BOC Practice Questions

When stretching during a warm-up routine, which type of stretching should not be encouraged because it may lead to an injury? A. Ballistic B. Active C. Static D. Plyometric E. PNF

Ballistic

Which of the following organisms is one of the most common causes of vaginitis in women? A. AIDS B. Genital herpes C. Chlamydia trachomatis D. Candida E. Gonorrhea

Candida

Fixed payments made on a monthly basis to a managed care provider are known as what type of reimbursement? A. Point-of-service plan B. Fee for service C. Third-party reimbursement D. Capitation E. Managed care option

Capitation

Taping continuously around a limb may cause what problem? A. Ineffective support B. Difficulty in tape removal C. Compromised circulation D. There is no problem with this method E. Blisters

Compromised circulation

When rehabilitating a musculoskeletal injury, what is the proper progression of treatment? A. Range of motion, strength, endurance, proprioception B. Pain relief, agility, range of motion, strength C. Range of motion, pain relief, endurance, proprioception D. Proprioception, range of motion, strength, endurance E. Range of motion, endurance, strength, proprioception

Range of motion, strength, endurance, proprioception

What is the primary target of the AIDS virus in the body? A. Neutrophils B. Basophils C. T-helper lymphocytes D. Phagocytes E. Red blood cells

T-helper lymphocytes

When rehabilitating a patient, it is important that the area being rehabilitated is stressed with a variety of intensities and durations during conditioning. The body responds to these stresses by adapting to the specific demands imposed on it. What is this principle known as? A. The SAID principle B. The DAPRE principle C. The RICE principle D. The SITS principle E. None of the above

The SAID principle Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands.

Properly fitting shoulder pads should adequately cover the shoulder complex. Which structure should the epaulets and cups completely cover? A. The scapula B. The deltoids C. The pectoralis major D. The trapezius E. The pectoralis minor

The deltoids

Which of the following organizations establishes standards of quality for organizations that provide rehabilitative services? A. TJC B. AMA C. APTA D. OSHA E. CARF

CARF Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities

A certified athletic trainer can be sued for negligence if he or she decides to suture an athlete with a laceration during a game. A. True B. False

True

A daily regimen of calcium, vitamin D (as per recommended daily allowance), exercise, and a balanced diet is critical in preventing osteoporosis in women who are at risk for the disease. A. True B. False

True

A group of people with a common experience over a defined period of time is a cohort. A. True B. False

True

A major disadvantage of using an instant (chemical) coldpack is the chemical inside the pack has an alkaline pH, which can cause burns if it comes in contact with the skin. A. True B. False

True

When rehabilitating the lateral epicondylitis, which muscle group needs to be strengthened? A. Wrist flexors B. Wrist extensors C. Elbow flexors D. Elbow extensors E. Shoulder abductors

Wrist extensors

What medication is often used for anxiety or panic attacks? A. Zantac B. Xanax C. Thorazine D. Prozac E. Lyrica

Xanax

Which of the muscle groups listed below are involved during a bench press? Anterior deltoid Rhomboids Triceps Pectoralis major Latissimus dorsi Upper trapezius

I, III, IV, V Anterior deltoid Triceps Pectoralis major Latissimus dorsi

Which of the symptoms below are seen with acute mountain sickness? Insomnia Vomiting Shortness of breath with exertion Headache Fatigue

I, III, IV, V Explanation: Insomnia, shortness of breath with exertion, headache, fatigue, tachycardia, bradycardia, confusion, and edema are all symptoms of acute mountain sickness.

Which of the following muscles are involved in a seated military press? Trapezius Latissimus dorsi Pectoralis major Serratus anterior Posterior deltoid Triceps

I, III, IV, VI Trapezius Pectoralis major Serratus anterior Triceps

What type of exercises may be safely initiated immediately after knee surgery? A. Closed-chain eccentric exercises B. Isotonic exercises C. Isometric exercises D. Functional exercises E. None of the above

Isometric exercises

Type 1 diabetes is characterized by an impaired capacity to secrete insulin due to a beta cell defect. This type of diabetes is commonly seen in what type of individual? A. Obese, geriatric B. Lean, insulin dependent C. Noninsulin dependent, obese D. Noninsulin dependent, juvenile E. None of the above

Lean, insulin dependent

Athletic training equipment can be either leased or bought. Which of the following is an advantage to leasing equipment? A. Higher overall cost B. No ownership C. Lower initial cost D. Higher effective interest rate than traditional financing E. None of the above

Lower initial cost

here would the athlete complain of pain with acute appendicitis? A. Lower right quadrant of the abdomen B. Right lateral hip area C. Inner right thigh D. Anterior right thigh area E. Lower back

Lower right quadrant of the abdomen

Which of the following is a method that allocates a fixed amount of money for an entire program without specifying how the money will be spent? A. Lump-sum budgeting B. Request for quotation C. Lump-sum bidding D. Line-item budgeting E. Need-based budgeting

Lump-sum budgeting

Which of the following is not a medication that is delivered via a metered-dose inhaler for exercise-induced asthma? A. Proventil B. Alupent C. Atrovent D. Ventolin E. Butisol

Butisol Explanation: Butisol is a barbiturate used as a sedative in the treatment of insomnia.

A patient is brought to the athletic training facility after being struck in the back of the head with a bat by accident. He is complaining of blurred vision. Which lobe of the brain has been affected? A. Frontal B. Parietal C. Temporal D. Occipital E. Cerebellum

Occipital

Foot drop may be indicative of what pathology? A. Plantar nerve injury B. Shin splints C. Osteochondritis dissecans D. Achilles tendinitis E. Peroneal nerve injury

Peroneal nerve injury

What is the potential to influence the behavior of a superior called? A. Superior power B. Position power C. Counter power D. Subordination power E. Personal power

Personal power Explanation: Personal power is the potential to influence others by virtue of personal characteristics and personality attributes.

What is a type of organizational culture characterized by autonomy in decision making and problem solving? A. Organizational culture B. Collegial culture C. Personalistic culture D. Informal culture E. Independent culture

Personalistic culture Explanation: Personalistic culture is a type of organizational culture characterized by autonomy in decision making and problem solving, allowing an individual to make decisions with little consultation of others.

Which type of drink would not be appropriate prior to a long-distance run? A. Water B. Regular soda C. Gatorade D. Water with lemon juice added E. Any drink containing sodium

Regular soda

When rehabilitating a shoulder, in what area should strengthening exercises be initiated first? A. Rotator cuff musculature B. Cervical musculature C. Scapular musculature D. Shoulder abductors, flexors, and internal rotators E. A and D

Scapular musculature

All of the following are useful in evaluating low back pathology except: A. Valsalva's maneuver B. Bilateral straight leg test C. Scouring test D. Lasègue's test E. Slump test

Scouring test

What is a type of athletic insurance that pays for covered medical expenses only after all other insurance policies have reached their limits? A. Self B. Primary coverage C. Secondary coverage D. Catastrophic E. Liability coverage

Secondary coverage

Which of the following is a simple movement to check the integrity of the radial nerve? A. Elbow flexion B. Wrist extension C. Forearm supination D. Thumb-to-little finger opposition E. Shoulder flexion

Wrist extension

If it was determined that a 25-year-old patient should work at 80% of his maximal heart rate, what would be his target heart rate? A. 170 BPM B. 156 BPM C. 145 BPM D. 140 BPM E. 130 BPM

156 BPM

A type V Salter-Harris fracture involves what kind of fracture through the physeal plate? A. The epiphysis and metaphysis separate without fragmentation B. A crush injury to the epiphysis C. The epiphysis and metaphysis separate with fragmentation D. The epiphysis, metaphysis, and physis all separate from each other E. The metaphysis is separated with fragmentation

A crush injury to the epiphysis

What must the athletic trainer establish with the athlete prior to and during the rehabilitation in order for the rehabilitation of an injured athlete to be successful? A. A good rapport B. A position of dominance C. A deadline by which the athlete must return to full-time participation in his or her sport D. The understanding that the coach has the final decision in his or her rehabilitation sessions E. B and C

A good rapport

A second-degree burn will have which of the following characteristics? A. A raised, reddened appearance B. A white, mottled appearance C. A blackened, hard appearance D. A reddened area with blisters E. Blanched, shiny appearance

A reddened area with blisters

Which of the following tools has the Inter-Association Task Force recommended not be used as the primary tool for loop-strap removal on a football helmet after an injury? A. FM Extractor B. The Trainer's Angel C. A screwdriver D. The anvil pruner E. B and D

A screwdriver

What organization publishes CPT codes on an annual basis? A. AMA B. NATA C. CAATE D. BOC E. None of the above

AMA

Which of the following organizations sets the standards for eye protection for racquet sports? A. ACSM B. NATA C. FDA D. ASTM E. NOCSAE

ASTM American Society for Testing and Materials

Under what condition(s) is a patient likely to experience a stress fracture of a bone? A. After a few high loads or many small loads are applied to the bone B. After a large traumatic insult to the bone C. After a traumatic incident that is quickly followed by a few small loads to the bone D. After 1 or 2 small loads are applied to the bone E. None of the above

After a few high loads or many small loads are applied to the bone

When testing the physical conditioning of a patient, the coach asks the patient to sprint 50 yards. What does this test? A. Aerobic endurance B. Vital capacity C. Lower extremity power D. Power E. Anaerobic capacity

Anaerobic capacity

You notice one of your gymnasts has lost a significant amount of weight over the past month. She is always concerned about her image when she discusses her performance with you. What might you suspect as the problem? A. Drug dependence B. Depression C. Narcissism D. Bipolar disease E. Anorexia nervosa

Anorexia nervosa

When resolving a conflict, there are many approaches that an athletic trainer can take to successfully manage a difficult situation. Of the following conflict resolution methods, which one is least likely to successfully resolve a problem? A. Compromise B. Collaboration C. Negotiation D. Avoidance E. A and B

Avoidance

Which of the following describes a person or organization that supports a program but has a history of untrusting behavior (these people tend to be manipulative in their dealings)? A. Opponents B. Challengers C. Allies D. Adversaries E. Bedfellows

Bedfellows

One of your athletes has been diagnosed with psoriasis. All of the following medications are appropriate for treatment of this condition except: A. Aristocort B. Keflex C. Zoloft D. Betadine E. Benadryl

Betadine Explanation: Aristocort, Kenalog, and Topicort are all corticosteroids that are used to treat the inflammation and pruritic manifestations of psoriasis. Betadine is a topical microbicide agent used for skin and wound infections.

Large purchases for an educational institution are usually done through a process known as what? A. Direct purchase B. Indirect purchase C. Soliciting D. Bid process E. None of the above

Bid process

A sphygmomanometer is a device that measures which of the following? A. Grip strength B. Body fat percentage C. Intra-abdominal pressure D. Blood pressure E. None of the above

Blood pressure

Where do primitive stem cells mature into red and white blood cells and platelets? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Gallbladder D. Bone marrow E. Epididymis

Bone marrow

Which of the following cervical nerve roots represent the sensory dermatomes of the hand? C5 C6 C7 C8 T1

C6 C7 C8

There are different models of supervision that may be used by a head athletic trainer when managing an athletic training staff. Two of these models are known as __________ and _________ supervision. A. Monarchical, sovereign B. Clinical, directional C. Transitional, directional D. Inspection-production, administrative E. Clinical, developmental

Clinical, developmental Explanation: There are 4 types of supervisory models commonly used by athletic trainers: clinical, developmental, inspection, and production. Inspection and production are usually combined because they have very few differences. Clinical supervision involves direct observation of the employee's work and the subsequent development of an action plan to improve any deficiencies in his or her performance. Developmental supervision involves participative management, in which the employees discuss common problems and develop solutions with their supervisors. Inspection-production supervision was originally developed and implemented in industrial settings. It emphasizes authoritative managerial efficiency. It relies on the strict observance of program policies and procedures and measures success through the measurement of input and output, which is not easily accomplished in the sports medicine setting. This model is the least utilized in athletic training.

Which of the following is not an error when planning the design of a sports medicine facility? A. Concentrating on function rather than style B. The use of wood for the main flooring material C. Having the adaptive access on the other side of the building D. Non-ground fault interrupter receptacles placed within the hydrotherapy area E. Having only one entrance and exit

Concentrating on function rather than style

What kind of heating method does a warm whirlpool utilize? A. Conduction B. Convection C. Radiation D. Evaporation E. All of the above

Convection

The athletic trainer can automatically release medical information of a collegiate athlete to professional organizations, the media, and anyone else who requests the information upon the athlete's completion of a school-conducted physical examination. A. True B. False

False

Trichomonas can be prevented by thoroughly cooking any raw pork products. A. True B. False

False

What is the best way to prevent otitis externa? A. Avoid contact activities for 7 to 10 days B. Use ear plugs during activity C. Dry the external auditory canal after swimming D. Wear adequate protective devices for the ear E. All of the above

Dry the external auditory canal after swimming

What is the term used in ultrasound to describe the time that sound waves are being emitted during one pulse period? A. Ultrasound frequency B. Cavitation C. Attenuation D. Duty cycle E. Intensity

Duty cycle

Which of the following means "the abnormal development of tissue"? A. Atrophy B. Dysplasia C. Metaplasia D. Hyperplasia E. Hypertrophy

Dysplasia

Trendelenburg's test is a method used to evaluate the competence of what structures? A. Hip flexors B. Peroneal muscles C. Hip abductors D. Erector spinae E. Abdominals

Hip abductors

Maintaining up-to-date records is extremely important. How often should the athletic trainer document? A. Monthly B. Weekly C. Daily D. Every 6 months E. Every 2 weeks

Daily

Which piece of information is not part of the athletic trainer's daily documentation? A. Treatment technique B. Playing status C. Daily injury log D. Patient's insurance information E. Rehabilitation progression

Daily injury log

Information gained during the palpation phase of the athletic trainer's initial assessment might include all of the following except: A. Presence of crepitus B. Sensory function C. Presence of a deformity D. Degree of functional movement E. A and B

Degree of functional movement

_______ supplies include such items as adhesive tape, gauze pads, and bandages. A. Permanent B. Capital C. Nonexpendable D. Nonfixed E. Expendable

Expendable

Which cells are active after an injury to begin building collagen? A. Osteocytes B. Osteoblasts C. Granulocytes D. Osteoclasts E. Fibroblasts

Fibroblasts

The Inter-Association Task Force recommends that no fewer than ________ persons lift athletes suspected of having a spinal cord injury. A. Four plus B. Two plus C. Three plus D. Ten plus E. Eight plus

Four plus

What type of gait deviation might the athletic trainer see with an athlete who has sustained an ankle injury and has decreased range of motion in dorsiflexion? A. Lateral trunk bending B. Trendelenburg gait C. Hip hiking D. Wide walking base E. Extension lag

