CH 23

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery?

Apply a compression dressing to the area. Explanation: Subcutaneous emphysema is a typical postoperative finding in the patient after chest surgery. During surgery the air within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure. Subcutaneous emphysema is absorbed by the body spontaneously after the underlying leak is treated or halted

Which of the following is a potential complication of a low pressure in the endotracheal cuff?

Aspiration pneumonia Explanation: Low pressure in the cuff can increase the risk for aspiration pneumonia. High cuff pressure can cause tracheal bleeding, ischemia, and pressure necrosis

A 29-year-old client presents to the ED complaining of dyspnea on exertion and overall weakness. Her pulmonary arterial pressure is 40/15 mm Hg. These symptoms indicate that the client may have which of the following conditions?

Pulmonary arterial hypertension

Which statement indicates a client understands teaching about the purified protein derivative (PPD) test for tuberculosis?

"Because I had a previous reaction to the test, this time I need to get a chest X-ray." Explanation: A client who previously had a positive PPD test (a reaction to the antigen) can't receive a repeat PPD test and must have a chest X-ray done instead. The test should be read 48 to 72 hours after administration. Redness at the test area doesn't indicate a positive test; an induration of greater than 10 mm indicates a positive test.

Which action should the nurse take first in caring for a client during an acute asthma attack? a) Administer bronchodilator as ordered. b) Initiate oxygen therapy and reassess pulse oximetry in 10 minutes. c) Obtain arterial blood gases. d) Send for STAT chest x-ray.

Administer bronchodilator as ordered. Correct Explanation: Administering bronchodilator will dilate the airway and allow oxygen to reach the lungs. Although ABGs and chest x-ray are valid diagnostic tests for lung disorders, immediate action to restore gas exchange is a priority in an acute attack. The administration of oxygen is indicated, but without open bronchioles, the action will not be effective in an acute attack.

The nurse knows the mortality rate is high in lung cancer clients due to which factor?

Few early symptoms Explanation: Because lung cancer produces few early symptoms, its mortality rate is high. Lung cancer has increased in incidence due to increase in number of women smokers, growing aging population, and exposure to pollutants but not indicative of mortality rates.

A nurse is caring for a client with bronchogenic carcinoma. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority?

Ineffective airway clearance related to obstruction by a tumor or secretions Correct Explanation: Maintaining a patent airway is the first concern in a client with a condition that may compromise the airway. Therefore, Ineffective airway clearance related to obstruction by a tumor or secretions takes highest priority. Although a client with bronchogenic carcinoma is likely to have Disturbed body image, Anxiety, and Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements, these nursing diagnoses have a lower priority.

Which of the following is a true statement regarding severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)?

It is the most contagious during the second week of illness Explanation: Based on available information, SARS is most likely to be contagious only when symptoms are present, and patients are most contagious during the second week of illness. Diarrhea and hyperthermia may occur with SARS. Respiratory droplets spread the SARS virus when an infected person coughs or sneezes

A nurse reading a chart notes that the patient had a Mantoux skin test result with no induration and a 1-mm area of ecchymosis. How does the nurse interpret this result?

Negative Explanation: The size of the induration determines the significance of the reaction. A reaction of 0-4 mm is not considered to be significant. A reaction of 5 mm or greater may be significant in people who are considered to be at risk. An induration of 10 mm or greater is usually considered significant in people who have normal or mildly impaired immunity.

You are caring for a client with chronic respiratory failure. What are the signs and symptoms of chronic respiratory failure?

Progressive loss of lung function associated with chronic disease Explanation: In chronic respiratory failure, the loss of lung function is progressive, usually irreversible, and associated with chronic lung disease or other disease. This makes options B, C, and D incorrect.

A client is admitted to the health care facility with active tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should include which intervention in the care plan?

Putting on an individually fitted mask when entering the client's room Explanation: Because TB is transmitted by droplet nuclei from the respiratory tract, the nurse should put on a mask when entering the client's room. Occupation Safety and Health Administration standards require an individually fitted mask. Having the client wear a mask at all times would hinder sputum expectoration and respirations would make the mask moist. A nurse who doesn't anticipate contact with the client's blood or body fluids need not wear a gown or gloves when providing direct care. A client with TB should be in a room with laminar airflow, and the room's door should be shut at all times.

A nurse is caring for a client who is at high risk for developing pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse include on the client's care plan?

Using strict hand hygiene Explanation: The nurse should use strict hand hygiene to help minimize the client's exposure to infection, which could lead to pneumonia. The head of the bed should be kept at a minimum of 30 degrees. The client should be turned and repositioned at least every 2 hours to help promote secretion drainage. Oral hygiene should be performed every 4 hours to help decrease the number of organisms in the client's mouth that could lead to pneumonia.

A Class 1 with regards to TB indicates

exposure and no evidence of infection. Explanation: Class 1 is exposure, but no evidence of infection. Class 0 is no exposure and no infection. Class 2 is a latent infection, with no disease. Class 4 is disease, but not clinically active.

A positive Mantoux test indicates that a client:

has produced an immune response. Explanation: The Mantoux test is based on the antigen/antibody response and will show a positive reaction after an individual has been exposed to tuberculosis and has formed antibodies to the tuberculosis bacteria. Thus, a positive Mantoux test indicates the production of an immune response. Exposure doesn't confer immunity. A positive test doesn't confirm that a person has (or will develop) tuberculosis.

Resistance to one of the first-line antituberculotic agents in people who have not had previous treatment is a) secondary drug resistance. b) tertiary drug resistance. c) primary drug resistance. d) multidrug resistance.

primary drug resistance. Correct Explanation: Primary drug resistance to one of the first-line antituberculotic agents is people who have not had previous treatment. Secondary or acquired drug resistance is resistance to one or more antituberculotic agents in patients undergoing therapy. Multidrug resistance is resistance to two agents, isoniazid (INH) and rifampin. Tertiary drug resistance is not a type of resistance.

The client asks the nurse to explain the reason for a chest tube insertion in treating a pneumothorax. Which is the best response by the nurse?

"The tube will drain air from the space around the lung." Explanation: Negative pressure must be maintained in the pleural cavity for the lungs to be inflated. An injury that allows air into the pleural space will result in a collapse of the lung. The chest tube can be used to drain fluid and blood from the pleural cavity and to instill medication, such as talc, to the cavity.

On auscultation, which finding suggests a right pneumothorax?

