BVMS2 Weekly Quizzes Complete

What is the name of the object used during a falcon's training that imitates a flying bird? Select one: Swivel Hood Lure Jesses Leash

Lure

What is the mechanism of action of the phenothiazine sedative drugs? Select one: a. Antagonist action at dopamine receptors b. Agonist action at noradrenaline receptors c. Antagonist action at glycine receptors d. Antagonist action at noradrenaline receptors e. Agonist action at dopamine receptors

a. Antagonist action at dopamine receptors

Match each pet bird species with its continent of origin. Each choice can be used once, more than once or not at all. Budgerigar a. Australia b. Africa c. South America d. Europe e. Asia f. North America

a. Australia

Match each pet bird species with its continent of origin. Each choice can be used once, more than once or not at all. Cockatiel a. Australia b. Africa c. South America d. Europe e. Asia f. North America

a. Australia

Order the steps in the Veterinary business model: using the following terms ( get recommended, call convert, consult convert, make phone ring, charge for work done)

make phone ring, call convert, consult convert, charge for work done, get recommended

When considering fluid movement across vessel walls: Increased ONCOTIC pressure --- pulls fluid into/pushes fluid out of --- has no effect on vessels

pulls fluid into

Which of the following amphibians lives in a fully aquatic environment? Select one: Horned frog African clawed frog Fire bellied newt Tiger salamander Poison dart frog

African clawed frog

Outline features which are typical of climatic housing and controlled environment housing (5 marks)

Climatic housing Low stocking density Large cubic air space per animal Not insulated Naturally ventilated Cheaper than climate controlled housing Controlled environment housing High stocking density Fairly low cubic air space per animal Well insulated Carefully controlled ventilation Expensive to construct Artificially lit

Identify three clinical signs which can be expected with vestibular dysfunction

Head tilt Nystagmus Strabismus Ataxia Vomiting Rolling

Name a neurological disorder which may arise from a portocaval shunt.

Hepatic encephalopathy

In which part of the central nervous system do upper motor neurons (UMN) originate?

In the motor regions of the cerebral cortex or the brain stem

What is the function of the trachea?

It carries to and from the lungs

Briefly explain why is it necessary to beak trim commercial layers and why this is a major welfare concern? At what age is beak trimming usually carried out and by which method(s)? (5 marks)

Prevent feather pecking (1) in floor based production systems -can lead to aggressive feather pulling and cannibalism- scientific evidence suggests the procedure is painful (1) and that if poorly carried out the birds are unable to feed properly (1). Carried out in first week of life (1) using either Infra red and Hot blade methods are routinely used (1)

Outline 3 arguments against conscious pain perception in invertebrates

Reduced evolutionary advantage Limited neural capacity Lack of pain related behavioural responses

What age do male alpacas reach puberty? Select one: a. 6 months b. 11 months c. 18 months d. 20 months e. 24 months

b. 11 months

At what age would a commercial layers flock typically be depleted in the UK? Select one: a. 52-54wks b. 62-64wks c. 72-74wks d. 82-84wks e. ~100wks

c. 72-74wks

Give another name for ONCOTIC PRESSURE

colloid osmotic pressure

Which sinus is this?

frontal

1) Where is the major production site of CSF? 2) List all the meningeal layers

1) Choroid plexus 2) Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

LIST the 3 common mechanisms of action of the anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs)

1) Enhancement of inhibitory processes via facilitated action of gamma amino-butyric acid (GABA) 2) Reduction of excitatory transmission 3) Modulation of membrane cation conductance

List three functions of amphibian skin. [In an exam this question would be worth 3 marks]

1) Protection 2) Respiration/gas exchange 3) Osmotic function (or similar)

Briefly describe the following types of aquarium filter: Canister filter Undergravel filter [In an exam this question would be worth 4 marks]

Canister filter: Water is drawn through a canister filled with different filter materials by an electrical pump. They can located inside or outside the aquarium. Undergravel filter: Perforated plates are placed beneath a deep layer of gravel. Water is drawn though the gravel and filter by a pump.

From the list of routes of administration of local anaesthetic drugs choose the most appropriate route of administration for each of the following clinical applications. To perform repair of an extensive post-partum perineal tear in a mare a. Topical anaesthesia b Local infiltration c. Instillation into a cavity or wound d. Intravenous regional anaesthesia (Bier's block) e. Peripheral nerve blocks f. Epidural (extradural) block g. Systemic administration

F. Epidural (extradural) block

The goat lactation is significantly different from a cow's. Detail how. (3 marks) NB this question will not be marked - the answer will be provided as feedback.

Feedback Spontaneous lactation, ie some goats lactate without having been pregnant (1 mark) Higher cell counts in milk are normal (1 mark) The goat lactation can be prolonged beyond one year (extended up to 72 mths) (1 mark)

Briefly describe the suspensory ligament in the forelimb of the horse (4 marks). What is its function (2 marks)?

Fibrous structure located palmar aspect 3rd metacarpal bone between 2nd & 4th metacarpal (splint) bones (1 mark) Runs approx. a third of the way down the metacarpal region before branching (1 mark) Each branch runs to the abaxial aspect of the proximal sesamoid bones (1 mark) Then crosses to dorsal aspect of the limb to fuse with the common digital extensor tendon (1 mark) Functions (total 2 marks): support the metacarpo-phalangeal / fetlock joint (1 mark) return it to its natural resting position after the hyperextension that occurs during locomotion (1 mark)

Which rodent species needs dietary vitamin C supplementation? Select one: Degus Pygmy hedgehog Guinea pig Rat Gerbil

Guinea pig

Which of these is often the result of a ruptured vessel? Haemopericardium/Hydropericardium

Haemopericardium

Which of these contains fluid which can be classed as a transudate or modified transudate? Haemopericardium/ Hydropericardium

Hydropericardium

From the list, select the skin lesion that is being described in each of the following scenarios Sharply demarcated epidermal elevation filled with clear fluid a. Crust b. Cyst c. Epidermal collarette d. Excoriation e. Macule f. Nodule g. Plaque h. Pustule I. Vesicle j. Wheal/Hive

I. Vesicle

Cite 5 differences between standard and quantitative PCR

PCR vs qPCR detection at endpoint vs detection in real time (in exponential phase) "open tube" vs (usually) "closed tube" more risk vs lower risk of contamination (if "closed tube") no probes vs probes (in some forms of real time PCR) non fluorescent DNA detection on gel/other means vs fluorescent detection eppendorf tubes vs multiwell plates cheap vs more expensive simple thermocycler vs more complex thermocycler/detection equipment non quantitative (in simplest form) vs quantitative (relative/absolute)

What is the correct term for the the compilation of geneological data that makes up a specific species population? Select one: Breed book Stake book Stud book Animal book Herd book

Stud book

Describe the general movements of the forelimb during a single stride in forward locomotion, starting from a standing position (2 marks)

The limb is initially flexed/folded/shortened (0.5) to bring the foot away from the ground.The limb is then protracted (0.5), bring the foot cranially.The limb is then extended/straightened/lengthened (0.5) to bring the foot back into contact with the ground.Finally the limb is retracted (moved caudally) (0.5), levering the body past the limb in a cranial direction.

Neuromuscular blocking drugs are quaternary ammonium compounds. Explain how this influences their route of administration and distribution around the body (4 marks).

These compounds are polar/charged (1 mark) and therefore do not cross membranes easily (1 mark) Must be given i.v as not absorbed by any other route (1 mark) Will not cross into protected organs such as CNS or the placenta (1 mark

What are the three general mechanisms for removing neurotransmitters from the synaptic cleft Why is this functionally important

Three mechanisms: 1) diffusion 2) cellular uptake (either pre or postsynaptic or localised glial cell), 3) enzymatic degradation. It is important to remove the NTs from the synaptic cleft so that the post synaptic site can engage in a subsequent round of activation following the arrival of an action potential at the presynaptic terminal.