Hip hiking

A patient has a wrist injury that is limiting his ability to supinate his forearm. In what plane of motion does supination and pronation of the forearm take place (in the anatomical position)? A. Frontal B. Horizontal C. Sagittal D. Vertical E. A and C

Horizontal

Maintaining accurate medical records is the responsibility of which of the following individuals in the high school setting? Athletic trainer Athletic director Principal School nurse Team physician

I, IV, V Athletic trainer School nurse Team physician

Asking the patient to move his or her eyes from side to side and up and down tests the integrity of which cranial nerve? A. II B. V C. I D. III E. VIII

III

Which modality would be best utilized if the desired therapeutic effect is decreased pain, edema, and inflammation? A. Moist heat packs B. Ultrasound C. Diathermy D. Fluidotherapy E. Ice packs

Ice packs

When is the best time to begin a rehabilitation program after an injury? A. Immediately B. After the injured part is "healed" C. After the inflammation is under control D. Once the pain subsides E. All of the above

Immediately

A baseball player comes to see the athletic trainer and is complaining of diffuse pain, clicking, and a sensation of "slipping" of his right shoulder when throwing. What pathology might the athletic trainer suspect with this type of presentation? A. Torn rotator cuff B. Thrower's exostosis C. Acromioclavicular joint pathology D. Labral pathology E. Bicipital tendinitis

Labral pathology

Which of the following is the biggest budgetary obstacle that many high school athletic trainers must face? A. Lack of a room and special facilities/equipment necessary to operate an adequate athletic training program B. Lack of athletic tape and wraps, athletic training kits, and a table C. Location of the athletic training facility D. Lack of an athletic training student program, which would provide the certified athletic trainer with free help E. Lack of a budget plan

Lack of a room and special facilities/equipment necessary to operate an adequate athletic training program

Which of the following is not a type of budget? A. Fixed budgeting B. Variable budgeting C. Laissez-faire budgeting D. Lump-sum budgeting E. Line-item budgeting

Laissez-faire budgeting

Which of the following describes a grade III joint mobilization technique? A. Small amplitude movement at the end range B. Large amplitude movement throughout the full available range of motion of the joint C. Small amplitude movement in the beginning of the range of motion D. Thrusting movement done at the anatomical limits of the joint E. None of the above

Large amplitude movement throughout the full available range of motion of the joint

One of your athletes presents with rhinorrhea, rhinitis, a sore throat, nonproductive cough, low grade fever, headache, chills, and malaise. What action(s) should the athletic trainer take? A. Do not allow the athlete to work out for 10 to B. Transport the athlete to the nearest emergency facility C. Limit the athlete's activities until the fever resolves and resume full activity as the symptoms resolve D. Begin the athlete on a course of antipyretics and analgesics E. Call the team physician for advice

Limit the athlete's activities until the fever resolves and resume full activity as the symptoms resolve

Which of the following best describes an athletic trainer in a nontraditional athletic training setting? A. Controller B. Organizer C. Director D. Planner E. Manager

Manager Explanation: An athletic trainer in the nontraditional setting can be considered a manager. A manager functions as an organizer, director, and controller.

Which of the following cells release histamine and serotonin during the cellular response phase of tissue healing? A. Macrophages B. Erythrocytes C. Granulocytes D. Leukocytes E. Mast cells and platelets

Mast cells and platelets

High-voltage pulsed monophasic generators deliver current to deep tissues without damaging superficial tissues and are used for pain modulation. What type of waveform is used with this type of stimulator? A. Asymmetrical biphasic spiked pulse B. Monophasic squared pulse C. Symmetrical biphasic pulses D. Monophasic spike delivered in pairs E. None of the above

Monophasic spike delivered in pairs

To prevent a hazardous electrical problem in the athletic training facility, _________ and __________ should never be used. A. Multiple adapters, extension cords B. Ground fault interrupters, 3-pronged wall outlets C. Ground fault interrupters, fluorescent lights D. Hanging lights, 3-pronged wall outlets E. Equipment with electrical cords, equipment that conforms to National Electrical Code guidelines

Multiple adapters, extension cords

Which of the following organizations certifies football helmets to make sure they are able to withstand repeated blows of high mass and low velocity? A. FDA B. NSA C. NATA D. NFL E. NOCSAE

NOCSAE National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment

During a preparticipation physical, a patient is diagnosed with myopia. What is this patient's problem? A. Double vision B. Farsightedness C. Blindness in one eye D. Nearsightedness E. None of the above

Nearsightedness

Which of the following is not one of the 3 phases of the needs assessment as it is related to budget planning? A. Exploration B. Information gathering C. Negotiation D. Decision making E. A and B

Negotiation

Under what condition can CPR be stopped? A. If a rib is fractured during the effort B. The athlete vomits C. The athlete aspirates D. Not until the athletic trainer is exhausted, spontaneous respirations and pulse have returned, or a physician or another party continues CPR in place of the athletic trainer E. A and C

Not until the athletic trainer is exhausted, spontaneous respirations and pulse have returned, or a physician or another party continues CPR in place of the athletic trainer

Which of the following is not a good source of vitamin C? A. Broccoli B. Strawberries C. Oranges D. Nuts E. Spinach

Nuts

What guidelines does the athletic trainer have to follow regarding maintaining proper hygiene and sanitation in the athletic training facility? A. JCAHO B. AMA C. CARF D. OSHA E. CAATE

OSHA

During the foreign body airway obstruction maneuver, the athletic trainer should grasp one fist with the other hand and place the thumb side of the fist where? A. On the abdomen between the xyphoid process and the umbilicus B. On the manubrium C. On the abdomen between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis D. Between the scapula E. On the left side of the sternum

On the abdomen between the xyphoid process and the umbilicus

Balance and coordination are critical for athletic performance. Feedback from the muscles as to what they are doing during a particular activity is known as _______. The area of the brain that assists in controlling movement is the _______. A. Proprioception, brain stem B. Muscle perception, medulla C. Kinesthesia, cortex D. Proprioception, cerebellum E. Kinesthesia, cerebrum

Proprioception, cerebellum

Which of the following exercises does not address proprioception? A. Recumbent stationary bicycling B. Mini-trampoline exercises C. Stork-standing exercises with the eyes open D. Treadmill exercises E. All of the above

Recumbent stationary bicycling

What may proteinuria indicate? A. Pancreatitis B. Possible gallstones C. Renal or urinary tract pathology D. Diabetes E. Crohn's disease

Renal or urinary tract pathology

Ultrasound is based on the _______ effect. A. Resonance B. Sounding C. Cavitation D. Phoresor E. Reverse piezoelectric

Reverse piezoelectric

Which test, if positive, is indicative of a torn posterior cruciate ligament? A. Sag sign B. Anterior drawer sign C. McMurray's sign D. Ober's sign E. Lachman's sign

Sag sign

Where is the primary location for adenosine triphosphate production in skeletal muscle? A. Sarcomere B. Sarcoplasm C. Sarcolemma D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum E. Mitochondria

Sarcomere

Which of the following muscles does not adduct the shoulder? A. Pectoralis major B. Teres major C. Subscapularis D. Latissimus dorsi E. Serratus anterior

Serratus anterior

What is a stretching exercise that consists of a "stretch and hold" position called? A. Static stretch B. PNF pattern C. Ballistic stretch D. Warm-up E. B and C

Static stretch

In athletic training, database software has been primarily used to perform what function? A. Write letters and produce forms B. Perform simple calculations and integrate text with graphics C. Store and retrieve information regarding athletic injury and treatment D. Merge lists and develop spreadsheets E. All of the above

Store and retrieve information regarding athletic injury and treatment

Which of the following exercises are appropriate in attempting to decrease the symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome? A. Cervical range of motion exercises, anterior shoulder strengthening B. Cervical range of motion exercises, cervical isometrics C. Anterior chest wall strengthening, cervical isometrics D. Stretching the anterior chest wall, strengthening the posterior midthoracic area E. None of the above

Stretching the anterior chest wall, strengthening the posterior midthoracic area

When treating an athlete with trochanteric bursitis, flexibility should be increased in which of the following muscles? A. Gluteus maximus B. Tensor fasciae latae C. Iliacus D. Piriformis E. Lumbar

Tensor fasciae latae

All of the following are reasons why an insurance claim might be denied except: A. Lack of patient progress B. The duration of care is considered excessive C. Improper coding D. The goals are based on functional outcomes E. Treating beyond the approved number of visits

The goals are based on functional outcomes

An athlete has been kicked in the low back area during a soccer game. He is complaining of significant flank pain, is having difficulty voiding, and there is blood in his urine. What should the athletic trainer suspect is injured? A. The spleen B. The large intestine C. The lumbar fascia D. The testicles E. The kidney

The kidney

An athlete has a suspected fracture involving the knee. Which of the following areas should be splinted? A. The ankle and lower leg areas B. The knee and thigh C. The ankle, knee, and thigh D. The lower limb joints and one side of the trunk E. The hip and ankle

The lower limb joints and one side of the trunk

The flexor pollicis longus is responsible for which of the following action(s)? A. Great toe flexion B. Thumb flexion C. Thumb flexion and adduction D. Thumb flexion and abduction E. None of the above

Thumb flexion

To prevent dehydration and the possibility of heat stroke during activity on hot, humid days, for every pound of water that is lost, 24 ounces of fluid should be replaced. A. True B. False

True

A patient suffering from burnout may be experiencing feelings and thoughts of emotional instability, depression, a reduced sense of accomplishment, and lack of interest in activity or sport. A. True B. False

True

Catastrophic insurance usually begins coverage after the first ______ of medical bills have been reached. A. $5000 B. $15,000 C. $100,000 D. $50,000 E. $25,000

$25,000 Explanation: Most catastrophic insurance coverage begins covering after the first $25,000 is paid. It is up to the institution to alter the amount when the benefits of the policy take effect.

Which of the following individuals is most susceptible to heat stroke and, therefore, must be carefully educated regarding the importance of adequate fluid intake during activity in hot, humid weather? A. Basketball guard B. A wrestler C. Female gymnast D. Swimmer E. A defensive lineman in football

. A defensive lineman in football

What is the average range of motion of elbow flexion? A. 0 to 90 degrees B. 0 to 135 degrees C. 0 to 115 degrees D. 0 to 100 degrees E. 0 to 180 degrees

0 to 135 degrees

During CPR, the adult sternum must be compressed to what depth for compression to be effective? A. 0.5 to 1 inch B. 1 to 1.5 inches C. 1.5 to 2 inches D. 2 to 2.5 inches E. 2.5 to 3 inches

1.5 to 2 inches

How long (generally) should a "warm-up" be to adequately prepare the body for athletic performance? A. 5 to 10 minutes B. 35 to 45 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 10 to 15 minutes E. 45 to 60 minutes

10 to 15 minutes

According to the American College of Sports Medicine, when performing flexibility exercises, how long should a stretch be held for optimal results? A. 5 to 10 seconds; after 10 seconds minimal/no results are achieved B. 10 to 30 seconds; only as long as it feels comfortable C. 45 to 60 seconds; no less than 45 seconds D. 60 to 90 seconds; until the athlete feels some mild discomfort E. A minimum of 1½ to 2 minutes

10 to 30 seconds; only as long as it feels comfortable Explanation: The American College of Sports Medicine recommends that when performing flexibility exercises, a stretch should be held 10 to 30 seconds—only as long as it is comfortable—to obtain optimal results.

What is the average respiratory rate for an adult (18 years of age or older)? A. 30 to 80 breaths/min B. 20 to 30 breaths/min C. 12 to 15 breaths/min D. 5 to 10 breaths/min E. 40 to 50 breaths/min

12 to 15 breaths/min

Body fat percentage should not go below ___ in females because the internal organs lose a protective layer of fat. A. 20% B. 25% C. 17% D. 12% E. 8%

12%

An athlete's diet should consist of approximately _____ protein, _____ fat, and _____ carbohydrate. A. 12% to 15%, 40% to 50%, 55% to 70% B. 10% to 20%, 30% to 40%, 50% to 70% C. 5% to 10%, 30% to 45%, 60% to 80% D. 25% to 35%, 55% to 65%, 70% to 90% E. 45% to 55%, 10% to 20%, 45% to 55%

12-15% protein, 40-50% fat, 55-70% carbohydrates

Paraffin bath therapy is commonly used on the hands and feet as a method of superficial heating. To keep the paraffin mixture in a molten state, the temperature should be maintained between: A. 100°F to 115°F B. 80°F to 105°F C. 126°F to 130°F D. 118°F to 125°F E. 140°F to 150°F

126°F to 130°F

How much calcium should a female athlete who shows signs of low bone mass consume a day? A. 500 to 700 mg B. 750 mg C. 1000 mg D. 1500 mg E. 1200 mg

1500 mg

Bracing for scoliosis of the spine may be effective with all ages except: A. 5 year olds B. 10 year olds C. 18 year olds D. 14 year olds E. Bracing is not effective at any age

18 year olds Explanation: Bracing for structural scoliosis may be effective up to approximately age 18. After this age, the epiphyseal plates close and external devices for correction do not work well.

When transporting an athlete off the field by manual conveyance, it is most convenient to do this with how many athletic trainers? A. 6 B. 4 C. 1 D. 3 E. 2

2

An "operational plan" is a plan that defines organizational activities in the short-term and should be no longer than which of the following? A. 10 years B. 15 years C. 25 years D. 7 years E. 2 years

2 years

A loss of water equaling what percent of body weight will begin to threaten athletic performances? A. 10% to 20% B. 0.5% to 1% C. 1% to 2% D. 1% to 1.5% E. 2% to 3%

2% to 3%

Which muscle grade denotes active muscle movement in a gravity-eliminated position? A. -3/5 B. +3/5 C. 5/5 D. 1/5 E. 2/5

2/5 Explanation: A manual muscle grade of 2/5 is also known as a poor muscle grade and is defined as completing full range of motion in a gravity-eliminated position. A grade of 3/5, or fair, is defined as completion of full range of motion against gravity, and a grade of 1/5 is a trace grade, in which the examiner observes or palpates contractile activity in the muscle, but no movement is present.