Absence of breath sounds in the right thorax Explanation: In pneumothorax, the alveoli are deflated and no air exchange occurs in the lungs. Therefore, breath sounds in the affected lung field are absent. Bilateral crackles may result from pulmonary congestion, inspiratory wheezes may signal asthma, and a pleural friction rub may indicate pleural inflammation.

You are an ICU nurse caring for a client who was admitted with a diagnosis of smoke inhalation. You know that this client is at increased risk for which of the following?

Acute respiratory distress syndrome Explanation: Factors associated with the development of ARDS include aspiration related to near drowning or vomiting; drug ingestion/overdose; hematologic disorders such as disseminated intravascular coagulation or massive transfusions; direct damage to the lungs through prolonged smoke inhalation or other corrosive substances; localized lung infection; metabolic disorders such as pancreatitis or uremia; shock; trauma such as chest contusions, multiple fractures, or head injury; any major surgery; embolism; and septicemia.

A recent immigrant is diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement with this client?

Developing a list of people with whom the client has had contact Explanation: To lessen the spread of TB, everyone who had contact with the client must undergo a chest X-ray and TB skin test. Testing will help determine if the client infected anyone else. Teaching about the cause of TB, reviewing the risk factors, and the importance of testing are important areas to address when educating high-risk populations about TB before its development.

The nurse is assessing a patient who, following an extensive surgical procedure, is at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The nurse assesses for which early, most common sign of ARDS? a) Bilateral wheezing b) Cyanosis c) Inspiratory crackles d) Rapid onset of severe dyspnea

Rapid onset of severe dyspnea Correct Explanation: The acute phase of ARDS is marked by a rapid onset of severe dyspnea that usually occurs less than 72 hours after the precipitating event

When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows which of the following signs?

Redness and induration Explanation: A reaction occurs when both induration and erythema (redness) are present.

After diagnosing a client with pulmonary tuberculosis, the physician tells family members that they must receive isoniazid (INH [Laniazid]) as prophylaxis against tuberculosis. The client's daughter asks the nurse how long the drug must be taken. What is the usual duration of prophylactic isoniazid therapy? a) 6 to 12 months b) 2 to 4 months c) 3 to 5 days d) 1 to 3 weeks

6 to 12 months Correct Explanation: Prophylactic isoniazid therapy must continue for 6 to 12 months at a daily dosage of 300 mg. Taking the drug for less than 6 months may not provide adequate protection against tuberculosis.

The ICU nurse caring for a 2-year-old near drowning victim monitors for what possible complication?

Acute respiratory distress syndrome Explanation: Factors associated with the development of ARDS include aspiration related to near drowning or vomiting; drug ingestion/overdose; hematologic disorders such as disseminated intravascular coagulation or massive transfusions; direct damage to the lungs through prolonged smoke inhalation or other corrosive substances; localized lung infection; metabolic disorders such as pancreatitis or uremia; shock; trauma such as chest contusions, multiple fractures, or head injury; any major surgery; embolism; and septicemia.

The nursing instructor is discussing pulmonary arterial hypertension with the nursing students. What would the instructor describe as the pathophysiology of secondary pulmonary arterial hypertension? .

Alveolar destruction causes increased resistance and pressure in the pulmonary vascular bed. Explanation: In secondary pulmonary arterial hypertension, alveolar destruction causes increased resistance and pressure in the pulmonary vascular bed. Therefore options A, B, and C are incorrect

You are a clinic nurse caring for a client with acute bronchitis. The client asks what may have caused the infection. What may induce acute bronchitis?

Chemical irritation Explanation: Chemical irritation from noxious fumes, gases, and air contaminants induces acute bronchitis. Aspiration related to near drowning or vomiting, drug ingestion or overdose, and direct damage to the lungs are factors associated with the development of acute respiratory distress syndrome.

You are a clinic nurse caring for a client with acute tracheobronchitis. The client asks what may have caused the infection. Which of the following responses from the nurse would be most accurate?

Chemical irritation Explanation: Chemical irritation from noxious fumes, gases, and air contaminants can induce acute tracheobronchitis.

The nurse is caring for a client with tuberculosis. Why should the nurse always encourage a client with tuberculosis to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises three times a day?

For maintaining muscle strength Explanation: The nurse should always encourage active ROM exercises three times a day. Active ROM exercises maintain muscle strength and joint ROM. Assessment of pain level and other factors provide a baseline for treatment and evaluation. Proper pain assessment and appropriate analgesic administration provide more effective pain control. The nurse typically instructs the client to administer medication 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals because food interferes with medication absorption.

A patient diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is restless and has a low oxygen saturation level. If the patient's condition does not improve and the oxygen saturation level continues to decrease what procedure will the nurse expect to assist with in order to assist the patient to breathe easier?

Intubate the patient and control breathing with mechanical ventilation Explanation: A patient with ARDS may need mechanical ventilation to assist with breathing while the underlying cause of the pulmonary edema can be corrected.

You are caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with lung cancer. What is a cardinal sign of lung cancer?

Mucopurulent sputum Explanation: For a client with lung cancer, a cough productive of mucopurulent or blood-streaked sputum is a cardinal sign of lung cancer. Symptoms of fractured ribs consist primarily of severe pain on inspiration and expiration, obvious trauma, and shortness of breath.

A client is admitted to the facility with a productive cough, night sweats, and a fever. Which action is most important in the initial care plan?

Placing the client in respiratory isolation Explanation: Because the client's signs and symptoms suggest a respiratory infection (possibly tuberculosis), respiratory isolation is indicated. Every 8 hours isn't frequent enough to assess the temperature of a client with a fever. Monitoring fluid intake and output may be required, but the client should first be placed in isolation. The nurse should wear gloves only for contact with mucous membranes, broken skin, blood, and other body fluids and substances.

The nurse is obtaining data from a client with a respiratory disorder. Which information would be considered a part of the functional assessment and assist in the diagnosis of an occupational lung disease?

Black-streaked sputum Explanation: A functional assessment provides data on the lifestyle, living environment, and work environment of the client, which can contribute to lung disorders. A black-tinged sputum is suggestive of prolonged exposure to coal dust. Cough, dyspnea, and tenacious secretions are vague respiratory symptoms that are not specific to occupational lung disease. The presence of barrel chest is indicative of trapped oxygen in the lungs over a prolonged period of time.

