino acide sequence. DNA sequence: TCCGCGCAGAGC a. Isoleucine-Valine-Proline-Sernine b. Arginine-Arginine-Methionine-Proline c. Arginine-Arginine-Valine-Serine d. Serine-Arginine-Valine-Proline

c. Arginine-Arginine-Valine-Serine

Question 22 If the allele for brown coat color is (B) and white coat color is (W), what is the genotype of the cow shown below? a. BB b. WW c. BW

c. BW

Question 1 What is the function of the umbilical cord? Choose all that apply. a. Gender determination b. Germ layer formation c. Connection to the mother d. Food and oxygen supply

c. Connection to the mother d. Food and oxygen supply

Question 8 Which of the following options best depicts the flow of information when a gene directs the synthesis of a cellular component? a. RNA → DNA → RNA → protein b. DNA → tRNA → mRNA → protein c. DNA → RNA → protein d. protein → RNA → DNA

c. DNA → RNA → protein

Question 8 What do the villi and microvilli in the small intestine do? a. Regulates the amount of food that enters large intestine. b. Supports immune system against bacteria after eating large amounts of protein. c. Increases surface area for nutrient absorption. d. Speeds up water absorption after exercise.

c. Increases surface area for nutrient absorption.

Question 24 In many bacteria, genes that confer resistance to antibiotics are carried on a. exons. b. transposons. c. R plasmids. d. factors.

c. R plasmids.

Question 8 A woman struggling with a bacterial illness is prescribed a month's supply of a potent antibiotic. She takes the antibiotic for about two weeks and feels much better. Should she save the remaining two-week supply, or should she continue taking the drug? a. She should save the drug because antibiotics are in short supply and she may need it to defend herself against a bioterrorism incident. b. She should save the drug for use the next time the illness strikes. c. She should save the drug for later, because if she keeps taking it the bacteria will evolve resistance. d. She should continue taking the drug until her immune system can completely eliminate the infection. Otherwise the remaining bacteria in her system may recover, and they will probably be resistant.

c. She should save the drug for later, because if she keeps taking it the bacteria will evolve resistance.

Question 11 Which of the following statements regarding hypotheses about inheritance is false? a. Contrary to the theory of pangenesis, somatic cells do not influence eggs or sperm. b. The theory of pangenesis incorrectly suggests that reproductive cells receive particles from somatic cells. c. The blending hypothesis suggests that all of the traits of the offspring come from either the mother or the father. d. The blending hypothesis does not explain how traits that disappear in one generation can reappear in later generations.

c. The blending hypothesis suggests that all of the traits of the offspring come from either the mother or the father.

Question 17 Which of the following statements regarding viral diseases is false? a. RNA viruses tend to have an unusually high rate of mutation because their RNA genomes cannot be corrected by proofreading. b. AIDS was around for decades before becoming a widespread epidemic. c. Very few new human diseases have originated in other animals because the genetic differences are too great. d. New viral diseases often emerge when a virus infects a new host species.

c. Very few new human diseases have originated in other animals because the genetic differences are too great.

Question 19 Any change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called a. a mutagen. b. an anticodon. c. a mutation. d. a base substitution.

c. a mutation.

Question 19 The process of natural selection requires all of the following, except: a. Large population that is reproducing b. Some of the inherited variation leads to differential reproductive success c. advanced or complex species that are heterotrophic d. Genetic variation within that population that is heritable

c. advanced or complex species that are heterotrophic

Question 10 Which arrow shows CO2 released as a product of cellular respiration? a. arrow A b. arrow B c. arrow C d. arrow D

c. arrow C

Question 3 How do viroids harm the plants that are infected with them? a. by increasing the plants' metabolic rate b. by destroying the root system c. by altering the plants' growth d. by reducing the plants' seed production

c. by altering the plants' growth

Question 13 Mutations in the p53 gene can lead to cancer by a. causing the production of excessive amounts of relay proteins. b. promoting the expression of mRNA that can interact with DNA, resulting in new mutations. c. causing the production of a faulty protein that is no longer able to inhibit cell division. d. increasing the production of growth hormones, which trigger faster cell cycles

c. causing the production of a faulty protein that is no longer able to inhibit cell division.

