CH 44: LIVER DYSFUNCTION

Which assessment finding indicates that lactulose is effective in decreasing the ammonia level in the client with hepatic encephalopathy? A. Passage of two or three soft stools daily B. Evidence of watery diarrhea C. Daily deterioration in the client's handwriting D. Appearance of frothy, foul-smelling stools

Passage of 2 or 3 soft stools daily Rationale: Lactulose reduces serum ammonia levels by inducing catharsis, subsequently decreasing colonic pH and inhibiting fecal flora from producing ammonia from urea. Ammonia is removed with the stool. Two or three soft stools daily indicate effectiveness of the drug. Watery diarrhea indicates overdose. Daily deterioration in the client's handwriting indicates an increase in the ammonia level and worsening of hepatic encephalopathy. Frothy, foul-smelling stools indicate steatorrhea, caused by impaired fat digestion.

Which of the following nursing actions included in the plan of care for a patient with cirrhosis can the RN delegate to nursing assistive personnel? a. Assessing the patient for jaundice b. Providing oral hygiene before meals c. Palpating the abdomen for distention d. Assisting the patient in choosing the diet

Providing oral hygiene before meals Rationale: Providing oral hygiene is included in the education and scope of practice of nursing assistants. Assessments and assisting patients to choose therapeutic diets are nursing actions that require higher-level nursing education and scope of practice and would be delegated to LPNs/LVNs or RNs.

A male client with cholelithiasis has a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct. When assessing this client, the nurse expects to note: A. yellow sclera. B. light amber urine. C. circumoral pallor. D. black, tarry stools.

yellow sclera Rationale: Yellow sclerae may be the first sign of jaundice, which occurs when the common bile duct is obstructed. Urine normally is light amber. Circumoral pallor and black, tarry stools don't occur in common bile duct obstruction; they are signs of hypoxia and GI bleeding, respectively.

A patient with chronic alcohol abuse is admitted with liver failure. You closely monitor the patient's blood pressure because of which change that is associated with the liver failure? 1. Hypoalbuminemia 2. Increased capillary permeability 3. Abnormal peripheral vasodilation 4. Excess rennin release from the kidneys

Hypoalbuminemia Rationale: Blood pressure decreases as the body is unable to maintain normal oncotic pressure with liver failure, so patients with liver failure require close blood pressure monitoring. Increased capillary permeability, abnormal peripheral vasodilation, and excess rennin released from the kidney's aren't direct ramifications of liver failure.

When combination therapy of α-interferon and ribavirin (Rebetol) is being used to treat chronic hepatitis C, the nurse will plan to monitor for a. leukopenia. b. hypokalemia. c. polycythemia. d. hypoglycemia.

Leukopenia Rationale: Therapy with ribavirin and α-interferon may cause leukopenia. The other problems are not associated with this drug therapy.

A homeless patient with severe anorexia and fatigue is admitted to the hospital with viral hepatitis. Which patient goal has the highest priority when the nurse is developing the plan of care? a. Increase activity level. b. Maintain adequate nutrition. c. Establish a stable home environment. d. Identify the source of exposure to hepatitis.

Maintain adequate nutrition. Rationale: The highest priority outcome is to maintain nutrition because adequate nutrition is needed for hepatocyte regeneration. Finding a home for the patient and identifying the source of the infection would be appropriate activities, but they do not have as high a priority as ensuring adequate nutrition. Although the patient's activity level will be gradually increased, rest is indicated during the acute phase of hepatitis.

In planning care for a patient with acute severe pancreatitis, the nurse assigns the highest priority to the patient outcome of a. expressing satisfaction with pain control. b. developing no ongoing pancreatic problems. c. maintenance of normal respiratory function. d. having adequate fluid and electrolyte balance.

Maintenance of normal respiratory function. Rationale: Respiratory failure can occur as a complication of acute pancreatitis, and maintenance of adequate respiratory function is the priority goal. The other outcomes also would be appropriate for the patient.

When a patient is diagnosed with acute hepatitis B, the nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. Ways to increase exercise and activity level. b. Self-administration of α-interferon (Intron A). c.Side effects of nucleoside and nucleotide analogs. d. Measures that will be helpful in improving appetite.