During a community health fair, a nurse is teaching a group of seniors about health promotion and infection prevention. Which intervention would best promote infection prevention for senior citizens who are at risk of pneumococcal and influenza infections? a) Receive vaccinations b) Exercise daily c) Drink six glasses of water daily d) Take all prescribed medications

Receive vaccinations Correct Explanation: Identifying the patients who are at risk for pneumonia provides a means to practice preventive nursing care. The nurse encourages patients at risk of pneumococcal and influenza infections to receive vaccinations against these infections.

The nurse caring for a 2-year-old near-drowning victim monitors for what possible complication? a) Acute respiratory distress syndrome b) Atelectasis c) Metabolic alkalosis d) Respiratory acidosis

Acute respiratory distress syndrome Explanation: Factors associated with the development of ARDS include aspiration related to near drowning or vomiting; drug ingestion/overdose; hematologic disorders such as disseminated intravascular coagulation or massive transfusions; direct damage to the lungs through prolonged smoke inhalation or other corrosive substances; localized lung infection; metabolic disorders such as pancreatitis or uremia; shock; trauma such as chest contusions, multiple fractures, or head injury; any major surgery; embolism; and septicemia. Options A, C, and D are incorrect.

A client is admitted to the emergency department with a stab wound and is now presenting dyspnea, tachypnea, and sucking noise heard on inspiration and expiration. The nurse should care for the wound in which manner?

Apply airtight dressing. Explanation: The client has developed a pneumothorax, and the best action is to prevent further deflation of the affected lung by placing an airtight dressing over the wound. A vented dressing would be used in a tension pneumothorax, but because air is heard moving in and out, a tension pneumothorax is not indicated. Applying direct pressure is required if active bleeding is noted.

The nurse caring for a patient with tuberculosis anticipates administering which vitamin with isoniazid (INH) to prevent INH-associated peripheral neuropathy?

Vitamin B6 Explanation: Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is usually administered with INH to prevent INH-associated peripheral neuropathy. Vitamins C, D, and E are not appropriate.

A mechanically ventilated patient is receiving a combination of atracurium (Tracrium) and an opioid analgesic morphine. The nurse monitors the patient for which potential complication? a) Venous thromboemboli b) Pneumothorax c) Pulmonary hypertension d) Cor pulmonale

a) Venous thromboemboli Explanation: Neuromuscular blockers predispose the patient to venous thromboemboli (VTE), muscle atrophy, and skin breakdown. Nursing assessment is essential to minimize the complications related to neuromuscular blockade. The patient may have discomfort or pain but be unable to communicate these sensations.

A nurse assesses arterial blood gas results for a patient in acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which of the following results are consistent with this disorder?

pH 7.28, PaO2 50 mm Hg Explanation: ARF is defined as a decrease in the arterial oxygen tension (PaO2) to less than 50 mm Hg (hypoxemia) and an increase in arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) to greater than 50 mm Hg (hypercapnia), with an arterial pH of less than 7.35.

Which of the following terms refers to lung tissue that has become more solid in nature due to a collapse of alveoli or an infectious process?

Consolidation Explanation: Consolidation occurs during an infectious process such as pneumonia. Atelectasis refers to the collapse or airless condition of the alveoli caused by hypoventilation, obstruction to the airways, or compression. Bronchiectasis refers to the chronic dilation of a bronchi or bronchi in which the dilated airway becomes saccular and a medium for chronic infection. Empyema refers to accumulation of purulent material in the pleural space.

You are caring for a client who has been diagnosed with viral pneumonia. You are making a plan of care for this client. What nursing interventions would you put into the plan of care for a client with pneumonia?

Encourage increased fluid intake. Explanation: The nurse places the client in semi-Fowler's position to aid breathing and increase the amount of air taken with each breath. Increased fluid intake is important to encourage because it helps to loosen secretions and replace fluids lost through fever and increased respiratory rate. The nurse monitors fluid intake and output, skin turgor, vital signs, and serum electrolytes. He or she administers antipyretics as indicated and ordered

The nurse identifies which finding to be most consistent prior to the onset of acute respiratory distress?

Normal lung function Explanation: Acute respiratory failure occurs suddenly in clients who previously had normal lung function.

A client has hypoxemia of pulmonary origin. What portion of arterial blood gas results is most useful in distinguishing between acute respiratory distress syndrome and acute respiratory failure?

Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) Explanation: In acute respiratory failure, administering supplemental oxygen elevates the PaO2. In acute respiratory distress syndrome, elevation of the PaO2 requires positive end-expiratory pressure. In both situations, the PaCO2 is elevated and the pH and HCO3- are depressed.

A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is taking medication for the treatment of TB. The nurse should instruct the client that he will be safe from infecting others approximately how long after initiation of the chemotherapy regimen?

• Two to 3 weeks after initiation of bacteriocidal drugs Explanation: The client needs to take the prescribed medications for approximately 2 to 3 weeks before discontinuing precautions against infecting others. Effectiveness of the drug therapy is determined by negative sputum smears obtained on three consecutive days. Although results can vary among clients, the majority respond to therapy within 2 to 3 weeks.

A patient admitted to the hospital following a motor vehicle crash has suffered a flail chest. A nurse assesses the patient for what most common clinical manifestation of flail chest? a) Cyanosis b) Paradoxical chest movement c) Hypertension d) Wheezing

Paradoxical chest movement Correct Explanation: During inspiration, as the chest expands, the detached part of the rib segment (flail segment) moves in a paradoxical manner (pendelluft movement) in that it is pulled inward during inspiration, reducing the amount of air that can be drawn into the lungs. On expiration, because the intrathoracic pressure exceeds atmospheric pressure, the flail segment bulges outward, impairing the patient's ability to exhale. The mediastinum then shifts back to the affected side. This paradoxical action results in increased dead space, a reduction in alveolar ventilation, and decreased compliance.

A client is being evaluated for possible lung cancer. Which client statement most likely indicates lung cancer?

"My cough has changed from a dry cough to one with lots of sputum production." Explanation: A cough that changes in character is one of the hallmark signs of lung cancer.

You are an occupational nurse completing routine assessments on the employees where you work. What might be revealed by a chest radiograph for a client with occupational lung diseases?

Fibrotic changes in lungs Explanation: For a client with occupational lung diseases, a chest radiograph may reveal fibrotic changes in the lungs. Hemorrhage, lung contusion, and damage to surrounding tissues are possibly caused by trauma due to chest injuries.

Which of the following is a key characteristic of pleurisy?

