CH #11
Stages of shock
-Compensated -Decompensated -Irreversible
A nurse assesses a client who is in cardiogenic shock. What statement best indicates the nurse's understanding of cardiogenic shock? A) A decrease of cardiac output and evidence of tissue hypoxia in the presence of adequate intravascular volume. B) A decrease in cardiac output and evidence of inadequate circulating blood volume and movement of plasma into interstitial spaces. C) Generally caused by decreased blood volume. D) Due to severe hypersensitivity reaction resulting in massive systemic vasodilation.
A) A decrease of cardiac output and evidence of tissue hypoxia in the presence of adequate intravascular volume. Shock may have different causes (e.g., hypovolemic, cardiogenic, septic) but always involves a decrease in blood pressure and failure of the peripheral circulation because of sympathetic nervous system involvement. Option B could reflect dependant edema and sepsis. Option C reflects hypovolemia. Option D is reflective of anaphylactic or distributive shock.
The nurse should assess all possible causes of pruritus for a patient complaining of generalized pruritus. What does the nurse understand can be other causes for this condition? A) End-stage kidney disease B) Hypothyroidism C) Pneumonia D) Myasthenia gravis
A) End stage kidney disease Systemic disorders associated with generalized pruritus include chronic kidney disease.
A day care worker comes to the clinic for mild itching and rash of both hands. The nurse suspects contact dermatitis. The diagnosis is confirmed if the rash appears: A) erythematous with raised papules. B) dry and scaly with flaking skin. C) inflamed with weeping and crusting lesions. D) excoriated with multiple fissures.
A) Erthematous with raised papules Contact dermatitis is caused by exposure to a physical or chemical allergen, such as skin care products, cleaning products, and latex gloves. Initial symptoms of itching, erythema, and raised papules occur at the site of exposure and can begin within 1 hour of exposure. Allergic reactions tend to be red, not scaly or flaky. Weeping, crusting lesions are also uncommon unless the reaction is severe or has been present for a long time. Excoriation is more common in skin disorders associated with a moist environment.
A client is being cared for in the Neurological Intensive Care Unit following a spinal cord injury. Which assessment finding indicates that the client may be experiencing neurogenic shock? A) HR, 48 bpm; BP, 90/60 mm Hg B) Cool, moist skin C) HR, 120 bpm; BP, 88/58 mm Hg D) Shortness of breath
A) HR, 48 bpm; BP 90/60 mm Hg The clinical characteristics of neurogenic shock are signs of parasympathetic stimulation. It is characterized by dry, warm skin rather than the cool, moist skin seen in hypovolemic shock. Another characteristic is hypotension with bradycardia, rather than the tachycardia that characterizes other forms of shock. The other signs and symptoms are associated with hypovolemic shock.
The nurse observes a client's fingernails have a concave shape. What laboratory studies should the nurse review? A) Hemoglobin and hematocrit B) Arterial blood gases C) BUN and creatinine D) Glucose level
A) Hemoglobin and hematocrit Normal nails appear slightly convex with a 160° angle between the nail base and the skin. Concave-shaped nails, referred to as "spooning" because of their characteristic appearance, are a sign of iron-deficiency anemia. ABGs, BUN and creatinine,and glucose levels are not related to this shape of nail.
Which area of the brain secretes melanocyte-stimulating hormone? A) Hypothalamus B) Thalamus C) Pituitary gland D) Adrenal gland
A) Hypothalamus Production of melanin is controlled by a hormone secreted from the hypothalamus of the brain called melanocyte-stimulating hormone. The melanocyte-stimulating hormone is not secreted by the thalamus, pituitary gland, or adrenal gland.
During a routine assessment of a client, the nurse notes that the client's nails are concave. Which condition is indicated by this finding? A) Iron deficiency anemia B) Long-standing cardiopulmonary disease C) Fungal infection D) Poor circulation
A) Iron deficiency anemia The concave shape of the nails, referred to as spooning, is a sign of iron deficiency anemia. Clubbing of the nails, at greater than a 160-degree angle, suggests long-standing cardiopulmonary disease. Nails thicken when there is a fungal infection and poor circulation.
The nurse is instructing unlicensed personnel on gerontologic considerations of the skin. The nurse finds that the participants understand the instructions when they know that the elderly are at a higher risk for shear injuries due to A) loss of rete ridges. B) loss of subcutaneous tissue. C) decreased capillary loops. D) sun damage over time.
