Ch 24 Chronic Pulmonary Disease
Which of the following would not be considered a primary symptom of COPD?
Weight gain Explanation: COPD is characterized by three primary symptoms: cough, sputum production, and dyspnea on exertion. Weight loss is common with COPD.
Which of the following is a symptom diagnostic of emphysema?
Dyspnea Explanation: Dyspnea is characteristic of emphysema. A chronic cough is considered the primary symptom of chronic bronchitis. Refer to Table 11-1 in the text.
The nurse should be alert for a complication of bronchiectasis that results from a combination of retained secretions and obstruction and that leads to the collapse of alveoli. What complication should the nurse monitor for?
Atelectasis In bronchiectasis, the retention of secretions and subsequent obstruction ultimately cause the alveoli distal to the obstruction to collapse (atelectasis).
As status asthmaticus worsens, the nurse would expect which acid-base imbalance?
Respiratory acidosis Explanation: As status asthmaticus worsens, the PaCO increases and the pH decreases, reflecting respiratory acidosis.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) expresses a desire to quit smoking. The first appropriate response from the nurse is:
"Have you tried to quit smoking before?" Explanation: All the options are appropriate statements; however, the nurse needs to assess the client's statement further. Assessment data include information about previous attempts to quit smoking.
A physician orders a beta2 adrenergic-agonist agent (bronchodilator) that is short-acting and administered only by inhaler. The nurse knows this would probably be
Albuterol Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists include albuterol, levalbuterol, and pirbuterol. They are the medications of choice for relief of acute symptoms and prevention of exercise-induced asthma. They are used to relax smooth muscle.
A client has intermittent asthma attacks. Which of the following therapies does the nurse teach the client to use at home when experiencing an asthma attack?
Inhaled albuterol (Ventolin) For intermittent asthma, the preferred treatment is with an inhaled short-acting beta2-agonist. The other treatments are for persistent asthma.
The nurse is caring for a patient with COPD. In COPD, the body attempts to improve oxygen-carrying capacity by increasing the amounts of red blood cells. Which of the following is the term for this process?
Polycythemia Explanation: Polycythemia is an increase in the red blood cell concentration in the blood. In COPD, the body attempts to improve oxygen-carrying capacity by producing increasing amounts of red blood cells.
A child is having an asthma attack and the parent can't remember which inhaler to use for quick relief. The nurse accesses the child's medication information and tells the parent to use which inhalant?
Proventil Explanation: Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists (albuterol [AccuNeb, Proventil, Ventolin], levalbuterol [Xopenex HFA], and pirbuterol [Maxair]) are the medications of choice for relief of acute symptoms and prevention of exercise-induced asthma. Cromolyn sodium (Crolom, NasalCrom) and nedocromil (Alocril, Tilade) are mild to moderate anti-inflammatory agents and are considered alternative medications for treatment. These medications stabilize mast cells. These medications are contraindicated in acute asthma exacerbations. Long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists are not indicated for immediate relief of symptoms. These include theophylline (Slo-Bid, Theo- Dur) and salmeterol (Serevent Diskus).
A nurse notes that the FEV1/FVC ratio is less than 70% and the FEV1 is 65% for a patient with COPD. What stage should the nurse document the patient is in?
Stage II All grades of COPD are associated with an FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 70%. Grade I (mild) is associated with an FEV1 of greater than or equal to 80%. Grade II (moderate) is associated with an FEV1 of 50%-80%. Grade III is associated with an FEV1 of <30%-50%. Grade IV is associated with an FEV1 of <30%.
A patient comes to the clinic for the third time in 2 months with chronic bronchitis. What clinical symptoms does the nurse anticipate assessing for this patient?
Sputum and a productive cough Explanation: Chronic bronchitis, a disease of the airways, is defined as the presence of cough and sputum production for at least 3 months in each of 2 consecutive years.
A nurse administers albuterol (Proventil), as ordered, to a client with emphysema. Which finding indicates that the drug is producing a therapeutic effect?
Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute Explanation: In a client with emphysema, albuterol is used as a bronchodilator. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute indicates that the drug has achieved its therapeutic effect because fewer respirations are required to achieve oxygenation. Albuterol has no effect on pupil reaction or urine output. It may cause a change in the heart rate, but this is an adverse, not therapeutic, effect.