On the average, a college athlete expends between _____ to ______ calories per day. A. 4000 to 5000 B. 2000 to 3000 C. 2500 to 3000 D. 2200 to 4400 E. 1000 to 1800

2200 to 4400

The pre-event meal should be eaten ____ before competition to ensure proper digestion. A. 2 to 3 hours B. 3 to 4 hours C. 5 to 6 hours D. 6 to 8 hours E. 1 to 2 hours

3 to 4 hours

When fitting an athlete for crutches, the elbow should be bent to approximately what angle? A. 90 degrees B. 10 degrees C. 45 degrees D. 0 degrees E. 30 degrees

30 degrees

When performing 2-person adult CPR, what is the correct compression-to-breath ratio? A. 5:2 B. 30:2 C. 15:1 D. 5:1 E. 2:5

30:2

What is the normal dosage for one tablet of aspirin? A. 200 mg B. 400 mg C. 500 mg D. 375 mg E. 325 mg

325 mg

It is critical that CPR be administered as soon as possible during a life-threatening situation. In what amount of time is brain damage likely to occur if the brain is deprived of oxygen? A. 2 to 4 minutes B. 10 to 12 minutes C. 4 to 6 minutes D. 10 minutes E. After 15 minutes

4 to 6 minutes

A patient with an infection or serious disease, such as leukemia, might demonstrate an abnormally raised white blood cell count. What is the normal leukocyte count? A. 200,000 to 400,000/cu mm B. 500 to 1500/cu mm C. 4000 to 10,000/cu mm D. 1000 to 40,000/cu mm E. 250 to 500 /cu mm

4000 to 10,000/cu mm

When following the DAPRE technique of progressive resistive exercise, the first set of 10 repetitions is performed with a weight that is ____ of the weight that will be lifted in set 3. A. 10% B. 25% C. 100% D. 75% E. 50%

50%

Spinal immobilization is best achieved with the full-body splint. All of the following are examples of full-body immobilization equipment except: A. The standard rigid spine board B. Vacuum mattress C. A Stryker frame D. Scoop stretcher E. Miller full-body splint

A Stryker frame

You are covering a football game when 2 players collide. You notice that one player grabs his neck and shakes his arm. When you examine him, he complains of lateral neck discomfort and a feeling of "numbness" or "burning" down his arm. His arm is hanging limp by his side. In a few minutes, the symptoms subside. What do you suspect? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Long thoracic nerve injury C. A "burner" or pinched nerve syndrome D. Dorsal scapular nerve injury E. Thoracic outlet syndrome

A "burner" or pinched nerve syndrome

How would you define a policy? A. A specific plan for members of an organization to follow B. A broad statement of an intended action C. An organizational plan that provides program direction for 1 or 2 years D. A mission statement of an organization E. A vision statement of an organization

A broad statement of an intended action Explanation: A policy is a broad statement of intended action developed by those who are empowered to govern the operation of an organization. A procedure outlines a specific strategy for members of an organization to follow when following a policy.

Primary coverage is defined as which of the following? A. "Self-pay" insurance B. A coverage that begins to pay for covered expenses after the deductible has been met C. Protection for an individual against future loss of earnings because of injury D. The invoiced cost of an insurance policy E. Third-party payment

A coverage that begins to pay for covered expenses after the deductible has been met

All of the following functions contribute to the athlete's ability to maintain a steady state during periods of increased metabolic needs while exercising except: A. Pulmonary diffusion B. Vascular adaptation C. Physical condition of the involved muscles D. A high-protein pre-event meal E. A and C

A high-protein pre-event meal

Which of the following is a priority when developing a sports medicine center for the local community? A. An area for massage therapy B. A mission statement C. An open house D. An educational seminar for coaches E. All of the above

A mission statement

Which of the following describes an insurance "rider?" A. A supplementary clause to an insurance contract that covers the cost of conditions that extend beyond those associated with the standard policy B. The usual fee charged by a health care provider for a particular service C. A policy that pays for medical expenses only after all of the athlete's other medical insurance policies have reached their limit D. A universally accepted insurance claim form used by hospitals E. None of the above

A supplementary clause to an insurance contract that covers the cost of conditions that extend beyond those associated with the standard policy

It is well known that many athletes will utilize nutritional supplements in an effort to enhance performance. An athlete asks you to explain the action of an antioxidant. Which of the following best describes the role of an antioxidant? A. A nutrient that protects the cell from the detrimental effects of substances that may cause health problems, such as premature aging B. A mineral that is known to protect the body from cancer C. A vitamin that is known to protect the body from heart disease D. A substance that is found in vegetables and dairy products and prevents certain types of cancer and osteoporosis E. None of the above

A nutrient that protects the cell from the detrimental effects of substances that may cause health problems, such as premature aging

For which of the following injuries would the use of a hard-shell pad be appropriate? A. Cover a large skin infection B. A toe injury C. A painful contusion D. Plantar fasciitis E. None of the above

A painful contusion

Which of the following best describes a copayment? A. An occasional payment made by a policyholder to an insurance company B. The amount owed yearly by the policyholder before the insurance company will begin to pay for services C. The amount of money that both an employee and employer share when paying for medical benefits D. A percentage of the total amount the policyholder is required to pay for medical services rendered E. The amount of money that a provider offers as a discount for services

A percentage of the total amount the policyholder is required to pay for medical services rendered

There are 2 types of heel cups that are designed to help prevent heel bruises. Of these 2 heel cups, which has an elevated heel that can compress downward so that the heel never actually makes contact with the interior of the shoe? A. A rubberized padded cup B. A rigid plastic cup C. A jelly-filled cushion cup D. An air-filled cushion cup E. All of the above

A rubberized padded cup Explanation: A rubberized, padded cup has an elevated heel, which can compress downward so that the heel never actually makes contact with the interior of the shoe. The other heel cup is a rigid plastic cup. It fits snugly and does not allow the fat tissue to flatten, thus protecting the heel.

Which of the following is not an example of an isotonic device? A. Free weights B. A total gym C. A squat rack D. Wall pulleys E. A wall

A wall Explanation: A wall is an immovable object and may be used for an isometric exercise. During isotonic exercise, there is a fixed resistance with variable speed of movement.

Your patient is on a medication for a Staphylococcus aureus infection. Which of the following adverse reactions might you expect with antibiotic treatment? A. Palpitations B. Abdominal cramping C. Dry mouth D. Headache E. Dry skin

Abdominal cramping Explanation: Common side effects of antibiotic therapy are abdominal cramping, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting.

Which of the following is considered a medical emergency? A. Acute compartment syndrome B. Navicular fracture C. Bulimia D. Mitral valve prolapse E. Cellulitis

Acute compartment syndrome

All of the following are ways athletic trainers can help keep insurance premiums to a minimum except: A. Insist that the athletes purchase their own personal insurance B. Adopt and communicate policies that increase the institution's financial obligations to those injuries that are covered by the school's insurance policy C. Spread the risk among all concerned parties D. Pass the cost or some fraction of the cost to the athlete E. Have the team physician see athletes in the athletic training facility

Adopt and communicate policies that increase the institution's financial obligations to those injuries that are covered by the school's insurance policy

What medium does not transmit ultrasound waves? A. Water B. Gel C. Body lotion D. Steroid creams E. Air

Air

Football helmets may fall into 1 or 2 categories. These 2 types are known as _______ or _______. A. Air- or fluid-filled, padded B. Gel-filled, padded C. Plastic, fiberglass D. Standard, adjustable E. Molded, nonmolded

Air- or fluid-filled, padded

The NATA's position statement on exertional heat illness recommends which of the following? A. Ensure that the appropriate medical care is available and the rescue personnel are familiar with exertional heat illness prevention, recognition, and treatment B. Plan rest breaks to match environmental conditions and the intensity of the activity C. Weigh high-risk athletes (in high-risk conditions, weigh all athletes) before and after practice to estimate the amount of body water lost during practice and to ensure a return to prepractice weight before next practice D. Allow athletes to practice in shaded areas or use electric or cooling fans to circulate air when feasible E. All of the above

All of the above

The equal employment operating chief works with employees who have filed what type(s) of complaint? A. Discrimination B. Sexual harassment C. Racism D. All of the above E. None of the above

All of the above

The pre-event meal should be planned by whom? A. The coach B. The athlete C. The athletic trainer D. A and B E. All of the above

All of the above

When selecting and fitting protective gear and sports equipment, the athletic trainer should do which of the following to minimize liability? A. Buy protective gear or equipment from a reputable manufacturer B. Ensure that the individual who assembles the equipment is competent to do so C. If the athlete is wearing a cast, brace, or other type of immobilization device, ensure that it does not violate the rules of the sport D. Ensure the equipment is not defective E. All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following massage techniques is a method of tapotement? A. Cupping B. Hacking C. Pinching D. All of the above E. None of the above

All of the above

Which of the following materials can the athletic trainer use to construct a custom protective or supportive device? A. Felt B. Gauze padding C. Cotton D. Foam E. All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following signs/symptoms are present in a depressed patient? A. Decreased appetite B. Insomnia C. Fatigue D. Feeling of hopelessness E. All of the above

All of the above

An athlete has just been injured on the basketball court, and the athletic trainer begins administering first aid. During the initial contact, the athletic trainer notices the athlete is hyperactive, argumentative, and sarcastic in his responses to questions. All of the following actions by the athletic trainer are inappropriate except: A. Telling the athlete he or she is a wimp and that it is "not that bad" B. Being abrupt and telling the athlete to snap out of it C. Allowing the athlete to express his emotions as they occur D. Calling the referee over to calm the athlete E. Walking away to prevent an argument

Allowing the athlete to express his emotions as they occur

All of the following are important steps in avoiding legal problems when administering care to the patient except: A. Keeping accurate records B. Staying familiar with the health history of the patient C. Following orders of the team physician D. Allowing the coach to decide when the patient should return to play after injury E. B and C

Allowing the coach to decide when the patient should return to play after injury

Which of the following methods for funding public sector sports medicine facilities utilizes an institution's assets in cash and investments not normally used for operational purposes? A. Capital campaign B. Tax-exempt bonds C. An endowment D. Commercial loans E. Unrestricted loans

An endowment Explanation: Endowments are usually used for scholarly endeavors in the educational field. These endowments are to ensure the continuation of the program. Endowments can be used to create or support a professorship or provide scholarships for students.

What are cost-based providers contracted by the federal government and charged with reviewing Medicare claims made by hospitals called? A. An intermediary B. An insurance "carrier" C. A joint review board D. An insurance network E. Business manager

An insurance "carrier"

A baseball player has been stung by a bee. This player has a history of a severe allergy to bee stings. A couple of minutes after being stung, the area becomes red and raised and begins to itch. The athlete begins to complain that his tongue feels thick, and he starts to have difficulty breathing. What type of shock is he beginning to develop? A. Neurogenic B. Metabolic C. Hypovolemic D. Respiratory E. Anaphylactic

Anaphylactic

Which 2 structures are injured with a Bankart lesion? A. Anterior capsule of the shoulder and the glenoid labrum B. The inferior capsule of the shoulder and glenoid fossa C. The articular surface of the humeral head and glenoid labrum D. The surgical neck of the humerus and the coracoacromial ligament E. The acromioclavicular joint and glenoid fossa

Anterior capsule of the shoulder and the glenoid labrum

A grade I ankle inversion sprain involves which structure? A. Tibiofibular ligament B. Posterior talofibular ligament C. Calcaneofibular ligament D. Anterior talofibular ligament E. Spring ligament

Anterior talofibular ligament

To prevent the feeling of sedation during the day while taking medications for allergic rhinitis, the athletic trainer should suggest the athlete not take which of the following medications until he or she is ready to go to bed? A. Expectorants B. Antihistamines C. Decongestants D. NSAIDs E. Antipyretic agents

Antihistamines

Why is the repair response so limited in the articular cartilage of a joint after an injury in the adult athlete? A. Articular cartilage cells do not undergo mitosis in the mature athlete B. Articular cartilage has a poor venous supply C. Articular cartilage has a low water content D. There are fewer mitochondria present in articular cartilage than in hyaline cartilage

Articular cartilage cells do not undergo mitosis in the mature athlete

At what point should the athletic trainer's initial evaluation of an injury begin? A. At the moment the injury is witnessed B. Once the athlete has been stabilized in the athletic training facility C. Once the athletic trainer receives a medical referral from a doctor D. After the athlete is seen by the team doctor E. B and D

At the moment the injury is witnessed

A patient who had been diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis has just been cleared by the team doctor to return to full activity. How long should the patient remain out of contact participation from the time of onset to the time of full recovery? A. 2 weeks B. At least 3 weeks C. 6 months D. A maximum of 6 weeks E. A minimum of 2 months

At least 3 weeks

All of the following are possible factors regarding why a patient might be injury prone except: A. Bad luck B. Problems at home C. Joint hypermobility D. Poor endurance E. Poor coordination

Bad luck

Which muscle supinates the forearm and flexes the shoulder? A. Brachialis B. Coracobrachialis C. Biceps brachii D. Flexor pollicis longus E. Pronator quadratus

Biceps brachii

Ultrasound waves are reflected by _______ and absorbed by _______. A. Bone, skin B. Skin, connective tissue C. Skin, blood D. Bone, muscle E. Nerve, muscle

Bone, muscle

During an upper quarter screen, checking the strength of thumb extension correlates to what nerve root? A. T1 B. T3 C. C5 D. C4 E. C8

C8

Which of the following is not a type of insurance policy that is offered to organizations seeking to purchase insurance for athletic teams? A. Accident insurance B. Indemnity policy C. Basic medical coverage D. Group insurance E. Capitation

Capitation Explanation: Capitation is not a type of insurance. Capitation refers to a form of reimbursement used by managed care organizations to determine the amount of money that is going to be paid to a provider for services for a member in a predetermined period of time.

Panner's disease is an osteochondrosis of which of the following? A. Capitellum B. Tibial tubercle C. Olecranon D. First ray of the foot E. Talus

Capitellum Explanation: Panner's disease is an osteochondrosis of the capitellum of the elbow, which develops as a result of chronic repetitive trauma, congenital/hereditary factors, or endocrine disturbances. It is typically seen in children 5 to 10 years of age or in a throwing athlete. It must be distinguished from osteochondritis dissecans of the elbow, which also affects the capitellum and may result in intra-articular loose bodies. Panner's disease heals spontaneously with little or no deformity.

A positive Phalen's sign is suspect of what problem? A. Tarsal tunnel syndrome B. Long thoracic nerve injury C. Thoracic outlet syndrome D. Suprascapular entrapment syndrome E. Carpal tunnel syndrome

Carpal tunnel syndrome

Which of the following is the correct sequence of tissue healing? A. Cellular response, regeneration, remodeling B. Remodeling, regeneration, cellular response C. Rejection, regeneration, resolution D. Regeneration, resolution, remodeling E. None of the above

Cellular response, regeneration, remodeling

If necessary, the removal of the helmet and shoulder pads from an athlete with a suspected spinal cord injury should be coordinated to avoid which of the following? A. Cervical hyperextension B. Airway obstruction C. Cervical hyperflexion D. Thoracic rotation E. Thoracic compression

Cervical hyperextension Explanation: When there is a suspected spinal cord injury and the decision is made to remove the helmet and shoulder pads, they should be removed simultaneously to avoid cervical hyperextension.

