Biomechanics/Anatomy pre and post tests
6. Which of the following joints displays three degrees of movement? A. Nonaxial B. Uniaxial C. Triaxial D. Biaxial
c
4. Which of the following nerves is MOST LIKELY to be compressed if the structures in the carpal tunnel become inflamed? A. Ulnar B. Musculocutaneous C. Median D. Radial
c
4. Which of the following structures comprise a motor unit? A. Spinal interneurons, motor neuron B. Motor neuron cell body, sensory neuron C. Motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates D. Sensory neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates
c
4. Which statement BEST describes articular cartilage? A. It is a form of hyaline cartilage with a good blood supply and an ability to heal well. B. It is a form of fibrocartilage and assists with controlling movement. C. It is a form of hyaline cartilage with a poor blood supply and an inability to heal well. D. It is a form of fibrocartilage and has abundant pain receptors.
c
5. A person participates in a daily stretching program of the hamstring muscles and, over time, increases the permanent flexibility and length of the hamstrings. Which of the following areas on the Stress-Strain curve represents this new condition of the hamstring muscles? A. Elastic region B. Toe region C. Plastic region D. Mechanical failure
c
5. Which of the following positions has the most stable base of support? A. Kneeling B. Standing C. Lying down D. Sitting
c
6. Which of the following definitions BEST describes a suture joint? A. Each of the joint surfaces has both a concave and convex surface. B. One joint surface is concave and the other surface is convex. C. Each of the joint surfaces is relatively flat. D. One joint surface fits like a peg in the hole of the opposite joint surface.
c
6. Which of the following definitions BEST describes endomysium? A. Tough connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle and is resistant to stretch B. Tough, thick tissue that divides muscles into fascicles C. Connective tissue that surrounds individual muscle fibers D. Connective tissue around muscle fibers, fascicles, and the entire muscle
c
7. Taking into account the attachments of the long head of the triceps, what would be the end range position that would provide the BEST stretch to the muscle? A. Shoulder and elbow extension B. Shoulder flexion and elbow extension C. Shoulder and elbow flexion D. Shoulder extension and elbow flexion
c
7. What is the function of the long head of the triceps? A. Extends the shoulder and flexes the elbow B. Flexes the shoulder and extends the elbow C. Extends the shoulder and the elbow D. Flexes the shoulder and the elbow
c
2. Rotation occurs in which of the following planes and around which axis? A. Transverse plane around a vertical axis B. Sagittal plane around a frontal axis C. Frontal plane around a vertical axis D. Horizontal plane around a sagittal axis
a
9. Which of the following components determines the torque force produced by a muscle? A. Force of contraction generated by the muscle B. Distance from the joint axis to the muscle (moment arm) C. Angle of insertion D. All of the above
d
A person is sitting in a nonmoving wheelchair. Another person begins to push the chair across a room. Which of the following concepts applies to what happens to the wheelchair? A. Unstable equilibrium B. The moment of inertia C. Static equilibrium D. The law of inertia
d
10. A person whose arm had been immobilized in a cast for a prolonged period of time is having difficulty reaching forward and upward. Which of the following statements BEST describes the arthrokinematic movements that are likely limited? A. Humeral head rolling inferiorly and gliding inferiorly B. Humeral head spinning laterally and with no gliding C. Humeral head spinning medially and with no gliding D. Humeral head rolling superiorly and gliding inferiorly
d
10. An arm immobilized in a cast is likely to undergo all of the following conditions EXCEPT: A. Weakening of ligaments and tendons B. Weakening of muscles C. Shortening of joint capsules with increased resistance to movement D. Increased bone density
d
10. Changes with aging occur in all of the following components of the muscular system EXCEPT: A. Muscle fibers B. Neuromuscular interactions C. Connective tissue D. Increased bone density
d
10. What are the functions of the elbow in terms of movement of the upper extremity? A. Positions the hand in space so it can accomplish activities B. Shortens the arm to enable the hand to bring objects to the face C. Lengthens the arm for reaching objects D. All of the above
d
10. Which of the following definitions BEST describes rotary movement produced by a force couple? A. Muscles producing forces that are perpendicular to each other B. Muscles producing forces in the opposite direction in the same line of pull C. Muscles producing forces in the same direction D. Muscles producing parallel forces in opposite directions
d
2. Which of the following tissues has the BEST blood supply to promote healing after injury? A. Menisci B. Articular cartilage C. Fibrocartilage D. Bone
d
3. Which of the following definitions BEST describes an eccentric muscle contraction? A. No movement is produced. B. During the movement, one of the muscle attachments is stable while the other attachment moves toward it. C. A small amount of movement is produced. D. During the movement, the muscle's attachments move farther apart from each other.
d
3. Which of the following functions is NOT an action of synovial fluid? A. Reduces friction between the joint surfaces B. Assists in delivery of oxygen and nutrients to cartilage on joint bony surfaces C. Assists with shock absorption D. Decreases vascularization of the joint capsule
d
3. Which of the following statements BEST describes the movement occurring at the ankle joints when a person in a standing position rises up on his or her toes? A. Passive and open kinematic chain B. Active and open kinematic chain C. Passive and closed kinematic chain D. Active and closed kinematic chain
d
4. What is the general location of the center of mass (center of gravity) for the entire body in the anatomical position? A. Posterior to the second rib B. Anterior to the border of the 11th thoracic (T11) vertebra C. Distal to the sternum D. Anterior to the second sacral (S2) vertebra
d
5. Which of the following joints is an example of a symphysis joint? A. Joint between the bones in the skull B. Joint between a tooth and the mandible C. Joint between the radius and ulna in the forearm formed by interosseous membrane D. Joint between the vertebrae and the discs in the spine
d
6. Which of the following definitions BEST describes a gomphosis joint? A. Each of the joint surfaces has both a concave and convex surface. B. One joint surface is concave and the other surface is convex. C. Each of the joint surfaces is relatively flat. D. One joint surface fits like a peg in the hole of the opposite joint surface.
d
6. Which of the following statements about the motions of supination and pronation in the forearm is MOST CORRECT? A. Muscles with attachments only to the humerus produce these motions. B. Muscles with attachments to the ulna produce these motions because the ulna rotates around a stationary radius. C. Muscles with attachments to the wrist carpals produce these motions. D. Muscles with attachments to the radius produce these motions because the radius rotates around a stationary ulna.
d
7. What motions are possible due to the saddle joint classification of the carpometacarpal (CMC) thumb joint? A. Abduction/adduction and ulnar deviation B. Flexion/extension, abduction/adduction, and radial deviation C. Abduction/adduction and axial rotation D. Flexion/extension, abduction/adduction, and axial rotation
d
Which type of lever has the axis of rotation between the effort and resistant forces? A. Fourth-class B. Third-class C. Second-class D. First-class
d
In what state of equilibrium is a person who is maintaining a standing position? A. Static equilibrium B. Unstable equilibrium C. Dynamic equilibrium D. Unequilibrium
a
What are the arthrokinematic motions during closed-chain knee extension? A. Femoral surface rolls anteriorly, slides posteriorly, and rotates medially. B. Tibial surface rolls anteriorly, slides posteriorly, and rotates medially. C. Femoral surface rolls posteriorly, slides anteriorly, and rotates laterally. D. Tibial surface rolls and slides anteriorly and rotates laterally.