Measures that will be helpful in improving appetite. Rationale: Maintaining adequate nutritional intake is important for regeneration of hepatocytes. Interferon and antivirals may be used for chronic hepatitis B, but they are not prescribed for acute hepatitis B infection. Rest is recommended.

In reviewing the medical record shown in the accompanying figure for a patient admitted with acute pancreatitis, the nurse sees that the patient has a positive Cullen's sign. Indicate the area where the nurse will assess for this change.

near Umbilical

Ralph has a history of alcohol abuse and has acute pancreatitis. Which lab value is most likely to be elevated? 1. Calcium 2. Glucose 3. Magnesium 4. Potassium

Glucose Rationale: Glucose level increases and diabetes mellitus may result d/t the pancreatic damage to the islets of langerhans.

A patient is admitted with an abrupt onset of jaundice, nausea, and abnormal liver function studies. Serologic testing is negative for viral causes of hepatitis. Which question by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Is there any history of IV drug use?" b. "Are you taking corticosteroids for any reason?" c. "Do you use any over-the-counter (OTC) drugs?" d. "Have you recently traveled to a foreign country?"

"Do you use any over-the-counter (OTC) drugs?" Rationale: The patient's symptoms, lack of antibodies for hepatitis, and the abrupt onset of symptoms suggest toxic hepatitis, which can be caused by commonly used OTC drugs such as acetaminophen (Tylenol). Travel to a foreign country and a history of IV drug use are risk factors for viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use does not cause the symptoms listed.

After providing discharge instructions to a patient following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the nurse recognizes that teaching has been effective when the patient states, a. "I can remove the bandages on my incisions tomorrow and take a shower." b. "I can expect some yellow-green drainage from the incision for a few days." c. "I should plan to limit my activities and not return to work for 4 to 6 weeks." d. "I will always need to maintain a low-fat diet since I no longer have a gallbladder."

"I can remove the bandages on my incisions tomorrow and take a shower." Rationale: After a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the patient will have Band-Aids in place over the incisions. Patients are discharged the same (or next) day and have few restrictions on activities of daily living. Drainage from the incisions would be abnormal, and the patient should be instructed to call the health care provider if this occurs. A low-fat diet may be recommended for a few weeks after surgery but will not be a life-long requirement.

Nurse Farrah is providing care for Kristoff who has jaundice. Which statement indicates that the nurse understands the rationale for instituting skin care measures for the client? A. "Jaundice is associated with pressure ulcer formation." B. "Jaundice impairs urea production, which produces pruritus." C. "Jaundice produces pruritus due to impaired bile acid excretion." D. "Jaundice leads to decreased tissue perfusion and subsequent breakdown."

"Jaundice produces pruritus due to impaired bile acid excretion." Rationale: Jaundice is a symptom characterized by increased bilirubin concentration in the blood. Bile acid excretion is impaired, increasing the bile acids in the skin and causing pruritus. Jaundice is not associated with pressure ulcer formation. However, edema and hypoalbuminemia are. Jaundice itself does not impair urea production or lead to decreased tissue perfusion.

A female client who has just been diagnosed with hepatitis A asks, "How could I have gotten this disease?" What is the nurse's best response? A. "You may have eaten contaminated restaurant food." B. "You could have gotten it by using I.V. drugs." C. "You must have received an infected blood transfusion." D. "You probably got it by engaging in unprotected sex."

"You may have eaten contaminated restaurant food." Hepatitis A virus typically is transmitted by the oral-fecal route — commonly by consuming food contaminated by infected food handlers. The virus isn't transmitted by the I.V. route, blood transfusions, or unprotected sex. Hepatitis B can be transmitted by I.V. drug use or blood transfusion. Hepatitis C can be transmitted by unprotected sex.

Develop a teaching care plan for Angie who is about to undergo a liver biopsy. Which of the following points do you include? 1. "You'll need to lie on your stomach during the test." 2. "You'll need to lie on your right side after the test." 3. "During the biopsy you'll be asked to exhale deeply and hold it." 4. "The biopsy is performed under general anesthesia."

"You'll need to lie on your right side after the test." Rationale: After a liver biopsy, the patient is placed on the right side to compress the liver and to reduce the risk of bleeding or bile leakage.