Question 21 In multicellular organisms, the coordination of cellular activities relies on a. the availability of certain "key" nutrients as cells divide. b. cell receptors that detect transcription factors. c. cell-to-cell signaling and signal transduction pathways. d. operons.

c. cell-to-cell signaling and signal transduction pathways.

Question 4 Which of the following options most accurately lists the sequence of events in translation? a. peptide bond formation → codon recognition → translocation → termination b. codon recognition → peptide bond formation → termination → translocation c. codon recognition → peptide bond formation → translocation → termination d. codon recognition → translocation → peptide bond formation → termination

c. codon recognition → peptide bond formation → translocation → termination

Question 12 An owl and a hawk both eat mice. Which of these describes the relationship between a hawk and an owl? a. mutualism b. parasitism c. competition d. predation

c. competition

Question 15 In the logistic growth model, as population size increases, birth rates a. decline but death rates remain steady. b. and death rates increase. c. decline and/or death rates increase. d. remain constant and death rates increase.

c. decline and/or death rates increase.

Question 9 Which statement best describes the mode of selection depicted in the figure? a. disruptive selection, favoring the average individual b. stabilizing selection, changing the average color of the population over time c. directional selection, changing the average color of the population over time d. directional selection, favoring the average individual

c. directional selection, changing the average color of the population over time

Question 29 A carrier of a genetic disorder who does not show symptoms is most likely to be ________ to transmit it to offspring. a. heterozygous for the trait and unable b. homozygous for the trait and able c. heterozygous for the trait and able d. homozygous for the trait and unable

c. heterozygous for the trait and able

Question 17 Mate-attracting features such as the bright plumage of a male peacock result from a. stabilizing selection. b. disruptive selection. c. intersexual selection. d. intrasexual selection.

c. intersexual selection.

Question 22 The ultimate source of all new alleles is a. genetic drift. b. natural selection. c. mutation. d. chromosomal duplication.

c. mutation.

Question 3 Imagine that you are studying a very large population of moths that is isolated from gene flow. A single gene controls wing color. Half of the moths have white-spotted wings (genotype WW or Ww) and half of the moths have plain brown wings (ww). There are no new mutations, individuals mate randomly, and there is no natural selection on wing color. How will p, the frequency of the dominant allele, change over time? a. p will decrease because of genetic drift. b. p will increase; the dominant allele will eventually take over and become most common in the population. c. p will neither increase nor decrease; it will remain more or less constant under the conditions described. d. p will fluctuate rapidly and randomly because of genetic drift.

c. p will neither increase nor decrease; it will remain more or less constant under the conditions described.

Question 18 Which of the following terms refers to a situation where a single phenotypic character is determined by the additive effects of two or more genes? a. incomplete dominance b. pleiotropy c. polygenic inheritance d. codominance

c. polygenic inheritance

Question 7 In a hypothetical food chain consisting of grass, grasshoppers, sparrows, and hawks, the grasshoppers are a. secondary consumers. b. primary producers. c. primary consumers. d. secondary producers.

c. primary consumers.

Question 15 The term "gene expression" refers to the a. fact that each individual of a species has a unique set of genes. b. flow of information from parent to offspring. c. process by which genetic information flows from genes to proteins. d. fact that individuals of the same species have different phenotypes.

c. process by which genetic information flows from genes to proteins.

Question 4 In blood transfusions, people with the AB blood type can __________ ____________ anyone. a. de-materialize from b. avoid almost c. receive from d. donate to

c. receive from

Question 9 Speciation, or the formation of new species, is a. an event that has occurred only a few times in the history of the planet. b. necessary for natural selection and adaptation. c. responsible for the diversity of life. d. a form of microevolution.

c. responsible for the diversity of life.

Question 5 Which of the following enzymes does HIV use to synthesize DNA on an RNA template? a. ligase b. DNA convertase c. reverse transcriptase d. RNA polymerase

c. reverse transcriptase

Question 10 Where does most of the absorption of food take place in the digestive system? a. esophagus b. large intestine c. small intestine d. stomach

c. small intestine

Question 19 What organ does the esophagus lead to? a. lungs b. bladder c. stomach d. heart

c. stomach

Question 12 A geneticist found that a particular mutation had no effect on the polypeptide encoded by a gene. This mutation probably involved a. insertion of one nucleotide b. alteration of the start codon c. substitution of one nucleotide d. deletion of one nucleotide

c. substitution of one nucleotide

Question 7 Bullock's oriole and the Baltimore oriole are closely related, but are they the same species? To find out, you could see whether they a. have the same number of chromosomes. b. live in the same areas. c. successfully interbreed. d. look alike. e. sing similar songs.

c. successfully interbreed.