A) Loss of rete ridges Elderly clients are at a higher risk for shear injuries due to loss of rete ridges from thinning at the junction of the dermis and epidermis. The loss of anchoring sites between the two skin layers enables even minor injury/stress to the epidermis to cause it shear away from the dermis. The other answers do not apply.
A patient has been prescribed Acticoat as a burn wound treatment. Which of the following is accurate regarding application of Acticoat? A) Moisten with sterile water only. B) Moisten with saline. C) Use topical antimicrobials with Acticoat burn dressing. D) Keep Acticoat saturated.
A) Moisten with sterile water only Acticoat is moistened with sterile water only; never use normal saline. Do not use topical antimicrobials with Acticoat burn dressing. Keep Acticoat moist, not saturated.
The nurse is assessing the fingernails of a patient at the clinic. The nurse observes pitting on the surface of the nail. What disorder is this finding indicative of? A) Psoriasis B) Vitiligo C) Diabetes D) Melanom
A) Psoriasis
Following a burn injury, the nurse determines which area is the priority for nursing assessment? A) Pulmonary system B) Cardiovascular system C) Pain D) Nutrition
A) Pulmonary system Airway patency and breathing must be assessed during the initial minutes of emergency care. Immediate therapy is directed toward establishing an airway and administering humidified 100% oxygen. Pulmonary problems may be caused by the inhalation of heat and/or smoke or edema of the airway. Assessing a patent airway is always a priority after a burn injury followed by breathing. Remember the ABCs.
During a facility disaster drill, an "injured client" presents to the emergency department with complaints of dry mouth, inability to focus his vision, and double vision. A nurse notes that the client has an unsteady gait and appears to be very weak. The client states, "My arms and legs feel like they just can't move." A nurse suspects the client may be a victim of bioterrorism with: A) botulism. B) anthrax. C) herpes. D) Ebola.
A) botulism A client with a mild to moderate case of botulism experiences dry mouth, double vision, unfocused vision, weakness, a sense of paralysis, and an unsteady gait. Anthrax symptoms include fever, flulike symptoms, cough, and a sore throat. Herpes isn't an agent of bioterrorism. Ebola symptoms include malaise, fatigue, headache, sore throat, and nausea.
The nurse is caring for an adult patient with a normal body temperature. What should the nurse know would be the approximate insensible water loss per day in this patient? A) 250 mL/day B) 600 mL/day C) 800 mL/day D) 1,000 mL/day
B) 600 mL/day The skin is not completely impermeable to water. Small amounts of water continuously evaporate from the skin surface. This evaporation, called insensible perspiration, amounts to approximately 600 mL daily in an average-sized adult (Porth & Matfin, 2009).
During the late stages of healing, which intervention helps a burn wound to heal with minimal scarring? A) Removing eschar from the skin B) Applying continuous-compression wraps C) Wearing clothing to protect the burn from the sun D) Maintaining wound care irrigation
B) Applying continuous-compression wraps Applying continuous-compression wraps helps skin healing and prevents hypertrophied tissue from forming. Removing eschar from the skin, wearing clothing to protect the burn from the sun, and maintaining wound care irrigation are appropriate for the client with a burn wound, but these interventions don't necessarily help minimize scarring.
Which type of heat loss is caused by a cool breeze that blows across the body surface? A) Radiation B) Convection C) Evaporation D) Conduction
B) Convection Convection is the transfer of heat by means of currents of liquids or gases in which warm air molecules move away from the body. Conduction is the transfer of heat through direct contact. Radiation is the transfer of surface heat in the environment. Evaporation is the loss of moisture or water.
Which secondary skin lesions are associated with eczema? A) Scales B) Crusts C) Ulcers D) Erosion
B) Crusts Crusts are associated with eczema, impetigo, and herpes. Scales are associated with dry skin and dandruff. Ulcers are associated with venous insufficiency. Erosion is associated with ruptured vesicles and scratch marks.