What is the most common and devastating mechanism of injury seen in neck injuries sustained during football? A. Cervical hyperextension B. Forceful cervical lateral flexion C. Cervical hyperflexion and rotation D. Cervical hyperflexion and axial compression E. Cervical hyperextension and lateral compression

Cervical hyperflexion and axial compression

General maintenance and cleaning tasks of the athletic training facility and activities areas of an athletic facility should include all of the following except: A. Wood flooring should be kept free of splinters, holes, protruding nails, uneven boards, and screws B. All areas should be swept, vacuumed, and mopped according to designated cleaning schedules C. Check to make sure that athletic uniforms/equipment are properly stored and inventoried on a regular basis D. Lighting apparatuses should be checked and changed on a regular basis E. Check to see that ground fault interrupters are working and appropriately located

Check to make sure that athletic uniforms/equipment are properly stored and inventoried on a regular basis

Which of the following is covered in a "rider" in an athletic accident insurance policy? A. Acute traumatic injuries B. Chronic overuse injuries C. Long-term permanent disabilities D. All of the above E. None of the above

Chronic overuse injuries Explanation: Chronic overuse injuries can be included in a rider. This may cause the cost of the premium to go up, but the injury will be covered.

How is pediculosis spread between individuals? A. Coughing and sneezing B. Poor hand washing/hygiene C. Close sexual contact D. Contact with open sores E. Sharing eating utensils

Close sexual contact

All of the following forms are critical parts of the patient's permanent medical record and should be completed before the patient is permitted to participate in the first team practice except: A. Permission-to-treat form B. Preparticipation physical examination form C. Release form for patients subjected to high risk D. Coach's injury report form E. Medical history form

Coach's injury report form

The _______ and _______ should be involved with the athlete and athletic trainer in selecting and maintaining the athlete's protective equipment. A. Coach, team physician B. Coach, equipment manager C. Equipment manager, team manager D. Team physician, coach E. Team physician, school nurse

Coach, equipment manager

One of your patients begins to complain of intense itching of the skin under the cold pack that you applied to his shoulder 5 minutes ago. When you remove the pack you notice that hives have developed on the area that has been cooled. What is the patient experiencing? A. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria B. Hypothermia C. Cold urticaria D. Raynaud's disease E. Frostbite

Cold urticaria Explanation: Cold urticaria is an allergic reaction to cold exposure. If left unrecognized, it may lead to a systemic anaphylactic response.

What are the 4 sensations an athlete will experience with the application of cryotherapy? A. Cold, burning, cramping, numbness B. Pain, aching, stinging, cold C. Aching, burning, pain, numbness D. Cold, burning, aching, numbness E. Cold, burning, stinging, aching

Cold, burning, aching, numbness

Which of the following is a type of organizational culture characterized by consensus, teamwork, and participatory decision making? A. Transformational B. Personalistic C. Formulistic D. Organizational E. Collegial

Collegial

A torus fracture is the result of what kind of force? A. Shearing B. Traction C. Compressive D. Twisting E. Bending

Compressive

All of the following are methods of enhancing a budget plan except: A. Keep an accurate inventory on all disposable and nondisposable supplies B. Figure out how much of your disposable supplies have been used and estimate how much more will be needed to finish out the fiscal year C. Consult with a certified public accountant or professional financial advisor and follow his or her direction regarding the development of a budget plan D. Consult with several vendors to get an estimate of how much prices will rise in the upcoming year E. Determine how many athletes will be receiving care

Consult with a certified public accountant or professional financial advisor and follow his or her direction regarding the development of a budget plan

A patient needs instruction on how to properly perform an abdominal sit-up. What should the athletic trainer recommend? A. Place his hands behind his head, take a deep breath and hold it, and pull his torso up toward his bent knees B. Cross his arms across his chest, tuck in his chin, bend his knees, inhale, and then exhale as he pulls his torso up toward his knees C. Place his hands behind his head, bend his knees, exhale completely first, and inhale deeply as he pulls his torso up toward his knees D. Keeping his arms down by his sides, bend his knees, inhale deeply, and hold it as he pulls his torso up toward his knees E. None of the above

Cross his arms across his chest, tuck in his chin, bend his knees, inhale, and then exhale as he pulls his torso up toward his knees

Medical records are defined as which of the following? A. Cumulative documentation of a person's medical history and health care interventions B. Widely accepted principles that are intended to guide the professional activities of the health care practitioner C. The act of recording health care assessments or treatment on cassette tapes or directly into a computer for later transcription D. A method of recording details of an athlete's assessment and treatment using a detailed prose-based format E. All of the above

Cumulative documentation of a person's medical history and health care interventions Explanation: Medical records provide an accurate account of ongoing treatment, history, and background information pertinent to the patient. They are valuable tools in providing health care to a patient.

The codes that were established by the AMA for health care providers to receive third-party reimbursement are CPT codes. What does CPT mean? A. Current Procedural Treatments B. Current Provider Terminology C. Consensus Procedural Treatments D. Current Provider Treatments E. Current Procedural Terminology

Current Procedural Terminology

One of your female patients presents with dysuria, a sense of urgency to urinate, decreased urine volume, nocturia, low back pain, and pyuria. What do you suspect this patient has? A. Pyoperitonitis B. Dermatitis C. Prostatitis D. Vaginitis E. Cystitis

Cystitis

Which of the following describes a neurapraxia? A. Demyelination of the axon sheath that leads to a conduction block. Usually heals in approximately 1 to 2 weeks B. Loss or disruption of the axon and myelin sheath. The epineurium is still intact C. An injury to the endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium with a permanent neurological deficit D. A crush injury to a nerve causing damage to the epineurium. The perineurium is intact E. None of the above

Demyelination of the axon sheath that leads to a conduction block. Usually heals in approximately 1 to 2 weeks

You are beginning to lay the foundation for your new athletic training facility at North High School. In order to expedite the process and cut down on the amount of individuals you must deal with you have decided to use one of the following construction process models. Which of the following uses only one firm to both design and construct the new building? A. Lump-sum bidding model B. Construction development model C. Design/build model D. Contractor supply model E. None of the above

Design/build model

All of the following are functions of the liver except: A. Carbohydrate metabolism B. Detoxification of blood C. Protein synthesis D. Detoxification of urine E. Bile production

Detoxification of urine

A predisposing condition such as spinal stenosis may mean an athlete is more likely to: A. Experience vertigo after an injury to the head B. Demonstrate nystagmus after an injury to the head C. Develop "glove and stocking" symptoms after a neck injury D. Develop paralysis after a fracture-dislocation E. Develop lower extremity neuropathies

Develop paralysis after a fracture-dislocation Explanation: A patient with congenital or acquired spinal stenosis is more likely to develop paralysis after a fracture-dislocation because the spinal canal is already too small for the spinal cord.

Which of the following would help an athletic trainer determine space needs when planning to build a sports medicine center? A. Enlisting the help of a doctor who is in private practice B. Developing a traffic pattern chart C. Buying the equipment first and then determining space needs D. Performing site visits at various gyms to get ideas E. All of the above

Developing a traffic pattern chart

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the athletic trainer? A. Counsel and advise the athlete about health care B. Diagnose and treat illnesses C. Administer first aid as necessary D. Supervise proper equipment fitting E. Organize and set up preparticipation physical exams

Diagnose and treat illnesses Explanation: Only a licensed physician may diagnose an illness and is in charge of overseeing the treatment administered by the athletic trainer.

Which organization must certify facemasks that are used in ice hockey helmets? A. CSA B. HECC C. NOCSAE D. ASTM E. NCAA

HECC Explanation: The Hockey Equipment Certification Council sets standards to certify facemasks that are used in ice hockey helmets.

If an athlete is unconscious from a blow to the head, he or she should be assumed to have a neck injury in addition to a possible head injury. If the airway appears to be impaired, all of the following would be appropriate steps in management except: A. Cut the facemask with an appropriate tool and move it out of the way B. Leave the helmet on C. Stabilize the head and neck D. Do a finger sweep of the mouth to remove any debris and clear the airway E. Activate EMS

Do a finger sweep of the mouth to remove any debris and clear the airway

All of the following questions are significant when screening a young patient for an underlying cardiac abnormality except: A. Does the patient have chest pain with activity? B. Does the patient have a family history of sudden cardiac death in a family member under age 50? C. Does the patient have numbness or tingling in either or both hands in cold weather? D. Does the patient have a history of a "racing heart?" E. Does the patient have a history of heart problems?

Does the patient have numbness or tingling in either or both hands in cold weather?

What should the athletic trainer advise his or her athletes to do to minimize the negative effects of jet lag? A. Drink an adequate amount of fluids, especially water, to avoid dehydration B. Keep watches set to their "home" time zone C. Get up and go to bed 2 to 3 hours earlier for each time zone crossed D. Wear warm clothing to avoid getting cold while on the plane E. Get at least 8 hours of sleep at night the week before the flight

Drink an adequate amount of fluids, especially water, to avoid dehydration

After an acute musculoskeletal injury, such as a shoulder dislocation, the body releases a natural opiate-like substance that provides temporary pain relief. What is this substance called? A. Prostaglandins B. Substance P C. Endorphins D. Insulin E. Histamines

Endorphins

A tight Achilles tendon can cause _____ or _____ in order to allow the lower leg to move over the foot during running. A. Late heel-off, early heel strike B. Early heel-off, excessive supination C. Late heel-off, late toe-off D. Early heel-off, excessive pronation E. Early heel-off, early heel strike

Early heel-off, excessive pronation

When monitoring a carbohydrate-loading program for an endurance athlete, what should the athlete do the day prior to competition? A. Eat a high-carbohydrate meal and perform little or no exercise B. Eat a low-carbohydrate meal and participate in a regular amount of exercise C. Eat a high-carbohydrate meal and participate in a regular amount of exercise D. Hyperhydrate and rest the day before competition E. Eat a low-protein diet and participate in a regular amount of exercise

Eat a high-carbohydrate meal and perform little or no exercise

Descending hills during running requires what type of muscular contraction by the quadriceps to decelerate the body? A. Positive B. Concentric C. Isokinetic D. Isometric E. Eccentric

Eccentric

An athlete is recovering from a partial meniscectomy performed 5 days ago. All of the following actions would be appropriate at this time except: A. Achilles stretching B. Four quadrant straight leg raises C. Stationary bicycling with minimal/no resistance D. Eccentric quadriceps strengthening E. Hip flexor strengthening

Eccentric quadriceps strengthening

What are heat-producing currents in the body that are formed by a magnetic field that is externally applied in short-wave diathermy called? A. Induction currents B. Magnetic currents C. Eddy currents D. Alternating currents E. Interferential currents

Eddy currents Explanation: Eddy currents are heat-producing currents that are administered by means of an induction coil or condenser plate of a short-wave diathermy unit. It uses a magnetic field to create these currents within the tissues.

When massage is utilized to induce a sedative effect, which type of massage technique is indicated? A. Tapotement B. Vibration C. Pétrissage D. Danish E. Effleurage

Effleurage

A soccer player has fractured his right lower leg, been placed in a cast, and given crutches. The addition of crutches does what to his center of gravity? A. Moves it to the left B. Moves it to the midabdominal area C. Moves it to the right D. There is no effect on the center of gravity E. Enlarges the base of support

Enlarges the base of support

One of your patients has just been stung by a bee. He appears to be showing signs of anaphylaxis. Which of the following medications would be appropriate to administer to stop the reaction? A. Epinephrine B. Heparin C. An antitussive D. A histamine-2 blocker E. None of the above

Epinephrine

One of your patients presents with abnormal pain that he describes as burning. He states that it becomes worse when he lies in supine or consumes caffeine, spicy foods, or alcohol. What might you suspect is the problem? A. Kidney stone B. Ruptured spleen C. Bowel obstruction D. Hernia E. Esophageal reflux or peptic ulcer

Esophageal reflux or peptic ulcer

All of the following are symptoms of an overtrained athlete except: A. Emotional liability B. Loss of appetite C. Reduced concentration D. Excessive motivation E. Fatigue

Excessive motivation

Decorticate posturing is caused by the lack of dopamine in the brain. A. True B. False

False Explanation: Decorticate posturing may occur as a result of an elevated intercranial pressure secondary to brain injury. In decorticate posturing, the upper arms are held at the sides with the elbows, wrists, and fingers flexed. The legs are extended and internally rotated. The feet are plantar flexed.

Emphysema is a result of the deterioration of the bronchioles and bronchi. A. True B. False

False Explanation: Emphysema is characterized by the loss of lung elasticity and abnormal enlargement of the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles with destruction of the alveolar walls and capillary beds. It is most commonly the result of smoking.

A certified athletic trainer can hold any level of cardiopulmonary resuscitation, from any provider, as long as automated external defibrillator competency is validated. A. True B. False

False

A spontaneous anterior epistaxis is a medical emergency. A. True B. False

False

A zero-based budget allows the athletic trainer to spend money freely within his or her budget without having to justify spending. A. True B. False

False

According to the DSM V, an individual who is observed to have episodes of abnormally elevated, expansive, or irritable moods lasting a week or more would be characterized as having bipolar disorder. A. True B. False

False

Although the best way for an athletic trainer to avoid litigation is to exactly follow the manufacturer's instruction for the use and maintenance of a piece of equipment, if an athletic trainer modifies a piece of equipment to make it fit better for the athlete and he or she is still injured during an event, the manufacturer will then be solely liable for the injury. A. True B. False

False

Anterior compartment syndrome may be addressed without consequence up to 72 hours after the initial insult. A. True B. False

False

As long as an athletic trainer is BOC certified, he or she can practice for up to 1 year in any state without a license. A. True B. False

False

Cerebral palsy is diagnosed by skeletal muscle biopsy. A. True B. False

False

Fibroids of the uterus always develop into cancer. A. True B. False

False

In a health maintenance organization, policyholders are allowed to see any physician or utilize any medical service as long as the services are provided in the state in which the policyholder lives. A. True B. False

False

It is contraindicated to strengthen the abdominals of a patient who has been diagnosed with spondylolisthesis. A. True B. False

False

Personal experiences or those of colleagues are basis enough to utilize a specific treatment method without utilizing scientific validity. A. True B. False

False

Proprioception is the ability to detect movement of a joint; kinesthesia is the ability to determine the position of a joint in space. A. True B. False

False

Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is identified by an individual being overly jovial at inappropriate times. SAD usually occurs in men and can be treated by rest and relaxation. A. True B. False

False

The BOC Role Delineation Study/Practice Analysis is intended to provide the sole guidelines for practicing athletic training and supersedes all state laws governing the profession. A. True B. False

False

The BOC Standards of Professional Practice are designed to ensure specific patient outcomes. A. True B. False

False

The correct order of the Kübler-Ross classic model of reactions to death and dying is depression, anger, bargaining, denial, and acceptance. A. True B. False

False

The practice of using treatment methodologies that are a result of a research study is acceptable since a research study was completed and an article was published. A. True B. False

False

The state practice acts for athletic trainers are the same in all 50 states as long as the individual holds the BOC credential for athletic training. A. True B. False

False

Type 1 diabetes can be prevented from developing with a proper diet and exercise. A. True B. False

False

Using a cookbook approach for clinical practice that ignores clinician experience or the circumstances of a specific patient is acceptable as long you utilize the same treatment on all patients of similar injuries. A. True B. False

False

When there is a luxation of a tooth, the athletic trainer should make every effort to reimplant the tooth into its normal place or get the tooth to a dentist as soon as possible for reimplantation. A. True B. False

False

When training a patient to utilize mental techniques to aid in the process of healing following an injury, an athletic trainer might encourage the patient to recline or be seated in a chair and progressively contract and relax his or her muscles. The contracting of each muscle group should last from 5 to 10 seconds and then relax for 20 to 30 seconds. This technique is known as progressive meditation. A. True B. False

False

Any individuals, including athletic trainers, doctors, coaches, and administrators, who are supportive of both a program and a particular plan relative to the specific program are considered to be adversaries. A. True B. False

False Explanation: Individuals who are unsupportive of both a program and a particular plan relative to the specific program are considered adversaries

As the athletic trainer closely reviews the insurance policy that has been selected for his or her respective institution, he or she must pay special attention to the exemptions and exclusions within the policy. With most accident policies, only acute, short-term injuries are considered "exclusions." A. True B. False

False Explanation: Long-term permanent disabilities are usually excluded in an athletic accident insurance policy.