Question 18 Genetic drift resulting from a disaster that drastically reduces population size is called a. the founder effect. b. natural selection. c. the bottleneck effect. d. gene flow.

c. the bottleneck effect.

Question 5 It is unlikely that the human population will give rise to a new species because a. the human population is too diverse. b. geographic isolation is unlikely to occur.This is the correct answer. c. the human population is too large. d. a change in chromosome number would be fatal. e. natural selection cannot affect humans.

c. the human population is too large.

Question 5 The alleles of a gene are found at ________ chromosomes. a. the same locus on non-homologous b. different loci on homologous c. the same locus on homologous d. different loci on non-homologous

c. the same locus on homologous

Question 21 Experiments have demonstrated that the "words" of the genetic code (the units that specify amino acids) are a. two-nucleotide sequences. b. single nucleotides. c. three-nucleotide sequences. d. nucleotide sequences of various lengths.

c. three-nucleotide sequences.

Question 2 Which trophic level in this food chain represents the secondary consumer? a. trophic level A b. trophic level B c. trophic level C d. trophic level D

c. trophic level C

Question 6 Is the trachea dorsal or ventral to the esophagus from the pig's perspective? a. anterior b. posterior c. ventral d. dorsal

c. ventral

Question 23 The allele for unattached ear lobes is dominant over the allele for attached earlobes. In a population of 500 individuals, 125 show the recessive phenotype. How many individuals would you expect to by heterozygous for this trait? Given: p + q = 1, p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 a. 125 individuals b. 197 individuals c. 300 individuals d. 250 individuals

d. 250 individuals

Question 1 Which of the following statements is false? a. Translation consists of initiation, elongation, and termination. b. During polypeptide initiation, an mRNA, the first amino acid attached to its tRNA, and the two subunits of a ribosome are brought together. c. During the first step of initiation, an mRNA molecule binds to a small ribosomal subunit. d. An mRNA molecule transcribed from DNA is shorter than the genetic message it carries.

d. An mRNA molecule transcribed from DNA is shorter than the genetic message it carries.

Question 12 Dr. Smith's parents have normal hearing. However, Dr. Smith has an inherited form of deafness. Deafness is a recessive trait that is associated with the abnormal allele d. The normal allele at this locus, associated with normal hearing, is D. Dr. Smith's parents could have which of the following genotypes? a. DD and dd b. Dd and DD c. dd and dd d. Dd and Dd

d. Dd and Dd

Question 20 If a gene has the sequence GCGCTTAA, what would be the sequence of an miRNA that turns off the gene? a. CGCGAAUU b. AAUUCGCG c. AATTCGCG d. GCGCUUAA

d. GCGCUUAA

Question 18 The nucleotide sequence of a DNA codon is GTA. A messenger RNA molecule with a complementary codon is transcribed from the DNA. In the process of protein synthesis, a transfer RNA pairs with the mRNA codon. What is the nucleotide sequence of the tRNA anticodon? a. CAU b. CUT c. CAT d. GUA

d. GUA

Question 28 Below is a typical pedigree for a family that carries Fanconi anemia, which is an autosomal recessive trait. What are Ann and Michael's genotypes? a. Homozygous dominant b. Heterozygous dominant c. Homozygous recessive d. Heterozygous

d. Heterozygous

Question 20 The sickle-cell allele produces a serious blood disease in homozygotes. Why doesn't natural selection eliminate this allele from all human populations? a. Natural selection is a positive force, so it does not eliminate alleles. b. Natural selection occurs very slowly, but elimination of the sickle-cell allele is expected to occur soon. c. Mutations keep bringing the allele back into circulation. d. In populations where endemic malaria is present, heterozygotes have an important advantage: They are resistant to malaria and therefore are more likely to survive and produce offspring that carry the allele.

d. In populations where endemic malaria is present, heterozygotes have an important advantage: They are resistant to malaria and therefore are more likely to survive and produce offspring that carry the allele.

Question 9 What is the function of the epiglottis? a. Prevents food or liquids from entering the esophagus. b. Regulates how much food enters the small intestine. c. To boost metabolism in the stomach. d. Prevents food or liquids from entering the trachea.

d. Prevents food or liquids from entering the trachea.