Choose the mediator of inflammation that is being referred to in each of the following statements Activated by kallikrein a. Bradykinin b. Histamine and serotonin c. C3a and C5a d. Prostaglandins e. none of the above

a. Bradykinin

Which of the following is a physiological mechanism used to promote heat loss? Select one: a. Cutaneous vasodilation b. Piloerection c. Closed posture d. Non-shivering thermogenesis e. Moving to a cool location

a. Cutaneous vasodilation

After performing an abaxial sesamoid nerve block, your patient exhibits no lameness. Which anatomical structure could be the source of the original lameness? Select one: a. Distal Phalanx b. Cannon Bone c. Medial Splint Bone d. Metacarpophalangeal Joint e. Lateral Splint Bone

a. Distal Phalanx

Which of these statements would represent a Utilitarian perspective on eating meat? Select one: a. Eating meat is acceptable if the animals have lived a good life and are humanely killed b. It is acceptable to eat the meat of some species but not others c. Meat consumption is potentially unacceptable because of its environmental impact d. Killing animals for their meat is never acceptable e. Meat is enjoyed by humans, so it is a good use of animals

a. Eating meat is acceptable if the animals have lived a good life and are humanely killed

Nociceptors (pain receptors) in the skin are mainly Select one: a. Free nerve endings b. Merkel's discs c. Pacinian corpuscles d. Meissner's corpuscles e. Ruffini endings

a. Free nerve endings

Fungal pneumonia is typically associated with which pattern of inflammation? Select one: a. Granulomatous pneumonia b. Suppurative bronchopneumonia c. Aspiration pneumonia d. Interstitial pneumonia e. Fibrinous bronchopneumonia

a. Granulomatous pneumonia

Which one of the following is a common cause of stallion-like behaviour in the mare? Select one: a. Granulosa cell tumour b. Sertoli cell tumour c. Thyroid adenoma d. Pituitary trauma e. Adrenal cortical atrophy

a. Granulosa cell tumour

Question text Describe the recommended diet during short term rehabilitation of the following wild animals: a. Hawk b. Swan c. Deer b. Fox e. Seal

a. Hawk: day old chick and quails b. Swan: commercial waterfowl diet c. Deer: browse and hay d. Fox: day old chicks and dog food e. Seal: fish such as mackerel and herrings

Heat stroke occurs when Select one: a. Heat gained by radiation cannot be lost by evaporation b. Shivering stops and metabolic processes shut down c. Neutrophils and macrophages secrete pyrogen IL1 d. The set point for body temperature is altered e. There is excessive electrolyte loss

a. Heat gained by radiation cannot be lost by evaporation

Choose the organisation that is being referred to in each of the following statements Has overall authority in the management of controlled drugs in the UK a. Home Office b. Royal College of Veterinary Surgeons c. Veterinary Medicine Directorate d. National Office of Animal Health e. Department of Environment, Food, and Rural Affairs

a. Home Office

Match each of the ethical arguments for keeping animals in zoos with the relevant counter-argument. Zoos provide entertainment a. It could be argued this is a frivolous, unjustifiable use of animals b. Perhaps other, more effective teaching methods could be used c. Animals in zoos may differ from the wild population d. Many non-endangered animals are kept in zoos e. Putting animals on show might encourage the wrong attitudes in people

a. It could be argued this is a frivolous, unjustifiable use of animals

Which of the following characteristics makes cartilage an unusual connective tissue? Select one: a. It is avascular b. It functions in mechanical support c. It has a ground substance d. It contains protein fibres e. It contains both mature and immature cells

a. It is avascular

How might one define the intrinsic value of endangered species? Select one: a. Its value is independent from any use or function b. Its value is greater than its abundance c. Its value has an ecological potential d. Its value has a strategic potential e. Its value is due to the interaction with the ecosystem

a. Its value is independent from any use or function

Select the congenital anomaly that often causes regurgitation of food in young dogs Select one: a. Persistent right aortic arch b. Foramen ovale c. Persistent ductus venosus d. Persistent ductus arteriosus e. Ventricular septal defect

a. Persistent right aortic arch

Match each reptile with its Latin name. Bearded Dragon a. Pogona vitticeps b. Eubleparius macularis c. Testudo hermanni d. Elaphe spp e. Python regius

a. Pogona vitticeps

Which ONE of the following determines the severity of clinical disease in Tetralogy of Fallot? Select one: a. Pulmonic stenosis b. Ventricular septal defect c. Right ventricular hypertrophy d. Atrial septal defect e. Dextra-positioned aorta

a. Pulmonic stenosis

The primary change in Respiratory acid-base disturbances can be characterised by which one of the following options: Select one: a. Raised arterial PCO2 in the case of acidosis or lowered PCO2 in alkalosis b. Increased renal blood flow to facilitate renal compensatory HCO3- excretion c. Reduced circulating (HCO3-) in the case of acidosis or (H+) in alkalosis d. Gradually increasing renal enzyme induction to allow delayed increased H+ excretion

a. Raised arterial PCO2 in the case of acidosis or lowered PCO2 in alkalosis

What type of bone is the patella? Select one: a. Sesamoid b. Long c. Short d. Irregular e. Flat

a. Sesamoid

Choose the correct waste stream for the following items: A needle used for taking a blood sample a. Sharps bin - yellow or red lid b. Sharps bin - purple lid c. Pharmaceutical bin - blue lid d. Pharmaceutical bin - purple lid e. Domestic waste - black bag f. Foul sewer - down the sink g. Glass recycling

a. Sharps bin - yellow or red lid

In relation to reptiles, what is ecdysis? Select one: a. Shedding skin b. Proliferation of follicles c. Atrophy of scales d. Increasing skin pigmentation e. A fungal infection

a. Shedding skin

Little or no vertebral blood reaches the brain in which species? Select one: a. Sheep and Cat b. Dog and Ox c. Ox d. Dog e. All of the above

a. Sheep and Cat

Reduction in the permeability of porins in a bacterium may cause antimicrobial resistance in which group of antimicrobial drugs Select one: a. The fluoroquinolones b. The macrolides c. The tetracyclines d. The Diaminopyramidines e. The beta lactams

a. The fluoroquinolones

What separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity? Select one: a. The hard palate b. The soft palate c. The nasal septum d. The vomer e. The larynx

a. The hard palate

Which of the following limit the usefulness of a flexion test in localising the cause of lameness in an equine hindlimb? Select one: a. The reciprocal apparatus b. The ability to apply sufficient force to the limb c. The stay apparatus d. The patella locking mechanism e. The development of compensatory lameness

a. The reciprocal apparatus

Which statement describes a process of "Shared decision making" in Veterinary practice? Select one: a. The vet involves the client in decisions about their pets care; taking into account the human-animal bond and individual circumstances b. The vet acts as an advocate for the animal ensuring that welfare needs are met and proposing treatment plans developed to promote optimum welfare c. The vet consults with relevant specialists to develop and propose the optimum treatment plan for each individual client and their pet d. The client involves their family in end of life decisions, ensuring consent is genuinely informed and based on a consensus decision e. The vet is the source of technical and professional knowledge and provides information to the client on the most appropriate course of action for their pet

a. The vet involves the client in decisions about their pets care; taking into account the human-animal bond and individual circumstances