a
1. Which of the following statements BEST describes the association between alignment of the distal radius and wrist deviation? A. The radial surface is concave, is tilted medially, and allows greater ulnar than radial deviation. B. The radial surface is convex, is tilted medially, and allows greater radial than ulnar deviation. C. The radial surface is concave, is tilted laterally, and allows greater ulnar than radial deviation. D. The radial surface is convex, is tilted laterally, and allows greater radial than ulnar deviation.
a
2. During a prone push-up with elbow extension, which of the following motions is occurring? A. The convex humerus is moving on the concave ulna. B. The concave ulna is moving on the convex humerus. C. The concave humerus is moving on the convex ulna. D. The convex ulna is moving on the concave humerus.
a
3. Which of the following ligaments provides the BEST lateral support to the wrist? A. Radial collateral ligament B. Radiocarpal ligament C. Ulnar collateral ligament D. Transverse carpal ligament
a
4. Which of the following statements explains why a person in the standing position is less stable than a person in a sitting position? A. The center of gravity is higher and the base of support is narrower. B. The center of gravity is lower and the base of support is narrower. C. The center of gravity is higher and the base of support is wider. D. The center of gravity is lower and the base of support is narrower.
a
5. Which of the following joints is an example of a fibrous joint? A. Suture B. Synovial C. Symphysis D. Synchondrosis
a
5. Which of the following muscle fiber arrangements is BEST designed to produce a larger range of motion? A. Fusiform B. Strap C. Pennate D. Unipennate
a
5. Which of the following muscles performs forearm supination? A. Biceps brachii and supinator B. Brachialis and supinator C. Supinator and brachioradialis D. Supinator and coracobrachialis
a
6. Which muscles perform ulnar deviation? A. Extensor carpi ulnaris and flexor carpi ulnaris B. Flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum profundus C. Extensor carpi radialis longus and flexor carpi radialis D. Flexor digitorum profundus and extensor carpi radialis brevis
a
6. Which of the following definitions BEST describes a saddle joint? A. Each of the joint surfaces has both a concave and convex surface. B. One joint surface is concave and the other surface is convex. C. Each of the joint surfaces is relatively flat. D. One joint surface fits like a peg in the hole of the opposite joint surface.
a
6. Which of the following muscles performs elbow flexion and forearm supination? A. Biceps brachii B. Brachialis C. Triceps brachii D. Brachioradialis
a
8. Which of the following activities is an example of active insufficiency? A. Attempting to grip an object when the wrist is flexed B. Passively stretching the wrist into extension C. Fingers passively moving into flexion when the wrist extends D. Stretching hamstrings over a flexed hip and extended knee
a
8. Which of the following positions of the knee is MOST LIKELY to be the joint's close-packed position? A. Standing B. Sitting C. Kneeling D. Semi-squatting
a
A person is turning a key in a door lock. In which plane and around which axis does movement of the forearm primarily occur when turning the key? A. Transverse plane around a vertical axis B. Sagittal plane around a frontal axis C. Frontal plane around a vertical axis D. Horizontal plane around a sagittal axis
a
A person lying on the stomach flexes the knee to stretch the anterior quadriceps muscle. Due to tight quadriceps muscles and knee joint capsule and ligament structures, the flexion is limited to only 90 degrees (normal is typically 130 degrees in the position). Which of the following BEST describes the end-feel of this knee flexion? A. Firm end-feel B. Soft end-feel C. Hard end-feel D. Empty end-feel
a
All of the following muscles are activated during forced expiration EXCEPT: A. Serratus posterior superior B. Transversus abdominis C. External and internal abdominal obliques D. Rectus abdominis
a
During high-powered activities, such as sprinting up a hill, how do the hip adductors function? A. At the end of hip flexion, they produce a strong extension force. B. At the end of hip extension, they produce a strong abduction force. C. At the end of hip flexion, they produce a strong flexion force. D. At the end of hip extension, they produce a strong extension force.
a
Dysfunction of which of the following muscles could lead to impingement of subacromial structures during shoulder scaption? A. Serratus anterior B. Pectoralis major C. Deltoid D. Latissimus dorsi
a
How much inversion range of motion is typical compared to eversion in the ankle/foot complex? A. Two to three times more inversion than eversion B. Two to three times more eversion than inversion C. Five times more inversion than eversion D. Five times more eversion than inversion
a
What are the joint arthrokinematic motions that occur during mandibular depression? A. The condyles roll anteriorly and the mandibular disc complex glides anteriorly. B. The condyles roll posteriorly and the mandibular disc complex glides anteriorly. C. The condyles and mandibular disc complex glide anteriorly. D. The condyles roll anteriorly and mandibular disc complex glides posteriorly.
a
What does measurement of the Q-angle of the knee represent? A. Line of pull of the quadriceps B. Line of pull of the hip adductors C. Line of pull of the hamstrings D. Line of pull of the hip abductors
a
What is a LIKELY adverse effect of having a meniscus surgically removed? A. Increased stress to articular cartilage B. Increased nutrition to articular cartilage C. Decreased stress to articular cartilage D. Decreased friction to articular cartilage
a
What is the hourglass-shaped boney landmark that lies between the medial and lateral humeral epicondyles? A. Trochlea B. Capitulum C. Olecranon fossa D. Supracondylar ridge
a
What is the primary function of the infrahyoid muscles? A. Stabilize the hyoid bone B. Depress the mandible C. Protrude the mandible D. Elevate the hyoid
a
What is the primary function of the tibialis anterior when the heel strikes the ground when walking? A. Eccentric lowering of the foot to the ground B. Plantar flexion to produce push-off C. Concentric ankle dorsiflexion D. Plantar flexion to bring the foot to the ground
a
What is the primary function of tibialis anterior when the heel strikes the ground when walking? A. Eccentric lowering of the foot to the ground B. Plantar flexion to produce push off C. Concentric ankle dorsiflexion D. Plantar flexion to bring the foot to the ground
a
What primary muscle of ventilation would be most affected for a person who sustains a C3-C4 spinal cord injury? A. Diaphragm B. Scalenes C. Pectoralis major D. Sternocleidomastoid
a
Which direction is the most common for temporomandibular joint dislocations? A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Medial D. Lateral
a
Which muscle performs shoulder flexion? A. Anterior deltoid B. Infraspinatus C. Middle deltoid D. Supraspinatus
a
Which muscle produces scapular protraction? A. Serratus anterior B. Rhomboid major C. Lower trapezius D. Pectoralis major
a
Which muscles contribute to spinal stabilization and alignment? A. Transversus abdominis, internal oblique abdominal, and deep lumbar multifidus B. Rectus abdominis and internal oblique abdominal C. Transversus abdominis and erector spinae D. Rectus abdominis, internal oblique abdominal, and deep lumbar multifidus
a
Which of the following actions would MOST LIKELY assist the foot with adapting to walking on a rocky surface? A. Unlocking of the subtalar joint during pronation B. Locking of the subtalar joint during pronation C. Unlocking of the subtalar joint during supination D. Locking of the subtalar joint during supination
a
Which of the following arthrokinematic motions occur during open-chain talocrural dorsiflexion? A. The talus rolls anteriorly and slides posteriorly. B. The calcaneus rolls anteriorly and slides posteriorly. C. The talus rolls posteriorly and slides anteriorly. D. The calcaneus rolls posteriorly and slides anteriorly.