All preferred provider organization health insurance companies require the policyholder to select a primary care physician. A. True B. False

False Explanation: Preferred provider organizations, or PPOs, do not require a primary care physician in most situations. A PPO gives you the flexibility to use physicians that are a part of the PPO network.

All certified athletic trainers are expected to uphold Principle 2 of the NATA Code of Ethics, which states, "Members shall respect the rights, welfare, and dignity of all." A. True B. False

False Explanation: Principle 2 states, "Members shall comply with the laws and regulations governing the practice of athletic training." Principle 1 of the NATA Code of Ethics states, "Members shall respects the rights, welfare, and dignity of all."

More than 25 of the 50 states offer registration as part of their regulatory acts for athletic training. A. True B. False

False Explanation: States are getting stricter and enforcing the regulatory acts of athletic trainers more than has been done in the past. A large shift has been made for states to license athletic trainers.

A patient with Wernicke's aphasia can understand the spoken word, but cannot verbally communicate properly. A. True B. False

False Explanation: Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by the inability to comprehend the speech of others or written material. It is a result of an insult to the posterior temporal or lower parietal lobe of the brain.

Mr. Wheaton is an overweight referee with hypertension and seasonal allergies. During a recent conversation, he tells you he takes over-the-counter sinus medications for his allergies. You should be concerned that the parasympathetic actions may increase his blood pressure. A. True B. False

False Explanation: You should be concerned that the sympathetic actions may increase his blood pressure.

Which type of food should the athletic trainer recommend the patient avoid if gallbladder pathology is suspected? A. Foods low in carbohydrates B. Foods high in protein C. Fatty foods D. Foods high in vitamin K E. All of the above

Fatty foods

Which of the following standards are performance evaluation standards intended to help foster practicality in the employee appraisal process? A. Accuracy standards B. Feasibility standards C. Utility standards D. Proprietary standards E. Quality standards

Feasibility standards

You are in the position to hire an assistant athletic trainer. You have a specific person in mind, but your athletic director implies he is not comfortable with this person's gender. Which level of the law mandates the hiring and firing of employees? A. State B. Local C. City D. District E. Federal

Federal

The athlete may have difficulty performing what actions if the medial and lateral pectoral nerves are injured? A. Flexion, adduction, and internal rotation of the upper arm B. Shoulder shrugs C. Abduction and external rotation of the upper arm D. Extension, internal rotation, and adduction of the upper arm E. Flexion, abduction, and external rotation of the upper arm

Flexion, adduction, and internal rotation of the upper arm

During a lower extremity D1 flexion PNF pattern, what movements are taking place at the hip? A. Extension, abduction, internal rotation B. Flexion, abduction, internal rotation C. Extension, adduction, external rotation D. Flexion, adduction, external rotation E. Flexion, abduction, external rotation

Flexion, adduction, external rotation

_______ is a form of record keeping that allows the athletic trainer to list the athlete's injury information, the actions taken by the athletic trainer, and the response of the athlete to the athletic trainer's treatment in column form. A. SOAP notes B. Focus charting C. Charting by exception D. Computerized documentation E. WOTS UP

Focus charting Explanation: Focus charting is a method of documentation that lists information about a patient's injury, the actions taken by the athletic trainer, and the response to the athletic trainer's action in column form instead of a narrative or SOAP note format.

One of your basketball players comes into the athletic training facility insisting that his ankles need to be taped even though he has no known injury. The athlete should be advised of which of the following? A. To let the athletic trainer know if he starts developing any knee problems B. An elastic or neoprene ankle brace is more effective than taping in preventing an injury C. For the ankle taping to be effective, the athlete should rely on ankle-strengthening exercises rather than prophylactic taping if there is no injury present D. Advise the athlete to contact his family physician to evaluate his ankles E. None of the above

For the ankle taping to be effective, the athlete should rely on ankle-strengthening exercises rather than prophylactic taping if there is no injury present

Which of the following exercises should be avoided in the early stages (phase I) of anterior cruciate reconstruction rehabilitation? A. Full knee extension exercises B. Resisted hip abduction C. Toe raises D. Hamstring curls E. Isometric contraction of the quadriceps

Full knee extension exercises

A wrestler comes to the athletic training facility inquiring about a "drug that will make him lose weight quickly." He mentions a diuretic. Which of the following drugs has been banned by the International Olympic Committee and causes diuresis? A. Furosemide B. Salbutamol C. Caffeine (< 12 mcg/mL) D. Salicylates E. None of the above

Furosemide

What is one of the most serious adverse reactions during iontophoresis treatment? A. Galvanic burns B. Anaphylactic shock C. Dermatitis D. Histamine reaction E. None of the above

Galvanic burns

Which muscle flexes both the foot and the knee? A. Biceps femoris B. Flexor digitorum C. Posterior tibialis D. Anterior tibialis E. Gastrocnemius

Gastrocnemius

Which of the following muscles is not involved in internal rotation of the hip? A. Adductor magnus B. Gluteus maximus C. Gracilis D. Tensor fasciae latae E. Gluteus minimus

Gluteus maximus

If there is inflammation at the site of the medial epicondyle of the elbow, which of the following would be positive? A. Tennis elbow test B. Golfer's elbow test C. Tinel's sign D. Finkelstein's test E. Allen's test

Golfer's elbow test

If there is inflammation at the site of the medial epicondyle of the elbow, which of the following would be positive? A. Tennis elbow test B. Golfer's elbow test C. Tinel's sign D. Finkelstein's test E. Allen's test

Golfer's elbow test Explanation: The golfer's elbow test is used to identify inflammation in the area of the medial epicondyle. The patient is asked to flex both the elbow and wrist with the forearm fully supinated. The patient is then asked to fully extend the elbow. If the patient complains of pain over the medial epicondyle during testing, the findings are considered positive.

An athlete who sustains a severe or career-ending injury may go through a progression of emotional reactions, which are frequently seen with an individual who has experienced a significant loss. All of the following are included in this series of reactions except: A. Bargaining B. Anger C. Acceptance D. Denial E. Guilt

Guilt

Of the following pieces of equipment, which is not an NCAA-mandated piece of equipment? A. Wrestling—ear guards B. Men's lacrosse—protective gloves C. Baseball—double ear flap helmet for batting D. Gymnastics—palm protectors for the uneven parallel bars E. Women's lacrosse—protective eyewear

Gymnastics—palm protectors for the uneven parallel bars

Which of the following forms should the athletic trainer fill out to gain the quickest reimbursement from an insurance company? A. HCFA-1500 form B. CPT 1-A form C. UCR form D. An incident report form E. None of the above

HCFA-1500 form Explanation: A HCFA-1500 form is a standard insurance claim form that is accepted by most insurance carriers. It must be filled out thoroughly for quick reimbursement to be obtained.

What quick test can be performed to check if nerve root L5 is intact? A. Have the athlete flex his or her hip while standing B. Have the athlete walk on his or her toes C. Have the athlete extend his or her great toe D. Have the athlete extend his or her hip E. Have the athlete flex his or her knee

Have the athlete extend his or her great toe

A baseball player complains of recurrent ingrown toenails. What might the athletic trainer suggest to prevent this problem? A. Have the athlete put a small amount of cotton under his nails B. Have the athlete wear shoes with a large toe-box C. Have the athlete trim his toenails in a rounded shape parallel to the border of the cuticle D. Have the athlete trim his toenails weekly and cut them straight across E. Have the athlete purchase larger shoes

Have the athlete trim his toenails weekly and cut them straight across

What is a quick method of testing the motor ability of the sacroiliac nerve root? A. Have the athlete walk on his or her toes B. Manually resist ankle inversion C. Manually resist great toe extension D. Assess the athlete's ability to squat E. Resisted ankle eversion

Have the athlete walk on his or her toes

A male patient sustains a direct blow to the genital area. How can the athletic trainer immediately decrease the pain? A. Use an ice pack to the area with the patient in supine, knees in extension B. Use direct pressure on the testes C. Have the patient lie supine with his knees bent to his chest to decrease the strain on the scrotum and apply ice to the affected area D. Have the patient lie on his side with his knees extended E. Place a moist heat pack over the area

Have the patient lie supine with his knees bent to his chest to decrease the strain on the scrotum and apply ice to the affected area

A patient with a disability should not be discriminated against, but he or she must have documentation that supports his or her condition. How can he or she justify the disability? A. He or she tells you about the condition B. He or she has a record of such impairment with medical documentation C. He or she has trouble performing in class or in the sport D. All of the above E. None of the above

He or she has a record of such impairment with medical documentation

Which of the following can cause an indirect sports fatality? A. Contact sports B. A blow to the head C. Blunt chest trauma D. Rodeo riding E. Heat stroke

Heat stroke

Which type of heat injury is considered a medical emergency? A. Dehydration B. Heat cramps C. Heat stroke D. Heat exhaustion E. All of the above except A

Heat stroke

Shock after a severe injury can result from _______ or _______. A. Pain, increased blood pressure B. Decreased heart rate, infection C. Hemorrhage, hypothermia D. Hemorrhage, stagnation of blood E. Increased heart rate, pain

Hemorrhage, stagnation of blood

Results of severe fluid restriction during weight loss attempts by a wrestler may include which of the following? A. Higher resting heart rate B. Increased renal flow C. Increased stroke volume D. Higher O2 consumption E. Lower resting heart rate

Higher resting heart rate Explanation: Dehydration causes a decrease in blood volume, which results in lowered cardiac filling pressure and stroke volume. The heart rate increases to compensate for these adverse effects.

"Counting the number of seconds from lightning flash until the sound of thunder divided by 5" describes the "flash-to-bang" method utilized by athletic trainers to roughly calculate which of the following? A. How far away thunder is occurring B. The amount of time before play is resumed C. How far away lightning is occurring D. The intensity of the thunder E. None of the above

How far away lightning is occurring

Which of the following is not a factor in designing an appropriate treatment program? A. The stage of tissue healing B. Pain with joint motion C. The severity of the injury D. How soon the coach feels the athlete should return to play E. A and B

How soon the coach feels the athlete should return to play

All of the following symptoms are considered "red flags," requiring urgent referral to a physician, except: A. Persistent headaches B. Constant pain C. Insomnia D. Malaise, fatigue E. Hunger

Hunger

In order to prevent medial epicondylitis, all of the following actions should be avoided via technique modification except: A. Too much wrist flexion at follow-through during a golf swing B. Excessive elbow valgus when throwing a javelin C. Hyperextension of the wrist when performing a backhand shot in tennis D. Excessive wrist flexion during a racquetball forehand shot E. A and B

Hyperextension of the wrist when performing a backhand shot in tennis

According to Maitland's 5 grades of joint motion, which grade would be most appropriate when joint movement is limited by pain and spasm? A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. V

I

Which of the following should be included in a preparticipation physical examination? Height and weight Orthopedic screening Vital signs Ear/nose/throat exam Blood work

I, II III, IV Height and weight Orthopedic screening Vital signs Ear/nose/throat exam

Which of the following symptoms represents a second-degree concussion? Blurring or loss of consciousness lasting from 20 seconds to 5 minutes Headache and amnesia are often present Athlete is often confused and disoriented There are no positive signs on neurologic testing and examination There is no complaint of a headache Altered level of consciousness lasts less than 10 to 20 seconds

I, II, I Blurring or loss of consciousness lasting from 20 seconds to 5 minutes Headache and amnesia are often present Athlete is often confused and disoriented

During which of the circumstances below should an athlete be immediately referred to a dentist? The tooth is knocked out When a tooth is displaced 2 mm or more When a crown is fractured and the tooth is still alive When a filling is knocked out or fractured and the athlete is sensitive to hot or cold food When an artificial plate is broken during competition

I, II, III The tooth is knocked out When a tooth is displaced 2 mm or more When a crown is fractured and the tooth is still alive

Which of the measures below are appropriate steps in the management of an athlete who is experiencing a seizure? Keep spectators out of the way Protect the athlete's head and body from injury Turn the athlete on his or her side If the athlete is in status epilepticus or it is a first seizure, immediately seek further medical support Try to keep the athlete's mouth open by any means to prevent airway obstruction Call the athlete's next of kin to inform him or her of the problem and of the care given

I, II, III, IV Keep spectators out of the way Protect the athlete's head and body from injury Turn the athlete on his or her side If the athlete is in status epilepticus or it is a first seizure, immediately seek further medical support

Which of the following muscle groups are involved during a full squat with weights? Quadriceps Hamstrings Erector spinae Middle deltoid Gluteus maximus Serratus anterior A. I, II, IV, V B. II, III, IV, V C. I, II, III, V D. II, III, V, VI E. All of the above

I, II, III, V Quadriceps Hamstrings Erector spinae Gluteus maximus

You are aware of the general use of smokeless tobacco among your high school baseball players. You decide to develop a seminar for the coaches and players to discourage its use. Which of the following are effects of the chronic use of chewing tobacco? Leukoplakia Mouth and throat cancer Increased aggression Bad breath Mood swings Gynecomastia

I, II, IV Leukoplakia Mouth and throat cancer Bad breath

When advising an athlete about the proper construction of a running shoe, which of the following criteria will help prevent foot and ankle injuries? The midsole should be somewhat soft, but should not easily flatten out with pressure The shoe should have good forefoot flexibility The heel counter should be shallow and firm The heel counter should be strong and fit well around the foot The upper should be constructed of quality leather or rubber

I, II, IV The midsole should be somewhat soft, but should not easily flatten out with pressure The shoe should have good forefoot flexibility The heel counter should be strong and fit well around the foot

Which of the steps below are correct when fitting a football helmet? Place the helmet over the head, tilt it backward, and rotate it forward into position Try to turn the helmet side-to-side with the head in a stationary position Check to make sure the helmet sits 3 finger-breadths above the eyebrows Press straight down on the crown of the helmet to see if the pressure is at the crown of the head Check to see if the jaw pads fit snugly against the jaw Check the chin strap adjustment for a tight fit

I, II, IV, V, VI Place the helmet over the head, tilt it backward, and rotate it forward into position Try to turn the helmet side-to-side with the head in a stationary position Press straight down on the crown of the helmet to see if the pressure is at the crown of the head Check to see if the jaw pads fit snugly against the jaw Check the chin strap adjustment for a tight fit

What physiological effects occur under the cathode of an electrical stimulator? Vasodilatation Vasoconstriction Tissue softening Irritation A. I, III, IV B. II, III, IV C. I, II, III D. I, II, IV E. None of the above

I, III, IV Vasodilatation Tissue softening Irritation

What should a postseason conditioning program specifically focus on? A. Endurance activities B. Strengthening and flexibility exercises C. Sport-specific activities D. Identifying and improving the areas of conditioning in which the athlete is deficient E. All of the above

Identifying and improving the areas of conditioning in which the athlete is deficient

Under which of the following conditions should an athletic helmet be removed after an injury? A. If the athlete requests it be removed B. If, after a reasonable period of time, the facemask cannot be removed to gain access to the airway C. The chief EMT requests that it be removed D. If the helmet causes immobilization of the head or jaw E. The helmet should never be removed

If, after a reasonable period of time, the facemask cannot be removed to gain access to the airway Explanation: The helmet should be left in place unless the facemask cannot be removed to gain access to the airway, OR if with the facemask is removed, ventilation still cannot be provided, OR if the helmet and chin straps do not hold the head secure, OR if the helmet prevents immobilization for transport in an appropriate position.