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the tetracycline group of antimicrobial drugs? Select one: a. They disrupt bacterial protein synthesis by acting on the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome b. They act to disrupt the bacterial cell wall c. They inhibit topoisomerase enzymes d. They block the synthesis of folic acid in bacteria e. They inhibit the synthesis of ergosterol

a. They disrupt bacterial protein synthesis by acting on the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome

From the list of routes of administration of local anaesthetic drugs choose the most appropriate route of administration for each of the following clinical applications. To desensitise intact skin for insertion of an i.v. catheter in a cat pre-operatively a. Topical anaesthesia b Local infiltration c. Instillation into a cavity or wound d. Intravenous regional anaesthesia (Bier's block) e. Peripheral nerve blocks f. Epidural (extradural) block g. Systemic administration

a. Topical anaesthesia

When does the aortic valve open during the cardiac cycle? Select one: a. When the left ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure b. Just after the T wave on the electrocardiogram c. During isovolumetric relaxation d. During the P wave of the electrocardiogram e. During atrial contraction

a. When the left ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure

Match the heart arrhythmia or conduction disorder with the correct description. Paroxysms of supraventricular tachycardia a. a potentially life threatening component of sick sinus syndrome which leads to syncope b. Intermittent failure to conduct through the AV node with dropped beats c. Often seen with ventricular hypertrophy d. Often seen with cardiomyopathy, characterised by the lack of p-waves on ECG e. Delay of impulse through the AV node

a. a potentially life threatening component of sick sinus syndrome which leads to syncope

For each of the following tumours, choose an appropriate first-line treatment option, assuming no metastatic spread Renal lymphoma - cat a. chemotherapy b. external beam radiotherapy c. surgery- local excision d. surgery - wide excision e. surgery - radical excision

a. chemotherapy

Below is a list of recommended time intervals for how regularly a range of equine husbandry tasks should be performed to maximise the health and welfare of a horse Frequency at which a horse competing under British Horseracing Authority rules should receive influenza booster vaccinations following the primary course a. every year b. twice daily c. daily d. every four to eight weeks e. every two to three years

a. every year

Match the terms below to the most accurate answer. Concentric hypertrophy a. increase in myocyte width due to addition of sarcomeres in parallel, result of a pressure overload b. degenerative valvular disease of older dogs c. ageing change caused by storage of wear-and-tear pigments d. bacterial infection and inflammation of valves e. increase in myocyte length due to addition of sarcomeres in series, result of volume overload

a. increase in myocyte width due to addition of sarcomeres in parallel, result of a pressure overload

Match each pathology with one of the underlying causes of heart failure. ventricular tachycardia a. irregular rhythms b. valvular defects c. damage to the myocardium d. inability of the heart to expand e. increased resistance to outflow

a. irregular rhythms

The sensory neuronal cell body originates from: Select one: a. neural crest b. The alar plate c. sclerotome d. neural tube e. neural cavity

a. neural crest

Match the reflexes on the left with the appropriate sensory structures Tonic vestibular reflex a. otolith organs b. pressure receptors c. muscle spindle d. semicircular canals e. mechanoreceptors f. organs of corti

a. otolith organs

Choose the correct equipment to restrain each wild animal species. Each choice can be used once, more than once or not at all. Rabbit a. pet carrier b. leather gloves c. crush cage d. bag with wraps e. stretcher f. pillow case

a. pet carrier

This is a list of brain functions. Identify the area of the brain best associated with each function. Control of fine movement a. pyramidal tract b. hypothalamus c. pons d. basal nuclei e. cerebellum

a. pyramidal tract

Given the relationship CO2 + H20 Þ H2CO3 ÞHCO3- + H+ which ONE of the following statements is FALSE? Select one: a. retention of CO2 in lungs will raise blood pH b. respiratory homeostasis relies on Total body VdotCO2 matching alveolar VdotCO2 c. hyperventilation and raised VA will decrease plasma (H+) d. H+ ion buffering capacity will limit the amount of CO2 carried dissolved in plasma e. a normal respiratory response to low PatmO2 will increase plasma pH

a. retention of CO2 in lungs will raise blood pH

Match each species with the most common congenital defects to which they are susceptible. Horse a. uncommon b. patent ductus arteriosis, pulmonic stenosis, subaortic stenosis c. mitral dysplasia d. atrial septal defects, ventricular septal defects, transposition of the great vessels e. subaortic atenosis

a. uncommon

From the list of routes of administration of local anaesthetic drugs choose the most appropriate route of administration for each of the following clinical applications. To desensitise dermal and subcutaneous tissues to facilitate stitching a leg wound in a dairy cow a. Topical anaesthesia b Local infiltration c. Instillation into a cavity or wound d. Intravenous regional anaesthesia (Bier's block) e. Peripheral nerve blocks f. Epidural (extradural) block g. Systemic administration

b Local infiltration

Expressed as a NATURAL FREQUENCY, the risk of anaesthetic death in cats is: Select one: a. Around 10 times higher than that in humans b. 24 in every 10,000 patients c. 0.24% d. Small but significant e. 1.4 times higher than that in dogs

b. 24 in every 10,000 patients

What percentage of elastic energy is lost as heat in the Superficial Digital Flexor Tendon (SDFT) during exercise? Select one: a. 1-5% b. 5-10% c. 10-15% d. 15-20% e. 20-25%

b. 5-10%

What does the P wave represent on an electrocardiogram Select one: a. Atrial contraction b. Atrial depolarisation c. Time of atrial electrical conduction d. Ventricular depolarisation e. Ventricular contraction

b. Atrial depolarisation

What is the principal cell type associated with the stratum basale? Select one: a. Langerhans Cells b. Basal Cells c. Corneocytes d. Merkel Cells e. Melanocytes

b. Basal Cells

Which muscle has an action that is antagonistic to the triceps brachii? Select one: a. Pectoral b. Biceps brachii c. Brachiocephalicus d. Extensor carpi radialis e. Latissimus dorsi

b. Biceps brachii

Which cranial nerve has special somatic afferent fibers (SSA) Select one: a. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal) b. Cranial nerve II (optic) c. Cranial nerve X (vagus) d. Cranial nerve I (olfactory) e. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal)

b. Cranial nerve II (optic)

From the list, select the skin lesion that is being described in each of the following scenarios An epithelium lined cavity containing fluid or inspissated material, smooth, well-circumscribed, often fluctuant a. Crust b. Cyst c. Epidermal collarette d. Excoriation e. Macule f. Nodule g. Plaque h. Pustule I. Vesicle j. Wheal/Hive

b. Cyst

Contraction of which extraocular muscle would result in dorsal rotation of the anterior pole (cornea) of the eyeball? Select one: a. Ventral Rectus b. Dorsal Rectus c. Lateral Rectus d. Medial Rectus e. Retractor Bulbi

b. Dorsal Rectus

Choose the mediator of inflammation that is being referred to in each of the following statements Released from mast cells and cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability a. Bradykinin b. Histamine and serotonin c. C3a and C5a d. Prostaglandins e. none of the above

b. Histamine and serotonin

Which of these are clinical signs that you may see with cerebellar dysfunction Select one: a. Head tilt, paraplegia and strabismus b. Hypermetria, intention tremors and head tilt c. Paraparesis, masticatory muscle atrophy and hypermetria d. Intention tremors, mentation changes and strabismus e. Reduced spinal reflexes, paralysis and mentation changes

b. Hypermetria, intention tremors and head tilt

Match the heart arrhythmia or conduction disorder with the correct description. Second degree AV block a. a potentially life threatening component of sick sinus syndrome which leads to syncope b. Intermittent failure to conduct through the AV node with dropped beats c. Often seen with ventricular hypertrophy d. Often seen with cardiomyopathy, characterised by the lack of p-waves on ECG e. Delay of impulse through the AV node