A nurse's assessment of a newly admitted patient is remarkable for an area of erythema on the patient's upper thigh. The nurse is aware that erythema is the physiological result of: A) Decreased oxygen saturation B) Dilation and congestion of capillaries C) The initiation of the clotting cascade D) The presence of blood in the interstitial space
B) Dilation and congestion of capillaries
Inhalation of anthrax mimics which disease process? A) Bronchospasm B) Flu C) Respiratory distress D) Burns
B) Flu Anthrax symptoms mimic those of the flu, and usually treatment is sought only when the second stage of severe respiratory distress occurs. Burns occur with sulfur mustard. Bronchospasm can occur with phosgene or chlorine. Respiratory distress may occur with cyanide
Which sedative medication is effective for treating pruritus? A) Benzoyl peroxide B) Hydroxyzine C) Fexofenadine D) Tetracycline
B) Hydroxyzine
During assessment of the integumentary system, the nurse notes patches of white skin on an African American man. The nurse knows that the lack of production of melanin could be related to a deficiency of a hormone from the: A) Pituitary gland. B) Hypothalamus. C) Thyroid gland. D) Pancreas.
B) Hypothalamus Production of melanin is controlled by a hormone secreted from the hypothalamus of the brain called melanocyte-stimulating hormone. Melanin provides a natural protection against the harmful effects of ultraviolet light; however, it does not provide complete protection from damaging rays of the sun.
The nurse educator is providing orientation to a group of nurses newly hired to an intensive care unit. The group of nurses are correct in stating which is the most common type of shock managed in critical care? A) Anaphylactic B) Hypovolemic C) Neurogenic D) Cardiogenic
B) Hypoveolemic The underlying cause of shock (hypovolemic, cardiogenic, neurogenic, anaphylactic, or septic) must be determined. Of these, hypovolemia is the most common cause.
A client with shock brought on by hemorrhage has a temperature of 97.6° F (36.4° C), a heart rate of 140 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 60/30 mm Hg. For this client, the nurse should question which physician order? A) "Monitor urine output every hour." B) "Infuse I.V. fluids at 83 ml/hour." C) "Administer oxygen by nasal cannula at 3 L/minute." D) "Draw samples for hemoglobin and hematocrit every 6 hours."
B) Infuse I.V. fluids at 83 ml/hour Because shock signals a severe fluid volume loss of (750 to 1,300 ml), its treatment includes rapid I.V. fluid replacement to sustain homeostasis and prevent death. The nurse should expect to administer three times the estimated fluid loss to increase the circulating volume. An I.V. infusion rate of 83 ml/hour wouldn't begin to replace the necessary fluids and reverse the problem. Monitoring urine output every hour, administering oxygen by nasal cannula at 3 L/minute, and drawing samples for hemoglobin and hematocrit every 6 hours are appropriate orders for this client.
Which type of cell is believed to play a significant role in cutaneous immune system reactions? A) Merkel cells B) Langerhans cells C) Melanocytes D) Phagocytes
B) Langerhans cells Langerhans cells are common to the epidermis and are accessory cells of the afferent immune system process. Merkel cells are receptor cells in the epidermis that transmit stimuli to the axons via a chemical response. Melanocytes are special cells of the epidermis that are primarily involved in producing melanin, which colors the hair and skin. Phagocytes are white blood cells that engulf and destroy foreign materials.
Treatment of melanoma includes which of the following? A) Cryosurgery B) Radical excision C) Radiation therapy D) Laser surgery
B) Radical excision The treatment of a melanoma involves radical excision of the tumor and adjacent tissues, followed by chemotherapy. Laser surgery and cryosurgery is not used in the treatment of melanoma. Radiation is used in some types of cancer.
Which is the primary reason for placing a client in a horizontal position while smothering flames are present? A) To prevent collapse and further injuries B) To keep fire and smoke from airway C) To extinguish flames more quickly D)To promote blood flow to the brain and vital organs
B) To keep fire and smoke from airway The primary reason the client is placed in a horizontal position while smothering flames is to prevent the fire, hot air, and smoke from rising toward the head and entering the respiratory passages. Stop, drop, and roll method is a quick efficient means to distinguish flames. If hypovolemic shock occurs, lowering the head will assist in promoting blood flow to the head.
A patient is receiving dopamine, a vasoactive drug used for shock, to increase stroke volume. What should the nurse be aware of when monitoring a vasoactive drug? A) The drug should be discontinued immediately after blood pressure increases. B) The drug dose should be weaned down prior to discontinuing. C)The drug may cause respiratory alkalosis. D)The drug reduces oxygen demands of the heart.
B) the drug should be weaned down prior to discontinuing When vasoactive medications are discontinued, they should never be stopped abruptly because this could cause severe hemodynamic instability, perpetuating the shock state. Vasoactive drugs do not cause respiratory alkalosis or reduce oxygen demands on the heart.