a
Which of the following bones form the structures of the temporomandibular joints? A. Mandible, maxillae, temporal, zygomatic, sphenoid, and hyoid B. Mandible and maxillae C. Mandible, maxillae, and hyoid D. Mandible, maxillae, temporal, zygomatic, and sphenoid
a
Which of the following components are included in vector force measurements? A. Magnitude (amount) and direction of the force B. Duration and direction of the force C. Type and duration of the force D. Amount and duration of the force
a
Which of the following definitions BEST describes concepts related to the law of acceleration? A. The greater the force, the greater the acceleration of the mass. B. The less the mass, the less the acceleration of the mass. C. The greater the force, the less the acceleration of the mass. D. The greater the mass, the greater the acceleration of the mass.
a
Which of the following definitions BEST describes coupled motion? A. Motion around one axis is consistently associated with motion around another axis. B. Motion is around only one axis. C. Motion around one axis is not consistently associated with motion around another axis. D. Motion is always around at least three axes.
a
Which of the following definitions MOST CORRECTLY describes power? A. The amount of work done in a given period of time B. The acceleration of an object C. The amount of force required to move an object D. The deceleration of an object
a
Which of the following descriptions BEST describes excessive anteversion of the femur? A. An angle significantly greater than 15 degrees B. An angle that averages 15 degrees C. An angle markedly less than 15 degrees D. An angle determined by the position of the hip
a
Which of the following events is MOST LIKELY to occur during spinal flexion? A. Anterior structures are compressed and disc material moves posteriorly. B. Posterior structures are compressed and disc material moves anteriorly. C. Anterior structures are stretched and disc material moves posteriorly. D. Posterior structures are stretched and disc material moves anteriorly.
a
Which of the following factors is MOST LIKELY to contribute to excessive lateral tracking of the patella? A. Shortened iliotibial band and lateral patella retinacular fibers and lax medial collateral ligament B. Weak vastus lateralis C. Shortened gracilis and medial patella retinacular fibers and lax medial collateral ligament D. High foot arches
a
Which of the following functional activities would MOST LIKELY display dysfunction by a person who had impaired spinal rotation at multiple levels? A. Looking over the shoulder while backing up a car B. Looking upward to see an object on a high shelf C. Looking downward when tying shoelaces D. Looking forward at a computer screen
a
Which of the following ligaments counters valgus stresses to the elbow joint? A. Medial collateral ligament B. Annular ligament C. Lateral collateral ligament D. Oblique ligament
a
Which of the following ligaments functions to counter a medial force to the knee, resulting in a varus stress? A. Lateral collateral ligament B. Anterior cruciate ligament C. Medial collateral ligament D. Posterior cruciate ligament
a
Which of the following motions is most limited in the thoracic spine? A. Flexion and extension B. Rotation C. Flexion and side-bending D. Side-bending
a
Which of the following muscles are dynamic stabilizers of the glenohumeral joint? A. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor B. Anterior, middle, and posterior deltoid C. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and serratus anterior D. Upper and lower trapezius and serratus anterior
a
Which of the following statements BEST describes ground reaction force? A. When force is applied to an object, the object will respond with an equal and opposite force. B. When force is applied to an object, the object will respond with a smaller and opposite force. C. When force is applied to an object, the object will respond with varying force. D. When force is applied to an object, the object will not respond.
a
Which statement BEST describes expiration during quiet ventilation? A. It is passive due to an increase in intrathoracic pressure. B. It is passive due to a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. C. It is active, requiring contraction of the diaphragm. D. It is active, requiring contraction of the abdominals.
a
Which statement BEST describes the function of the diaphragm during inspiration? A. It contracts and descends in the abdominal cavity, increasing intra-abdominal pressure. B. It relaxes and descends in the abdominal cavity, increasing intra-abdominal pressure. C. It contracts and ascends in the abdominal cavity, increasing intra-abdominal pressure. D. It relaxes and ascends in the abdominal cavity, increasing intra-abdominal pressure.
a
Why would an injury to the joint surface of the temporomandibular joint have different healing outcomes compared to the joint surface of the knee? A. The temporomandibular joint fibrocartilage is capable of repairing itself; the knee hyaline surfaces cannot. B. Neither joint surface is capable of healing after injury. C. The knee fibrocartilage is capable of repairing itself; the temporomandibular joint hyaline surfaces cannot. D. Both joint surfaces are capable of healing after injury.
a
1. Flexion and extension occur in which of the following planes and around which axis? A. Transverse plane around a sagittal axis B. Sagittal plane around a frontal axis C. Frontal plane around a vertical axis D. Horizontal plane around a sagittal axis
b
1. Which of the following definitions BEST defines the term agonist? A. Alternating contractions between opposing muscles B. The muscle that contracts to initiate a specific movement C. The muscle that has the opposite action of the muscle contracting D. Opposing muscles contracting at the same time
b
1. Which of the tissue components gives the most when stretched? A. Collagen B. Elastin C. Ground substance D. Osteoblasts
b
4. Which of the following ligaments are MOST LIKELY to be affected by a radial head fracture? A. Medial collateral ligament and lateral collateral ligament B. Annular ligament and lateral collateral ligament C. Annular ligament and medial collateral ligament D. Oblique ligament and annular ligament
b
5. Where do the wrist extensor muscles share a common proximal attachment? A. Radial shaft B. Lateral humeral epicondyle and supracondylar ridge C. Ulna shaft D. Medial humeral epicondyle and supracondylar ridge
b
5. Which muscle is considered the "workhorse" in producing elbow flexion? A. Long head of the biceps B. Brachialis C. Short head of the biceps D. Brachioradialis
b
6. A person who is walking loses balance and falls when nudged. Which state of equilibrium does this scenario BEST represent? A. Stable equilibrium B. Unstable equilibrium C. Neutral equilibrium D. A and C
b
6. Which of the following definitions BEST describes a ball in socket joint? A. Each of the joint surfaces has both a concave and convex surface. B. One joint surface is concave and the other surface is convex. C. Each of the joint surfaces is relatively flat. D. One joint surface fits like a peg in the hole of the opposite joint surface.
b
6. Which of the following definitions describe stable equilibrium? A. The body is unable to return the center of gravity to its original position when disturbed. B. The body is able to maintain its center of gravity in a static position or return to the original position if slightly altered. C. The body's center of gravity is moving but the body maintains it in the same plane. D. The body's center of gravity moves independently of any amount of force applied.