The nurse is caring for a patient with status asthmaticus in the intensive care unit (ICU). What does the nurse anticipate observing for the blood gas results related to hyperventilation for this patient?
Respiratory alkalosis Explanation: Respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2) is the most common finding in patients with an ongoing asthma exacerbation and is due to hyperventilation.
The nurse is reviewing metered-dose inhaler (MDI) instructions with a patient. Which of the following patient statements indicates the need for further instruction?
"I can't use a spacer or holding chamber with the MDI." The patient can use a spacer or a holding chamber to facilitate the ease of medication administration. The remaining patient statements are accurate and indicate the patient understands how to use the MDI correctly.
Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for asthma?
Allergy Explanation: Allergy is the strongest predisposing factor for asthma.
Which of the following is a second-line pharmacotherapy for smoking abstinence?
Catapres Second-line pharmacotherapy includes the antihypertensive agent clonidine (Catapres). However, its use is limited by its side effects. First-line therapy includes nicotine gum, Zyban, and Wellbutrin.
A client is at risk for emphysema. When reviewing information about the condition with the client, which would the nurse emphasize as the most important environmental risk factor for emphysema?
Cigarette smoking The most important risk factor for COPD is cigarette smoking. Nutrition, exercise, and exposure to dust and pollen are not risk factors for COPD.
A young adult with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital for aggressive treatment. The nurse first:
Collects sputum for culture and sensitivity Aggressive therapy for cystic fibrosis involves airway clearance and antibiotics, such as vancomycin and tobramycin, which will be prescribed based on sputum cultures. Sputum must be obtained prior to antibiotic therapy so results will not be skewed. Administering oral pancreatic enzymes with meals will be a lesser priority.
Although many signs and symptoms lead to a diagnosis of emphysema, one symptom stands as the primary presenting symptom. Which of the following is the primary presenting symptom?
Dyspnea Explanation: Dyspnea may be severe and often interferes with the patient's activities. It is usually progressive, worse with exercise, and persistent. As COPD progresses, dyspnea may occur at rest. Chronic cough and sputum production often precede the development of airflow limitation by many years. However, not all people with cough and sputum production develop COPD. The cough may be intermittent and unproductive in some patients.
Which of the following is a common irritant that acts as a trigger of asthma?
Esophageal reflux Explanation: Esophageal reflux, viral respiratory infections, cigarette smoke, and exercise are all irritants that can trigger asthma. Peanuts, aspirin sensitivity, and molds are antigens
Which of the following exposures accounts for most of the risk factors for COPD?
Exposure to tobacco smoke Exposure to tobacco smoke accounts for an estimated 80% to 90% of COPD cases. Occupational exposure, passive smoking, and ambient air pollution are risk factors, but they do not account for most cases.
Which of the following exposures accounts for most of the risk factors for COPD?
Exposure to tobacco smoke Explanation: Exposure to tobacco smoke accounts for an estimated 80% to 90% of COPD cases. Occupational exposure, passive smoking, and ambient air pollution are risk factors, but they do not account for most cases.
A client is being seen in the emergency department for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The first action of the nurse is to administer which of the following prescribed treatments?
Oxygen through nasal cannula at 2 L/minute Explanation: All options listed are treatments that may be used for a client with an exacerbation of COPD. The first line of treatment is oxygen therapy.
A client is being seen in the emergency department for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The first action of the nurse is to administer which of the following prescribed treatments?
Oxygen through nasal cannula at 2 L/minute Explanation: All options listed are treatments that may be used for a client with an exacerbation of COPD. The first line of treatment is oxygen therapy. All options listed are treatments that may be used for a client with an exacerbation of COPD. The first line of treatment is oxygen therapy.
A patient with asthma is prescribed a short acting beta-adrenergic (SABA) for quick relief. Which of the following is the most likely drug to be prescribed?
Proventil Explanation: Proventil, a SABA, is given to asthmatic patients for quick relief of symptoms. Atrovent is an anticholinergic. Combivent is a combination SABA/anticholinergic, and Flovent is a cor ... (more) Proventil, a SABA, is given to asthmatic patients for quick relief of symptoms. Atrovent is an anticholinergic. Combivent is a combination SABA/anticholinergic, and Flovent is a corticosteroid.