b. Intermittent failure to conduct through the AV node with dropped beats

Rib impressions are associated with which pattern of inflammation in the lungs? Select one: a. Bronchopneumonia b. Interstitial pneumonia c. Embolic pneumonia d. Aspiration pneumonia e. Granulomatous pneumonia

b. Interstitial pneumonia

Another name for the mitral valve is Select one: a. Right atrioventricular valve b. Left atrioventricular valve c. Aortic semilunar valve d. Tricuspid valve e. Pulmonary semilunar valve

b. Left atrioventricular valve

What is the definition of protraction in relation to the forelimb of the dog? Select one: a. Folding or Shortening of the Limb b. Movement of the limb cranially relative to the trunk c. Movement of the limb towards midline d. Movement of the limb caudally relative to the trunk e. Rotation of the limb

b. Movement of the limb cranially relative to the trunk

Where is the entrance to the auditory tubes located? Select one: a. Nasal cavity b. Nasopharynx c. Common pharynx d. Nasal septum e. Oropharynx

b. Nasopharynx

Match each of the ethical arguments for keeping animals in zoos with the relevant counter-argument. zoos have educational value a. It could be argued this is a frivolous, unjustifiable use of animals b. Perhaps other, more effective teaching methods could be used c. Animals in zoos may differ from the wild population d. Many non-endangered animals are kept in zoos e. Putting animals on show might encourage the wrong attitudes in people

b. Perhaps other, more effective teaching methods could be used

In a diagnostic PCR reaction, which component has the largest impact on the specificity of the reaction (in crude terms, the ability of the PCR to amplify the desired segment of the target nucleic acid) ? Select one: a. dNTPs b. Primers c. Taq polymerase d. Nucleic acid extracted from clinical sample e. Buffer

b. Primers

Choose the organisation that is being referred to in each of the following statements Publishes a Guide to Professional Conduct a. Home Office b. Royal College of Veterinary Surgeons c. Veterinary Medicine Directorate d. National Office of Animal Health e. Department of Environment, Food, and Rural Affairs

b. Royal College of Veterinary Surgeons

What would be the typical presentation of lameness due to a traumatic fracture in a dog? Select one: a. Moderate acute lameness b. Severe acute lameness c. Mild acute lameness d. Severe chronic lameness e. Mild chronic lameness

b. Severe acute lameness

Choose the correct waste stream for the following items: A needle used for administering chemotherapy a. Sharps bin - yellow or red lid b. Sharps bin - purple lid c. Pharmaceutical bin - blue lid d. Pharmaceutical bin - purple lid e. Domestic waste - black bag f. Foul sewer - down the sink g. Glass recycling

b. Sharps bin - purple lid

Which of the following is caused by right sided heart failure Select one: a. Caval syndrome b. Systemic congestion c. Pulmonary oedema d. Lymphangitis e. Arteriosclerosis

b. Systemic congestion

Match the terms below to the most accurate answer. valvular endocardiosis a. increase in myocyte width due to addition of sarcomeres in parallel, result of a pressure overload b. degenerative valvular disease of older dogs c. ageing change caused by storage of wear-and-tear pigments d. bacterial infection and inflammation of valves e. increase in myocyte length due to addition of sarcomeres in series, result of volume overload

b. degenerative valvular disease of older dogs

For each of the following tumours, choose an appropriate first-line treatment option, assuming no metastatic spread Brain tumour (glioma) - dog a. chemotherapy b. external beam radiotherapy c. surgery- local excision d. surgery - wide excision e. surgery - radical excision

b. external beam radiotherapy

Which clinical signs would you expect to be associated with dysfunction of these nerves? Vestibular a. medial strabismus b. head tilt c. temporal muscle damage d. absent PLR e. absent blink f. flaccid tongue

b. head tilt

Choose the correct equipment to restrain each wild animal species. Each choice can be used once, more than once or not at all. Hawk a. pet carrier b. leather gloves c. crush cage d. bag with wraps e. stretcher f. pillow case

b. leather gloves

Match each species with the most common congenital defects to which they are susceptible. Dog a. uncommon b. patent ductus arteriosis, pulmonic stenosis, subaortic stenosis c. mitral dysplasia d. atrial septal defects, ventricular septal defects, transposition of the great vessels e. subaortic atenosis

b. patent ductus arteriosis, pulmonic stenosis, subaortic stenosis

Match the reflexes on the left with the appropriate sensory structures Positive supporting reflex a. otolith organs b. pressure receptors c. muscle spindle d. semicircular canals e. mechanoreceptors f. organs of corti

b. pressure receptors

Which blood vessel supplies the lung with deoxygenated blood? Select one: a. the tracheal artery b. the pulmonary artery c. the broncheosophageal artery d. the pulmonary vein e. the broncheosophageal vein

b. the pulmonary artery

Below is a list of recommended time intervals for how regularly a range of equine husbandry tasks should be performed to maximise the health and welfare of a horse The minimum frequency at which a stabled horse should be inspected a. every year b. twice daily c. daily d. every four to eight weeks e. every two to three years

b. twice daily

Match each pathology with one of the underlying causes of heart failure. Endocardiosis a. irregular rhythms b. valvular defects c. damage to the myocardium d. inability of the heart to expand e. increased resistance to outflow

b. valvular defects

Which of the following sample descriptions would meet guidelines for submitting a histopathology sample for analysis? Select one: a. At least 50g of tissue on ice b. 2 x 2 x 3.2 cm section of tissue on ice c. 0.7 x 2 x 3 cm section in formalin d. At least 500g tissue in formalin e. At least 10g of tissue in a wide mouth jar

c. 0.7 x 2 x 3 cm section in formalin

Match each of the ethical arguments for keeping animals in zoos with the relevant counter-argument. zoos provide opportunities for research a. It could be argued this is a frivolous, unjustifiable use of animals b. Perhaps other, more effective teaching methods could be used c. Animals in zoos may differ from the wild population d. Many non-endangered animals are kept in zoos e. Putting animals on show might encourage the wrong attitudes in people

c. Animals in zoos may differ from the wild population

On leaving the left ventricular the blood moves into the Select one: a. Pulmonary vein b. Caudal vena cava c. Aorta d. Cranial vena cava e. Pulmonary Artery

c. Aorta

What happens when an animal is unable to produce leptin? Select one: a. Loses weight b. Develops cataracts c. Becomes obese d. Exercises more e. Has increased body temperature

c. Becomes obese

Choose the mediator of inflammation that is being referred to in each of the following statements Referred to as anaphylatoxins a. Bradykinin b. Histamine and serotonin c. C3a and C5a d. Prostaglandins e. none of the above

c. C3a and C5a

Forelimb lameness in horse graded as 3/5 using the AAEP (Association of American Practitioners) scale is best described as: Select one: a. Obvious lameness with marked difference in left and right forelimb stance phase head movements b. Can only intermittently be seen when the horses is lunged at the trot (lunged) c. Consistently seen when the horse is trotted d. Minimal weight bearing in motion e. Can only be seen when the horse is lunged at the trot (lunged)

c. Consistently seen when the horse is trotted

Which method is best for the diagnosis of Dirofilaria immitis infection in the dog Select one: a. Detection of serum antibody b. Presence of eggs in faeces c. Detection of serum antigen d. Detection of coproantigen e. Presence of parasites in sputum

c. Detection of serum antigen

Which diagnostic information is lacking from a cytological report? Select one: a. Mitotic abnormalities b. Nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio c. Grade d. Cell shape variation e. Cellularity