Pain Explanation: The key characteristic of pleuritic pain is its relationship to respiratory movement. Taking a deep breath, coughing, or sneezing worsens the pain.

A client is brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following nursing assessment is significant in diagnosing this client with flail chest?

Paradoxical chest movement Explanation: Flail chest occurs when two or more adjacent ribs fracture and results in impairment of chestwall movement. Respiratory acidosis and chest pain are symptoms that can occur with flail chest but is not as significant in the diagnosis as paradoxical chest movement. Clubbing of fingers and toes are sign of prolonged tissue hypoxia.

The patient with a chest tube is being transported to X-ray. Which complication may occur if the chest tube is clamped during transportation?

Tension pneumothorax Explanation: Clamping can result in a tension pneumothorax. The other options would not occur if the chest tube was clamped during transportation.

You've been invited to speak to the Hospital Guild of the hospital where you practice nursing. You've been asked to address "Communicable Diseases of Winter" and are speaking to a large group of volunteer women, most of whom are older than 60 years. What practices should you encourage in these women, who are at the risk of pneumococcal and influenza infections? Select all that apply.

• Receiving vaccinations • Hand antisepsis • Techniques for incentive spirometry Explanation: A powerful weapon against the spread of communicable disease is effective and frequent handwashing. Teaching the Guild members the proper method and times to wash their hands go a long way in disease prevention. The pneumococcal vaccine provides specific prevention against pneumococcal pneumonia and other infections caused by S. pneumoniae.

You are an occupational health nurse in a large ceramic manufacturing company. How would you intervene to prevent occupational lung disease in the employees of the company?

Fit all employees with protective masks. Explanation: The primary focus is prevention, with frequent examination of those who work in areas of highly concentrated dust or gases. Laws require work areas to be safe in terms of dust control, ventilation, protective masks, hoods, industrial respirators, and other protection. Workers are encouraged to practice healthy behaviors, such as quitting smoking.

A client who sustained a pulmonary contusion in a motor vehicle crash develops a pulmonary embolism. Which nursing diagnosis takes priority with this client?

Ineffective breathing pattern related to tissue trauma Explanation: Although all of these nursing diagnoses are appropriate for this client, Ineffective breathing pattern takes priority. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, air is essential to maintain life and is assigned highest priority, along with the other physiologic needs, such as food, elimination, temperature control, sex, movement, rest, and comfort.

You are assessing a client's potential for pulmonary emboli. What finding indicates possible deep vein thrombosis?

Pain in the calf Explanation: When assessing the client's potential for pulmonary emboli, the nurse tests for a positive Homan's sign. The client lies on his or her back and lifts his or her leg and his or her foot. If the client reports calf pain (positive Homan's sign) during this maneuver, he or she may have a deep vein thrombosis.

Which of the following interventions does a nurse implement for patients with empyema?

Encourage breathing exercises Explanation: The nurse instructs the patient in lung-expanding breathing exercises to restore normal respiratory function.

A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) develops Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

Impaired gas exchange Explanation: Although all of these nursing diagnoses are appropriate for a client with AIDS, Impaired gas exchange is the priority nursing diagnosis for a client with P. carinii pneumonia. Airway, breathing, and circulation take top priority for any client.

A client presents to a physician's office complaining of dyspnea with exertion, weakness, and coughing up blood. Further examination reveals peripheral edema, crackles, and jugular vein distention. The nurse anticipates the physician will make which diagnosis?

Pulmonary hypertension Explanation: Dyspnea, weakness, hemoptysis, and right-sided heart failure are all signs of pulmonary hypertension. Clients with COPD present with chronic cough, dyspnea on exertion, and sputum production. Those with empyema are acutely ill and have signs of acute respiratory infection or pneumonia. Clients with pulmonary tuberculosis usually present with low-grade fever, night sweats, fatigue, cough, and weight loss.

While caring for a client with a chest tube, which nursing assessment would alert the nurse to a possible complication?

Crackling is heard when skin around tube is touched. Explanation: Subcutaneous emphysema is the result of air leaking between the subcutaneous layers not serious complication but is notable and reportable. Pink skin and blood in the collection chamber are normal findings. When two tubes are inserted, the posterior or lower tube drains fluid,whereas the anterior or upper tube is for air removal.

For a patient with pleural effusion, what does chest percussion over the involved area reveal?

Dullness over the involved area Explanation: Chest percussion reveals dullness over the involved area. The nurse may note diminished or absent breath sounds over the involved area when auscultating the lungs and may also hear a friction rub. Chest radiography and computed tomography (CT) scan show fluid in the involved area.

A nurse is caring for a client with chest trauma. Which nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority?

Impaired gas exchange Explanation: For a client with chest trauma, a diagnosis of Impaired gas exchange takes priority because adequate gas exchange is essential for survival.

Which type of pneumonia has the highest incidence in AIDS patients and patients receiving immunosuppressive therapy for cancer?

Pneumocystis Explanation: Pneumocystis pneumonia incidence is greatest in patient with AIDS and patients receiving immunosuppressive therapy for cancer.

A client who is diagnosed with chronic respiratory failure will have which of the following symptoms?

Dyspnea Explanation: Chronic respiratory failure develops over a long time period as the result of another condition. The most common diseases leading to chronic respiratory failure are COPD and neuromuscular disorders. A fall in arterial oxygen levels is a sign of acute respiratory failure. A rise in arterial CO2 is a sign of acute respiratory failure. Ventilatory failure develops in acute respiratory failure when the alveoli cannot adequately expand.

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with empyema. Which of the following interventions does a nurse implement for patients with empyema?

Encourage breathing exercises. Explanation: The nurse teaches the patient with empyema to do breathing exercises as prescribed. The nurse should institute droplet precautions, isolate suspected and confirmed influenza patients in private rooms, or place suspected and confirmed patients together, and not allow visitors with symptoms of respiratory infection to visit the hospital to prevent outbreaks of influenza from occurring in healthcare settings.

A victim of a motor vehicle accident has been brought to the emergency room. The patient is exhibiting paradoxical chest expansion and respiratory distress. Which of the following chest disorders should be suspected?

Flail chest Explanation: When a flail chest exists, during inspiration, as the chest expands, the detached part of the rib segment (flail segment) moves in a paradoxical manner in that it is pulled inward during inspiration, reducing the amount of air that can be drawn into the lungs. On expiration, because the intrathoracic pressure exceed atmospheric pressure, the flail segment bulges outward, impairing the patient's ability to exhale. Cardiac tamponade is compression of the heart resulting from fluid or blood within the pericardial sac. A pulmonary contusion is damage to the lung tissues resulting in hemorrhage and localized edema. A simple pneumothorax occurs when air enters the pleural space through the rupture of a bleb or a bronchopleural fistula.