For a client with advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which nursing action best promotes adequate gas exchange?
Using a Venturi mask to deliver oxygen as ordered The client with COPD retains carbon dioxide, which inhibits stimulation of breathing by the medullary center in the brain. As a result, low oxygen levels in the blood stimulate respiration, and administering unspecified, unmonitored amounts of oxygen may depress ventilation. To promote adequate gas exchange, the nurse should use a Venturi mask to deliver a specified, controlled amount of oxygen consistently and accurately. Drinking three glasses of fluid daily wouldn't affect gas exchange or be sufficient to liquefy secretions, which are common in COPD. Clients with COPD and respiratory distress should be placed in high Fowler's position and shouldn't receive sedatives or other drugs that may further depress the respiratory center.
A nurse has just completed teaching with a patient who has been prescribed a meter-dosed inhaler for the first time. Which of the following statements would the nurse use to initiate further teaching and follow-up care?
"I do not need to rinse my mouth with this type of inhaler." Explanation: Mouth-washing and spitting are effective in reducing the amount of drug swallowed and absorbed systemically. Actuation during a slow (30 L/min or 3 to 5 seconds) and deep inhalation ... Mouth-washing and spitting are effective in reducing the amount of drug swallowed and absorbed systemically. Actuation during a slow (30 L/min or 3 to 5 seconds) and deep inhalation should be followed by 10 seconds of holding the breath. The patient should actuate only once. Simple tubes do not obviate the spacer/VHC per inhalation.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and cor pulmonale is being prepared for discharge. The nurse should provide which instruction?
"Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day." Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to weigh himself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day. COPD causes pulmonary hypertension, leading to right-sided heart failure or cor pulm ... (more) The nurse should instruct the client to weigh himself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day. COPD causes pulmonary hypertension, leading to right-sided heart failure or cor pulmonale. The resultant venous congestion causes dependent edema. A weight gain may further stress the respiratory system and worsen the client's condition. The nurse should also instruct the client to eat a low-sodium diet to avoid fluid retention and engage in moderate exercise to avoid muscle atrophy. The client shouldn't smoke at all.
A patient with end-stage COPD and heart failure asks the nurse about lung reduction surgery. What is the best response by the nurse?
"You and your physician should discuss the options that are available for treatment." Treatment options for patients with advanced or end-stage COPD (grade IV) with a primary emphysematous component are limited, although lung volume reduction surgery is a palliative surgical option that is approved by Medicare in selected patients. This includes patients with homogenous disease or disease that is focused in one area and not widespread throughout the lungs. Lung volume reduction surgery involves the removal of a portion of the diseased lung parenchyma. This reduces hyperinflation and allows the functional tissue to expand, resulting in improved elastic recoil of the lung and improved chest wall and diaphragmatic mechanics. This type of surgery does not cure the disease nor improve life expectancy; however, it may decrease dyspnea, improve lung function and exercise tolerance, and improve the patient's overall quality of life.
The goal for oxygen therapy in COPD is to support tissue oxygenation, decrease the work of the cardiopulmonary system, and maintain the resting partial arterial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) of at least ______ mm Hg and an arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) of at least ___%.
60 mm Hg; 90% Explanation: The goal is a PaO2 of at least 60 mm Hg and an SaO2 of 90%.
The nurse is caring for a patient with COPD. The patient is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. The nurse understands that the goal of oxygen therapy is to maintain the patient's SaO2 level at or above what percent?
90% Explanation: The goal of supplemental oxygen therapy is to increase the baseline resting partial arterial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) to at least 60 mm Hg at sea level and arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) to at least 90%.
Emphysema is described by which of the following statements?
A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli Emphysema is a category of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In emphysema, impaired oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange results from destruction of the walls of over-distended alveoli. Emphysema is a pathologic term that describes an abnormal distention of the airspaces beyond the terminal bronchioles and destruction of the walls of the alveoli. Also, a chronic inflammatory response may induce disruption of the parenchymal tissues. Asthma has a clinical outcome of airflow obstruction. Bronchitis includes the presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of 2 to 3 months in each of 2 consecutive years. Bronchiectasis is a condition of chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi.
Which of the following is accurate regarding status asthmaticus?
A severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy Explanation: Status epilepticus is a severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy. It is a medical emergency. Patients report rapid progressive chest tightness, wheezing, dry cough, and shortness of breath. It may occur with little or no warning.
Which of the following is accurate regarding status asthmaticus?
A severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy Status epilepticus is a severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy. It is a medical emergency. Patients report rapid progressive chest tightness, wheezing, dry cough, and shortness of breath. It may occur with little or no warning.
A physician orders triamcinolone (Azmacort) and salmeterol (Serevent) for a client with a history of asthma. What action should the nurse take when administering these drugs?
Administer the salmeterol and then administer the triamcinolone. Explanation: A client with asthma typically takes bronchodilators and uses corticosteroid inhalers to prevent acute episodes. Triamcinolone is a corticosteroid; Salmeterol is an adrenergic stimulant (bronchodilator). If the client is ordered a bronchodilator and another inhaled medication, the bronchodilator should be administered first to dilate the airways and to enhance the effectiveness of the second medication. The client may not choose the order in which these drugs are administered because they must be administered in a particular order. Monitoring the client's theophylline level isn't necessary before administering these drugs because neither drug contains theophylline.
A patient is being treated in the ED for respiratory distress, coupled with pneumonia. The patient has no past medical history. However, the patient works in a coal mine and smokes 10 cigarettes a day. The nurse anticipates which of the following orders based on immediate needs for the patient?
Administration of antibiotics Explanation: Antibiotics are administered to treat respiratory tract infections. Chronic bronchitis is inflammation of the bronchi caused by irritants or infection. Hence, smoking cessation and avoiding pollutants are necessary to slow the accelerated decline of the lung tissue. However, the immediate priority in this case is to cure the infection, pneumonia. Corticosteroids and bronchodilators are administered to asthmatic patients when they show symptoms of wheezing. An ECG is used to evaluate atrial arrhythmias
A client with asthma is being treated with albuterol (Proventil). Which of the findings from the client's history would indicate to the nurse the need to administer this drug with caution?
Angina Explanation: Patients, especially older adults, with pre-existing cardiovascular disease may have adverse cardiovascular reactions with inhaled therapy. Albuterol does not increase the secretions of the GI tract or cause gastric irritation. It will not worsen a peptic ulcer.
Which of the following is true about both lung transplant and bullectomy?
Both are aimed at improving the overall quality of life of a patient with COPD. Explanation: The treatments for COPD are aimed more at treating the symptoms and preventing complications, thereby improving the overall quality of life of a patient with COPD. In fact, there is no cure for COPD. Lung transplant is aimed at treating end-stage emphysema and bullectomy is used to treat patients with bullous emphysema.
A client is diagnosed with a chronic respiratory disorder. After assessing the client's knowledge of the disorder, the nurse prepares a teaching plan. This teaching plan is most likely to include which nursing diagnosis?
Anxiety In a client with a respiratory disorder, anxiety worsens such problems as dyspnea and bronchospasm. Therefore, Anxietyis a likely nursing diagnosis. This client may have inadequate nutrition, making Imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements an unlikely nursing diagnosis. Impaired swallowing may occur in a client with an acute respiratory disorder, such as upper airway obstruction, but not in one with a chronic respiratory disorder. Unilateral neglect may be an appropriate nursing diagnosis when neurologic illness or trauma causes a lack of awareness of a body part; however, this diagnosis doesn't occur in a chronic respiratory disorder.
A client is diagnosed with a chronic respiratory disorder. After assessing the client's knowledge of the disorder, the nurse prepares a teaching plan. This teaching plan is most likely to include which nursing diagnosis?
Anxiety Explanation: In a client with a respiratory disorder, anxiety worsens such problems as dyspnea and bronchospasm. Therefore, Anxiety is a likely nursing diagnosis. This client may have inadequate nutrition, making Imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements an unlikely nursing diagnosis. Impaired swallowing may occur in a client with an acute respiratory disorder, such as upper airway obstruction, but not in one with a chronic respiratory disorder. Unilateral neglect may be an appropriate nursing diagnosis when neurologic illness or trauma causes a lack of awareness of a body part; however, this diagnosis doesn't occur in a chronic respiratory disorder.