c. Grade

How does the paranasal sinus (labelled 2) communicate with the nasal cavity in the horse? Select one: a. Indirectly via the openings of the auditory tubes b. Directly via the frontomaxillary opening c. Indirectly via the nasomaxillary opening d. Directly via the nasomaxillary opening e. Directly via the openings of the auditory tubes

c. Indirectly via the nasomaxillary opening

Which method is best for controlling Dirofilaria immitis infection Select one: a. Control of the vector b. Removal of adult worms c. Killing of L3/L4 d. Killing of microfilariae e. Removal of infected faeces

c. Killing of L3/L4

What is the definition of stenosis Select one: a. Persistent patent ductus arteriosus b. Inflammation within the myocardium c. Narrowing of a vascular channel d. The heart in contraction e. Nodularity of the valve leaflet

c. Narrowing of a vascular channel

On considering the elements of the gradient for O2 diffusion from atmosphere to tissue which one of the following is false? Select one: a. PAO2 is lower than PatmO2 by about 1/3 b. Alveolar air to pulmonary arterial blood PO2 gradient increases with deep hyperventilation c. O2 tension increases in the conducting airway due to its narrow confines d. Systemic venous blood shows no difference in PO2 to typical tissue PO2 so there is no gradient by this point in the circuit e. Shallow hyperventilation may have little influence on PAO2

c. O2 tension increases in the conducting airway due to its narrow confines

Match the heart arrhythmia or conduction disorder with the correct description. ventricular tachycardia a. a potentially life threatening component of sick sinus syndrome which leads to syncope b. Intermittent failure to conduct through the AV node with dropped beats c. Often seen with ventricular hypertrophy d. Often seen with cardiomyopathy, characterised by the lack of p-waves on ECG e. Delay of impulse through the AV node

c. Often seen with ventricular hypertrophy

Choose the correct waste stream for the following items: An out of date syringe of the sedative detomidine a. Sharps bin - yellow or red lid b. Sharps bin - purple lid c. Pharmaceutical bin - blue lid d. Pharmaceutical bin - purple lid e. Domestic waste - black bag f. Foul sewer - down the sink g. Glass recycling

c. Pharmaceutical bin - blue lid

By which route does rabies virus infect the brain of animals? Select one: a. Leukocyte trafficking b. Penetrating middle ear infection c. Retrograde axonal transport d. Direct penetration e. Haematogenous

c. Retrograde axonal transport

Which of the following imaging modalities predominately assesses physiological activity of bone? Select one: a. Ultrasound b. Radiography c. Scintigraphy d. Magnetic Resonance Imaging e. Computed Tomography

c. Scintigraphy

Why is it important to record the location where an injured wild animal was found? Select one: a. To isolate the area in case of zoonosis b. So that it can be taken to the nearest vet c. So that it be released in the same place d. So that it can be given back to the member of the public e. To check if there are other injured animals

c. So that it be released in the same place

Clotting tests in a coagulation require which type of sample Select one: a. Heparin b. Serum c. Sodium citrate d. Fluoride oxalate e. EDTA

c. Sodium citrate

Match each pet bird species with its continent of origin. Each choice can be used once, more than once or not at all. Amazon a. Australia b. Africa c. South America d. Europe e. Asia f. North America

c. South America

Match each pet bird species with its continent of origin. Each choice can be used once, more than once or not at all. Macaw a. Australia b. Africa c. South America d. Europe e. Asia f. North America

c. South America

Which nerve(s) is/are responsible for contraction of the muscles providing lateral collateral support to the shoulder joint? Select one: a. Subscapular nerve b. Median and ulnar nerves c. Suprascapular nerve d. Axillary nerve e. Radial nerve

c. Suprascapular nerve

Match each reptile with its Latin name. Harmann's tortoise a. Pogona vitticeps b. Eubleparius macularis c. Testudo hermanni d. Elaphe spp e. Python regius

c. Testudo hermanni

What phase of a pressure volume (PV) loop signifies stroke volume? Select one: a. The area under the PV loop b. The end-systolic volume c. The end-diastolic volume minus the end-systolic volume d. The end-diastolic volume e. The end-systolic volume minus the end-diastolic volume

c. The end-diastolic volume minus the end-systolic volume

It would be acceptable for a horse to be transported without its passport in the following situation Select one: a. To travel to a veterinary clinic for a scheduled appointment b. The horse is being transported by its trainer on behalf of the owner c. To travel to a veterinary clinic for emergency treatment d. The horse was born in August and it is only 8 months of age e. The horse is not being transported by the owner but by a friend

c. To travel to a veterinary clinic for emergency treatment

Choose the organisation that is being referred to in each of the following statements Monitors suspect adverse reactions to medicines in veterinary practice a. Home Office b. Royal College of Veterinary Surgeons c. Veterinary Medicine Directorate d. National Office of Animal Health e. Department of Environment, Food, and Rural Affairs

c. Veterinary Medicine Directorate

Match the terms below to the most accurate answer. lipofuscinosis a. increase in myocyte width due to addition of sarcomeres in parallel, result of a pressure overload b. degenerative valvular disease of older dogs c. ageing change caused by storage of wear-and-tear pigments d. bacterial infection and inflammation of valves e. increase in myocyte length due to addition of sarcomeres in series, result of volume overload

c. ageing change caused by storage of wear-and-tear pigments

Choose the correct equipment to restrain each wild animal species. Each choice can be used once, more than once or not at all. Badger a. pet carrier b. leather gloves c. crush cage d. bag with wraps e. stretcher f. pillow case

c. crush cage

Choose the correct equipment to restrain each wild animal species. Each choice can be used once, more than once or not at all. Fox a. pet carrier b. leather gloves c. crush cage d. bag with wraps e. stretcher f. pillow case

c. crush cage

Below is a list of recommended time intervals for how regularly a range of equine husbandry tasks should be performed to maximise the health and welfare of a horse The minimum frequency at which a horse at pasture should be inspected a. every year b. twice daily c. daily d. every four to eight weeks e. every two to three years

c. daily

Below is a list of recommended time intervals for how regularly a range of equine husbandry tasks should be performed to maximise the health and welfare of a horse The minimum frequency that a horse should have its feet picked out and inspected a. every year b. twice daily c. daily d. every four to eight weeks e. every two to three years

c. daily

Match each pathology with one of the underlying causes of heart failure. Infarction a. irregular rhythms b. valvular defects c. damage to the myocardium d. inability of the heart to expand e. increased resistance to outflow

c. damage to the myocardium

In which animal species would the lungworm parasite Dictyocaulus arnfieldi be found? Select one: a. pigs b. cattle c. donkeys d. deer e. sheep and goats

c. donkeys

This 'strongyle' egg could be either Ucinaria or Anclyostoma. How would you distinguish between these different genera ? Select one: a. detection of adult worms in the faeces of the dog b. staining the eggs for acid phosphatase c. letting the eggs hatch and develop to L3 d. examining the eggs using a McMaster slide e. flotation differences in saturated salt solution

c. letting the eggs hatch and develop to L3

Which of the following virus genome types is associated with reassortment ? Select one: a. circular -ve sense RNA genome b. linear DNA genome c. linear segmented RNA genome d. circular DNA genome e. circular +ve sense RNA genome

c. linear segmented RNA genome

Match each species with the most common congenital defects to which they are susceptible. Cat a. uncommon b. patent ductus arteriosis, pulmonic stenosis, subaortic stenosis c. mitral dysplasia d. atrial septal defects, ventricular septal defects, transposition of the great vessels e. subaortic atenosis

c. mitral dysplasia

Match the reflexes on the left with the appropriate sensory structures Myotatic reflex a. otolith organs b. pressure receptors c. muscle spindle d. semicircular canals e. mechanoreceptors f. organs of corti

c. muscle spindle

What is the local drainage lymph node for a neoplastic mass on digit IV of the right hind foot of a dog? Select one: a. axillary b. medial iliac c. popliteal d. inguinal e. mesenteric

c. popliteal

For each of the following tumours, choose an appropriate first-line treatment option, assuming no metastatic spread Lipoma - dog flank a. chemotherapy b. external beam radiotherapy c. surgery- local excision d. surgery - wide excision e. surgery - radical excision

c. surgery- local excision

Which clinical signs would you expect to be associated with dysfunction of these nerves? Trigeminal a. medial strabismus b. head tilt c. temporal muscle damage d. absent PLR e. absent blink f. flaccid tongue

c. temporal muscle damage

Which of the following represent mechanisms of oedema formation? Select one or more: a. intravascular protein concentration increased b. intravascular oncotic pressure decreased c. vascular permeability increased d. intravascular hydrostatic pressure increased e. lymphatic drainage decreased

c. vascular permeability increased, e. lymphatic drainage decreased, d. intravascular hydrostatic pressure increased, b. intravascular oncotic pressure decreased