Question 14 What is the function of the spleen? a. Increases surface area for nutrient absorption. b. Regulates the amount of food that enters the small intestine. c. Holds intestines in place for core muscles to support movement. d. Supports the immune system by bring blood into contact with lymphocytes.

d. Supports the immune system by bring blood into contact with lymphocytes.

Question 20 Which of the following statements regarding a DNA double helix is always true? a. The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of guanine, and the amount of thymine is equal to the amount of cytosine. b. The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of cytosine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of thymine. c. The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of uracil, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine. d. The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine.

d. The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine.

Question 12 Which of the following statements regarding the definition of species is false? a. Under the biological species concept, the gap between species is maintained by reproductive isolation. b. The phylogenetic species concept defines a species as a set of organisms that shares a common ancestor and forms one branch on the tree of life. c. The ecological species concept identifies species in terms of their ecological niches. d. The morphological species concept relies upon comparing the DNA sequences of organisms.

d. The morphological species concept relies upon comparing the DNA sequences of organisms.

Question 7 After reading the paragraph, answer the question that follows. All apples in the United States, regardless of variety or where they're purchased, are produced by cloning. For more than 2,000 years, apple growers around the world have used a type of cloning called grafting to produce larger, better-tasting apples. Why has cloning become the primary method of apple growing? Apples grown from seeds usually don't produce apples with the same taste and appearance as that of the parent tree because there's a high degree of genetic variability among the seeds. Making identical genetic copies of the preferred fruit is the only way to get reliable apple quality. In grafting, the shoots and branches of the desired fruit, called a scion, are attached onto the trunk and root system of a previously existing tree, called the rootstock. Both components of the graft are needed. The rootstock controls gene expression in the scion, triggering production of apples that match the cloned scion. Grafting research can be used to produce some interesting tree combinations that are beneficial for intensive agriculture. For example, if you graft the root of a small tree variety, such as the crab apple, onto the shoot from a larger apple tree, such as the Gala, you can produce Gala apples on a much smaller tree. Other scientists are trying to create disease-resistant varieties that would need less pesticides. This is beneficial for the environment and also lowers the price of apples in the grocery store. Why don't the grafted hybrids produce apples with a blend of traits from the scion and the rootstock? a. The rootstock is unable to perform photosynthesis and so can't produce fruit. b. Transplanted nuclei from scion cells regulate gene expression in the rootstock. c. The rootstock suppresses activation of the scion genes, which alters fruit production. d. The rootstock regulates gene expression in the scion, but contributes no genetic information for fruit production.

d. The rootstock regulates gene expression in the scion, but contributes no genetic information for fruit production.

Question 4 Which structure is the arrow pointing to? a. Larynx b. Tyroid gland c. Thymus gland d. Trachea

d. Trachea

Question 13 Which of the following is an example of predation? a. the vivid colors of the poison-arrow frog in Costa Rica b. a goldfinch feeding on the seeds of a thistle plant c. a lizard's camouflage d. a hawk swooping down quickly to capture, kill, and eat a prairie king snake

d. a hawk swooping down quickly to capture, kill, and eat a prairie king snake

Question 6 Scientists think most eukaryotic regulatory proteins act as ________________. a. repressors b. silencers c. operators d. activators

d. activators

Question 6 Uplift and formation of a mountain range divides a freshwater snail species into two isolated populations. Erosion eventually lowers the mountain range and brings the two populations together again, but when they mate, the resulting hybrids all produce sterile young. This scenario is an example of a. sympatric speciation. b. incomplete speciation. c. diversifying speciation. d. allopatric speciation.

d. allopatric speciation.

Question 17 In their 30-year studies of Darwin's finches, the Grants have discovered that while the medium ground finch and cactus finch occasionally form hybrids, these hybrids a. usually die before hatching. b. reproduce with the parent species, showing that ground finches and cactus finches are all one species. c. are unable to produce a song and are therefore unable to find a mate. d. can only survive during wet years when there are plenty of small seeds.

d. can only survive during wet years when there are plenty of small seeds.