b
7. Vector forces of equal magnitude but in the opposite direction and with moment arms of the same distance are most likely to have what effect on joint movement? A. Movement of the joint in the direction of the muscle force B. No movement of the joint C. Movement of the joint in the direction of the force opposing the muscle D. Alternating movement of the joint in each direction of the forces
b
8. What is the function of the dorsal interossei muscles at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints? A. Flexion B. Abduction C. Extension D. Adduction
b
9. What is the functional position of the wrist and hand? A. Wrist flexion (20 degrees), radial deviation (10 degrees), metacarpophalangeal flexion (45 degrees), proximal interphalangeal flexion (30 degrees), and slight distal interphalangeal joint flexion B. Wrist extension (20 degrees), ulnar deviation (10 degrees), metacarpophalangeal flexion (45 degrees), proximal interphalangeal flexion (30 degrees), and slight distal interphalangeal joint flexion C. Wrist flexion (20 degrees), ulnar deviation (10 degrees), metacarpophalangeal flexion (45 degrees), proximal interphalangeal flexion (30 degrees), and slight distal interphalangeal joint flexion D. Wrist extension (20 degrees), radial deviation (10 degrees), metacarpophalangeal flexion (45 degrees), proximal interphalangeal flexion (30 degrees), and slight distal interphalangeal joint flexion
b
A person is reaching forward and upward into a cabinet. In which plane and around which axis does this movement primarily occur? A. Transverse plane around a sagittal axis B. Sagittal plane around a frontal axis C. Frontal plane around a vertical axis D. Horizontal plane around a sagittal axis
b
At which of the following joints does the vast majority of ankle inversion/eversion and abduction/adduction occur? A. Transverse tarsal B. Subtalar C. Talocrural D. Metatarsophalangeal
b
During arm elevation, which of the following movements occur at the sternoclavicular (SC) joint? A. Protraction at the SC joint B. Posterior rotation of the clavicle at the SC joint C. No movement at the SC joint D. Anterior rotation of the clavicle at the SC joint
b
Using the concave-convex pattern of movement, which direction is the femur most likely to roll and glide when moving from standing to a sitting position? A. Roll anterior and glide anterior B. Roll posterior and glide anterior C. Roll anterior and glide posterior D. Roll posterior and glide posterior
b
What are the joint arthrokinematic motions that occur during mandibular elevation? A. Condyles roll anteriorly and mandibular disc complex glides anteriorly. B. Condyles roll posteriorly and mandibular disc complex glides posteriorly. C. Condyles and the mandibular disc complex glide anteriorly. D. Condyles roll anteriorly and the mandibular disc complex glides posteriorly.
b
What are the joints formed by the heads of the ribs and the thoracic vertebral bodies? A. Costotransverse joints B. Costovertebral joints C. Interchondral joints D. Chondrosternal joints
b
What are the primary muscles that extend the shoulder? A. Posterior deltoid and long head of the biceps B. Posterior deltoid, latissimus dorsi, long head of the triceps, and pectoralis major C. Anterior deltoid and long head of the biceps D. Anterior deltoid, latissimus dorsi, triceps, and pectoralis minor
b
What is the MOST LIKELY reason that hip flexion range of motion would be decreased when the knee is extended? A. Active insufficiency of the hamstrings B. Passive insufficiency of the hamstrings C. Active insufficiency of the quadriceps D. Passive insufficiency of the hip flexors
b
What is the force capability of the knee extensors compared to the knee flexors? A. Unable to produce a force greater than knee flexors B. Able to produce a force two-thirds greater than the knee flexors C. Unable to produce a force equal to knee flexors D. Able to produce a force one-half greater than the knee flexors
b
What is the functional position of the wrist and hand? A. Wrist Oexion (20 degrees), radial deviation (10 degrees), metacarpophalangeal Oexion (45 degrees), proximal interphalangeal Oexion (30 degrees), and slight distal interphalangeal joint flexion B. Wrist extension (20 degrees), ulnar deviation (10 degrees), metacarpophalangeal Oexion (45 degrees), proximal interphalangeal flexion (30 degrees), and slight distal interphalangeal joint flexion C. Wrist flexion (20 degrees), ulnar deviation (10 degrees), metacarpophalangeal flexion (45 degrees), proximal interphalangeal Oexion (30 degrees), and slight distal interphalangeal joint flexion D. Wrist extension (20 degrees), radial deviation (10 degrees), metacarpophalangeal flexion (45 degrees), proximal interphalangeal flexion (30 degrees), and slight distal interphalangeal joint flexion
b
What would be a LIKELY adverse effect of not having the patella at the knee joint? A. Increased moment arm of the knee flexors and their ability to generate a force B. Decreased moment arm of the knee extensors and their ability to generate a force C. Increased moment arm of the knee extensors and their ability to generate a force D. Decreased moment arm of the knee flexors and their ability to generate a force
b
When lifting and lowering a dumbbell during elbow flexion in a standing position, which of the following statements is MOST CORRECT about the acceleration of the lower arm? A. It is accelerating toward the shoulder during flexion and accelerating as it is lowered to its resting position. B. It is accelerating toward the shoulder during flexion and decelerating as it is lowered to its resting position. C. It is decelerating toward the shoulder during flexion and accelerating as it is lowered to its resting position. D. It is decelerating toward the shoulder during flexion and decelerating as it is lowered to its resting position.
b
When standing on the right leg, which of the following muscles assists with maintaining a level pelvis? A. Right hip adductors B. Right hip abductors C. Left hip adductors D. Left hip abductors
b
Where would a person with the overuse syndrome of tennis elbow MOST LIKELY experience tenderness with palpation? A. Radial shaft B. Lateral humeral epicondyle and supracondylar ridge C. Ulna shaft D. Medial humeral epicondyle and supracondylar ridge
b
Which muscle produces scapular retraction? A. Serratus anterior B. Rhomboid major C. Deltoid D. Pectoralis major
b
Which of the following activities is MOST LIKELY to result in the greatest amount of patellofemoral joint compression forces? A. Swimming B. Deep squats C. Walking D. Bike riding
b
Which of the following bones form the shoulder complex? A. Clavicle, scapula, and humerus B. Sternum, clavicle, scapula, and humerus C. Scapula and humerus D. Sternum, ribs, scapula, and humerus
b
Which of the following definitions BEST describes genu varum? A. The angle between the femur neck and shaft is greater than 125 degrees. B. The angle between the femur and tibia is greater than 180 degrees. C. The angle between the femur neck and shaft is less than 125 degrees. D. The angle between the femur and tibia is less than 170 degrees.
b
Which of the following definitions BEST describes the function of the axial skeleton? A. Includes the knee joint, stores calcium B. Protects the brain, stores calcium, provides a rigid support frame C. Includes the upper and lower extremities, produces cells, stores calcium D. Protects the heart, includes the scapula
b
Which of the following events is MOST LIKELY to occur during spinal extension? A. Anterior structures are compressed and disc material moves posteriorly. B. Posterior structures are compressed and disc material moves anteriorly. C. Anterior structures are stretched and disc material moves posteriorly. D. Posterior structures are stretched and disc material moves anteriorly.
b
Which of the following joints has equal amounts of inversion/eversion and abduction/adduction motion but very little dorsiflexion/plantar flexion? A. Transverse tarsal B. Subtalar C. Talocrural D. Metatarsophalangeal
b
Which of the following knee ranges results in the greatest amount of patellofemoral joint compression forces? A. Extension to neutral B. Between 90 degrees and 60 degrees of flexion C. Between 20 degrees to 30 degrees of flexion D. 120 degrees of flexion
b
Which of the following ligaments functions to counter excessive inversion of the ankle? A. Tibionavicular ligament B. Anterior talofibular ligament C. Tibiocalcaneal ligament D. Anterior tibiotalar ligament
b
Which of the following ligaments would most likely be injured with a lateral ankle sprain? A. Tibionavicular ligament B. Anterior talofibular ligament C. Tibiocalcaneal ligament D. Anterior tibiotalar ligament
b
Which of the following lung capacities is the volume of air that can be inspired during quiet breathing plus during forced inspiration? A. Functional residual capacity B. Inspiratory capacity C. Vital capacity D. Total lung capacity
b
Which of the following muscle groups act to produce upward rotation of the scapula? A. Lower trapezius, rhomboids, and serratus anterior B. Upper and lower trapezius and serratus anterior C. Upper and middle trapezius and pectoralis minor D. Levator scapulae, pectoralis minor, and rhomboids
b
Which of the following muscle groups should be the last group to strengthen if someone has acute low back pain? A. Transversus abdominis B. Rectus abdominis C. Internal obliques D. Multifidi
b
Which of the following muscles is activated at the ankle during lift-off from the ground when performing a vertical jump? A. Concentric contraction of the tibialis anterior B. Concentric contraction of the gastrocnemius and soleus C. Eccentric contraction of the tibialis anterior D. Eccentric contraction of the gastrocnemius and soleus
b
Which of the following muscles plays a primary role in propelling the body forward as the heel lifts off the ground when walking? A. Tibialis anterior B. Gastrocnemius C. Tibialis posterior D. Extensor digitorum longus
b
Which of the following positions of the elbow is MOST LIKELY to allow the greatest amount of joint movement between the joint surfaces when a clinician is applying manual techniques to increase range of motion? (Hint: Consider closed-packed versus open-packed concepts.) A. Elbow in full extension B. Elbow in 70 degrees of flexion C. Elbow in full flexion D. The position of the joint does not influence the amount of joint play or joint movement.