During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires the most rapid assessment? a. 50-year-old with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pain b. 48-year-old who has compensated cirrhosis and is complaining of anorexia c. 45-year-old with cirrhosis and severe ascites who has an oral temperature of 102° F (38.8° C) d. 56-year-old who is recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy and has severe shoulder pain

45-year-old with cirrhosis and severe ascites who has an oral temperature of 102° F (38.8° C) Rationale: This patient's history and fever suggest spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, which would require rapid assessment and interventions such as antibiotic therapy. The clinical manifestations for the other patients are consistent with their diagnoses and do not indicate complications are occurring.

You're caring for Betty with liver cirrhosis. Which of the following assessment findings leads you to suspect hepatic encephalopathy in her? 1. Asterixis 2. Chvostek's sign 3. Trousseau's sign 4. Hepatojugular reflex

Asterix Rationale: Asterixis is an early neurologic sign of hepatic encephalopathy elicited by asking the patient to hold her arms stretched out. Asterixis is present if the hands rapidly extend and flex.

A patient with acute pancreatitis has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction and is NPO. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that these therapies have been effective? a. Bowel sounds are present. b. Grey Turner sign resolves. c. Electrolyte levels are normal. d. Abdominal pain is decreased.

Abdominal pain is decreased. Rationale: NG suction and NPO status will decrease the release of pancreatic enzymes into the pancreas and decrease pain. Although bowel sounds may be hypotonic with acute pancreatitis, the presence of bowel sounds does not indicate that treatment with NG suction and NPO status have been effective. Electrolyte levels will be abnormal with NG suction and must be replaced by appropriate IV infusion. Although Grey Turner sign will eventually resolve, it would not be appropriate to wait for this occur to determine whether treatment was effective.

After an unimmunized individual is exposed to hepatitis B through a needle-stick injury, which actions will the nurse plan to take (select all that apply)? a. Administer hepatitis B vaccine. b. Test for antibodies to hepatitis B. c. Teach about α-interferon therapy. d. Give hepatitis B immune globulin. e. Educate about oral antiviral therapy

Administer hepatitis B vaccine. Test for antibodies to hepatitis B. Give hepatitis B immune globulin. Rationale: The recommendations for hepatitis B exposure include both vaccination and immune globulin administration. In addition, baseline testing for hepatitis B antibodies will be needed. Interferon and oral antivirals are not used for hepatitis B prophylaxis.

Which nursing action is a priority when the nurse is caring for a patient with pancreatic cancer? a. Offer high-calorie, high-protein dietary choices. b. Offer psychologic support for anxiety or depression. c. Educate about the need to avoid scratching pruritic areas. d. Administer prescribed opioids to relieve pain as needed.

Administer prescribed opioids to relieve pain as needed. Rationale: Effective pain management will be necessary in order for the patient to improve nutrition, be receptive to education, or manage anxiety or depression.

A patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) has a serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L). Which action should the nurse take? a. Give both drugs as scheduled. b. Administer the spironolactone. c. Administer the furosemide and withhold the spironolactone. d. Withhold both drugs until talking with the health care provider.

Administer the spironolactone Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and will help to increase the patient's potassium level. The nurse does not need to talk with the doctor before giving the spironolactone, although the health care provider should be notified about the low potassium value. The furosemide will further decrease the patient's potassium level and should be held until the nurse talks with the health care provider.

Which data will the nurse monitor in relation to the 4+ pitting edema assessed in a patient with cirrhosis? a. Hemoglobin b. Temperature c. Activity level d. Albumin level

Albumin Level Rationale: The low oncotic pressure caused by hypoalbuminemia is a major pathophysiologic factor in the development of edema. The other parameters also should be monitored, but they are not directly associated with the patient's current symptoms.

When obtaining a health history from a patient with acute pancreatitis, the nurse asks the patient specifically about a history of: a. alcohol use. b. diabetes mellitus. c. high-protein diet. d. cigarette smoking.

Alcohol Use Rationale: Alcohol use is one of the most common risk factors for pancreatitis in the United States. Cigarette smoking, diabetes, and high-protein diets are not risk factors.

A patient with severe cirrhosis has an episode of bleeding esophageal varices. To detect possible complications of the bleeding episode, it is most important for the nurse to monitor a. bilirubin levels. b. ammonia levels. c. potassium levels. d. prothrombin time.

Ammonia Rationale: The blood in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract will be absorbed as protein and may result in an increase in ammonia level because the liver cannot metabolize protein well. The prothrombin time, bilirubin, and potassium levels also should be monitored, but these will not be affected by the bleeding episode.