Question 18 Cancer-causing agents are called _____________. a. oncogenes b. mutations c. transcription factors d. carcinogens

d. carcinogens

Question 14 Mendel's law of independent assortment states that a. genes are sorted concurrently during gamete formation. b. independent sorting of genes produces polyploid plants under some circumstances. c. chromosomes sort independently off each other during mitosis and meiosis. d. each pair of alleles segregates independently off the other pairs of alleles during gamete formation.

d. each pair of alleles segregates independently of the other pairs of alleles during gamete formation.

Question 25 The core theme of biology, which explains both the unity and diversity of life, is a. genetics. b. metabolism. c. ecology. d. evolution.

d. evolution.

Question 2 The individual features of all organisms are the result of a. the environment and individual needs. b. the environment. c. genetics. d. genetics and the environment.

d. genetics and the environment.

Question 22 Which of the chambers of the heart pushes blood the farthest distance in the body? a. right atrium b. left atrium c. right ventricle d. left ventricle

d. left ventricle

Question 24 According to this figure, which pair of organisms shares the most recent common ancestor? a. lungfish and amphibian b. amphibian and lizard c. mammal and crocodile d. lizard and ostrich

d. lizard and ostrich

Question 18 What organ does the trachea lead to? a. small intestine b. stomach c. heart d. lungs

d. lungs

Question 13 The frequency of homozygous dominant individuals in a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is equal to a. q or p. b. 2p. c. 2pq. d. p2.

d. p2.

Question 14 When a New England farm is abandoned, its formerly plowed fields first become weedy meadows, then shrubby areas, and finally forest. This sequence of plant communities is an example of a. primary succession. b. evolution. c. a trophic chain. d. secondary succession.

d. secondary succession.

Question 10 Two species of water lilies in the same pond do not interbreed because one blooms at night and the other during the day. The reproductive barrier between them is an example of a. gametic isolation b. ecological isolation c. mechanical isolation d. temporal isolation e. hybrid breakdown

d. temporal isolation

Question 17 The chromosome theory of inheritance states that a. humans have 46 chromosomes. b. chromosomes that exhibit mutations are the source of genetic variation. c. the behavior of chromosomes during mitosis accounts for inheritance patterns. d. the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis and fertilization accounts for patterns of inheritance.

d. the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis and fertilization accounts for patterns of inheritance.

Question 16 Recessive X-linked traits are more likely to be expressed in a male fruit fly than a female fruit fly because a. the male chromosome is more susceptible to mutations. b. the male chromosome is more fragile than the female chromosome. c. males are haploid. d. the male's phenotype results entirely from his single X-linked gene.

d. the male's phenotype results entirely from his single X-linked gene.

Question 14 Blue-footed boobies have webbed feet and are comically clumsy when they walk on land. Evolutionary scientists view these feet as a. an example of a trait that has not evolved. b. a curiosity that has little to teach us regarding evolution. c. an example of a trait that is poorly adapted. d. the outcome of a tradeoff: webbed feet perform poorly on land, but are very helpful in diving for food.

d. the outcome of a tradeoff: webbed feet perform poorly on land, but are very helpful in diving for food.

Question 1 After reading the paragraph, answer the question that follows. You're a member of an influential African family that's been displaced from your home by civil war. You're trying to select a new country in which to settle to gain better economic opportunities. You know that Nigeria is a large country with rich natural resources and are considering it for your new home. You've learned some basic principles of population growth and did some research on the Internet. Among the data you found was the following diagram of the current age structure of the country. The age structure data for Nigeria shows that the country has many more individuals under the age of 15 than over the age of 40. What does this imply about the future population of Nigeria? a. the population will probably decrease b. the population will probably remain stable c. the number of older people will probably increase rapidly d. the population will probably grow rapidly

d. the population will probably grow rapidly

Question 10 Which of the following represents a pair of homologous structures? a. the wing of a bat and the scales of a fish b. the wing of a bat and the wing of a butterfly c. the antennae of an insect and the eyes of a bird d. the wing of a bat and the flipper of a whale

d. the wing of a bat and the flipper of a whale

Question 9 In the 1920s, Frederick Griffith conducted an experiment in which he mixed the dead cells of a bacterial strain that can cause pneumonia with live cells of a bacterial strain that cannot. When he cultured the live cells, some of the daughter colonies proved able to cause pneumonia. Which of the following processes of bacterial DNA transfer does this experiment demonstrate? a. transduction b. conjugation c. transposition d. transformation

d. transformation