The nurse should be alert for a complication of bronchiectasis that results from a combination of retained secretions and obstruction that leads to the collapse of alveoli. This complication is known as
Atelectasis Retention of secretions and subsequent obstruction ultimately cause the aveoli distal to the obstruction to collapse (atelectasis).
Which of the following occupy space in the thorax, but do not contribute to ventilation?
Bullae Bullae are enlarged airspaces that do not contribute to ventilation but occupy space in the thorax. Bullae may compress areas of healthier lung and impair gas exchange. Alveoli are the functional units of the lungs. Lung parenchyma is lung tissue. Mast cells, when activated, release several chemicals called mediators that include histamine, bradykinin, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes.
A young adult with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital for aggressive treatment. The nurse first:
Collects sputum for culture and sensitivity Explanation: Aggressive therapy for cystic fibrosis involves airway clearance and antibiotics, such as vancomycin and tobramycin, which will be prescribed based on sputum cultures. Sputum must be obtained prior to antibiotic therapy so results will not be skewed. Administering oral pancreatic enzymes with meals will be a lesser priority.
A client has asthma. Which of the following medications is a commonly prescribed mast cell stabilizer used for asthma?
Cromolyn sodium Explanation: Cromolyn sodium and nedocromil are mild to moderate anti-inflammatory agents and are considered alternative medications for treatment. These medications stabilize mast cells. Albuterol is a long-acting beta2-antagonist. Budesonide is an inhaled corticosteroid. Theophylline is a mild to moderate bronchodilator.
Which of the following exposures accounts for the majority of cases with regard to risk factors for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
Exposure to tobacco smoke Explanation: Exposure to tobacco smoke accounts for an estimated 80% to 90% of COPD cases. Occupational exposure, passive smoking, and ambient air pollution are risk factors but do not account for the majority.
A nurse evaluates the results of a spirometry test to help confirm a diagnosis of obstructive lung disease. Which one of the following results indicates an initial early stage of COPD? (FEV1 refers to forced expired volume in 1 second.)
FEV1 > 80% Explanation: The FEV1 decreases as the severity of obstruction increases. Therefore, an FEV1 of more than 80% indicates an initial stage, and an FEV1 of 30% indicates a very severe stage.
A nurse consulting with a nutrition specialist knows it's important to consider a special diet for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which diet is appropriate for this client?
High-protein Breathing is more difficult for clients with COPD, and increased metabolic demand puts them at risk for nutritional deficiencies. These clients must have a high intake of protein for increased calorie consumption. Full liquids, 1,800-calorie ADA, and low-fat diets aren't appropriate for a client with COPD.
A nurse consulting with a nutrition specialist knows it's important to consider a special diet for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which diet is appropriate for this client?
High-protein Explanation: Breathing is more difficult for clients with COPD, and increased metabolic demand puts them at risk for nutritional deficiencies. These clients must have a high intake of protein for increased calorie consumption. Full liquids, 1,800-calorie ADA, and low-fat diets aren't appropriate for a client with COPD.
Asthma is cause by which type of response?
IgE-mediated Explanation: Atopy, the genetic predisposition for the development of an IgE-mediated response to allergens, is the most common identifiable predisposing factor for asthma. Chronic exposure to airway allergens may sensitize IgE antibodies and the cells of the airway.
A patient with bronchiectasis is admitted to the nursing unit. The primary focus of nursing care for this patient includes which of the following?
Implementing measures to clear pulmonary secretions Nursing management focuses on alleviating symptoms and helping patients clear pulmonary secretions. Although teaching the family how to perform postural drainage and instructing the patient on the signs of respiratory infection are important, they are not the nurse's primary focus. The presence of a large amount of mucus may decrease the patient's appetite and result in an inadequate dietary intake; therefore, the patient's nutritional status is assessed and strategies are implemented to ensure an adequate diet.
A patient with bronchiectasis is admitted to the nursing unit. The primary focus of nursing care for this patient includes which of the following?
Implementing measures to clear pulmonary secretions Explanation: Nursing management focuses on alleviating symptoms and helping patients clear pulmonary secretions. Although teaching the family how to perform postural drainage and instructing the patient on the signs of respiratory infection are important, they are not the nurse's primary focus. The presence of a large amount of mucus may decrease the patient's appetite and result in an inadequate dietary intake; therefore, the patient's nutritional status is assessed and strategies are implemented to ensure an adequate diet.