When caring for a client with acute respiratory failure, the nurse should expect to focus on resolving which set of problems?

Hypercapnia, hypoventilation, and hypoxemia Explanation: The cardinal physiologic abnormalities of acute respiratory failure are hypercapnia, hypoventilation, and hypoxemia. The nurse should focus on resolving these problems

A 62-year-old female client arrives at the office complaining of dyspnea and fatigue. She tells the nurse that she's had a persistent productive cough for the last few months, which she attributes to a bout with the flu. The nurse suspects that this client may have which of the following?

Lung cancer Explanation: Early diagnosis of cancer of the lung is difficult because symptoms often do not appear until the disease is well established. The sputum is examined for malignant cells. Chest x-rays may or may not show a tumor. With pleurisy, the client's respirations become shallow secondary to excruciating pain. The client may have a dry cough, fatigue easily, and experience dyspnea. Fever, pain, and dyspnea are the most common symptoms of pleural effusion. Signs and symptoms of lung abscess include chills, fever, weight loss, chest pain, and a productive cough.

You are caring for a client status post lung resection. When assessing your client you find that the bubbling in the water-seal chamber for the chest tubes is more than you expected. What should you check when bubbling in the water-seal chamber is excessive?

See if there are leaks in the system. Explanation: Bubbling in the water-seal chamber occurs in the early postoperative period. If bubbling is excessive, the nurse checks the system for any kind of leaks. Fluctuation of the fluid in the water-seal chamber is initially present with each respiration. Fluctuations cease if the chest tube is clogged or a kink develops in the tubing. If the suction unit malfunctions, the suction control chamber, not the water-seal chamber, will be affected.

A client has been hospitalized for treatment of acute bacterial pneumonia. Which outcome indicates an improvement in the client's condition?

The client has a partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) value of 90 mm Hg or higher. Explanation: As the acute phase of bacterial pneumonia subsides, normal lung function returns and the PaO2 typically rises, reaching 85 to 100 mm Hg. A PaCO2 of 65 mm Hg or higher is above normal and indicates CO2 retention — common during the acute phase of pneumonia. Restlessness and confusion indicate hypoxia, not an improvement in the client's condition. Bronchial breath sounds over the affected area occur during the acute phase of pneumonia; later, the affected area should be clear on auscultation.

Approximately what percentage of people who are initially infected with TB develop active disease?

10% Explanation: Approximately 10% of people who are initially infected develop active disease.

Which vitamin is usually administered with isoniazid (INH) to prevent INH-associated peripheral neuropathy?

Vitamin B6 Explanation: Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is usually administered with INH to prevent INH-associated peripheral neuropathy.

A client who has started therapy for drug-resistant tuberculosis demonstrates understanding of tuberculosis transmission when he says:

"I'll stop being contagious when I have a negative acid-fast bacilli test." Explanation: A client with drug-resistant tuberculosis isn't contagious when he's had a negative acid-fast test. A client with nonresistant tuberculosis is no longer considered contagious when he shows clinical evidence of decreased infection, such as significantly decreased coughing and fewer organisms on sputum smears. The medication may not produce negative acid-fast test results for several days. The client won't have a clear chest X-ray for several months after starting treatment.

A nurse is reviewing a client's X-ray. The X-ray shows an endotracheal (ET) tube placed 3/4? (2 cm) above the carina and reveals nodular lesions and patchy infiltrates in the upper lobe. Which interpretation of the X-ray is accurate?

A disease process is present. Explanation: This X-ray suggests tuberculosis. An ET tube that's 3/4? above the carina is at an adequate level in the trachea. There's no need to advance it or pull it back.

Which of the following types of lung cancer is the most prevalent carcinoma of the lung for both men and women?

Adenocarcinoma Explanation: Adenocarcinoma presents more peripherally as peripheral masses or nodules and often metastasizes. Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that tends to arise peripherally. Squamous cell carcinoma is more centrally located and arises more commonly in the segmental and subsegmental bronchi in response to repetitive carcinogenic exposures. Small cell carcinomas arise primarily as proximal lesions, but may arise in any part of the tracheobronchial tree.

The nurse is collaborating with a community group to develop plans to reduce the incidence of lung cancer in the community. Which of the following would be most effective?

Classes at community centers to teach about smoking cessation strategies Explanation: Lung cancer is directly correlated with heavy cigarette smoking, and the most effective approach to reducing lung cancer in the community is to help the citizens stop smoking.. The use of HEPA filters can reduce allergens, but they do not prevent lung cancer. Chest x-rays aid in detection of lung cancer but do not prevent it. Exposure to asbestos has been implicated as a risk factor, but cigarette smoking is the major risk factor.

A physician determines that a client has been exposed to someone with tuberculosis. The nurse expects the physician to order which treatment?

Daily doses of isoniazid, 300 mg for 6 months to 1 year Explanation: All clients exposed to persons with tuberculosis should receive prophylactic isoniazid in daily doses of 300 mg for 6 months to 1 year to avoid the deleterious effects of the latent mycobacterium. Daily oral doses of isoniazid and rifampin for 6 months to 2 years are appropriate for the client with active tuberculosis. Isolation for 2 to 4 weeks is warranted for a client with active tuberculosis.

A client with lung cancer develops pleural effusion. During chest auscultation, which breath sound should the nurse expect to hear?

Decreased breath sounds Explanation: In pleural effusion, fluid accumulates in the pleural space, impairing transmission of normal breath sounds. Because of the acoustic mismatch, breath sounds are diminished. Crackles commonly accompany atelectasis, interstitial fibrosis, and left-sided heart failure. Rhonchi suggest secretions in the large airways. Wheezes result from narrowed airways, such as in asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and bronchitis.

An elderly client is diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis. Upset and tearful, he asks the nurse how long he must be separated from his family. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for this client?

Deficient knowledge (disease process and treatment regimen) Explanation: This client is exhibiting Deficient knowledge about the disease process and treatment regimen; treatment of tuberculosis no longer requires isolation, provided the client complies with the ordered medication regimen. Although the client is upset, his question reflects sadness at the prospect of being separated from his family rather than anxiety about the disease. Because he has just been diagnosed and hasn't had a chance to demonstrate compliance, a nursing diagnosis of Social isolation isn't appropriate. A diagnosis of Impaired social interaction usually has a psychiatric or neurologic basis, not a respiratory one, such as pulmonary tuberculosis.