Which of these laboratory test results will be most important for the nurse to monitor when evaluating the effects of therapy for a patient who has acute pancreatitis? a. Calcium b. Bilirubin c. Amylase d. Potassium

Amylase Rationale: Amylase is elevated in acute pancreatitis. Although changes in the other values may occur, they would not be as useful in evaluating whether the prescribed therapies have been effective.

Which action should the nurse take to evaluate treatment effectiveness for a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy? a. Request that the patient stand on one foot. b. Ask the patient to extend both arms forward. c. Request that the patient walk with eyes closed. d. Ask the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver.

Ask the patient to extend both arms forward. Rationale: Extending the arms allows the nurse to check for asterixis, a classic sign of hepatic encephalopathy. The other tests also might be done as part of the neurologic assessment but would not be diagnostic for hepatic encephalopathy.

Mr. Hasakusa is in end-stage liver failure. Which interventions should the nurse implement when addressing hepatic encephalopathy? (Select all that apply.) A. Assessing the client's neurologic status every 2 hours B. Monitoring the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit levels C. Evaluating the client's serum ammonia level D. Monitoring the client's handwriting daily E. Preparing to insert an esophageal tamponade tube F. Making sure the client's fingernails are short

Assessing the client's neurologic status every 2 hours Evaluating the client's serum ammonia level Monitoring the client's handwriting daily Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy results from an increased ammonia level due to the liver's inability to covert ammonia to urea, which leads to neurologic dysfunction and possible brain damage. The nurse should monitor the client's neurologic status, serum ammonia level, and handwriting. Monitoring the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit levels and insertion of an esophageal tamponade tube address esophageal bleeding. Keeping fingernails short address jaundice.

Which topic is most important to include in patient teaching for a 41-year-old patient diagnosed with early alcoholic cirrhosis? a. Maintaining good nutrition b. Avoiding alcohol ingestion c. Taking lactulose (Cephulac) d. Using Vitamin B Supplements

Avoiding Alcohol Ingestion Rationale: The disease progression can be stopped or reversed by alcohol abstinence. The other interventions may be used when cirrhosis becomes more severe to decrease symptoms or complications, but the priority for this patient is to stop the progression of the disease.

Which action should the nurse in the emergency department take first for a new patient who is vomiting blood? a. Insert a large-gauge IV catheter. b. Draw blood for coagulation studies. c. Check blood pressure (BP), heart rate, and respirations. d. Place the patient in the supine position.

Check blood pressure (BP), heart rate, and respirations. Rationale: The nurse's first action should be to determine the patient's hemodynamic status by assessing vital signs. Drawing blood for coagulation studies and inserting an IV catheter also are appropriate. However, the vital signs may indicate the need for more urgent actions. Since aspiration is a concern for this patient, the nurse will need to assess the patient's vital signs and neurologic status before placing the patient in the supine position.

When taking the BP of a patient with severe acute pancreatitis, the nurse notices carpal spasm of the patient's hand. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Ask the patient about any arm pain. b. Retake the patient's blood pressure. c. Check the calcium level on the chart. d. Notify the health care provider immediately.

Check the calcium level on the chart. Rationale: The patient with acute pancreatitis is at risk for hypocalcemia, and the assessment data indicate a positive Trousseau's sign. The health care provider should be notified after the nurse checks the patient's calcium level. There is no indication that the patient needs to have the BP rechecked or that there is any arm pain.

After a patient has had a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) placement, which finding indicates that the procedure has been effective? a. Lower indirect bilirubin level b. Increase in serum albumin level c. Decrease in episodes of variceal bleeding d. Improvement in alertness and orientation

Decrease in episodes of variceal bleeding Rationale: TIPS is used to lower pressure in the portal venous system and decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. Indirect bilirubin level and serum albumin levels are not affected by shunting procedures. TIPS will increase the risk for hepatic encephalopathy.

