Chapter 17: Blood

21) Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood, and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume. A) 55; 92 B) 92; 7 C) 92; 55 D) 45; 55 E) 50; 50

A) 55; 92

41) The ________ is a procedure that is used to determine the number of mature erythrocytes. A) RBC count B) complete blood count C) reticulocyte count D) differential count E) platelet count

A) RBC count

81) Which of the following is false concerning monocytes? A) about same size as basophils B) enter tissues and wander C) become macrophages D) are long-lived E) can phagocytize bacteria

A) about same size as basophils

101) Which of these descriptions best matches the term platelets? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals

A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium

66) After donating 0.5 liter of blood, one would expect A) an increased reticulocyte count. B) an increased platelet count. C) an increased erythrocyte count. D) an increased neutrophil count. E) increased levels of clotting factors.

A) an increased reticulocyte count.

49) The function of hemoglobin is to A) carry oxygen. B) defend against bacterial infection. C) aid in the process of blood clotting. D) distribute nutrients. E) produce antibodies.

A) carry oxygen.

91) Platelets function in all of the following except A) dissolving a formed clot. B) forming temporary clump in injured areas. C) contracting after clot formation. D) initiating the clotting process. E) releasing chemicals that stimulate clotting.

A) dissolving a formed clot.

37) Red cell production is stimulated by a kidney-derived hormone called A) erythropoietin (EPO). B) colony-stimulating factor. C) renin D) estrogen. E) fibrin.

A) erythropoietin (EPO).

99) Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the ________ pathway. A) extrinsic B) intrinsic C) common D) retraction E) fibrinolytic

A) extrinsic

64) Which of the following proteins functions to store or transport oxygen? A) hemoglobin B) immunoglobulin C) albumin D) transferrin E) All of the answers are correct.

A) hemoglobin

9) A typical adult hematocrit is A) higher in males than females. B) higher in females than males. C) the same in both men and women.

A) higher in males than females.

88) Which of the following is false concerning neutrophils? A) less abundant than lymphocytes B) can make cytotoxic chemicals C) can exit capillaries D) can destroy bacteria E) produced in the bone marrow

A) less abundant than lymphocytes

83) The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes.

A) neutrophils.

89) During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) reticulocytes. E) thrombocytes.

A) neutrophils.

27) The normal pH of blood is A) slightly alkaline. B) neutral. C) slightly acidic. D) extremely alkaline. E) extremely acidic.

A) slightly alkaline.

5) Which of the following statements about blood is false? A) It contains buffers that control pH. B) Normal pH is 6.8 to 7.0. C) It is more viscous than water. D) It is about 55 percent plasma. E) None of the statements are false; all are true.

B) Normal pH is 6.8 to 7.0.

95) The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of proenzymes exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

B) activation of proenzymes exposed to collagen.

47) The function of red blood cells is to A) carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's cells. B) carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's cells. C) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells. D) defend the body against infectious organisms. E) carry oxygen from the body's cells to the lungs.

B) carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's cells.

102) A substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to A) cause clots to form faster. B) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster. C) initiate clot formation. D) mimic erythropoietin. E) recruit neutrophils to an infection.

B) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster.

38) Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations. A) erythropoietin (EPO) B) colony-stimulating factor C) testosterone D) estrogen E) fibrin

B) colony-stimulating factor

86) White blood cells that are increased in individuals with allergic reactions are the A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes.

B) eosinophils.

16) A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is A) albumin alpha. B) fibrinogen. C) immunoglobulin A. D) platelets. E) transport proteins.

B) fibrinogen.

53) Rouleaux refers to the ability of RBCs to A) carry hemoglobin. B) form stacks. C) squeeze through small capillaries smaller than their cell diameter. D) establish a large surface area-to-volume ratio. E) live without a nucleus.

B) form stacks.

100) Platelet factor (PF-3) is a factor in the ________ pathway. A) extrinsic B) intrinsic C) common D) retraction E) fibrinolytic

B) intrinsic

98) The enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is A) thrombin. B) plasmin. C) heparin. D) fibrinase. E) phosphokinase.