b
Which of the following statements BEST describes the "bucket-handle" motion of the ribs during inspiration? A. Ribs 2 through 7 lift upward and rotate outward. B. The lower ribs lift upward and rotate outward. C. Ribs 1 through 2 move the sternum in a dorsal and inferior direction. D. The lower ribs move downward and inward.
b
Which of the following statements BEST describes the "pump-handle" motion of the ribs during inspiration? A. Ribs 2 through 7 move the sternum in a dorsal and an inferior direction. B. Ribs 2 through 7 move the sternum in a ventral and superior direction. C. Ribs 1 through 2 move the sternum in a dorsal and an inferior direction. D. Ribs 1 through 2 move the sternum in a ventral and superior direction.
b
Which of the following statements BEST describes the comparison between the normal range of motion during radial and ulnar deviation? A. Ulnar and radial deviation are equal. B. Ulnar deviation is greater than radial deviation C. Ranges vary depending on an individual's age. D. Radial deviation is greater than ulnar deviation.
b
Which of the following statements BEST describes the functions of the ribs? A. Mobile for chest expansion during breathing B. Mobile for chest expansion during breathing but stable enough to protect internal organs C. Stable to protect internal organs D. Stable to prevent chest expansion during breathing and to protect internal organs
b
Which of the following tissue components provides tensile strength to joint structures? A. Elastin B. Collagen C. Ground substance D. Osteoblasts
b
Which statement BEST describes expiration during quiet ventilation? A. It is passive due to the environmental pressure being greater than the internal lung pressure. B. It is passive due to the internal lung pressure being greater than the environmental pressure. C. It is active, requiring contraction of the diaphragm. D. It is active, requiring contraction of the abdominals.
b
Which statement BEST describes the disc within the temporomandibular joint? A. It is able to heal itself when injured. B. It is not able to heal itself when injured and is a source of pain and dysfunction. C. It is not able to heal itself when injured but causes little pain or dysfunction. D. It is able to heal itself when injured but is a source of pain during injury.
b
10. Which of the following grips is MOST OFTEN used to carry luggage or a briefcase? A. Power key pinch B. Precision grip C. Hook grip D. Power grip
c
2. What are the arthrokinematic motions of the ulna during open chain elbow flexion? A. Rolls and glides posteriorly B. Rolls laterally, glides inferiorly C. Rolls and glides anteriorly D. Rolls superiorly, glides inferiorly
c
2. Which of the following statements BEST describes the cellular events that occur during a muscle contraction? A. Titin develops active tension within the muscle fiber. B. Actin cross-bridges bind with myosin receptor sites, causing myosin to slide toward the actin. C. Myosin cross-bridges bind with actin receptor sites, causing actin to slide toward the myosin. D. Titin and desmin develop active tension, which results in a muscle contraction.
c
2. Which of the following structures form the "anatomical snuff box" of the hand? A. Extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and extensor digitorum B. Flexor pollicis longus and abductor pollicis longus C. Extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and abductor pollicis longus D. Flexor carpi radialis and extensor digitorum
c
3. An athlete sustained a severe injury of the knee's medial collateral ligament. Which of the following feedback mechanisms to the brain will likely NOT be affected by this injury? A. How the joint moves and where it is in space B. When the joint is compressed or distracted C. How the joint receives nutrients D. When the joint is injured
c
3. Which of the following activities is an example of closed kinematic chain movement of the extremity? A. Kicking with legs when swimming B. Brushing one's hair C. Pushing with hands on a chair arm to move into standing D. Eating with a spoon
c
3. Which of the following ligaments would MOST LIKELY sustain an overstretch injury from a valgus force to the lateral aspect of the elbow? A. Lateral collateral ligament B. Annular ligament C. Medial collateral ligament D. Oblique ligament
c
4. The afferent sensory nerve receptors located within ligaments provide the central nervous system with information about all of the following EXCEPT: A. How the joint moves and where it is in space B. When the joint is compressed or distracted C. How the joint receives nutrients D. When the joint is injured
c
4. Which of the following ligaments counters varus stresses to the elbow joint? A. Medial collateral ligament B. Annular ligament C. Lateral collateral ligament D. Oblique ligament
c
8. Where on the forearm should a cuff weight be placed to require the greatest work from the biceps muscle to lift the weight? (Hint: Consider the moment arm for the force of the weight.) A. Around the mid forearm B. Around the wrist C. In the hand D. Close to the elbow joint
c
9. What are the MOST LIKELY functions of the carrying angle at the elbow? A. Tends to keep objects away from the side of the body B. Improves biomechanical efficiency of bringing the hand to the mouth C. A and B D. None of the above
c
9. Which of the following definitions best describes the Golgi tendon organ (GTO)? A. Sensory receptor, activated by active contraction or excessive stretch, facilitates agonist B. Motor receptor, activated by excessive stretch, facilitates agonist C. Sensory receptor, activated by active contraction or excessive stretch, inhibits agonist D. Motor receptor, activated by active contraction, inhibits agonist
c
9. Which of the following definitions best describes the arthrokinematic movement of rolling? A. The points of contact of each surface remain the same. B. The motion of the moving joint surface is linear. C. The points of contact on one surface make contact with changing points on the opposite surface. D. The points of one surface turn around another surface.
c
An athlete's arm is in an extended position prior to throwing a ball in a forward direction. Which of the following statements BEST describes the arm's energy in this backward position and when throwing the ball? A. The arm has the kinetic energy created by its position to accelerate forward to throw the ball. B. The arm has the potential energy created by its position to accelerate forward to throw the ball. C. The arm has the potential energy created by its backward position, which changes into kinetic energy as the ball is thrown forward. D. The arm has the kinetic energy created by its backward position and when the ball is thrown.