An athlete is brought into the athletic training facility with a 2.5-inch nail embedded in his foot. All of the following actions are appropriate in the treatment of this injury except: A. Immediately remove the nail from the foot B. Keep the athlete calm C. Pack the nail and foot as they are in a large dressing to help control the bleeding and stabilize the object D. Transport the athlete to the hospital with the nail still embedded in the foot E. Verify that the athlete's tetanus shot is current

Immediately remove the nail from the foot

During CPR, it is most convenient and efficient to monitor the athlete's circulation by palpating the carotid artery. Where is the pulse located? A. In the groove between the larynx and the sternocleidomastoid muscle B. Between the mastoid process and pharynx C. At the base of the neck superior to the manubrium D. 2 inches below the base of the earlobe on the side of the neck E. Antecubital fossa of the elbow

In the groove between the larynx and the sternocleidomastoid muscle

In hot, wet environments, the patient's ability to adjust to a significantly increased cardiovascular workload is limited by which factor? A. Hypoxia B. Hypervolemia C. Dehydration D. Hypernatremia E. Inability to dissipate heat by evaporation

Inability to dissipate heat by evaporation

What does "extension lag" mean? A. Ability to only flex the knee B. Inability to fully backward bend (lumbar movement) C. One leg drags behind the other during gait D. Inability to fully extend the knee E. Inability to fully extend the hip

Inability to fully extend the knee

When counseling an athlete about the adverse effects of anabolic steroids on females, all of the following effects should be included except: A. Severe acne B. Increased libido C. Increased body fat D. Development of a deep voice E. Change in menstrual cycle

Increased body fat

The effects of treating a subacute musculoskeletal injury with a warm whirlpool include all of the following except: A. Analgesia B. Stimulation of local circulation C. Decreased muscle spasm D. Increased deep tissue temperature E. Decreased joint stiffness

Increased deep tissue temperature

A moist heat pack causes all of the following effects except: A. Higher superficial tissue temperatures B. Increases in muscle tissue temperatures C. Sedation D. Reduction of muscle spasms E. Vasodilatation

Increases in muscle tissue temperatures

According to the Americans with Disabilities Act, who should make the final decision regarding a disabled athlete's participation in a sport? A. Athletic trainer B. Team physician and school nurse C. Individual athlete D. Parents E. Team physician

Individual athlete Explanation: The individual athlete is the only person who can decide whether or not to participate in a sport according to the Americans with Disabilities Act.

A patient is seen by the athletic trainer 4 weeks postoperatively after shoulder arthroscopy. During the athletic trainer's assessment, it is found that the patient has limited abduction secondary to capsular stiffness. Which of the following joint glides would be appropriate to improve this motion? A. Inferior humeral glide B. Anterior humeral glide C. Posterior humeral glide D. Superior humeral glide E. All of the above/combined glides

Inferior humeral glide Explanation: An inferior humeral glide is the proper glide to employ when trying to restore or increase shoulder abduction.

Which of the following are contraindications to massage? Inflammation Pregnancy Hemorrhage Infection Phlebitis

Inflammation Hemorrhage Infection Phlebitis

What is the primary mode of action of penicillin? A. Increases the number of T-lymphocytes in the bloodstream B. Inhibits the metabolism of the bacteria C. Prevents bacterial reproduction D. Breaks down the cell wall of the bacteria E. Prevents viral reproduction

Inhibits the metabolism of the bacteria

An athlete informs the athletic trainer that he is taking tetracycline for a respiratory infection. Tetracycline will bind with which of the following 2 minerals to form a nonabsorbable complex (and therefore should not be taken before meals)? A. Potassium and zinc B. Sodium and magnesium C. Iron and calcium D. Iron and phosphorus E. Folic acid and niacin

Iron and calcium

All of the following are components of a well-written SOAP note except: A. It is legible, clear, and concise B. It contains many objective measurements C. Progress is expressed in functional terms D. It is written with the intent to mislead an insurance company E. It describes a clear plan of treatment

It is written with the intent to mislead an insurance company

When choosing a prophylactic knee brace, the brace should meet all the following criteria except: A. It should always be custom molded to avoid a poorly fitting brace B. It should not interfere with normal knee function C. It should not increase injuries to the lower extremity D. It should be cost effective and durable E. B and D

It should always be custom molded to avoid a poorly fitting brace

All of the following symptoms should alert the athletic trainer to serious pathology that requires immediate referral to a physician except: A. Itchy skin, especially when it involves areas on the feet and toes B. Painful urination C. Unexpected weight loss D. Night pain E. Palpable lump in the breast or axilla

Itchy skin, especially when it involves areas on the feet and toes

All of the following parameters should be assessed when checking the neurovascular status of an injured limb except: A. Sensation B. The pulse distal to the injury C. Motor function D. Joint range of motion E. Atrophic changes

Joint range of motion

The athletic trainer notices an athlete is prone to abnormal bruising. After discussing the problem with the team doctor, he recommends which of the following vitamins? A. E B. D C. C D. Niacin E. K

K Explanation: Vitamin K contributes to blood clotting because it imparts a calcium binding ability to certain blood proteins, such as prothrombin.

After an athlete has suffered a ruptured spleen, he or she may experience pain that radiates down the left shoulder and approximately one-third of the way down the upper left arm. What is this pain called? A. Visceral pain B. Radicular pain C. Kehr's sign D. Angina E. Radiation

Kehr's sign

When acquiring capital equipment for your athletic training facility, a decision must be made regarding leasing or purchasing the equipment. What might be a possible advantage in leasing the equipment? A. Less risk that the equipment will become obsolete B. Lower overall cost C. Outright ownership of the equipment D. Purchased equipment has little resale value E. All of the above

Less risk that the equipment will become obsolete Explanation: If the equipment is based on complex technology, the department may be able to replace it before it becomes obsolete.

An athlete sustains a blunt trauma injury to the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. What structure might be injured in this area? A. Liver B. Gallbladder C. Spleen D. Pancreas E. Kidney

Liver

What internal organ is diseased if the athlete presents with jaundice? A. Spleen B. Pancreas C. Gallbladder D. Kidney E. Liver

Liver

What happens when a patient consumes a simple sugar prior to an event? A. May cause a sudden decrease in blood glucose because of a sudden increase in insulin production B. May lead to a sudden increase in blood glucose because of a decrease in insulin production C. May lead to increased blood levels of electrolytes D. May lead to hyperlipidemia E. May cause a sudden increase in bilirubin levels

May cause a sudden decrease in blood glucose because of a sudden increase in insulin production

All of the following are risk factors for osteoporosis except: A. Early menopause B. High consumption of alcohol, cigarettes, and caffeine C. Sedentary lifestyle D. Obesity E. Lack of folic acid in the diet

Obesity

An athletic trainer working in a sports medicine clinic may have to read a SOAP note. In what section would a finding such as a positive Lachman's test be recorded? A. Subjective (S) B. Objective (O) C. Assessment (A) D. Plan (P) E. Special tests (S)

Objective (O)

Bone grows via a process of apposition and resorption on its surface. Which of the following cells are responsible for the resorption of bone during its growth or repair? A. Osteoblasts B. Osteocytes C. Osteophils D. Osteoclasts E. None of the above

Osteoclasts

Which of the following instruments is used to visually examine the ear canal and tympanic membrane? A. Ophthalmoscope B. Laryngoscope C. Arthroscope D. Endoscope E. Otoscope

Otoscope

Where should the bell of a stethoscope be placed when taking blood pressure? A. Over the brachial artery B. Over the brachial vein C. Over the popliteal fossa D. Over the radial artery E. Over the ulnar artery

Over the brachial artery

An athlete collides with a teammate during an ice hockey game and sustains a blow to the jaw with a hockey stick. He is holding his lower face with his hands and is in intense pain. All of the following procedures will assist the athletic trainer in determining if there is a fracture of the jaw except: A. Have the athlete bite and observe for a malocclusion B. Palpate the jaw for a hematoma C. Ask the athlete to open and close his mouth, noting asymmetry with movement D. Palpate for jaw deformity when it is at rest, open, and closed E. See if the athlete can retract his jaw and observe for difficulty with movement

Palpate the jaw for a hematoma

Two exercises that are designed to stabilize the lumbar spine during low back rehabilitation include _______ and _______. A. Single knee-to-chest exercise, double knee to chest B. Hamstring stretching, bridging exercises C. Partial sit-ups, active trunk extension in prone D. Resisted hip abduction exercise, iliotibial band stretching E. Hamstring stretching, piriformis strengthening

Partial sit-ups, active trunk extension in prone Explanation: Partial sit-ups assist in strengthening the abdominals, and trunk extension exercises (with or without resistance) strengthen the erector spinae musculature.

Which of the following patients should avoid high-volume, high-intensity plyometric exercises? A. Patients who weigh more than 220 pounds B. Premenstrual female patients C. Patients who weigh less than 75 kg D. Diabetic patients E. Asthmatic patients

Patients who weigh more than 220 pounds

During a preparticipation physical examination that utilizes stations, which of the following personnel is able to perform an examination for adenopathy, abnormalities of the genitalia, and hernias in an athlete? A. Athletic training student B. Physician or physician assistant C. Physical therapist D. Certified athletic trainer E. School nurse

Physician or physician assistant

When instructing a patient in the proper technique of applying an elastic wrap to control pain and edema of an extremity, the athletic trainer should instruct the patient to remove the wrap if all except the following occurs at the distal end of the extremity: A. Numbness B. Coolness C. Tingling D. Cyanosis E. Pink hue to the skin

Pink hue to the skin

"Cauliflower ear" is an injury to which structure of the ear? A. Tympanic membrane B. External auditory canal C. Pinna D. Eustachian tube E. Internal auditory canal

Pinna

When using an ice pack at home to decrease pain and swelling of an injured limb, what should the athletic trainer recommend to the athlete to prevent a cryotherapy injury? A. Add acetone to the ice at a 3:1 ratio B. Keep the injured limb elevated while using ice C. Place a damp towel between the athlete's skin and the ice pack D. Leave the ice pack on the body part between 20 to 40 minutes at a time E. All of the above

Place a damp towel between the athlete's skin and the ice pack

An athlete comes to the athletic trainer holding a tooth that has just been knocked out of his mouth. What would be the proper steps for the athletic trainer to take to allow for a successful reimplantation? A. Try to put it back in place and use a topical ointment for pain B. Put the tooth in a jar of water and tell the athlete to store it in a refrigerator until he can see a dentist C. There is nothing the athletic trainer can do because the tooth is dead D. Place the tooth in a cloth soaked with saline or water and get the athlete to a dentist within 30 minutes E. None of the above

Place the tooth in a cloth soaked with saline or water and get the athlete to a dentist within 30 minutes

One of your patients presents with a sudden onset of chest pain, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and cyanosis. What do you suspect is the problem? A. Pneumothorax B. Lung cancer C. Endocarditis D. Pulmonary infection E. Acute appendicitis

Pneumothorax

______________ and _____________ are 2 conditions that will interfere with fracture healing. A. Poor blood supply, poor immobilization B. Infection, callus formation C. Granulation, callus formation D. Hematoma formation, the influx of endosteal cells E. Increased blood supply, callus formation

Poor blood supply, poor immobilization Explanation: Poor blood supply and poor immobilization are 2 conditions that interfere with fracture healing.

The _______ pulse and _______ pulse should be palpated after an acute traumatic injury to the knee area to make sure the peripheral circulation to the involved limb is adequate. A. Posterior tibial, dorsalis pedis B. Anterior tibial, plantar C. Saphenous, dorsalis pedis D. Femoral, posterior tibial E. Femoral, popliteal

Posterior tibial, dorsalis pedis

A drug that is used to increase the effect of another, such as aspirin when used in combination with codeine, is known as what? A. Synergistic B. Cumulative C. Paradoxical D. Potentiating E. Titrating

Potentiating

What is the definition of power? A. Power = work x force B. Power = speed x distance C. Power = force x distance D. Power = work x velocity E. Power = work x distance

Power = force x distance

How may an urinary tract infection be avoided in a female athlete? A. Drinking fluids that are acidic, such as orange juice B. Practicing sanitary bowel and bladder habits C. Avoiding food high in magnesium D. Avoid wearing colored underwear E. None of the above

Practicing sanitary bowel and bladder habits

The athletic trainer may use any of the following to treat an injured or ill patient except: A. Prescription drug B. Hydrotherapy C. Cryotherapy D. Electrotherapy E. Massage

Prescription drug

One of your athletes has been diagnosed with impetigo. What should the athletic trainer recommend to the athlete to prevent spread of the infection to other individuals? A. Clean his clothing daily with bleach B. Wear gloves C. Practice safe sex D. Prevent others from borrowing his clothing or using his towels E. Cover his mouth when coughing and avoid socializing in large crowds

Prevent others from borrowing his clothing or using his towels

If a patient who is covered by an HMO insurance policy needs to see a specialist, who must make the referral in most cases? A. Athletic trainer B. Specialist C. Primary care physician D. Patient E. None of the above

Primary care physician

The process by which something is done in a sports medicine program is defined as a(n) ___________. A. Procedure B. Policy C. Agreement D. Chain of command E. Protocol

Procedure

What conditioning component is needed to perceive the position of the foot as it lands on the ground after the swing phase of gait? A. Agility B. Balance C. Proprioception D. Kinesthesia E. Eccentric stretching

Proprioception

A patient comes to the athletic training facility with what appears to be a tick embedded in his lower leg. The athletic trainer should instruct the patient not to do which of the following? A. Keep the area clean and free of other debris B. Pull the tick off with tweezers C. Cover the tick with mineral oil D. Put fingernail polish remover onto its body E. All of the above

Pull the tick off with tweezers Explanation: Pulling the tick off the skin can leave the tick's head still embedded in the skin. Covering the tick's body with mineral oil or nail polish remover will cause the tick to remove its head from the skin.