A nurse is assisting a client with mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) to set a goal related to the condition. Which of the following is an appropriate goal for this client?
Increase walking distance around a city block without shortness of breath. If the client has mild COPD, goals are to increase exercise and prevent further loss of pulmonary function. The client who increases his walking distance without shortness of breath meets these criteria. If the client has severe COPD, goals are then to preserve current pulmonary function and relieve symptoms as much as possible. Examples of these goals are the other options, in which the activity level is at current and symptoms are relieved to tolerable or close to tolerable.
A nurse is teaching a client with emphysema how to perform pursed-lip breathing. The client asks the nurse to explain the purpose of this breathing technique. Which explanation should the nurse provide?
It helps prevent early airway collapse. Pursed-lip breathing helps prevent early airway collapse. Learning this technique helps the client control respiration during periods of excitement, anxiety, exercise, and respiratory distress. To increase inspiratory muscle strength and endurance, the client may need to learn inspiratory resistive breathing. To decrease accessory muscle use and thus reduce the work of breathing, the client may need to learn diaphragmatic (abdominal) breathing. In pursed-lip breathing, the client mimics a normal inspiratory-expiratory (I:E) ratio of 1:2. (A client with emphysema may have an I:E ratio as high as 1:4.)
A nurse is teaching a client with emphysema how to perform pursed-lip breathing. The client asks the nurse to explain the purpose of this breathing technique. Which explanation should the nurse provide?
It helps prevent early airway collapse. Explanation: Pursed-lip breathing helps prevent early airway collapse. Learning this technique helps the client control respiration during periods of excitement, anxiety, exercise, and respiratory distress. To increase inspiratory muscle strength and endurance, the client may need to learn inspiratory resistive breathing. To decrease accessory muscle use and thus reduce the work of breathing, the client may need to learn diaphragmatic (abdominal) breathing. In pursed-lip breathing, the client mimics a normal inspiratory-expiratory (I:E) ratio of 1:2. (A client with emphysema may have an I:E ratio as high as 1:4.)
A client is being seen in the emergency department for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The first action of the nurse is to administer which of the following prescribed treatments?
Oxygen through nasal cannula at 2 L/minute All options listed are treatments that may be used for a client with an exacerbation of COPD. The first line of treatment is oxygen therapy.
The nurse is assigned the care of a 30-year-old female patient diagnosed with cystic fibrosis (CF). Which of the following nursing interventions will be included in the patient's plan of care?
Performing chest physiotherapy as ordered Nursing care includes helping patients manage pulmonary symptoms and prevent complications. Specific measures include strategies that promote removal of pulmonary secretions, chest physiotherapy, and breathing exercises. In addition, the nurse emphasizes the importance of an adequate fluid and dietary intake to promote removal of secretions and to ensure an adequate nutritional status. The patient with CF also experiences increased salt content in sweat gland secretions; thus, it is important to ensure the patient consumes a diet that is adequate in sodium. As the disease progresses, the patient will develop increasing hypoxemia. In this situation, preferences for end-of-life care should be discussed, documented, and honored; however, there is no indication that the patient terminally ill.
A patient with asthma is prescribed a short acting beta-adrenergic (SABA) for quick relief. Which of the following is the most likely drug to be prescribed?
Proventil Proventil, a SABA, is given to asthmatic patients for quick relief of symptoms. Atrovent is an anticholinergic. Combivent is a combination SABA/anticholinergic, and Flovent is a corticosteroid.
A child is having an asthma attack and the parent can't remember which inhaler to use for quick relief. The nurse accesses the child's medication information and tells the parent to use which inhalant?
Proventil Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists (albuterol [AccuNeb, Proventil, Ventolin], levalbuterol [Xopenex HFA], and pirbuterol [Maxair]) are the medications of choice for relief of acute symptoms and prevention of exercise-induced asthma. Cromolyn sodium (Crolom, NasalCrom) and nedocromil (Alocril, Tilade) are mild to moderate anti-inflammatory agents and are considered alternative medications for treatment. These medications stabilize mast cells. These medications are contraindicated in acute asthma exacerbations. Long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists are not indicated for immediate relief of symptoms. These include theophylline (Slo-Bid, Theo- Dur) and salmeterol (Serevent Diskus).