A client hospitalized with pneumonia has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse include when planning this client's care?

Encouraging increased fluid intake Explanation: Increasing the client's intake of oral or I.V. fluids helps liquefy thick, tenacious secretions and ensures adequate hydration. Turning the client every 2 hours would help prevent pressure ulcers but wouldn't help with the secretions. Elevating the head of the bed would reduce pressure on the diaphragm and ease breathing but wouldn't help the client with secretions. Maintaining a cool room temperature wouldn't help the client with secretions.

In a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) and respiratory distress, which finding is the earliest sign of reduced oxygenation?

Increased restlessness Explanation: In ALS, an early sign of respiratory distress is increased restlessness, which results from inadequate oxygen flow to the brain. As the body tries to compensate for inadequate oxygenation, the heart rate increases and blood pressure drops. A decreased LOC is a later sign of poor tissue oxygenation in a client with respiratory distress.

The client, with a lower respiratory airway infection, is presenting with the following symptoms: fever, chills, dry hacking cough, and wheezing. Which nursing diagnosis best supports the assessment by the nurse?

Ineffective Airway Clearance Explanation: The symptom of wheezing indicates a narrowing or partial obstruction of the airway from inflammation or secretions. Risk for Infection is a real potential because the client is already exhibiting symptoms of infection (fever with chills). Impaired Gas Exchange may occur, but no symptom listed supports poor exchange of gases. No documentation of respiratory rate or abnormalities is listed to justify this nursing diagnosis.

A client with suspected severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) comes to the emergency department. Which physician order should the nurse implement first?

Institute isolation precautions. Explanation: SARS, a highly contagious viral respiratory illness, is spread by close person-to-person contact. Contained in airborne respiratory droplets, the virus is easily transmitted by touching surfaces and objects contaminated with infectious droplets. The nurse should give top priority to instituting infection-control measures to prevent the spread of infection to emergency department staff and clients. After isolation measures are carried out, the nurse can begin an I.V. infusion of dextrose 5% in half-normal saline and obtain nasopharyngeal and sputum specimens.

The nursing instructor is teaching students about the types of lung cancer. Which type of lung cancer is characterized as fast growing and can arise peripherally?

Large cell carcinoma Explanation: Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that tends to arise peripherally. Bronchoalveolar cell cancer arises from the terminal bronchus and alveoli and is usually slow growing. Adenocarcinoma presents as peripheral masses or nodules and often metastasizes. Squamous cell carcinoma arises from the bronchial epithelium and is more centrally located.

A client who has just had a triple-lumen catheter placed in his right subclavian vein complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. His blood pressure is decreased from baseline and, on auscultation of his chest, the nurse notes unequal breath sounds. A chest X-ray is immediately ordered by the physician. What diagnosis should the nurse suspect?

Pneumothorax Explanation: Pneumothorax (air in the pleural space) is a potential complication of all central venous access devices. Signs and symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, shoulder or neck pain, irritability, palpitations, light-headedness, hypotension, cyanosis, and unequal breath sounds. A chest X-ray reveals the collapse of the affected lung that results from pneumothorax. Triple-lumen catheter insertion through the subclavian vein isn't associated with pulmonary embolism, MI, or heart failure.

Which of the following should a nurse encourage in patients who are at the risk of pneumococcal and influenza infections?

Receiving vaccination Explanation: Identifying the patients who are at risk for pneumonia provides a means to practice preventive nursing care. The nurse encourages patients at risk of pneumococcal and influenza infections to receive vaccinations against these infections. The nurse should encourage early mobilization as indicated through agency protocol, administer prescribed opioids and sedatives as indicated, and teach or reinforce appropriate technique for incentive spirometry to prevent atelectasis.

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a patient with pulmonary sarcoidosis. The nurse concludes that the patient understands the information if the patient correctly states which of the following early signs of exacerbation?

Shortness of breath Explanation: Early signs and symptoms of pulmonary sarcoidosis may include dyspnea, cough, hemoptysis, and congestion. Generalized symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, and weight loss.

After 48 hours, a Mantoux test is evaluated. At the site, there is a 10 mm induration. This finding would be considered:

Significant Explanation: An induration of 10 mm or greater is usually considered significant and reactive in people who have normal or mildly impaired immunity.

Influenza, an annual epidemic in the U.S., creates a significant increase in hospitalizations and an increase in the death rates of pneumonia and cardiovascular disease. Besides death, what is the most serious complication of influenza?

Staphylococcal pneumonia Explanation: Complications include tracheobronchitis, bacterial pneumonia, and cardiovascular disease. Staphylococcal pneumonia is the most serious complication. Although tracheobronchitis is a complication of the flu, it is not the most serious one. Although cardiovascular disease is a complication of the flu, it is not the most serious one. Bacterial, not viral, pneumonia is a possible complication of the flu, although not its most serious one.

A 67-year-old female client is being discharged postoperative following pelvic surgery. The patient care instructions to prevent the development of a pulmonary embolus would include which of the following?

Tense and relax muscles in lower extremities. Explanation: Clients are encouraged to perform passive or active exercises, as tolerated, to prevent the development of a thrombus from forming. Constrictive, tight-fitting clothing is a risk factor for the development of a pulmonary embolism in postoperative clients. Clients at risk for a DVT or a pulmonary embolism are encouraged to drink throughout the day to avoid dehydration. Estrogen replacement is a risk factor for the development of a pulmonary embolism.

A mediastinal shift occurs in which type of chest disorder?

Tension pneumothorax Explanation: A tension pneumothorax causes the lung to collapse and the heart, the great vessels, and the trachea to shift toward the unaffected side of the chest (mediastinal shift). A traumatic pneumothorax occurs when air escapes from a laceration in the lung itself and enters the pleural space or enters the pleural space through a wound in the chest wall. A simple pneumothorax most commonly occurs as air enters the pleural space through the rupture of a bleb or a bronchopleural fistula. Cardiac tamponade is compression of the heart resulting from fluid or blood within the pericardial sac.