A 52-year-old man was referred to the clinic due to increased abdominal girth. He is diagnosed with ascites by the presence of a fluid thrill and shifting dullness on percussion. After administering diuretic therapy, which nursing action would be most effective in ensuring safe care? A. Measuring serum potassium for hyperkalemia B. Assessing the client for hypervolemia C. Measuring the client's weight weekly D. Documenting precise intake and output

Documenting precise intake and output Rationale: For the client with ascites receiving diuretic therapy, careful intake and output measurement is essential for safe diuretic therapy. Diuretics lead to fluid losses, which if not monitored closely and documented, could place the client at risk for serious fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia, commonly occurs with diuretic therapy. Because urine output increases, a client should be assessed for hypovolemia, not hypervolemia. Weights are also an accurate indicator of fluid balance. However, for this client, weights should be obtained daily, not weekly.

You're caring for Lewis, a 67 y.o. patient with liver cirrhosis who developed ascites and requires paracentesis. Relief of which symptom indicated that the paracentesis was effective? 1. Pruritus 2. Dyspnea 3. Jaundice 4. Peripheral Neuropathy

Dyspnea Rationale: Ascites puts pressure on the diaphragm. Paracentesis is done to remove fluid and reducing pressure on the diaphragm. The goal is to improve the patient's breathing. The others are signs of cirrhosis that aren't relieved by paracentesis.

A client is suspected of having hepatitis. Which diagnostic test result will assist in confirming this diagnosis? A. Elevated hemoglobin level B. Elevated serum bilirubin level C. Elevated blood urea nitrogen level D. Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Elevated serum bilirubin level Rationale: Laboratory indicators of hepatitis include elevated liver enzyme levels, elevated serum bilirubin levels, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rates, and leukopenia. An elevated blood urea nitrogen level may indicate renal dysfunction. A hemoglobin level is unrelated to this diagnosis.

A 53-year-old patient is being treated for bleeding esophageal varices with balloon tamponade. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Instruct the patient to cough every hour. b. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath. c. Verify the position of the balloon every 4 hours. d. Deflate the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea.

Monitor the patient for shortness of breath. Rationale: The most common complication of balloon tamponade is aspiration pneumonia. In addition, if the gastric balloon ruptures, the esophageal balloon may slip upward and occlude the airway. Coughing increases the pressure on the varices and increases the risk for bleeding. Balloon position is verified after insertion and does not require further verification. The esophageal balloon is deflated every 8 to 12 hours to avoid necrosis, but if the gastric balloon is deflated, the esophageal balloon may occlude the airway.

A male client with pancreatitis complains of pain. The nurse expects the physician to prescribe meperidine (Demerol) instead of morphine to relieve pain because: A. Meperidine provides a better, more prolonged analgesic effect. B. Morphine may cause spasms of Oddi's sphincter. C. Meperidine is less addictive than morphine. D. Morphine may cause hepatic dysfunction.

Morphine may cause spasms of Oddi's sphincter. Rationale: For a client with pancreatitis, the physician will probably avoid prescribing morphine because this drug may trigger spasms of the sphincter of Oddi (a sphincter at the end of the pancreatic duct), causing irritation of the pancreas. Meperidine has a somewhat shorter duration of action than morphine. The two drugs are equally addictive. Morphine isn't associated with hepatic dysfunction.

The nurse is reviewing the physician's orders written for a male client admitted to the hospital with acute pancreatitis. Which physician order should the nurse question if noted on the client's chart? A. NPO status B. Nasogastric tube insertion C. Morphine sulfate for pain D. An anticholinergic medication

Morphine sulfate for pain Rationale: Meperidine (Demerol) rather than morphine sulfate is the medication of choice to treat pain because morphine sulfate can cause spasms in the sphincter of Oddi. Options A, B, and D are appropriate interventions for the client with acute pancreatitis.

Which assessment finding in a patient with acute pancreatitis would the nurse need to report most quickly to the health care provider? a. Nausea and vomiting b. Hypotonic bowel sounds c. Abdominal tenderness and guarding d. Muscle twitching and finger numbness

Muscle twitching and finger numbness Rationale: Muscle twitching and finger numbness indicate hypocalcemia, which may lead to tetany unless calcium gluconate is administered. Although the other findings also should be reported to the health care provider, they do not indicate complications that require rapid action.

Brenda, a 36 y.o. patient is on your floor with acute pancreatitis. Treatment for her includes: 1. Continuous peritoneal lavage. 2. Regular diet with increased fat. 3. Nutritional support with TPN. 4. Insertion of a T tube to drain the pancreas.

Nutritional support with TPN. Rationale: With acute pancreatitis, you need to REST the GI tract by TPN as nutritional support.