Which of the following muscles does not extend the trunk? A. Semispinalis (thoracic) B. Erector spinae C. Quadratus lumborum D. Multifidi E. Gluteus maximus

Quadratus lumborum

Which of the following muscles does not extend the trunk? A. Semispinalis (thoracic) B. Erector spinae C. Quadratus lumborum D. Multifidi E. Gluteus maximus

Quadratus lumborum Explanation: The quadratus lumborum originates on the iliac crest, the lumbar vertebrae, and lumbodorsal fascia and inserts onto the 12th rib and the transverse processes of upper lumbar vertebrae. It functions to laterally flex the trunk.

hen rehabilitating a patient who has been diagnosed with "jumper's knee," which muscle group should eventually be strengthened? A. Hamstrings B. Quadriceps C. Hip adductors D. Hip extensors E. Triceps surae

Quadriceps

An acronym used for the immediate care of an acute musculoskeletal injury is which of the following? A. RICE B. NSAID C. REST D. STAT E. HOPS

RICE

The supinator muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves? A. Musculocutaneous nerve B. Axillary nerve C. Radial nerve D. Median nerve E. A and D

Radial nerve

Deep frostbite is a medical emergency. What would the proper course of treatment be for this problem? A. Very slow, careful rewarming of the body part with warm water B. Firm, sustained pressure of the hand on the affected body part C. Rapid rewarming of the affected body part with warm water D. Quick friction in order to increase local circulation E. None of the above

Rapid rewarming of the affected body part with warm water Explanation: With deep frostbite, there should be rapid rewarming of the body part in warm water between 100°F to 110°F. Rewarming of the body part should continue until it is deep red/bluish in color.

Which of the following is the most common order for steps in recruiting and hiring sports medicine personnel? A. Request for position, application collection, position request approval B. Application collection, position vacancy notice, offer of contract C. Request for position, telephone interviews, hiring D. Hiring, offer of contract, request for position E. Application collection, interview, request for position

Request for position, telephone interviews, hiring

A flak jacket is a piece of equipment designed to protect the athlete after what type of injury? A. Scapular injury B. Hip pointer injury C. Abdominal injury D. Rib injury E. Clavicle injury

Rib injury

_____, _____, and _____ must be taken into consideration when developing a risk management plan. A. Security, liability, competence B. Security, fire safety, management of emergency injuries C. Insurance procedures, policies/procedures, materials D. Licensing, certifications, administrative policy E. Employees, liability, security

Security, fire safety, management of emergency injuries

A basketball player who has sprained her ankle for the second time in 3 months reports to the athletic training facility for her third treatment session. The athletic trainer notices she is demanding and wants to know why the athletic trainer "did not fix her ankle the right way the first time." She becomes somewhat threatening, stating that she will find someone else to help her if she is not successfully helped this time. What would be the best response to an attention-seeking athlete? A. Give up and let her seek help elsewhere B. Work with the athlete as long as necessary to satisfy her need for attention C. Set specific but reasonable time limits with the athlete per treatment session so the athletic trainer is not overtaxed D. Encourage the athlete to take a more positive position on her rehabilitation and use humor to divert her attention away from the injury E. None of the above

Set specific but reasonable time limits with the athlete per treatment session so the athletic trainer is not overtaxed

Heat is dissipated in the body by all of the following except: A. Shivering B. Convection C. The lungs D. Sweat evaporation E. Vasodilatation

Shivering

When recommending a running sneaker the athletic trainer should recommend a sole that has what major qualities? A. Shock absorbing with a wide last B. Durable and noncompressive C. Shock absorbing and durable D. Durable with a rigid midsole E. None of the above

Shock absorbing and durable

All of the following are factors in lower extremity overuse syndromes in runners except: A. Poor footwear B. Poor posture C. Change in surface D. Short strides E. A and B

Short strides

All of the following are possible side effects of oral contraceptives except: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Shortness of breath C. Fluid retention D. Amenorrhea E. Feeling sluggish

Shortness of breath

What is the typical mechanism of injury for an anterior shoulder dislocation? A. Shoulder abduction with internal rotation B. Maximal shoulder extension C. Shoulder abduction with external rotation D. Shoulder adduction with internal rotation E. Shoulder flexion with internal rotation

Shoulder abduction with external rotation

During a D2 extension pattern of the upper extremity, what is the proper timing sequence? A. Shoulder extension, forearm pronation, finger flexion B. Shoulder flexion, scapular retraction, finger extension C. Shoulder abduction, forearm supination, finger extension D. Shoulder extension, forearm supination, finger flexion E. None of the above

Shoulder extension, forearm pronation, finger flexion

When rehabilitating a cervical strain, what must the athletic trainer maintain the integrity of? A. Shoulder girdle B. Lower back C. Upper arm D. Hand E. Kyphosis of the thoracic spine

Shoulder girdle

What would be a functional skill for a patient in an ankle rehabilitation program? A. Gastrocnemius flexibility B. Single-leg hopping C. Lifting tolerance D. Anterior tibialis strengthening E. All of the above

Single-leg hopping

What is the best position for the patient to be in to muscle test the piriformis? A. Sitting B. Prone C. Supine D. Side-lying E. Standing

Sitting Explanation: To test the strength of the piriformis, the patient should be sitting. The lower leg is resisted as the patient attempts to externally rotate the hip.

Which of the following PNF techniques is not a strengthening technique? A. Slow reversal B. Rhythmic stabilization C. Slow-reversal-hold-relax D. Rhythmic initiation E. All of the above

Slow-reversal-hold-relax

All of the following are predisposing conditions to heat illness except: A. Medications B. Age C. Conditioning level D. Hydration status E. Small body mass

Small body mass

Point-of-service plans are very similar to preferred provider organizations except that a primary care physician is assigned to the policyholder to coordinate care. A. True B. False

True

The basal metabolic rate is increased in individuals with hyperthyroidism. A. True B. False

True

The cure rate for skin cancer exceeds 95% with early detection and treatment. A. True B. False

True

The rapid form vacuum immobilizer is the best splint to use if an athlete has sustained a fracture with a deformity. A. True B. False

True

Weak evidence should not be given greater weight on the basis of numerous weak studies. One randomized controlled trial is better than numerous quasi-experimental studies. A. True B. False

True

When a patient has a seizure, it is important to restrain his or her movements so he or she does not hurt him- or herself and gently awaken the patient after the convulsions have stopped. A. True B. False

True

When counseling a patient regarding his or her nutritional health, it is important that the athletic trainer take into consideration the patient's social influences and his or her attitudes in philosophy toward life. A. True B. False

True

When covering an athletic event that is taking place in a pool, it is important that the athletic trainer have access to a rescue tube and an aquatic spine board. A. True B. False

True

When performing an interval throwing program, the progression of throwing distances of 45 feet, then 60 feet, then 90, 120, 150, and 180 feet are appropriate provided there is no increased pain or soreness the next day. A. True B. False

True

When using lumbar traction, a good guideline to use when selecting an initial force high enough to cause vertebral separation is to use a force that is equal to one-half the athlete's body weight. A. True B. False

True

Your team physician sends a prescription to you for your athlete that reads "whirlpool treatments TID." What does TID mean? A. Twice a day B. Every 3 hours C. Four times a day D. Three times a week E. Three times a day

Three times a day

In terms of specificity of training, which type of exercise would be appropriate during the late phases of rehabilitation of a soccer player? A. Stairmaster B. Swimming C. Stationary bicycle D. Leg press E. Treadmill exercise

Treadmill exercise Explanation: Running on a treadmill would most closely relate to the type of activity a soccer player would participate in during his or her sport.

Which of the following documents would be most likely subpoenaed during a civil litigation suit against an athletic trainer? A. Equipment inventory B. Treatment log C. Budget reports D. Sporting event schedules E. Proof of athletic trainer credentials and certifications

Treatment log

You are part of a planning committee that has been given the responsibility of designing the new athletic training facility at your school. You have been through the initial process of conducting a needs assessment and selecting an architect/contractor. You now are meeting with the architect to begin the development of the schematic drawings that will be submitted for approval. ____________ and ____________ are 2 major elements that must be addressed in these schematic drawings. A. Plumbing, electrical layouts B. Space needs, traffic patterns C. Field access, escape routes D. Aesthetics, large equipment positioning E. Color, furniture location

Space needs, traffic patterns

A gymnast reports to the athletic trainer with a complaint of low back pain, which has been present for approximately 1 week. After being sent to the doctor for evaluation, a "Scottie dog" defect is seen on x-ray. This finding confirms which condition? A. Fractured transverse process of a vertebra B. Fractured demifacet of a vertebra C. Spondylolisthesis D. Spondylolysis E. A and B

Spondylolysis

Which of the following is not the proper action for an athlete to take if lightning is observed during a game? A. Avoid standing near metal bleachers on the field B. Stand near a telephone pole C. Assume a crouched position in a ditch D. Take cover in an automobile if he or she cannot get indoors E. A and C

Stand near a telephone pole

What is the state law that gives an individual the length of time (in years) to file a claim? A. Foreseeable harm B. Liability negligence C. Statute of limitations D. Tort E. Statute of suitability

Statute of limitations

Two major symptoms of a spontaneous pneumothorax include _______ and _______. A. Bradycardia, cyanosis B. Sudden chest pain, dyspnea C. Apnea with rales, rhonchi D. Left shoulder pain, cyanosis E. Diaphoresis, bradycardia

Sudden chest pain, dyspnea

A moist heat pack offers what type of thermotherapy? A. Superficial B. Deep C. Cutaneous D. Surface E. None of the above

Superficial

_____________ and ______________ are both examples of histamine-2 blockers. A. Xanax, Tegretol B. Benadryl, Seldane C. Proventil, Ventolin D. Tagamet, Zantac E. Benadryl, Tagamet

Tagamet, Zantac Explanation: Tagamet (cimetidine) and Zantac (ranitidine) are both examples of histamine-2 blockers, which reduce stomach acid output by blocking the action of histamine cells in the stomach.

What type of analysis would be considered a useful tool in the strategic planning of an existing athletic training program? A. The HCFA analysis B. The strengths/weaknesses analysis C. The WOTS UP analysis D. The Samson analysis E. Flow chart analysis

The WOTS UP analysis Explanation: The WOTS UP analysis (weaknesses, opportunities, threats, and strengths) is a technique that looks at the strengths and weaknesses of an athletic training program.

All of the following conditions would disqualify a patient from athletic competition except: A. Renal disease B. Uncontrolled hypertension C. Acute mononucleosis D. The absence of one testicle E. HIV

The absence of one testicle

A high school athlete is pitching during a baseball game and is hit in the head with a line drive. He is seriously injured. The assistant coach is also the athlete's father. In this situation, who is legally responsible for the athlete's immediate care? A. The head coach B. The assistant coach/parent C. The athletic trainer D. The high school at which the event is taking place E. All of the above

The athletic trainer

You were just given permission to hire a new staff athletic trainer. What order should these components follow when conducting staff selection activities? Retention Hiring Promotion Performance evaluation Demotion

The correct order in the staff selection process should be hiring, promotion, retention, performance evaluation, and demotion.

What is the primary care physician who is appointed by an insurance company to oversee the medical care given to a patient and assigns any specialty and ancillary services called? A. The gatekeeper B. The participating provider C. The third-party administrator D. The policyholder E. None of the above

The gatekeeper

During an emergency, all of the following information should be given over the telephone by the athletic trainer to emergency personnel except: A. The type of emergency B. The current status of the athlete C. Where the athlete is currently located D. The type of treatment currently being given to the athlete E. The name of the next of kin

The name of the next of kin

All of the following are true about infectious mononucleosis except: A. The attack rate is highest between 15 to 25 year olds B. The virus is excreted in saliva C. The primary symptom is low back pain D. It is caused by transmission of the Epstein-Barr virus E. It causes splenomegaly in over half of all cases

The primary symptom is low back pain

Which of the following is not characteristic of a managed care organization? A. They require provider accountability B. They promote the use of a physician as a gatekeeper C. They are based on a fee-for-service model D. They utilize various strategies E. They utilize specific providers

They are based on a fee-for-service model

Which of the following is not a type of managed care organization? A. Health maintenance organization B. Point of service C. Exclusive provider organization D. Third-party organization E. Preferred provider organization

Third-party organization

What is the process in which health care practitioners are reimbursed by a policyholder's insurance? A. Primary-party reimbursement B. Secondary-party reimbursement C. Third-party reimbursement D. Tertiary-party reimbursement E. Direct reimbursement

Third-party reimbursement Explanation: Third-party reimbursement is the process by which health care practitioners are reimbursed by a policyholder's insurance company.

During your examination of an athlete who has been complaining of weakness when using the rowing machine in the weight room, you notice his right latissimus dorsi muscle appears atrophied. Which nerve is affected? A. Trigeminal B. Thoracodorsal C. Dorsal scapular D. Thoracic spinal E. None of the above

Thoracodorsal

An athlete comes to your office complaining of intense itching and burning pain between his toes, and he cannot find anything to help alleviate the symptoms. The area is reddened with some white flakes. What might you recommend? A. Neosporin ointment B. Tinactin spray C. Silvadene cream D. Eucerin cream E. Hydrocortisone

Tinactin spray Explanation: Tinactin is an antifungal medication that is supplied as an aerosol powder, cream, powder, or solution and is indicated for treatment of tinea pedis (patient's foot) or tinea cruris (jock itch).