A patient with asthma is prescribed a short acting beta-adrenergic (SABA) for quick relief. Which of the following is the most likely drug to be prescribed?
Proventil Explanation: Proventil, a SABA, is given to asthmatic patients for quick relief of symptoms. Atrovent is an anticholinergic. Combivent is a combination SABA/anticholinergic, and Flovent is a corticosteroid.
The nurse is assigned to care for a patient with COPD with hypoxemia and hypercapnia. When planning care for this patient, what does the nurse understand is the main goal of treatment?
Providing sufficient oxygen to improve oxygenation Explanation: The main objective in treating patients with hypoxemia and hypercapnia is to give sufficient oxygen to improve oxygenation.
Which of the following diagnostic test is the most accurate in assessing acute airway obstruction?
Pulmonary function studies Spirometry is used to evaluate airflow obstruction, which is determined by the ratio of FEV1 to forced vital capacity (FVC). Pulmonary function studies are used to help confirm the diagnosis of COPD, determine disease severity, and monitor disease progression. ABGs, and pulse oximetry are not the most accurate diagnostics for an airway obstruction.
In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), decreased carbon dioxide elimination results in increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood, leading to which of the following acid-base imbalances?
Respiratory acidosis Explanation: Increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood leads to respiratory acidosis and chronic respiratory failure. In acute illness, worsening hypercapnia can lead to acute respiratory failure. The other acid-base imbalances would not correlate with COPD.
A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with asthma. Which teaching point has the highest priority?
Take ordered medications as scheduled. Explanation: Although avoiding contact with fur-bearing animals, changing filters on heating and air conditioning units frequently, and avoiding goose down pillows are all appropriate measures for clients with asthma, taking ordered medications on time is the most important measure in preventing asthma attacks.
In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV) less than 30%?
Stage III Explanation: Stage III patients demonstrate an FEV less than 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure. Stage II patients demonstrate an FEV of 30% to 80%. Stage I is mild COPD with an FEV less than 70%. Stage 0 is characterized by normal spirometry.
The nurse is instructing the patient with asthma in the use of a newly prescribed leukotriene receptor antagonist. What should the nurse be sure to include in the education?
The patient should take the medication an hour before meals or 2 hours after a meal. The nurse should instruct the patient to take the leukotriene receptor antagonist at least 1 hour before meals or 2 hours after meals.
A patient with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. When should the nurse administer the pancreatic enzymes that the patient has been prescribed?
With meals Explanation: Nearly 90% of patients with cystic fibrosis have pancreatic exocrine insufficiency and require oral pancreatic enzyme supplementation with meals.
At 11 p.m., a client is admitted to the emergency department. He has a respiratory rate of 44 breaths/minute. He's anxious, and wheezes are audible. The client is immediately given oxygen by face mask and methylprednisolone (Depo-medrol) I.V. At 11:30 p.m., the client's arterial blood oxygen saturation is 86%, and he's still wheezing. The nurse should plan to administer:
albuterol (Proventil). The client is hypoxemic because of bronchoconstriction as evidenced by wheezes and a subnormal arterial oxygen saturation level. The client's greatest need is bronchodilation, which can be accomplished by administering bronchodilators. Albuterol is a beta2 adrenergic agonist, which causes dilation of the bronchioles. It's given by nebulization or metered-dose inhalation and may be given as often as every 30 to 60 minutes until relief is accomplished. Alprazolam is an anxiolytic and central nervous system depressant, which could suppress the client's breathing. Propranolol is contraindicated in a client who's wheezing because it's a beta2 adrenergic antagonist. Morphine is a respiratory center depressant and is contraindicated in this situation.
A nurse is assisting with a subclavian vein central line insertion when the client's oxygen saturation drops rapidly. He complains of shortness of breath and becomes tachypneic. The nurse suspects the client has developed apneumothorax. Further assessment findings supporting the presence of a pneumothorax include:
diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side. In the case of a pneumothorax, auscultating for breath sounds will reveal absent or diminished breath sounds on the affected side. Paradoxical chest wall movements occur in flail chest conditions. Tracheal deviation occurs in a tension pneumothorax. Muffled or distant heart sounds occur in cardiac tamponade.
The classification of Stage I of COPD is defined as
mild COPD. Explanation: Stage I is mild COPD. Stage 0 is at risk for COPD. Stage III is severe COPD. Stage IV is very severe COPD.