Which rationale supports explaining the placement of an esophageal tamponade tube in a client who is hemorrhaging? A. Allowing the client to help insert the tube B. Beginning teaching for home care C. Maintaining the client's level of anxiety and alertness D. Obtaining cooperation and reducing fear

Obtaining Cooperation & Reducing Fear Rationale: An esophageal tamponade tube would be inserted in critical situations. Typically, the client is fearful and highly anxious. The nurse therefore explains about the placement to help obtain the client's cooperation and reduce his fear. This type of tube is used only short term and is not indicated for home use. The tube is large and uncomfortable. The client would not be helping to insert the tube. A client's anxiety should be decreased, not maintained, and depending on the degree of hemorrhage, the client may not be alert.

When the nurse is caring for a patient with acute pancreatitis, which assessment finding is of most concern? a. Absent bowel sounds b. Abdominal tenderness c. Left upper quadrant pain d. Palpable abdominal mass

Palpable abdominal mass Rationale: A palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which will require rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common in acute pancreatitis and do not require rapid action to prevent further complications.

A patient with advanced cirrhosis who has ascites is short of breath and has an increased respiratory rate. The nurse should: a. Initiate oxygen therapy at 2 L/min to increase gas exchange. b. Notify the health care provider so that a paracentesis can be performed. c. Ask the patient to cough and breathe deeply to clear respiratory secretions. d. Place the patient in Fowler's position to relieve pressure on the diaphragm.

Place the patient in Fowler's position to relieve pressure on the diaphragm. Rationale: Dyspnea is a frequent problem for the patient with ascites, and a semi-Fowler's or Fowler's position allows for maximal respiratory efficiency. Oxygen administration is not indicated; SpO2 level less than 90% would be an indication for oxygen. The respiratory distress is caused by ascites (not by respiratory secretions); coughing and deep breathing will not alleviate the respiratory distress. A paracentesis may be performed to remove ascitic fluid; however, this procedure is only a temporary measure and is reserved for severe respiratory distress or abdominal pain.

The nurse is caring for a male client with cirrhosis. Which assessment findings indicate that the client has deficient vitamin K absorption caused by this hepatic disease? A. Dyspnea and fatigue B. Ascites and orthopnea C. Purpura and petechiae D. Gynecomastia and testicular atrophy

Purpura and petechiae Ratoinale: A hepatic disorder, such as cirrhosis, may disrupt the liver's normal use of vitamin K to produce prothrombin (a clotting factor). Consequently, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, including purpura and petechiae. Dyspnea and fatigue suggest anemia. Ascites and orthopnea are unrelated to vitamin K absorption. Gynecomastia and testicular atrophy result from decreased estrogen metabolism by the diseased liver.

The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic hepatitis C infection who has these medications prescribed. Which medication requires further discussion with the health care provider prior to administration? a. ribavirin (Rebetol, Copegus) 600 mg PO bid b. pegylated α-interferon (PEG-Intron, Pegasys) SQ daily c. diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg PO every 4 hours PRN itching d. dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) 50 mg PO every 6 hours PRN nausea

pegylated α-interferon (PEG-Intron, Pegasys) SQ daily Rationale: Pegylated α-interferon is administered weekly. The other medications are appropriate for a patient with chronic hepatitis C infection.

Which action will be included in the care for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with asymptomatic nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)? a. Teach symptoms of variceal bleeding. b. Draw blood for hepatitis serology testing. c. Discuss the need to increase caloric intake. d. Review the patient's current medication list.

Review the patient's current medication list. Rationale: Some medications can increase the risk for NAFLD and these should be eliminated. NAFLD is not associated with hepatitis, weight loss is usually indicated, and variceal bleeding would not be a concern in a patient with asymptomatic NAFLD.

A patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with acute hepatitis C (HCV) infection. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing. b. Administer immune globulin and the HCV vaccine. c. Instruct the patient on ribavirin (Rebetol) treatment. d. Teach that the infection will resolve in a few months.

Schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing. Rationale: Genotyping of HCV has an important role in managing treatment and is done before drug therapy is initiated. Since most patients with acute HCV infection convert to the chronic state, the nurse should not teach the patient that the HCV will resolve in a few months. Immune globulin or vaccine is not available for HCV. Ribavirin is used for chronic HCV infection.