In a typical veterinary practice, what proportion of revenue is required to cover wages (vets, nurses and employment costs)? Select one: a. 50% b. 10% c. 30% d. 40% e. 20%

d. 40%

Which structure does the cranial drawer test assess? Select one: a. Caudal Cruciate Ligament of Stifle b. Medial Collateral Ligament of Stifle c. Distal Patellar Ligament of Stifle d. Cranial Cruciate Ligament of Stifle e. Lateral Collateral Ligament of Stifle

d. Cranial Cruciate Ligament of Stifle

What changes in intracellular mediators can be seen following stimulation of an opioid receptor? Select one: a. Increase in both IP3 and calcium b. Increase in both cGMP and nitric oxide c. Decrease in cAMP and increase in calcium d. Decrease in both cAMP and calcium e. Increase in both cAMP and potassium

d. Decrease in both cAMP and calcium

During its last two races a racehorse has suddenly slowed whilst producing a 'gurgling' noise. The likely cause of this horse's poor performance is? Select one: a. Atrial Fibrillation b. Lameness due to poor foot conformation c. Exertional rhabdomyolysis d. Dorsal displacement of the soft palate e. Inflammatory airway disease

d. Dorsal displacement of the soft palate

In the dog, which set of clinical signs are most commonly associated with left sided heart failure? Select one: a. Bradycardia and pulse deficit b. Jugular distension, peripheral oedema, and ascites c. Cold extremities, weak peripheral pulses, and delayed capillary refill time d. Dyspnoea and cough e. Syncope and irregular heartbeat on auscultation

d. Dyspnoea and cough

Match each reptile with its Latin name. Corn Snake a. Pogona vitticeps b. Eubleparius macularis c. Testudo hermanni d. Elaphe spp e. Python regius

d. Elaphe spp

The inner surface of the heart is lined by Select one: a. Myocardium b. Pericardium c. Epicardium d. Endocardium e. Endosteum

d. Endocardium

This parasite was isolated from a dog suffering from diarrhoea. What type of parasite is it? Select one: a. Cyptosporidium b. Toxoplasma c. Leishmania d. Giardia e. Trypanosoma

d. Giardia

Which of the following clinical signs is not typically seen with severe thrombocytopenia Select one: a. Petechiae b. Melaena c. Epistaxis d. Haemothorax e. Ecchymoses

d. Haemothorax

How does cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) appear on MRI images? Select one: a. Isointense on both T1w and T2w b. Hyperintense on T1w, Hyperintense on T2w c. Hypointense on T1s, Hypointense on T2w d. Hypointense on T1w, Hyperintense on T2w e. Hyperintense on T1s, Hypointense on T2w

d. Hypointense on T1w, Hyperintense on T2w

Which of the following are the correct landmarks for measuring the appropriate length of an endotracheal tube ? Select one: a. Incisor teeth to third rib b. Ocular medial canthus to point of shoulder c. Nasal planum to last rib d. Incisor teeth to point of shoulder e. Infraorbital foramen to last rib

d. Incisor teeth to point of shoulder

The physiological compensatory response to haemorrhage includes Select one: a. Decreased sympathetic stimulation b. Increased parasympathetic stimulation c. Decreased cardiac output d. Increased venoconstriction e. Decreased heart rate

d. Increased venoconstriction

Match each of the ethical arguments for keeping animals in zoos with the relevant counter-argument. zoos help to conserve species at risk of extinction a. It could be argued this is a frivolous, unjustifiable use of animals b. Perhaps other, more effective teaching methods could be used c. Animals in zoos may differ from the wild population d. Many non-endangered animals are kept in zoos e. Putting animals on show might encourage the wrong attitudes in people

d. Many non-endangered animals are kept in zoos

Where are the openings of the nasolacrimal ducts located in the dog ? Select one: a. Nasopharynx b. Nasal cavity c. Oral cavity d. Nasal vestibule e. Common pharynx

d. Nasal vestibule

Choose the organisation that is being referred to in each of the following statements Produces a Compendium of Specific Product Characteristics (datasheets) for animal medicines a. Home Office b. Royal College of Veterinary Surgeons c. Veterinary Medicine Directorate d. National Office of Animal Health e. Department of Environment, Food, and Rural Affairs

d. National Office of Animal Health

Match the heart arrhythmia or conduction disorder with the correct description. atrial fibrilation a. a potentially life threatening component of sick sinus syndrome which leads to syncope b. Intermittent failure to conduct through the AV node with dropped beats c. Often seen with ventricular hypertrophy d. Often seen with cardiomyopathy, characterised by the lack of p-waves on ECG e. Delay of impulse through the AV node

d. Often seen with cardiomyopathy, characterised by the lack of p-waves on ECG

What is the glycoprotein that is most commonly associated with multidrug resistance? Select one: a. P130 b. P190 c. P110 d. P170 e. P150

d. P170

Choose the correct waste stream for the following items: A part-used tub of Leahurst sarcoid cream a. Sharps bin - yellow or red lid b. Sharps bin - purple lid c. Pharmaceutical bin - blue lid d. Pharmaceutical bin - purple lid e. Domestic waste - black bag f. Foul sewer - down the sink g. Glass recycling

d. Pharmaceutical bin - purple lid

Choose the mediator of inflammation that is being referred to in each of the following statements Produced by the cyclooxygenase pathway of arachidonic acid metabolism a. Bradykinin b. Histamine and serotonin c. C3a and C5a d. Prostaglandins e. none of the above

d. Prostaglandins

The underlying picture is of a liver displaying chronic venous congestion, colloquially called a "nutmeg liver". This appearance is often seen as a result of: Select one: a. Cardiac tamponade b. Left sided heart failure c. Cardiogenic shock d. Right sided heart failure e. Mulberry Heart Disease

d. Right sided heart failure

Which is the mechanism of action of the Vaughn Williams Class 1 antiarrhythmic drugs Select one: a. Beta adrenoceptor blockade b. Potassium channel blockade c. Calcium channel blockade d. Sodium channel blockade e. Alpha adrenoceptor agonists

d. Sodium channel blockade

Which of the following congenital abnormalities is effectively a RIGHT to LEFT shunt? (too little blood flows through the lungs) Select one: a. Atrial septal defect b. Patent ductus arteriosus c. Atrioventricular canal d. Tetralogy of Fallot e. Ventricular septal defect

d. Tetralogy of Fallot

Describing a visual pathway reflex as sub cortical means Select one: a. That the reflex involves pathways that are routed through the spinal cord b. That the reflex is unimportant in understanding the visual pathways c. That the reflex involves brain pathways that pass through the cortex d. That the reflex involves brain pathways that do not involve the cortex e. That the reflex requires a low level of stimulus to elicit

d. That the reflex involves brain pathways that do not involve the cortex

What environmental temperature does Lower Critical Temperature refer to when discussing animals and their environment? Select one: a. The temperature below which an animal is unable to survive b. The temperature below which an animal feels cold and will try to move to a warmer area c. The temperature below which an animal is likely to be immunosuppressed d. The temperature below which an animal will have to increase its metabolic rate to stay warm e. The temperature below which the animal's production starts to increase

d. The temperature below which an animal will have to increase its metabolic rate to stay warm