c
At which of the following joints does occipital flexion and extension occur? A. C1-C7 B. Atlantoaxial joint C. Atlanto-occipital joint D. C3-C7
c
At which of the following joints does the vast majority of dorsiflexion and plantar flexion occur? A. Transverse tarsal B. Subtalar C. Talocrural D. Metatarsophalangeal
c
For healthy individuals, which lung volume represents breathing while dressing or bathing? A. Inspiratory reserve volume B. Expiratory reserve volume C. Tidal volume D. Residual volume
c
In what plane and around what axis does mandibular depression occur? A. Horizontal plane around a vertical axis B. Frontal plane around a sagittal axis C. Sagittal plane around a frontal axis D. Vertical plane around a sagittal axis
c
In what plane and around what axis does mandibular elevation occur? A. Horizontal plane around a vertical axis B. Frontal plane around a sagittal axis C. Sagittal plane around a frontal axis D. Vertical plane around a sagittal axis
c
In what position are the hips and spine during an anterior pelvic tilt? A. Increased lumbar lordosis, spinal flexion, and hip flexion B. Decreased lumbar lordosis, spinal extension, and hip extension C. Increased lumbar lordosis, spinal extension, and hip flexion D. Decreased lumbar lordosis, spinal flexion, and hip extension
c
In what state of equilibrium is a person who is running 6 miles per hour on a level surface? A. Static equilibrium B. Unstable equilibrium C. Dynamic equilibrium D. Unequilibrium
c
What are the arthrokinematic motions of the humeral head as the arm returns to the anatomical position after reaching upward into a cabinet? A. Rolls medially, glides superiorly B. Rolls laterally, glides inferiorly C. Rolls inferiorly, glides superiorly D. Rolls superiorly, glides inferiorly
c
What are the cardinal signs of temporomandibular joint dysfunction? A. Joint tenderness and teeth grinding B. Joint noise and excessive movement C. Joint pain, noise, and limited range of motion D. Joint inflammation, swelling, and muscle weakness
c
What is scapulohumeral rhythm? A. 2:3 ratio of scapula to humeral movement after 30 degrees of abduction or 60 degrees of flexion B. An unequal amount of scapula to humeral movement after 20 degrees of glenohumeral movement C. 2:1 ratio of humeral to scapula movement after 30 degrees of abduction or 60 degrees of flexion D. An equal amount of scapula to humeral movement after 60 degrees of glenohumeral movement
c
What is the function of anterior and posterior tilting of the scapula during glenohumeral motion? A. Allows the scapula to move independently of the humerus B. Allows the scapula to maintain contact with horizontal curvature of the thorax C. Allows the scapula to maintain contact with curvature of the rib cage and orients glenoid fossa with humeral head D. Allows the inferior orientation of the glenoid fossa to maintain the humeral head in the fossa
c
What is the function of the disc in the temporomandibular joint? A. It provides attachment for muscles. B. It serves no function for the joint. C. It counters stress, increases stability, and allows the joint to function as a hinge and gliding joint. D. It increases stability, decreases stress, and allows the joint to function as a gliding joint.
c
What is the function of the temporomandibular joint's inferior joint formed by the underlying surface of the disc and the mandibular condyle? A. It functions as a ball-and-socket joint. B. It functions as a gliding joint. C. It functions as a hinge joint. D. It functions as a fibrous joint.
c
What is the functional purpose of the patella? A. Increases the moment arm of the knee flexors and their ability to generate a force B. Decreases the moment arm of the knee extensors and their ability to generate a force C. Increases the moment arm of the knee extensors and their ability to generate a force D. Decreases the moment arm of the knee flexors and their ability to generate a force
c
What is the position of the hip in which the gluteus maximus is able to produce its greatest extension force? A. 20 degrees of extension B. 45 degrees of flexion C. 70 degrees of flexion D. Neutral
c
What motion is produced by unilateral contraction of the sternocleidomastoid muscle? A. Ipsilateral cervical lateral flexion and rotation B. Contralateral cervical lateral flexion and rotation C. Ipsilateral cervical lateral flexion and contralateral rotation D. Contralateral cervical lateral flexion and ipsilateral rotation
c
When describing work in terms of kinesiology, which factors are considered? A. Force applied to move the object B. Distance the object is moved C. Force applied to the object and distance it is moved D. Force applied and distance the object is moved in a certain amount of time
c
When does the internal force (muscle force) have a greater mechanical advantage over the external force? A. When the internal moment arm is less than the external moment arm B. When the internal and external moment arms are equal C. When the internal moment arm is greater than the external moment arm D. The mechanical advantage is not related to moment arms.
c
When rehabilitating the knee complex muscles, what should be the strength goals of the quadriceps compared to the hamstrings? A. The quadriceps and hamstrings should be equal in strength. B. The hamstrings should be two-thirds stronger than the quadriceps. C. The quadriceps should be two-thirds stronger than the hamstrings. D. The strength of each group is unrelated.
c
When working to increase the strength of muscles, which of the following statements is MOST CORRECT in terms of the concept of the moment of inertia? A. The closer the force is from the joint axis of rotation, the harder the muscle must work to counter the force. B. The distance of the force from the joint axis does not influence the force the muscle must generate to overcome the force. C. The further the force is from the joint axis of rotation, the harder the muscle must work to counter the force. D. The further the force is from the joint axis of rotation, the less the muscle must work to counter the force.
c
Which of the following arthrokinematic motions would need to be increased with mobilization techniques in a person with limited talocrural plantar flexion? A. The talus rolling anteriorly and sliding posteriorly B. The calcaneus rolling anteriorly and sliding posteriorly C. The talus rolling posteriorly and sliding anteriorly D. The calcaneus rolling posteriorly and sliding anteriorly
c
Which of the following concepts relates to the moment of inertia? A. Distance of object from the axis of rotation, angle of rotation B. Angle of rotation C. Distance of object from the axis of rotation, mass of the object D. Mass of the object
c
Which of the following definitions BEST describes coxa valgus? A. Angle is less than 125 degrees. B. Angle is, on average, 125 degrees. C. Angle is greater than 125 degrees. D. Angle varies according to hip position.
c
Which of the following definitions BEST describes kinetic energy? A. It is the sum of potential energy and kinetic energy. B. It is the energy related to the position of an object. C. It is the mechanical energy of a moving object. D. It is energy that can be destroyed.