A nurse is assigned to care for a 75 kg male patient on a high-frequency, volume-cycled ventilator that delivers very small tidal volumes (3 to 6 mL/kg). The nurse is responsible for monitoring the ventilator. What is the correct tidal volume delivery for a 75 kg patient? A) <200 mL B) 200 to 400 mL C) 225 to 450 mL D) >500 Ml
C) 225 to 450 mL High-frequency ventilation (HFV) or oscillating ventilators deliver very small tidal volumes, from 3 to 6 mL/kg. This works on the principle of oxygen diffusion gently pulsating throughout the lungs. A very small tidal volume delivery for a 75 kg patient is 225 (3 × 75) mL to 450 mL (6 × 75), delivered from 60 to 200 times a minute. Normal tidal volume is 6 to 12 mL/kg.
A nurse is aware that the incidence and prevalence of multiple melanoma are increasing. Which of the following individuals likely faces the greatest risk of developing the disease? A) A person who has a history of atopic dermatitis that has been unresponsive to treatment B) A person who is immunocompromised because of human immunodeficiency virus C) A person who comes from a family whose members tend to have multiple changing moles D) An African American person who has extensive keloid scarring
C) A person who comes from a family whose members tend to have multiple changing moles. As many as 10% of patients with melanoma are members of melanoma-prone families who have multiple changing moles (dysplastic nevi) that are susceptible to malignant transformation. Risk factors for malignant melanoma do not include dermatitis, keloid scarring, African American race, or immunocompromised status.
Students are reviewing the cycle of hair growth in people, identifying that rate of hair growth varies on different parts of the body. The students demonstrate understanding of this information when they identify which area as having the most rapid rate? A) Thighs B) Eyebrows C) Beard D) Axillae
C) Beard The rate of hair growth varies. Beard growth is the most rapid, followed by hair on the scalp, axillae, thighs, and then eyebrows.
A client has an elevated temperature. The nurse is applying a cool compress to his forehead. This is an example of which of the following types of heat loss? A) Radiation B) Evaporation C) Conduction D) Convection
C) Conduction Conduction is the transfer of heat through direct contact. Radiation is the transfer of surface heat in the environment. Evaporation is the loss of moisture or water. Convection is the transfer of hear by means of currents of liquids or gases in which warm air molecules move away from the body.
The nurse is caring for a victim of a chemical disaster. Medications given in the treatment of this client include amyl nitrate, sodium nitrate, and sodium thiosulfate. What chemical agent does the nurse know this client has been exposed to? A) Sarin B) Mustard gas C) Cyanide D) Anthrax
C) Cyanide They administer one or all of the following antidotes: amyl nitrate, sodium nitrate, and sodium thiosulfate. Amyl nitrate promotes the formation of methemoglobin, which combines with cyanide to form nontoxic cyanmethemoglobin. Therefore, options A, B, and D are incorrect.
Which zone of burn injury sustains the most damage? A) Outer B) Middle C) Inner D) Protective
C) Inner Each burned area has three zones of injury. The inner zone (known as the area of coagulation, where cellular death occurs) sustains the most damage. The middle area, or zone of stasis, includes a compromised blood supply, inflammation, and tissue injury. The outer zone, the zone of hyperemia, sustains the least damage.
Which zone of burn injury sustains the most damage? A) Outer B) Middle C) Inner D) Protectiv
C) Inner Each burned area has three zones of injury. The inner zone (known as the area of coagulation, where cellular death occurs) sustains the most damage. The middle area, or zone of stasis, includes a compromised blood supply, inflammation, and tissue injury. The outer zone, the zone of hyperemia, sustains the least damage.
A physician has ordered a wet-to-damp dressing for an infected pressure ulcer. The nurse knows that the primary reason for this treatment is to: A) prevent the spread of the infection. B) debride the wound. C) keep the wound moist. D) reduce pain.
C) Keep the wound moist Wet-to-damp dressings keep the wound bed moist, which helps promote the growth of granulation tissue. Because dead tissue adheres to a dry dressing, wet-to-dry dressings are used for debriding wounds. Wet-to-damp dressings don't prevent the spread of infection. Although these dressings provide a soothing, cool feeling, they don't relieve pain.