Britney, a 20 y.o. student is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory findings do you expect to be abnormal for this patient? 1. Serum creatinine and BUN 2. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 3. Serum amylase and lipase 4. Cardiac enzymes

Serum amylase and lipase Rationale: Pancreatitis involves activation of pancreatic enzymes, such as amylase and lipase. These levels are elevated in a patient with acute pancreatitis.

Leigh Ann is receiving pancrelipase (Viokase) for chronic pancreatitis. Which observation best indicates the treatment is effective? 1. There is no skin breakdown. 2. Her appetite improves. 3. She loses more than 10 lbs. 4. Stools are less fatty and decreased in frequency.

Stools are less fatty and decreased in frequency. Rationale: Pancrelipase provides the exocrine pancreatic enzyme necessary for proper protein, fat, and carb digestion. With increased fat digestion and absorption, stools become less frequent and normal in appearance

A patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which assessment finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective? a. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute. b. Stools test negative for occult blood. c. The patient denies complaints of chest pain. d. Blood pressure is less than 140/90 mm Hg.

Stools test negative for occult blood. Rationale: Since the purpose of β-blocker therapy for patients with esophageal varices is to decrease the risk for bleeding from esophageal varices, the best indicator of the effectiveness for propranolol is the lack of blood in the stools. Although propranolol is used to treat hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, the purpose for use in this patient is to decrease the risk for bleeding from esophageal varices.

Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider about a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago? a. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa b. Crackles at bilateral lung bases c. Temperature 100.8° F (38.2° C) d. No bowel movement for 4 days

Temperature 100.8° F (38.2° C) Rationale: Infection risk is high in the first few months after liver transplant and fever is frequently the only sign of infection. The other patient data indicate the need for further assessment or nursing actions, but do not indicate a need for urgent action.

A patient who was admitted with acute bleeding from esophageal varices asks the nurse the purpose for the ordered ranitidine (Zantac). Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. The medication will reduce the risk for aspiration. b. The medication will decrease nausea and anorexia. c. The medication will inhibit the development of gastric ulcers. d. The medication will prevent irritation to the esophageal varices

The medication will prevent irritation to the esophageal varices Rationale: The therapeutic action of H2 receptor blockers in patients with esophageal varices is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices caused by reflux of acid gastric contents. Although ranitidine does decrease the risk for peptic ulcers, reduce nausea, and help prevent aspiration pneumonia, these are not the primary purpose for H2 receptor blockade in this patient.

A patient who has advanced cirrhosis is receiving lactulose (Cephulac). Which finding by the nurse indicates that the medication is effective? a. The patient is alert and oriented. b. The patient denies nausea or anorexia. c. The patient's bilirubin level decreases. d. The patient has at least one stool daily.

The patient is alert and oriented Rationale: The purpose for lactulose in the patient with cirrhosis is to lower ammonia levels and prevent encephalopathy. Although lactulose may be used to treat constipation, that is not the purpose for this patient. Lactulose will not decrease nausea and vomiting or lower bilirubin levels.

Which information given by a patient when the nurse is taking a health history indicates that screening for hepatitis C should be done? a. The patient eats frequent meals in fast-food restaurants. b. The patient recently traveled to an undeveloped country. c. The patient had a blood transfusion after surgery in 1998. d. The patient reports a one-time use of IV drugs 20 years ago.

The patient reports a one-time use of IV drugs 20 years ago. Rationale: Any patient with a history of IV drug use should be tested for hepatitis C. Blood transfusions given after 1992, when an antibody test for hepatitis C became available, do not pose a risk for hepatitis C. Hepatitis C is not spread by the oral-fecal route and therefore is not caused by contaminated food or by traveling in underdeveloped countries.

Which data obtained by the nurse during the assessment of a patient with cirrhosis will be of most concern? a. The patient's hands flap back and forth when the arms are extended. b. The patient has ascites and a 2-kg weight gain from the previous day. c. The patient's skin has multiple spider-shaped blood vessels on the abdomen. d. The patient complains of right upper-quadrant pain with abdominal palpation.