c
Which of the following functions is an important role of the tibialis posterior during walking? A. Concentrically lifts medial longitudinal arch B. Eccentrically controls lowering of medial longitudinal arch C. B and A D. None of the above
c
Which of the following joints is MOST LIKELY involved when a person experiences discomfort under the kneecap while going down steps? A. Lateral compartment of tibiofemoral joint B. Tibiofibular joint C. Patellofemoral joint D. Medial compartment of tibiofemoral joint
c
Which of the following ligaments functions to counter a lateral force to the knee resulting in a valgus stress? A. Lateral collateral ligament B. Anterior cruciate ligament C. Medial collateral ligament D. Posterior cruciate ligament
c
Which of the following ligaments provides the BEST medial support to the wrist? A. Radial collateral ligament B. Radiocarpal ligament C. Ulnar collateral ligament D. Transverse carpal ligament
c
Which of the following motions comprises supination of the foot? A. Inversion, abduction, and dorsiflexion B. Eversion, adduction, and plantar flexion C. Inversion, adduction, and plantar flexion D. Eversion, abduction, and dorsiflexion
c
Which of the following motions is associated with an increased lumbosacral angle? A. Decreased lumbar extension and increased lordosis B. Increased lumbar flexion and kyphosis C. Increased lumbar extension and lordosis D. Decreased lumbar flexion and increased kyphosis
c
Which of the following muscle groups is MOST LIKELY overlengthened and would require strengthening in a person who displays a chronic excessive anterior tilt posture? A. Trunk flexors and extensors B. Trunk extensors C. Trunk flexors D. None of the above
c
Which of the following muscle groups is MOST LIKELY to require strengthening in a person displaying excessive postural thoracic kyphosis? A. Trunk flexors B. Trunk rotators C. Trunk extensors D. Trunk lateral flexors
c
Which of the following muscles comprise the pes anserinus? A. Sartorius, gracilis, and semimembranosus B. Rectus femoris, vastus medialis, and vastus lateralis C. Sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus D. Biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus
c
Which of the following muscles decelerates rearfoot pronation and controls the lowering of the medial longitudinal arch as the entire foot makes contact with the ground during walking? A. Tibialis anterior B. Gastrocnemius C. Tibialis posterior D. Extensor digitorum longus
c
Which of the following muscles is MOST LIKELY to prevent passive knee flexion when a person is lying in the prone position? A. Biceps femoris B. Iliopsoas C. Rectus femoris D. Adductor magnus
c
Which of the following muscles is activated at the ankle when the heel is lifted off the ground as someone rises up on the toes in standing? A. Concentric contraction of tibialis anterior B. Eccentric contraction of tibialis anterior C. Concentric contraction of gastrocnemius and soleus D. Eccentric contraction of gastrocnemius and soleus
c
Which of the following muscles perform radial deviation? A. Extensor carpi ulnaris and Oexor carpi ulnaris B. Flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum profundus C. Extensor carpi radialis longus and Oexor carpi radialis D. Flexor digitorum profundus and extensor carpi radialis brevis
c
Which of the following nerves is MOST LIKELY to be compressed if the structures in the carpal tunnel become inflamed? A. Ulnar B. Musculocutaneous C. median D. Radial
c
Which of the following statements BEST describes the anterior longitudinal ligaments of the spine? A. Stronger than posterior longitudinal ligaments, stretched with spinal flexion, compressed with extension B. Weaker than posterior longitudinal ligaments, compressed with spinal flexion, stretched with extension C. Stronger than posterior longitudinal ligaments, compressed with spinal flexion, stretched with extension D. Weaker than posterior longitudinal ligaments, stretched with spinal flexion and with extension
c
Which of the following structures, if fractured, would present with tenderness in the floor of the snuff box? A. Trapezoid bone B. Hamate bone C. Scaphoid bone D. Capitate bone
c
Which of the following terms describes breathing during low-intensity activities that have low metabolic demands? A. Forced ventilation B. Total lung capacity C. Quiet ventilation D. Functional residual capacity
c
Which statement about facet joint orientation in the lumbar spine is MOST CORRECT? A. Oriented approximately 45 degrees between the frontal and transverse planes B. Oriented in the frontal plane, allowing more lateral bending compared to flexion and extension C. Oriented closer to the sagittal plane, allowing a larger amount of movement into flexion and extension D. Oriented in the same planes as those in the cervical and thoracic spine
c
Why does movement of the sternoclavicular (SC) joint produce movement at the scapula? A. The clavicle articulates with the scapula at the scapulothoracic joint. B. Movement of the acromioclavicular (AC) joint and the SC joint are independent of scapular movement. C. The clavicle articulates with the scapula at the AC joint. D. Movement does not occur at the SC joint.
c
10. In which direction are the hamstrings most likely pulling the pelvis if the rectus abdominis muscle is pulling the anterior portion of the pelvis in a superior direction to produce a posterior tilt (rotation) of the pelvis? A. Superior B. Anterior C. Inferior D. Posterior
c (forced couple, pulling down when pair pulls up)
7. Which of the following definitions most accurately describes the plasticity of tissues? A. The condition results in the tissue being damaged. B. The tissue is under minimal tension and is on slack at rest. C. It is a reversible condition in which tissue returns to its original shape. D. The tissue maintains its altered shape even when the force is removed.
d
7. Which of the following joint end-feels is MOST LIKELY due to pain? A. Firm end-feel B. Soft end-feel C. Hard end-feel D. Empty end-feel
d
7. Which of the following speeds and lengths are MOST LIKELY to produce the greatest muscle tension during a concentric muscle contraction? A. Fast speed; length does not influence amount of tension B. Slow speed; shortest muscle length C. Fast speed; shortest muscle length D. Slow speed; length that allows greatest number of cross-bridge formations
d
8. What elbow and forearm motions occur to bring the palmar surface of the hand to the mouth? A. Elbow extension with the forearm in either pronation or supination B. Elbow flexion and forearm pronation C. Elbow extension with the forearm in a neutral position of rotation D. Elbow flexion and forearm supination
d
8. What is the function of the palmar interossei muscles at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints? A. Flexion B. Abduction C. Extension D. Adduction
d
8. Which muscle(s) produces forearm pronation? A. Pronator teres B. Long head of the biceps C. Pronator quadratus D. A and C
d
9. How does the angle of insertion influence the ability of the biceps muscle to generate a force? A. A small angle increases the muscle's ability. B. The angle does not have an effect on the muscle's ability. C. A 45-degree angle results in more joint compression than muscle force. D. A 90-degree angle increases the muscle's ability.
d
9. What are the muscles working in synergy at the elbow, both as movers and stabilizers, when using a screwdriver to tighten a screw? A. Biceps brachii B. Triceps brachii C. Supinator D. All of the above
d
A person working in a sitting position for several hours each day displays a posture of a rounded spine with increased thoracic kyphosis. What condition or conditions are MOST LIKELY to occur because of this poor postural position if continued over a period of time? A. Forward-head posture will develop. B. Anterior trunk muscles and connective tissue will shorten. C. Overstretched trunk extensor muscles will weaken. D. All of the above
d
After climbing a steep hill on a bike, a cyclist places the hands on the handlebars during labored breathing. How does this position assist with forced expiration? A. With the arms stationary and positioned above the clavicle, the muscle pulls the manubrium and upper ribs upward and outward to assist with increasing intrathoracic pressure B. With the arms stationary and positioned below the clavicle, the muscle pulls the manubrium and upper ribs upward and outward to assist with increasing intrathoracic pressure. C. With the arms stationary and positioned above the clavicle, the muscle pulls the manubrium and upper ribs downward to assist with increasing intrathoracic pressure. D. With the arms stationary and positioned below the clavicle, the muscle pulls the manubrium and upper ribs downward to assist with increasing intrathoracic pressure.
d
How does an anatomical pulley increase the efficiency of muscles? A. Changes the direction of the muscle force B. Increases the moment arm of the muscle C. Deflects the muscle's line of action further from the joint D. All of the above
d
How does the temporomandibular joint differ from other synovial joints? A. Joint surfaces are covered with hyaline cartilage. B. The cartilage on the joint surfaces can repair itself. C. Joint surfaces are covered with dense fibrocartilage that can withstand forces. D. B and C
d
In which direction does motion occur during an anterior pelvic tilt? A. Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis move superiorly; lumbar extension decreases. B. ASIS and pubic symphysis move superiorly; lumbar extension increases. C. ASIS and pubic symphysis move inferiorly; lumbar extension decreases. D. ASIS and pubic symphysis move inferiorly; lumbar extension increases.
d
What are the arthrokinematic motions during open-chain knee extension? A. Femoral surface rolls anteriorly, slides posteriorly, and rotates laterally. B. Tibial surface rolls anteriorly, slides posteriorly, and rotates medially. C. Femoral surface rolls posteriorly, slides anteriorly, and rotates medially. D. Tibial surface rolls and slides anteriorly and rotates laterally.