What region of the spine in dogs is most susceptible to clinically significant intervertebral disc disease? Select one: a. Lumbosacral b. Cervical c. Thoracic d. Thoracolumbar e. Sacral

d. Thoracolumbar

Which of the following may be used as a diagnostic test for the fungal infection, ringworm? Select one: a. Microwaves b. Radiography c. Ultrasound d. UVA Light e. Magnetic Resonance Imaging

d. UVA Light

Which clinical signs would you expect to be associated with dysfunction of these nerves? Oculomotor a. medial strabismus b. head tilt c. temporal muscle damage d. absent PLR e. absent blink f. flaccid tongue

d. absent PLR

Match each species with the most common congenital defects to which they are susceptible. Cattle a. uncommon b. patent ductus arteriosis, pulmonic stenosis, subaortic stenosis c. mitral dysplasia d. atrial septal defects, ventricular septal defects, transposition of the great vessels e. subaortic atenosis

d. atrial septal defects, ventricular septal defects, transposition of the great vessels

H3N2 influenza virus was first detected in dogs in 2008. From which reservoir did this virus emerge? Select one: a. feline b. human c. swine d. avian e. equine

d. avian

Match the terms below to the most accurate answer. valvular endocarditis a. increase in myocyte width due to addition of sarcomeres in parallel, result of a pressure overload b. degenerative valvular disease of older dogs c. ageing change caused by storage of wear-and-tear pigments d. bacterial infection and inflammation of valves e. increase in myocyte length due to addition of sarcomeres in series, result of volume overload

d. bacterial infection and inflammation of valves

Choose the correct equipment to restrain each wild animal species. Each choice can be used once, more than once or not at all. Swan a. pet carrier b. leather gloves c. crush cage d. bag with wraps e. stretcher f. pillow case

d. bag with wraps

This is a list of brain functions. Identify the area of the brain best associated with each function. Initiation of movement a. pyramidal tract b. hypothalamus c. pons d. basal nuclei e. cerebellum

d. basal nuclei

Thin-walled alveoli are liable to collapse. Which one of the following statements is false ? Select one: a. a state of high compliance ensures minimal energy expenditure during breathing b. pulmonary embolism reduce metabolic efficiency and increases risk of lung collapse c. alveolar collapse increases the work of inhalation d. collapsed alveoli lead to increased lung compliance e. alveolar epithelial cells synthesise surfactants to reduce water surface tension

d. collapsed alveoli lead to increased lung compliance

Hypoxia would occur under which ONE of the following conditions ? Select one: a. decreased dead space volume b. decreased atmospheric PC02 c. decreased dead space perfusion d. decreased alveolar ventilation e. hyperventilation

d. decreased alveolar ventilation

Below is a list of recommended time intervals for how regularly a range of equine husbandry tasks should be performed to maximise the health and welfare of a horse The frequency at which a horse should have its feet trimmed, with or without shoe renewal, by a farrier a. every year b. twice daily c. daily d. every four to eight weeks e. every two to three years

d. every four to eight weeks

Match each pathology with one of the underlying causes of heart failure. Cardiac tamponade a. irregular rhythms b. valvular defects c. damage to the myocardium d. inability of the heart to expand e. increased resistance to outflow

d. inability of the heart to expand

What pharmacokinetic characteristic would you expect in an inhalational anaesthetic that has a high MAC (minimum alveolar concentration)? Select one: a. high therapeutic index b. high potency c. high blood:gas partition coefficient d. low oil:gas partition coefficient e. slow induction of anaesthesia

d. low oil:gas partition coefficient

Match the reflexes on the left with the appropriate sensory structures Dynamic vestibular reflex a. otolith organs b. pressure receptors c. muscle spindle d. semicircular canals e. mechanoreceptors f. organs of corti

d. semicircular canals

Which of the following organs have a primary endocrine function (i.e. do not perform any other function beyond their endocrine role)? Select one: a. Pancreas b. Thymus c. Liver d. Ovary e. Adrenal

e. Adrenal

Why is the spinal cord enlarged at the level of the thoracic and pelvic intumesences? Select one: a. As a result of an increased number of support cells b. As a result of an increase in the diameter of the central canal c. As a result of a thickening of the dura d. As a result of larger nerve roots e. As a result of an increased number of motor neurons

e. As a result of an increased number of motor neurons

Which non-arthropod organisms are important in the persistence of West Nile Virus ? Select one: a. Horses b. Dogs c. Humans d. Mosquitoes e. Birds

e. Birds

Ixodes ricinus is not associated with transmission of Select one: a. Tick Borne Fever b. Lyme Disease c. Louping Ill d. Red Water Fever e. Blue Tongue

e. Blue Tongue

The fibrous muscular chords which prevent the atrioventricular valves from inverting are called Select one: a. Trabecular septa marginalia b. Papillary muscles c. Pectinate muscles d. Purkinje fibres e. Chordae Tendinae

e. Chordae Tendinae

What is the McMasters method used for? Select one: a. Detect parasite antigen in faeces b. Collect adult worms from the intestine c. Identify blood-borne protozoa d. Culture larval samples from faeces e. Concentrate nematode eggs from faeces

e. Concentrate nematode eggs from faeces

Match the heart arrhythmia or conduction disorder with the correct description. First degree AV block a. a potentially life threatening component of sick sinus syndrome which leads to syncope b. Intermittent failure to conduct through the AV node with dropped beats c. Often seen with ventricular hypertrophy d. Often seen with cardiomyopathy, characterised by the lack of p-waves on ECG e. Delay of impulse through the AV node

e. Delay of impulse through the AV node

What is cor pulmonale Select one: a. A consequence of systemic hypertension b. Persistent right aortic arch c. Hardware disease d. A case of pulmonary oedema e. Failure of the right side of the heart

e. Failure of the right side of the heart

Which are the functional divisions of the brain? Select one: a. Cranial nerves, brainstem, forebrain b. Thalamus, lateral ventricles, cerebellum c. Cranial nerve I, forebrain, cerebellum d. Thalamus, cranial nerves, cerebellum e. Forebrain, cerebellum, brainstem

e. Forebrain, cerebellum, brainstem

Cardiac output can be determined by this formula (where HR is heart rate and SV is stroke volume) Select one: a. HR divided by SV b. SV divided by HR c. SV plus HR d. HR minus SV e. HR multiplied by SV

e. HR multiplied by SV

What is the nutritional composition of a ferret's diet? Select one: a. High in fat and fibre and low in proteins and carbohydrates b. High in proteins and fibre and low in fat and carbohydrates c. High in fibre and carbohydrates and low in fat and proteins d. High in carbohydrates and fat and low in proteins and fibre e. High in protein and fat and low in carbohydrates and fibre

e. High in protein and fat and low in carbohydrates and fibre

When performing radiography, what is the effect of increasing kVp on the resulting x-ray beam? Select one: a. Diffraction of x-ray beam b. Decreased beam intensity c. Increased mass of x-ray photons d. Decreased speed of x-ray photons e. Increased penetration

e. Increased penetration

Which head movement would occur in the majority of horses with left forelimb lameness? Select one: a. Symmetric head movement in left and right forelimb stance phases b. More upward head movement after left forelimb stance phase compared to after right forelimb stance phase c. More downward movement of during left forelimb stance phase compared to during right forelimb stance phase d. Less upward head movement after left forelimb stance phase compared to after right forelimb stance phase e. Less downward movement during left forelimb stance phase compared to during right forelimb stance phase

e. Less downward movement during left forelimb stance phase compared to during right forelimb stance phase