A nurse observes a new environmental services employee enter the room of a client with severe acute respiratory syndrome. Which action by the employee requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

The employee enters the room wearing a gown, gloves, and a mask. Explanation: The nurse should tell the employee to wear the proper personal protective equipment, including a gown, gloves, N95 respirator, and eye protection, when entering the client's room. To prevent the spread of infection, a stethoscope, blood pressure cuff, and thermometer for single client use should be kept in the room of a client who requires isolation. Removing all personal protective equipment and washing hands before leaving the client's room are correct procedures.

Arterial blood gas analysis would reveal which of the following related to acute respiratory failure?

pH 7.28 Explanation: Acute respiratory failure (ARF) is defined as a decrease in the arterial oxygen tension (PaO) to less than 50 mm Hg (hypoxemia) and an increase in arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO) to greater than 50 mm Hg (hypercapnia), with an arterial pH of less than 7.35.

A client asks a nurse a question about the Mantoux test for tuberculosis. The nurse should base her response on the fact that the:

skin test doesn't differentiate between active and dormant tuberculosis infection. Explanation: The Mantoux test doesn't differentiate between active and dormant infections. If a positive reaction occurs, a sputum smear and culture as well as a chest X-ray are necessary to provide more information. Although the area of redness is measured in 3 days, a second test may be needed; neither test indicates that tuberculosis is active. In the Mantoux test, an induration 5 to 9 mm in diameter indicates a borderline reaction; a larger induration indicates a positive reaction. The presence of a wheal within 2 days doesn't indicate active tuberculosis

In the prevention of silicosis, the nurse would direct preventative teaching to which high-risk occupations? Select all that apply.

• Baker • Rock quarry worker • Welder Explanation: A baker is exposed to dust from flour. A quarry worker is exposed to rock dust and silica. A welder is exposed to gases and fumes that can be inhaled and result in silicosis. A banker, nurse, and mechanic may have work hazards but not specific to the development of silicosis.

What are the conditions that make up Virchow's triad? Select all that apply.

• Hypercoagulability • Disruption of the vessel lining • Venostasis Explanation: Three conditions, referred to as Virchow's triad, predispose a person to clot formation: venostasis, disruption of the vessel lining, and hypercoagulability.

A client admitted to the facility for treatment for tuberculosis receives instructions about the disease. Which statement made by the client indicates the need for further instruction?

"I'll stay in isolation for 6 weeks." Explanation: The client requires additional teaching if he states that he'll be in isolation for 6 weeks. The client needs to be in isolation for 2 weeks, not 6, while taking the tuberculosis drugs. After 2 weeks of antitubercular therapy, the client is no longer considered contagious. The client needs to receive the drugs for 9 months to a year. He'll be positive when tested and if he's sick or under some stress he could have a relapse of the disease.

A client, who is at risk for pneumonia, has been ordered influenza vaccine. Which statement from the nurse best explains the rationale for this vaccine?

"Viruses, like influenza, are the most common cause of pneumonia." Explanation: Influenza type A is the most common cause of pneumonia. Therefore, preventing influenza lowers the risk of pneumonia. Viral URIs can make the client more susceptible to secondary infections, but getting the flu is not a preventable action. Bacterial pneumonia is a typical pneumonia and cannot be prevented with a vaccine that is used to prevent a viral infection. Influenza is not the major cause of death in the United States. Combined influenza with pneumonia is the major cause of death in the United States.

A nurse is preparing instructions for a patient with a lung abscess regarding dietary recommendations. Which of the following statements would be included in the plan of care?

"You must consume a diet rich in protein, such as chicken, fish, and beans." Explanation: For a patient with a lung abscess the nurse encourages a diet that is high in protein and calories to ensure proper nutritional intake.

A nurse is assessing the injection site of a client who has received a purified protein derivative test. Which finding indicates a need for further evaluation?

15-mm induration Explanation: A 10-mm induration strongly suggests a positive response in this tuberculosis screening test; a 15-mm induration clearly requires further evaluation. A reddened area, 5-mm induration, and a blister aren't positive reactions to the test and require no further evaluation.

A 73-year-old client is admitted to the pulmonology unit of the hospital with a pleural effusion, which was "tapped" to drain the fluid to reduce her mediastinal pressure. How much fluid is typically present between the pleurae, which surround the lungs, to prevent friction rub?

5 to 15 mL Explanation: Under normal conditions, approximately 5 to 15 mL of fluid between the pleurae prevent friction during pleural surface movement. Under normal conditions, there is approximately 5 to 15 mL of fluid between the pleurae. This amount would exceed the normal amount. Under normal conditions, there is approximately 5 to 15 mL of fluid between the pleurae. This amount would exceed the normal amount. Fluid between the pleurae functions to prevent friction during pleural surface movement.

A nurse is caring for a group of clients on a medical-surgical floor. Which client is at greatest risk for developing pneumonia?

A client with a nasogastric tube Explanation: Nasogastric, orogastric, and endotracheal tubes increase the risk of pneumonia because of the risk of aspiration from improperly placed tubes. Frequent oral hygiene and checking tube placement help prevent aspiration and pneumonia. Although a client who smokes is at increased risk for pneumonia, the risk decreases if the client has stopped smoking. Ambulation helps prevent pneumonia. A client who receives opioids, not acetaminophen, has a risk of developing pneumonia because respiratory depression may occur.

What dietary recommendations should a nurse provide a patient with a lung abscess?

A diet rich in protein Explanation: For a patient with pleural effusion, a diet rich in protein and calories is pivotal. A carbohydrate-dense diet or diets with limited fat are not advisable for a patient with lung abscess.

A victim has sustained a blunt force trauma to the chest. A pulmonary contusion is suspected. Which of the following clinical manifestations correlate with a moderate pulmonary contusion?

Blood-tinged sputum Explanation: The clinical manifestations of pulmonary contusions are based on the severity of bruising and parenchymal involvement. The most common signs and symptoms are crackles, decreased or absent bronchial breath sounds, dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, chest pain, blood-tinged secretions, hypoxemia, and respiratory acidosis. Patients with moderate pulmonary contusions often have a constant, but ineffective cough and cannot clear their secretions.

An emergency room nurse is assessing a patient who is complaining of dyspnea. Which of these signs would indicate the presence of a pleural effusion?

Decreased chest wall excursion upon palpation Explanation: Symptoms of pleural effusion are shortness of breath, pain, assumption of a position that decreases pain, absent breath sounds, decreased fremitus, a dull, flat sound on percussion, and decreased chest wall excursion. The nurse may also hear a friction rub. Chest radiography and computed tomography (CT) scan show fluid in the involved area.