A client with atopic dermatitis is ordered a potent topical corticosteroid to be covered with an occlusive dressing. To address a potential client problem associated with this treatment, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement, the nurse should add which "related-to" phrase? A) Related to potential interactions between the topical corticosteroid and other ordered drugs B) Related to vasodilatory effects of the topical corticosteroid C)Related to percutaneous absorption of the topical corticosteroid D) Related to topical corticosteroid application to the face, neck, and intertriginous sites
C) Related to percutaneous absorption of the topical corticosteroid A potent topical corticosteroid may increase the client's risk for injury because it may be absorbed percutaneously, causing the same adverse effects as systemic corticosteroids. Topical corticosteroids aren't involved in significant drug interactions. These preparations cause vasoconstriction, not vasodilation. A potent topical corticosteroid is rarely ordered for use on the face, neck, or intertriginous sites because application on these areas may lead to increased adverse effects.
The nurse knows that which topical antibacterial agent does not penetrate eschar? A) Acticoat B) Mafenide acetate C) Silver nitrate 0.5% D) Silver sulfadiazine 1%
C) Silver nitrate 0.5%
Students are reviewing information about the glands of the skin. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they state which of the following? A) The sebaceous glands are responsible for sweat secretion. B) The eccrine glands are primarily located in the axillae. C) The apocrine glands become active at puberty. D) The sweat glands are responsible for lubricating the hair.
C) The aprocrine glands become active at puberty The apocrine glands, a type of sweat gland, become active at puberty. The sebaceous glands are responsible for lubricating the hair and rendering the skin soft and pliable. The sweat glands are responsible for sweat secretion. The apocrine glands are located in the axillae, anal region, scrotum, and labia majora.
Nursing students are reviewing information about primary and secondary lesions. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as a primary lesion? A) Ulcer B) Fissure C) Wheal D) Keloid
C) Wheal A wheal is a primary lesion. An ulcer, a fissure, and a keloid are classified as secondary lesions.
Lichenification
Contact dermatitis thickening and roughening of the horny layer of skin
The emergency department nurse has just admitted a patient with a burn. The nurse recognizes that the patient is likely to require a nasogastric tube when the burn exceeds a total body surface area (TBSA) of what percentage? A) 10% B) 15% C) 20% D) 25%
D) 25 % If the burn exceeds 25% TBSA, a nasogastric tube is inserted and connected to low intermittent suction. Often, patients with large burns become nauseated as a result of the gastrointestinal effects of the burn injury, such as paralytic ileus and the effects of medication such as opioids. All patients who are intubated should have a nasogastric tube inserted to decompress the stomach and prevent vomiting.
A client is experiencing septic shock and infrequent bowel sounds. To ensure adequate nutrition, the nurse administers A) A full liquid diet B) Isotonic enteral nutrition every 6 hours C) An infusion of crystalloids at an increased rate of flow D) A continuous infusion of total parenteral nutrition
D) A continuous infusion of total parenteral nutrition Nutritional supplementation is initiated within 24 hours of the start of septic shock. If the client has reduced peristalsis, then parenteral feedings will be required. Full liquid diet and enteral nutrition require the oral route and would be contraindicated if the client is experiencing decreased peristalsis. Increasing the rate of crystalloids does not provide adequate nutrition.
At what point in shock does metabolic acidosis occur? A) Compensation B) Irreversible C) Early D) Decompensation (Progressive)
D) Decompesation (progressive) The decompensation or progressive stage occurs as compensatory mechanisms fail. The client's condition spirals into cellular hypoxia, coagulation defects, and cardiovascular changes. As the energy supply falls below the demand, pyruvic and lactic acids increase, causing metabolic acidosis. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect.
The most important intervention in the nutritional support of a client with a burn injury is to provide adequate nutrition and calories. The nurse recognizes this intervention is to promote A) increased metabolic rate. B) increased glucose demands. C) increased skeletal muscle breakdown. D) decreased catabolism.
D) Decreased catabolism Burn injuries produce profound metabolic abnormalities fueled by the exaggerated stress response to the injury. The body's response has been classified as hyperdynamic, hypermetabolic, and hypercatabolic. The most important intervention in the nutritional support of a client with a burn injury is to provide adequate nutrition and calories to decrease catabolism. Nutritional support with optimized protein intake can decrease the protein losses by approximately 50%. A marked increase in metabolic rate is seen after a burn injury and interventions are instituted to decrease metabolic rate and catabolism. A marked increase in glucose demand is seen after a burn injury and interventions are instituted to decrease glucose demands and catabolism. Rapid skeletal muscle breakdown with amino acids serving as the energy source is seen after a burn injury and interventions are instituted to decrease catabolism.