d
What are the arthrokinematic motions of the humeral head during shoulder flexion? A. Rolls medially, glides superiorly B. Rolls laterally, glides inferiorly C. Rolls inferiorly, glides superiorly D. Rolls superiorly, glides inferiorly
d
What are the most common coupled motions in the spine? A. Extension and lateral bending B. Lateral bending and extension C. Flexion and lateral bending D. Lateral bending and rotation
d
What function does the patella play in improving the efficiency of the quadriceps muscles? A. Changes the direction of the muscle force B. Increases the moment arm of the muscle C. Deflects the muscle's line of action further from the joint D. All of the above
d
What is the function of the piriformis muscle? A. Lateral hip rotation when the hip is in neutral B. Hip abduction C. Medial hip rotation when the hip is flexed to 90 degrees D. A and C
d
What is the potential loss of total hand function with loss of motion at the carpometacarpal (CMC) joint of the thumb? A. Less than 20% B. 100% C. No loss of function D. 40% to 70%
d
Which muscle initiates shoulder abduction? A. Anterior deltoid B. Infraspinatus C. Middle deltoid D. Supraspinatus
d
Which of the following bones form the elbow complex? A. Ulna and carpals B. Humerus and radius C. Radius and ulna D. Humerus, radius, and ulna
d
Which of the following changes that occur with aging can adversely affect ventilation? A. Decrease in chest wall compliance and mobility B. Decrease in strength of respiratory muscles C. Increased thoracic kyphosis D. All of the above
d
Which of the following components of a paradoxical pattern of breathing are often seen in people who have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A. The muscles forcefully elevate the upper rib cage. B. The diaphragm and abdominal viscera are pulled up and in. C. Breathing requires a large amount of energy expenditure and work. D. All of the above
d
Which of the following definitions BEST describes excessive genu valgum? A. The angle between the femur neck and shaft is greater than 125 degrees. B. The angle between the femur and the tibia is greater than 180 degrees. C. The angle between the femur neck and shaft is less than 125 degrees. D. The angle between the femur and the tibia is less than 170 degrees.
d
Which of the following definitions BEST describes functions of intervertebral discs? A. Form a cartilaginous joint between vertebrae and disc B. Separate the vertebral bodies, making sufficient space for passage of nerves and vessels C. Serve as shock absorbers D. All of the above
d
Which of the following grips is MOST OFTEN used to hold a hammer when driving a nail? A. Power key pinch B. Precision grip C. Hook grip D. Power grip
d
Which of the following is a function of the menisci of the knee joint? A. Absorb shock or compressive forces B. Control excessive femoral gliding on tibial surfaces C. Assist with nourishment of articular cartilage D. All of the above
d
Which of the following joints comprises the knee joint complex? A. Lateral compartment of the tibiofemoral joint B. Patellofemoral joint C. Medial compartment of the tibiofemoral joint D. Lateral and medial compartments of the tibiofemoral joint and patellofemoral joint
d
Which of the following lung capacities is the maximal volume of air that the lungs can hold? A. Functional residual capacity B. Inspiratory capacity C. Vital capacity D. Total lung capacity
d
Which of the following motions comprises pronation of the foot? A. Inversion, abduction, and dorsiflexion B. Eversion, adduction, and plantar flexion C. Inversion, adduction, and plantar flexion D. Eversion, abduction, and dorsiflexion
d
Which of the following muscle groups act to produce downward rotation of the scapula? A. Lower trapezius, rhomboids, and serratus anterior B. Upper and lower trapezius and serratus anterior C. Upper and middle trapezius and pectoralis minor D. Levator scapulae, pectoralis minor, and rhomboids
d
Which of the following muscles function as the primary muscles of mastication? A. Masseter, medial pterygoid, and digastric muscles B. Digastric, geniohyoid, mylohyoid, and stylohyoid muscles C. Omohyoid, sternohyoid, sternothyroid, and thyrohyoid muscles D. Temporalis, masseter, medial pterygoid, and lateral pterygoid muscles
d
Which of the following muscles provides trunk stability in the frontal plane? A. Multifidi B. Rectus abdominis C. Erector spinae D. Quadratus lumborum
d
Which of the following muscles shares an insertion site with the tibialis anterior to lift and support the transverse and medial longitudinal arches of the foot? A. Soleus B. Gastrocnemius C. Tibialis posterior D. Fibularis longus
d
Which of the following sections of bone comprise an innominate bone of the pelvis? A. Ilium, ischium, and femur B. Ilium, ischium, and pelvis C. Ilium, ischium, and acetabulum D. Ilium, ischium, and pubis
d
Which of the following signs and symptoms could result from injury to the temporomandibular joint disc? A. Difficulty with opening the mouth B. Difficulty with chewing and talking C. Pain D. All of the above
d
Which of the following statements BEST describes scapular upward rotation? A. The glenoid fossa rotates superiorly; the inferior scapular angle rotates downward. B. The glenoid fossa rotates inferiorly; the inferior scapular angle rotates upward. C. The glenoid fossa rotates inferiorly; the inferior scapular angle rotates downward. D. The glenoid fossa rotates superiorly; the inferior scapular angle rotates upward.
d
Which of the following statements BEST describes the function of the acetabular labrum? A. Increases stability of the hip joint B. Distributes and diminishes load on the hip joint C. Secures femoral head in acetabulum D. All of the above
d
Which of the following statements BEST describes the temporomandibular joint? A. Fibrous joints with articular surfaces covered with hyaline cartilage B. Synovial joints with articular surfaces covered with hyaline cartilage C. Fibrous joints with articular surfaces covered with dense fibrocartilage D. Synovial joints with articular surfaces covered with dense fibrocartilage
d
Which of the following statements applies to the law of inertia? A. An object tends to remain at rest unless an external force acts on it. B. An object in motion tends to remain in motion at a constant velocity unless an external force acts on it. C. The greater an object's mass, the more force is required to move, speed up, slow down, or stop the object. D. All of the above
d
Which of the following statements best describes the function(s) of the spine? A. Provides mobility and stability needed for vertical support of the torso B. Protects the spinal cord C. Provides shock absorption D. All of the above
d
Which statement BEST describes the function of pectoralis major during forced expiration? A. With the arms stationary and positioned above the clavicle, the muscle pulls the manubrium and upper ribs upward and outward to assist with increasing intrathoracic pressure. B. With the arms stationary and positioned below the clavicle, the muscle pulls the manubrium and upper ribs upward and outward to assist with increasing intrathoracic pressure. C. With the arms stationary and positioned above the clavicle, the muscle pulls the manubrium and upper ribs downward to assist with increasing intrathoracic pressure. D. With the arms stationary and positioned below the clavicle, the muscle pulls the manubrium and upper ribs downward to assist with increasing intrathoracic pressure.
d
Which statement describes the "pump-handle" motion produced by the scalene muscles during ventilation? A. Elevation of ribs 2 through 7 and the sternum B. Depression of the first two ribs and the sternum C. Depression of ribs 2 through 7 and the sternum D. Elevation of the first two ribs and sternum
d
Why can the calf muscles generate enough force to raise the entire body weight off the ground when lifting the heel off the floor in standing? A. They function as first-class levers. B. They function as third-class levers. C. They function as fourth-class levers. D. They function as second-class levers.
d