A client is being admitted to an acute healthcare facility with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client had been taking an antibiotic at home with poor relief of symptoms and has recently decided to stop smoking. The nurse is reviewing at-home medications with the client. The nurse is placing this information on the Medication Reconciliation Record. Which of the following is incomplete information?
salmeterol/fluticasone (Seretide) MDI daily at 0800 When providing information about medications, the nurse needs to include right drug, right dose, right route, right frequency, and right time. Salmeterol/fluticasone does not include how many puffs the client is to take.
The classification of Stage III of COPD is defined as
severe COPD. Stage III is severe COPD. Stage 0 is at risk for COPD. Stage I is mild COPD. Stage II is moderate COPD. Stage IV is very severe COPD.
A nurse is caring for a client experiencing an acute asthma attack. The client stops wheezing and breath sounds aren't audible. This change occurred because:
the airways are so swollen that no air can get through. Explanation: During an acute asthma attack, wheezing may stop and breath sounds become inaudible because the airways are so swollen that air can't get through. If the attack is over and swelling has decreased, there would be no more wheezing and less emergent concern. Crackles don't replace wheezes during an acute asthma attack.
A nurse is caring for a client admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. The nurse knows the client's condition is worsening when he:
uses the sternocleidomastoid muscles. Explanation: Use of accessory muscles indicates worsening breathing conditions. Assuming the tripod position, a 93% pulse oximetry reading, and a request for the nurse to raise the head of the bed don't indicate that the client's condition is worsening.
The classification of Stage IV of COPD is defined as
very severe COPD. Stage IV is very severe COPD. Stage 0 is at risk for COPD. Stage I is mild COPD. Stage II is moderate COPD. Stage III is severe COPD.
The classification of Stage IV of COPD is defined as
very severe COPD. Explanation: Stage IV is very severe COPD. Stage 0 is at risk for COPD. Stage I is mild COPD. Stage II is moderate COPD. Stage III is severe COPD.
Following are statements regarding medications taken by a patient diagnosed with COPD. Choose which statements correctly match the drug name to the drug category. Select all that apply.
• Albuterol is a bronchodilator. • Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic. • Prednisone is a corticosteroid. Theophylline, albuterol, and atropine are bronchodilators. Dexamethasone (Decadron) and prednisone are corticosteroids. Amoxicillin, ciprofloxacin, and cotrimoxazole (Bactrim) are antibiotics. These are all drugs that could be prescribed to a patient with COPD.
After reviewing the pharmacological treatment for pulmonary diseases, the nursing student knows that bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm in three ways. Choose the correct three of the following options.
• Reduce airway obstruction • Alter smooth muscle tone • Increase oxygen distribution Explanation: Bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm by altering smooth muscle tone and reduce airway obstruction by allowing increased oxygen distribution throughout the lungs and improving alveolar ventilation.
Upon assessment, the nurse suspects that a patient with COPD may have bronchospasm. What manifestations validate the nurse's concern? (Select all that apply.)
• Wheezes • Compromised gas exchange • Decreased airflow Bronchospasm, which occurs in many pulmonary diseases, reduces the caliber of the small bronchi and may cause dyspnea, static secretions, and infection. Bronchospasm can sometimes be detected on auscultation with a stethoscope when wheezing or diminished breath sounds are heard. Increased mucus production, along with decreased mucociliary action, contributes to further reduction in the caliber of the bronchi and results in decreased airflow and decreased gas exchange. This is further aggravated by the loss of lung elasticity that occurs with COPD.
Upon assessment, the nurse suspects that a patient with COPD may have bronchospasm. What manifestations validate the nurse's concern? (Select all that apply.)
• Wheezes • Decreased airflow • Compromised gas exchange Explanation: Bronchospasm, which occurs in many pulmonary diseases, reduces the caliber of the small bronchi and may cause dyspnea, static secretions, and infection. Bronchospasm can sometimes be detected on auscultation with a stethoscope when wheezing or diminished breath sounds are heard. Increased mucus production, along with decreased mucociliary action, contributes to further reduction in the caliber of the bronchi and results in decreased airflow and decreased gas exchange. This is further aggravated by the loss of lung elasticity that occurs with COPD.