An AED is used for what purpose? A. To provide immobilization of the lumbar spine and pelvis after a spinal injury B. To treat arrhythmias of the heart C. To treat hypovolemic shock D. To assess the athlete's level of consciousness after a head injury E. To defibrillate the heart when an unconscious victim has no pulse

To defibrillate the heart when an unconscious victim has no pulse

What is the primary reason an athletic trainer would perform pulmonary auscultation? A. To check for a systolic bruit B. To identify potential abnormal breath sounds C. To diagnose cardiothoracic pathology D. To diagnose pulmonary pathology E. All of the above

To identify potential abnormal breath sounds Explanation: The primary reason an athletic trainer would perform pulmonary auscultation is to identify potential abnormal breath sounds that would indicate a pathological condition.

Men who have an undescended or partially descended testicle are at a higher risk of developing testicular cancer than men with fully descended testicles. A. True B. False

True

What is the primary purpose of the Achilles tendon tape job? A. To give support and help prevent inversion ankle sprains B. Used with acute ankle sprains to help prevent swelling if an elastic wrap is not available C. To prevent the medial foot from flattening D. To restrict the amount of dorsiflexion at the ankle E. A and C

To restrict the amount of dorsiflexion at the ankle

NOCSAE is the organization that certifies football helmets to make sure they are able to withstand repeated blows of high mass and low velocity. A. True B. False

True

What does a positive drop-arm sign indicate? A. Posterior shoulder subluxation B. Torn rotator cuff muscle C. Axillary nerve injury D. A labral tear E. Humeral head fracture

Torn rotator cuff muscle

Which of the following signs and symptoms are characteristic of a tension pneumothorax? Tracheal deviation Distended neck veins Unilateral absence of breath sounds Dizziness Cyanosis

Tracheal deviation Distended neck veins Unilateral absence of breath sounds Cyanosis

The acute phase of an injury lasts approximately 3 to 4 days. What occurs at the time of initial trauma? A. Phagocytosis, followed by vasoconstriction and diapedesis B. Transitory vasodilatation, inflammation, and phagocytosis C. Transitory vasoconstriction, followed by vasodilatation and increased permeability D. Vasoconstriction, increased permeability, and granulation E. All of the above

Transitory vasoconstriction, followed by vasodilatation and increased permeability

Omission is a failure to act when an athletic trainer has a legal duty to do so. A. True B. False

True

A clinical trial is any research project that prospectively assigns human subjects to intervention or comparison groups to study the cause-effect relationship between a medical intervention and a health-related outcome. A. True B. False

True

A patient should be referred to a physician after a concussion when there is a loss of consciousness on the field; amnesia lasting longer than 15 minutes; deterioration of neurologic function; unequal, dilated, or unreactive pupils; irregularity in respirations; or vomiting. A. True B. False

True

A patient was administered morphine for pain control. Assessment reveals a decreased level of consciousness and shallow respirations at a rate of 8 per minute. The physician decided to prescribe an opiate antagonist. Narcan (naloxone hydrochloride) would be an example of this type of drug. A. True B. False

True

A patient with multiple sclerosis should exercise in the morning rather than in the afternoon. A. True B. False

True

A patient with paronychia should soak the affected finger or toe in Epsom salts or boric acid a few times a day and apply a topical antibiotic to the affected area between soakings. A. True B. False

True

All of the following are described as psychological barriers to rehabilitation: anxiety, denial, sleep disturbance, and depression or grief. A. True B. False

True

An athletic trainer who is in a management position should exhibit the elements of leadership, including decision making, planning, coordination of employees, and organization. A. True B. False

True

As a certified athletic trainer, you must willingly accept the professional organization position statements that relate directly to the practice of athletic training. A. True B. False

True

Athletic injury surveillance systems collect and analyze data that relate to the relationship of various factors that influence the frequency and distribution of sports injuries. A. True B. False

True

Conjunctivitis can be prevented through good hand washing and proper eyelid hygiene. A. True B. False

True

Conservative treatment for a mild case of thoracic outlet syndrome includes strengthening of the trapezius, rhomboids, serratus anterior, and erector spinae and stretching of the pectoralis minor and scalene muscles. A. True B. False

True

Current Procedural Terminology was established by the American Medical Association to allow for uniformity in billing. A. True B. False

True

Evidence-based practice is best defined as the use of the consensus of scientific evidence to indicate the best clinical practices for managing specific conditions. A. True B. False

True

Feirman State University has a large percentage of student-athletes who do not have primary insurance coverage. In this situation, it would benefit the institution to have a large group primary policy to keep medical costs down. A. True B. False

True

Graves' disease, systemic lupus erythematosus, and rheumatoid arthritis are all autoimmune diseases. A. True B. False

True

Hallmark signs of endometriosis are severe abdominal cramping and heavy menstrual bleeding. A. True B. False

True

Huntington's chorea is a genetic disorder. A. True B. False

True

In a situation where there is a conflict between the NATA Code of Ethics and the law, the law prevails. A. True B. False

True

Maximal effect occurs when an energy source raised (such as ultrasound) strikes the body at a 90-degree angle. A. True B. False

True

Treatment of a hordeolum consists of the application of hot, moist compresses and the application of an ointment of 1% yellow oxide or mercury to the affected area. A. True B. False

True Explanation: A hordeolum, or sty, is an infection of an eyelash follicle or the sebaceous gland at the end of the eyelid. It is caused by a staphylococcal organism and is spread by rubbing the eye or by dust particles. Treatment includes the application of hot, moist compresses and the application of 1% yellow oxide or mercury to the affected area.

A cross-over (within-group) experimental research design allows for each subject to receive every condition in succession but provides a random treatment administration while at least 2 conditions are being evaluated simultaneously. A. True B. False

True Explanation: An experimental research design that allows for each subject to receive every condition in succession but provides a random treatment administration while at least 2 conditions are being evaluated simultaneously is a cross-over study.

Patients who are on heparin, such as a patient who has had a recent total knee replacement, need to avoid vegetables high in vitamin K. A. True B. False

True Explanation: Heparin is an anticoagulant drug used to prevent thromboembolic disorders, such as vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Eating vegetables high in vitamin K may interfere with the action of heparin.

When a patient is injured and there is an abrupt withdrawal from training, this can lead to a condition known as sudden exercise abstinence syndrome. A. True B. False

True Explanation: Sudden exercise abstinence syndrome symptoms include heart palpitations, chest pain, arrhythmias, sleep and digestive disorders, depression, and emotional instability.

Strength training in the D2 flexion PNF pattern should be done with caution in a patient who has been diagnosed with anterior shoulder instability. A. True B. False

True Explanation: The combined movements of 90 degrees of shoulder abduction and 90 degrees of shoulder external rotation are performed with caution in a patient with a history of anterior shoulder joint instability. The PNF D2 flexion pattern includes both shoulder abduction and external rotation motions.

You have a lacrosse player who has been injured and displays anxiety and worry regarding her rehabilitation, often stating she "cannot do this" and "this is a waste of time." This type of thinking can be reframed into positive thoughts by the use of a technique known as thought stopping. A. True B. False

True Explanation: Thought stopping is a strategy used to eliminate negative thoughts linked to anxiety by replacing the negative thought with positive ones.

Which of the following medications is not a NSAID? A. Aspirin B. Motrin C. Tylenol D. Celebrex E. Aleve

Tylenol

The _____ is a charge that represents the maximum amount that an insurance company will pay a provider. A. HCFA B. NCR C. ADA D. CPT E. UCR

UCR Explanation: The UCR (usual, customary, and reasonable) is a charge that represents the maximum amount of money that an insurance company will pay for a service.

Which of the following medications is not an antihistamine drug? A. Dimetapp B. Ultram C. Benadryl D. Claritin E. Allegra

Ultram

Alpine skiing world championships are scheduled in Japan. Jet lag is bound to occur as a result of crossing several time zones. What should the athletic trainer recommend to the team members prior to their flight to combat the jet lag effect? A. Upon arrival, adjust all training, eating, and sleeping schedules to the local time of the country in which they are competing B. Consume caffeine only when traveling east C. Reset watches to the new time zone 3 days in advance to get used to the time change D. When traveling west, it is important to have a large breakfast in the morning to carry the athlete through the day E. Make sure the team trains late in the day prior to the trip

Upon arrival, adjust all training, eating, and sleeping schedules to the local time of the country in which they are competing

What is the prudent method of transporting an athlete with a suspected spinal injury? A. Do not move the athlete until a doctor is present B. Use a stretcher C. Fireman's carry D. Use a spine board with medical assistance E. Use a wheelchair

Use a spine board with medical assistance

What is the best method of determining the recovery status of the hand and forearm after a flexor injury? A. Use of a KT-1000 arthrometer B. Assessing the strength of a handshake C. Manual muscle testing of the wrist D. Use of a hand dynamometer E. Electromyography testing

Use of a hand dynamometer

What is the appropriate treatment for an athlete who has sustained a rib fracture? A. Use of a rib belt B. There is no specific treatment C. Total bedrest D. Use of a pillow to splint the ribs when coughing E. C and D

Use of a rib belt

One of your cross-country runners has an ongoing problem with tinea pedis. Which of the following actions should you take to assist this athlete in minimizing the problem? A. Use talcum powder daily and keep his or her feet dry after showering B. Use Kwell shampoo twice a day or as directed by a physician C. Remove the infected toenail to prevent the infection from spreading D. Make sure the athlete uses sunblock with an SPF of 15 or higher E. None of the above

Use talcum powder daily and keep his or her feet dry after showering Explanation: Tinea pedis (patient's foot) is caused by a fungus infection. The athletic trainer should advise the patient to keep his or her feet clean and dry and wear clean socks on a daily basis.

All of the following are measures for preventing infectious diseases except: A. Appropriate diet, recovery time between workouts, and sleep B. Use individual water bottles, towels, uniforms, and personal equipment C. Frequent laundering of uniforms D. Use water to clean contaminated surfaces or equipment E. B and C

Use water to clean contaminated surfaces or equipment

Keratoderma can be prevented by all of the following except: A. Wearing 2 pairs of socks B. Applying a lubricant to the skin to prevent friction C. Using an antifungal ointment D. Using a glove or moleskin E. Wearing properly fitting shoes

Using an antifungal ointment Explanation: Keratoderma is the hypertrophy of the stratum corneum of the epidermis, which occurs most frequently on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. Keratoderma is also known as a callus and can be prevented by wearing 2 pairs of socks and properly fitting shoes, applying a lubricant to the skin to prevent friction, and protecting the palms of the hands with special gloves, tape, or moleskin.

An athlete you have just evaluated for a possible head injury has a noticeable facial droop on the left side of his face. Which cranial nerve(s) is involved? A. I B. IV, V C. VII D. III, IX E. II, VI

VII

A diet that is very low in carbohydrates may result in all of the following except: A. Fatigue B. Hypoglycemia C. Ketosis D. Very high blood pH levels E. Headaches

Very high blood pH levels Explanation: To rectify low blood glucose levels, more free fatty acids are mobilized from adipose tissue than the liver can metabolize, resulting in ketosis. These excess ketone bodies are released into the urine and during respiration, resulting in low blood pH levels.

When is it best to have athletes practice outdoors in an urban environment? A. Early in the morning B. In the middle of the afternoon C. Early afternoon D. Very late afternoon/early evening E. Never

Very late afternoon/early evening Explanation: Patients who live/play in urban or industrial areas should practice in the late afternoon after rush hour when the pollution level is at its lowest point.

An injured athlete is led through a therapeutic mental process in which he pictures himself being evaluated by the athletic trainer and assured the injury is not serious. He then pictures himself moving through rehabilitation, recovering nicely, and, finally, returning to his sport fully healed. What is this therapeutic approach to the recovery process called? A. Regression B. Thought stopping C. Biofeedback D. Meditation E. Visualization

Visualization

A patient's pulmonary function is tested via spirometry. Several measurements are taken during this test. What is the maximum amount of air that can be expired after a maximum inspiration called? A. Maximum expiratory flow rate B. Forced expiratory volume C. Vital capacity D. Tidal volume E. Residual volume

Vital capacity

A megadose of which of the following vitamins is potentially very dangerous? A. Thiamin B. Vitamin B6 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin B12 E. Vitamin A

Vitamin A

A female gymnast is complaining of symptoms of premenstrual syndrome, such as irritability, anxiety, depression, and bloating. Which of the following vitamins might be helpful in alleviating these symptoms? A. Vitamin B6 B. Vitamin B12 C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin A E. Vitamin C

Vitamin B6

In which of the following sports would plyometric training be beneficial? A. Rock climbing B. Cross-country C. Volleyball D. Archery E. Swimming

Volleyball

When working on a bleeding patient, what should the athletic trainer always do? A. Avoid touching the bloody areas B. Wash hands before treatment C. Wear gloves D. Wear eye protection E. Elevate the body part

Wear gloves

Which of the following is not a preventive measure for fungal skin infections? A. Use powders to absorb moisture B. Wear the same pair of shoes everyday C. Shower frequently D. Avoid contact with contaminated surfaces E. Towel off completely following a shower

Wear the same pair of shoes everyday

All of the following are exceptions to the rule of confidentiality except: A. When the media desires information regarding the athlete's health status B. When there is clear and imminent danger to the athlete C. When there is clear and imminent danger to other persons D. When legal requirements demand that confidential information be released E. C and D

When the media desires information regarding the athlete's health status

What are the most appropriate exercises for a diagnosis of lumbar spinal stenosis? A. Kegel exercises B. McKenzie extension exercises C. Lumbar stabilization exercises D. Postural awareness exercises E. Williams' flexion exercises

Williams' flexion exercises Explanation: Williams' flexion exercises encourage a position of lumbar flexion, which opens the vertebral foramina, taking the pressure off the nerve root.

The dangers of possible hypothermia during exercise in very cold weather are significantly pronounced by _______ and _______. A. Light clothing, low chill factor B. Wind, wet weather C. Layered clothing, dry weather D. Wind, dry weather E. Heavy clothing, wind

Wind, wet weather

Which type of budgeting model requires justification for every budget line item without reference to previous spending patterns? A. Fixed B. Variable C. Zero-based D. Performance E. Need-based

Zero-based

Which of the following is a prudent action that the athletic trainer should take prior to an emergency arising? A. The athletic trainer should arrange a meeting between him- or herself, the local rescue squad, team physician, and any other individual involved in handling an injured athlete at least once a year to establish and practice procedures that will be used in the event of an emergency B. Make sure all the golf carts are fully charged and ready to roll C. Make sure the athletic director and school nurse are on campus D. Know all of the emergency routes of the campus and have directions to the nearest hospital E. B and D

he athletic trainer should arrange a meeting between him- or herself, the local rescue squad, team physician, and any other individual involved in handling an injured athlete at least once a year to establish and practice procedures that will be used in the event of an emergency

Anabolic steroids are often abused by athletes. Which of the following results may occur in the female athlete after ingesting testosterone? A. Decreased libido B. Gynecomastia C. Hirsutism D. Increased body fat E. All of the above

hirsutism Explanation: A female may develop a condition known as hirsutism, which is the excessive growth of hair in unusual places, with the ingestion of testosterone.