When assessing a patient with risk factors related to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), what does the nurse know can be the first manifestation of the disease? A) Telangiectasia B) Ecchymosis C) Fluid-filled vesicles D) Purplish cutaneous lesions
D) Purplish cutaneous lesions Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestation of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), appearing in more than 90% of HIV-infected people as immune function deteriorates. These skin signs correlate with low CD4 counts and may become very atypical in immunocompromised people. Some disorders such as Kaposi's sarcoma (presenting as palpable lesions that can be purple), oral hairy leukoplakia, facial molluscum contagiosum, and oral candidiasis may suggest that CD4 counts are less than 200 to 300 cells/mcL.
When conducting a skin assessment, the nurse notes a purple macular lesion on the client's right upper extremity. The nurse differentiates the lesion as a petechia or ecchymosis based on A) location. B) erythema. C) exudate. D) size.
D) Size The nurse differentiates between a petechia and an ecchymosis based on the size of the involved area. Other differentiating factors include shape, color, and etiology.
As part of an emergency department team, an emergency nurse is conducting a secondary survey on a client. Which of the following would the nurse include? A) Establishing a patent airway B) Providing adequate ventilation C)Assessing neurologic function D) Applying electrocardiogram electrodes
D) applying electrocardiogram electrodes A secondary survey is completed after the primary survey priorities of airway, breathing, circulation, and disability have been addressed. Applying electrocardiogram electrodes would be a component of the secondary survey. Establishing a patent airway, providing adequate ventilation, and determining neurologic disability by assessing neurologic function are components of the primary survey.
A patient suffered a brain stem injury in an assault and is currently receiving controlled mandatory ventilation (CMV) in the intensive care unit. When conducting the scheduled assessments of this patient, the nurse should be aware of which of the following characteristics of CMV? A) The patient breathes spontaneously, but a set tidal volume is delivered. B) Oxygen supplementation is constantly adjusted by the ventilator in response to the patient's respiratory rate. C) The patient's tidal volume is determined spontaneously, but the respiratory rate is controlled by CMV. D) The rate and tidal volume are set, and the patient does not breathe spontaneously.
D) the rate and tidal volume are set, and the patient does not breathe spontaneously. Controlled mandatory ventilation (CMV) delivers a set tidal volume and a set rate. As such, levels of oxygen supplementation do not vary in response to respiratory rate.
A triage nurse in the ED determines that a patient with dyspnea and dehydration is not in a life-threatening situation. What triage category will the nurse choose? A) Delayed B) Emergent C) Immediate D) Urgent
D) urgent A basic and widely used triage system that had been in use for many years utilized three categories: emergent, urgent, and nonurgent. In this system, emergent patients had the highest priority, urgent patients had serious health problems but not immediately life-threatening ones, and nonurgent patients had episodic illnesses.
Beau lines
Transverse depression in the nail bed
neurogenic shock
Vasodilation occurs as a result of a loss of balance
A patient with an ulcer on his right leg is examined by the nurse practitioner. The nurse records the appearance of the ulcer as "ruddy" in color with poorly defined wound edges and moderate amounts of exudate. Based on this assessment, the ulcer is characterized as which of the following? A) Arterial ulcer B) Venous ulcer C) Neuropathic ulcer D) Pressure ulcer
Venous ulcer Venous ulcers are poorly defined, irregular, and usually occur between the ankles and the knees. They are dark red or "ruddy" in color and can produce moderate to large amounts of exudate. Refer to Table 52-3 in the text.
balneotherapy
a bath with therapeutic additives
melanin
a pigment that gives the skin, hair, and iris of the eyes their color
Pustule
acne, impetigo, furuncles, carbuncles
patch testing
allergy testing
basal cell carcinoma
begins as a small, waxy nodule with rolled, translucent, pearly borders
Pemphigus
bullae blisters
Macule
flat, colored spot on the skin
skin scraping
fungal
Vesicle/Bulla
herpes simplex, chickenpox
wheal
hives, insect bites
Langerhans cells
immune system reactions
scabies
itch mite, burrows, increased itching at night soapy shower
Pruritus
itching
suspensions
medicines mixed with liquid
merkel cells
receptors for touch
tinea
ringworm, fungal infection
septic shock
widespread infection