The patient's hands flap back and forth when the arms are extended. Rationale: The asterixis indicates that the patient has hepatic encephalopathy, and hepatic coma may occur. The spider angiomas and right upper quadrant abdominal pain are not unusual for the patient with cirrhosis and do not require a change in treatment. The ascites and weight gain do indicate the need for treatment but not as urgently as the changes in neurologic status.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute cholecystitis. Which assessment information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. The patient's urine is bright yellow. b. The patient's stools are clay colored. c. The patient complains of chronic heartburn. d. The patient has an increase in pain after eating.

The patient's stools are clay colored. Rationale: The clay-colored stools indicate biliary obstruction, which requires rapid intervention to resolve. The other data are not unusual for a patient with this diagnosis, although the nurse also would report the other assessment information to the health care provider.

When caring for a patient following an incisional cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis, the nurse places the highest priority on assisting the patient to: a. choose low-fat foods from the menu. b. perform leg exercises hourly while awake. c. ambulate the evening of the operative day. d. turn, cough, and deep breathe every 2 hours.

Turn, cough, and deep breathe every 2 hours. Rationale: Postoperative nursing care after a cholecystectomy focuses on prevention of respiratory complications because the surgical incision is high in the abdomen and impairs coughing and deep breathing. The other nursing actions also are important to implement but are not as high a priority as ensuring adequate ventilation.

Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care for a patient with cirrhosis who has ascites and 4+ edema of the feet and legs? a. Restrict dietary protein intake. b. Reposition the patient every 4 hours. c. Use a pressure-relieving mattress. d. Perform passive range of motion qid.

Use a pressure-relieving mattress. Rationale: The pressure-relieving mattress will decrease the risk for skin breakdown for this patient. Adequate dietary protein intake is necessary in patients with ascites to improve oncotic pressure. Repositioning the patient every 4 hours will not be adequate to maintain skin integrity. Passive range of motion will not take pressure off areas like the sacrum that are vulnerable to breakdown.

The nurse will teach a patient with chronic pancreatitis to take the prescribed pancrelipase (Viokase) a. at bedtime. b. in the morning. c. with each meal. d. for abdominal pain.

With each Meal Rationale: Pancreatic enzymes are used to help with digestion of nutrients and should be taken with every meal.

The nurse determines that administration of hepatitis B vaccine to a patient has been effective when a specimen of the patient's blood reveals a. HBsAg. b. anti-HBs. c. anti-HBc IgG. d. anti-HBc IgM.

anti-HBs. Rationale: The presence of surface antibody to HBV (anti-HBs) is a marker of a positive response to the vaccine. The other laboratory values indicate current infection with HBV.

A patient contracts hepatitis from contaminated food. During the acute (icteric) phase of the patient's illness, the nurse would expect serologic testing to reveal a. antibody to hepatitis D (anti-HDV). b. hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg). c. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG). d. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM).

anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM). Rationale: Hepatitis A is transmitted through the oral-fecal route, and antibody to HAV IgM appears during the acute phase of hepatitis A. The patient would not have antigen for hepatitis B or antibody for hepatitis D. Anti-HAV IgG would indicate past infection and lifelong immunity.

The health care provider plans a paracentesis for a patient with ascites caused by liver cancer. To prepare the patient for the procedure, the nurse a. places the patient on NPO status. b. assists the patient to lie flat in bed. c. asks the patient to empty the bladder. d. positions the patient on the right side.

asks the patient to empty the bladder Rationale: The patient should empty the bladder to decrease the risk of bladder perforation during the procedure. The patient would be positioned in Fowler's position and would not be able to lie flat without compromising breathing. Since no sedation is required for paracentesis, the patient does not need to be NPO.

A female client with hepatitis C develops liver failure and GI hemorrhage. The blood products that would most likely bring about hemostasis in the client are: A. whole blood and albumin. B. platelets and packed red blood cells. C. fresh frozen plasma and whole blood. D. cryoprecipitate and fresh frozen plasma.

cryoprecipitate and fresh frozen plasma. Rationale: The liver is vital in the synthesis of clotting factors, so when it's diseased or dysfunctional, as in hepatitis C, bleeding occurs. Treatment consists of administering blood products that AID CLOTTING. These include fresh frozen plasma containing fibrinogen and cryoprecipitate, which have most of the clotting factors. Although administering whole blood, albumin, and packed cells will contribute to hemostasis, those products aren't specifically used to treat hemostasis. Platelets are helpful, but the best answer is cryoprecipitate and fresh frozen plasma.