What is the reason for chest tubes after thoracic surgery?

Draining secretions, air, and blood from the thoracic cavity is necessary. Explanation: After thoracic surgery, draining secretions, air, and blood from the thoracic cavity is necessary to allow the lungs to expand.

A nurse is assessing a client who comes to the clinic for care. Which findings in this client suggest bacterial pneumonia?

Dyspnea and wheezing Explanation: In a client with bacterial pneumonia, retained secretions cause dyspnea, and respiratory tract inflammation causes wheezing. Bacterial pneumonia also produces a productive cough and fever, rather than a nonproductive cough and normal temperature. Sore throat occurs in pharyngitis,

The new client on the unit was admitted with acute respiratory failure. What are the signs and symptoms of acute respiratory failure?

Sudden onset in client who had normal lung function Explanation: Acute respiratory failure occurs suddenly in a client who previously had normal lung function.

Which of the following techniques does a nurse suggest to a patient with pleurisy while teaching about splinting the chest wall?

Turn onto the affected side Explanation: The nurse teaches the patient to splint the chest wall by turning onto the affected side. The nurse also instructs the patient to take analgesic medications as prescribed and to use heat or cold applications to manage pain with inspiration. The patient can also splint the chest wall with a pillow when coughing.

Which statement would indicate that the parents of child with cystic fibrosis understand the disorder?

"The mucus-secreting glands are abnormal." Explanation: Cystic fibrosis is caused by dysfunction of the exocrine glands with no cystic lesions present in the lungs. Early treatment can improve symptoms and extend the life of clients, but a cure for this disorder is presently not available.

A nurse is caring for a patient after a thoracentesis. Which of the following signs if noted in the patient should be reported to the physician immediately?

"Patient is becoming agitated and complains of pleuritic pain." Explanation: After a thoracentesis, the nurse monitors the patient for pneumothorax or recurrence of pleural effusion. Signs and symptoms associated with pneumothorax depend on its size and cause. Pain is usually sudden and may be pleuritic. The patient may have only minimal respiratory distress with slight chest discomfort and tachypnea with a small simple or uncomplicated pneumothorax. As the pneumothorax enlarges, the patient may become anxious and develop dyspnea with increased use of the accessory muscles.

A client with severe shortness of breath comes to the emergency department. He tells the emergency department staff that he recently traveled to China for business. Based on his travel history and presentation, the staff suspects severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS). Which isolation precautions should the staff institute?

Airborne and contact precautions Explanation: SARS, a highly contagious viral respiratory illness, is spread by close person-to-person contact. The client should be placed on airborne and contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection.

A 65-year-old client who works construction, and has been demolishing an older building,is diagnosed with pneumoconiosis. The nurse is aware that his lung inflammation is most likely caused by exposure to which of the following?

Asbestos Explanation: Asbestosis is caused by inhalation of asbestos dust, which is frequently encountered during construction work, particularly when working with older buildings. Laws restrict asbestos use, but old materials still contain asbestos. Inhalation of silica may cause silicosis, which results from inhalation of silica dust and is seen in workers involved with mining, quarrying, stone-cutting, and tunnel building. Inhalation of coal dust and other dusts may cause black lung disease. Pollen may cause an allergic reaction, but is unlikely to cause pneumoconiosis

A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with pneumonia, has a history of falls, and has skin lesions resulting from scratching. The priority nursing diagnosis for this client should be:

Ineffective airway clearance. Explanation: Ineffective airway clearance is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client. Pneumonia involves excess secretions in the respiratory tract and inhibits air flow to the capillary bed. A client with pneumonia may not have an Ineffective breathing pattern, such as tachypnea, bradypnea, or Cheyne-Stok

The nursing instructor is talking with the junior class of nursing students about lung cancer. What would be the best rationale the instructor could give for the difficulty of early diagnosis of lung cancer?

Symptoms often do not appear until the disease is well established. Explanation: Early diagnosis of cancer of the lung is difficult because symptoms often do not appear until the disease is well established.

A 68-year-old male client who underwent thoracic surgery to remove a lung tumor had a chest tube placed anteriorly. The nurse knows that the surgical team places this catheter:

To remove air from the pleural space Explanation: After thoracic surgery, draining secretions, air, and blood from the thoracic cavity is necessary to allow the lungs to expand. A catheter placed in the pleural space provides a drainage route through a closed or underwater-seal drainage system to remove air. Sometimes two chest catheters are placed following thoracic surgery—one anteriorly and one posteriorly. The anterior catheter removes air; the posterior catheter removes fluid. Chest tubes are placed to remove anteriorly air from the pleural space following thoracic surgery. The anesthesiologist ventilates the client during surgery. Postsurgery, a chest tube is placed anteriorly to remove air from the pleural space.

During discharge teaching, a nurse is instructing a client about pneumonia. The client demonstrates his understanding of relapse when he states that he must:

continue to take antibiotics for the entire 10 days. Explanation: The client demonstrates understanding of how to prevent relapse when he states that he must continue taking the antibiotics for the prescribed 10-day course. Although the client should keep the follow-up appointment with the physician and turn and reposition himself frequently, these interventions don't prevent relapse. The client should drink 51 to 101 oz (1,500 to 3,000 ml) per day of clear liquids.

A client with unresolved hemothorax is febrile, with chills and sweating. He has a nonproductive cough and chest pain. His chest tube drainage is turbid. A possible explanation for these findings is:

empyema. Explanation: Any condition that produces fluid accumulation or sequestration of fluid with infective properties can lead to empyema, an accumulation of pus in a body cavity, especially the pleural space, as a result of bacterial infection. An infected chest tube site, lobar pneumonia, and P. carinii pneumonia can lead to fever, chills, and sweating associated with infection. However, in this case, turbid drainage indicates that empyema has developed. Pneumonia typically causes a productive cough. An infected chest tube wound would cause redness and pain at the site, not turbid drainage.

When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows

redness and induration. Explanation: The injection site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening.

Following thoracic surgery, the care plan for a client at risk for impaired gas exchange would include which of the following? Select all that apply.

• Monitor vital signs frequently. • Reinforce preoperative breathing exercises. • Elevate head of bed 30°-40° as tolerated. Explanation: Nursing management for a client with the goal of maintaining optimal gas exchange includes assessing vital signs frequently, reinforcing preoperative instructions about deep breathing, coughing, and incentive spirometry, and elevating the head of the bed as tolerated.