From the list, select the skin lesion that is being described in each of the following scenarios A circumscribed, non-palpable spot characterised by a change in skin colour a. Crust b. Cyst c. Epidermal collarette d. Excoriation e. Macule f. Nodule g. Plaque h. Pustule I. Vesicle j. Wheal/Hive

e. Macule

What is the name of the cells that produce the matrix of bone? Select one: a. Chondrocytes b. Osteocytes c. Osteoclasts d. Osteophytes e. Osteoblasts

e. Osteoblasts

From the list of routes of administration of local anaesthetic drugs choose the most appropriate route of administration for each of the following clinical applications. To aid in the localization of the cause of lameness in a horse a. Topical anaesthesia b Local infiltration c. Instillation into a cavity or wound d. Intravenous regional anaesthesia (Bier's block) e. Peripheral nerve blocks f. Epidural (extradural) block g. Systemic administration

e. Peripheral nerve blocks

Match each of the ethical arguments for keeping animals in zoos with the relevant counter-argument. zoos encourage respect for animals a. It could be argued this is a frivolous, unjustifiable use of animals b. Perhaps other, more effective teaching methods could be used c. Animals in zoos may differ from the wild population d. Many non-endangered animals are kept in zoos e. Putting animals on show might encourage the wrong attitudes in people

e. Putting animals on show might encourage the wrong attitudes in people

Match each reptile with its Latin name. Royal ball python a. Pogona vitticeps b. Eubleparius macularis c. Testudo hermanni d. Elaphe spp e. Python regius

e. Python regius

What is a function of the hormone glucagon ? Select one: a. Stimulate anabolic reactions b. Suppress gluconeogenesis c. Promote amino acid entry into cells d. Increase adipose fat storage e. Raise blood glucose

e. Raise blood glucose

The effects of light on a photoreceptor cell are initiated by interaction of photons with: Select one: a. Phosphodiesterase b. Sodium ion channels c. Adenylate cyclase d. Transducin e. Rhodopsin

e. Rhodopsin

If the anterior pituitary is hypofunctional, which of the following clinical characteristics would you expect? Select one: a. Bilaterally symmetrical alopecia b. Increased blood pressure c. Obesity d. Cataracts e. Small body size

e. Small body size

The disease caused by Histophilus somni is Select one: a. Glasser's disease in pigs b. Vaginitis in cats c. Septicaemia in ducks d. Wooden tongue in cattle e. Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis in cattle

e. Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis in cattle

Which clinical signs would you expect to be associated with dysfunction of these nerves? Facial a. medial strabismus b. head tilt c. temporal muscle damage d. absent PLR e. absent blink f. flaccid tongue

e. absent blink

This is a list of brain functions. Identify the area of the brain best associated with each function. Regulation and coordination of motor activity a. pyramidal tract b. hypothalamus c. pons d. basal nuclei e. cerebellum

e. cerebellum

Rupture of the lymphatic ducts leads to which type of effusion? Select one: a. transudative b. septic c. haemorrhagic d. bilious e. chylous

e. chylous

Below is a list of recommended time intervals for how regularly a range of equine husbandry tasks should be performed to maximise the health and welfare of a horse Frequency at which a horse should receive tetanus booster vaccinations following the primary course a. every year b. twice daily c. daily d. every four to eight weeks e. every two to three years

e. every two to three years

Match the terms below to the most accurate answer. eccentric hypertrophy a. increase in myocyte width due to addition of sarcomeres in parallel, result of a pressure overload b. degenerative valvular disease of older dogs c. ageing change caused by storage of wear-and-tear pigments d. bacterial infection and inflammation of valves e. increase in myocyte length due to addition of sarcomeres in series, result of volume overload

e. increase in myocyte length due to addition of sarcomeres in series, result of volume overload

Match each pathology with one of the underlying causes of heart failure. Aortic stenosis a. irregular rhythms b. valvular defects c. damage to the myocardium d. inability of the heart to expand e. increased resistance to outflow

e. increased resistance to outflow

Match the reflexes on the left with the appropriate sensory structures Neck reflex a. otolith organs b. pressure receptors c. muscle spindle d. semicircular canals e. mechanoreceptors f. organs of corti

e. mechanoreceptors

The secretion of which anterior pituitary hormone is thought to be principally regulated by an inhibitory hypothalamic factor? Select one: a. Growth hormone b. Thyroid stimulating hormone c. Luteinizing hormone d. Follicle stimulating hormone e. prolactin

e. prolactin

The amplification of RNA target requires which of the following reagents in addition to standard PCR in which DNA target is amplified ? Select one: a. dNTPs b. Buffer c. primers d. Taq polymerase e. reverse transcriptase

e. reverse transcriptase

Choose the correct equipment to restrain each wild animal species. Each choice can be used once, more than once or not at all. Seal a. pet carrier b. leather gloves c. crush cage d. bag with wraps e. stretcher f. pillow case

e. stretcher

Match each species with the most common congenital defects to which they are susceptible. Pig a. uncommon b. patent ductus arteriosis, pulmonic stenosis, subaortic stenosis c. mitral dysplasia d. atrial septal defects, ventricular septal defects, transposition of the great vessels e. subaortic atenosis

e. subaortic atenosis

For each of the following tumours, choose an appropriate first-line treatment option, assuming no metastatic spread Soft tissue sarcoma - cat neck a. chemotherapy b. external beam radiotherapy c. surgery- local excision d. surgery - wide excision e. surgery - radical excision

e. surgery - radical excision

Choose the correct waste stream for the following items: Leftover Hartmann's solution a. Sharps bin - yellow or red lid b. Sharps bin - purple lid c. Pharmaceutical bin - blue lid d. Pharmaceutical bin - purple lid e. Domestic waste - black bag f. Foul sewer - down the sink g. Glass recycling

f. Foul sewer - down the sink

Which clinical signs would you expect to be associated with dysfunction of these nerves? Hypoglossal a. medial strabismus b. head tilt c. temporal muscle damage d. absent PLR e. absent blink f. flaccid tongue

f. flaccid tongue

Choose the correct equipment to restrain each wild animal species. Each choice can be used once, more than once or not at all. Pigeon a. pet carrier b. leather gloves c. crush cage d. bag with wraps e. stretcher f. pillow case

f. pillow case

From the list, select the skin lesion that is being described in each of the following scenarios A large (>1cm diameter) flat-topped elevation in the skin a. Crust b. Cyst c. Epidermal collarette d. Excoriation e. Macule f. Nodule g. Plaque h. Pustule I. Vesicle j. Wheal/Hive

g. Plaque

This is a list of brain functions. Identify the area of the brain best associated with each function. Control of the endocrine system a. pyramidal tract b. hypothalamus c. pons d. basal nuclei e. cerebellum

hypothalamus

What is the missing structure?

larynx

Which skull bone is most rostrally, dorsally located?

nasal bones

When considering fluid movement across vessel walls: Increased HYDROSTATIC pressure --- pulls fluid into/pushes fluid out of --- has no effect on vessels

pushes fluid out of

What is the name of the tubular structure labelled 1 ?

trachea