B) plasmin.

19) Which of the following is not a component of plasma? A) electrolytes B) platelets C) fibrinogen D) albumin E) water

B) platelets

44) An elevated hematocrit value is termed A) anemia. B) polycythemia. C) hyperchromic. D) macrocytic. E) reticulocytosis.

B) polycythemia.

62) The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as A) hemocytoblasts. B) reticulocytes. C) band forms. D) myeloid cells. E) proerythroblasts.

B) reticulocytes.

32) The process of white blood cell production and maturation goes on in all of the following except A) the spleen. B) the kidney. C) the lymph nodes. D) red bone marrow. E) the thymus.

B) the kidney.

74) People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens. B) their blood lacks A or B antibodies. C) their blood is plentiful in A and B antibodies. D) they usually have very strong immune systems. E) they are usually Rh negative.

B) their blood lacks A or B antibodies.

3) Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood except A) the ability to absorb heat from active skeletal muscles. B) viscosity about the same as water. C) the ability to neutralize acids. D) a built-in system for clotting. E) deep red color.

B) viscosity about the same as water.

108) Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate? A) iron deficiency B) vitamin B12 deficiency C) lack of intrinsic factor D) vitamin K deficiency E) vitamin B6 deficiency

B) vitamin B12 deficiency

90) Below are some of the factors involved in the extrinsic clotting pathway. 1. calcium 2. tissue factor (III) 3. prothrombin 4. factor X 5. fibrin 6. clotting factor VII What answer corresponds to the correct order in which they occur from the time of tissue damage to the formation of a blood clot? A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 B) 2, 6, 4, 5, 1, 3 C) 2, 1, 6, 4, 3, 5 D) 5, 3, 6, 4, 1, 2 E) 1, 5, 3, 2, 4, 6

C) 2, 1, 6, 4, 3, 5

56) The average lifespan of a red blood cell is A) 24 hours. B) 1 month. C) 4 months. D) about 1 year. E) many years.

C) 4 months.

11) The total volume of blood in the body of an adult male is approximately ________ liters. A) 10 B) 6 to 8 C) 5 to 6 D) 4 E) 3

C) 5 to 6

106) ________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced. A) Polycythemia B) Leukemia C) Anemia D) Leukopenia E) Thrombocytopenia

C) Anemia

103) Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors? A) A B) B C) K D) D E) E

C) K

46) Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is false? A) Red cells are biconcave discs. B) Red cells lack mitochondria. C) Red cells are about 18 µm in diameter. D) Red cells are specialized for carrying oxygen. E) Red cells can form stacks called rouleaux.

C) Red cells are about 18 µm in diameter.

109) The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if A) the diet is deficient in iron. B) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin. C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal. D) red blood cells bind too much oxygen. E) hemolysis is prevented by a bad gene.

C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal.

107) Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from A) the heart. B) a superficial artery. C) a superficial vein. D) a capillary. E) an arteriole.

C) a superficial vein.

14) The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are A) globulins. B) transport proteins. C) albumins. D) lipoproteins. E) fibrinogens.

C) albumins.

20) Which of these is not one of the formed elements of blood? A) RBCs B) platelets C) antibodies D) lymphocytes E) basophils

C) antibodies

84) White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes.

C) basophils.

4) Each of the following is a way that blood transports materials around the body except A) nutrients from the digestive tract to the body. B) hormones from endocrine glands to target cells. C) carbon dioxide from the lungs to the tissues. D) wastes from the cells to the kidneys. E) stored nutrients from the liver to the tissues.

C) carbon dioxide from the lungs to the tissues.

87) Which of these descriptions best matches the term lymphocytes? A) release histamine B) become macrophages C) defend against specific pathogens or toxins D) kill bacteria using cytotoxic chemicals E) often elevated in allergic individuals

C) defend against specific pathogens or toxins

97) The process of fibrinolysis A) activates fibrinogen. B) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together. C) dissolves clots. D) forms emboli. E) forms thrombi.

C) dissolves clots.

28) Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone ________ which is mostly produced in the ________. A) thymosin; thymus B) angiotensin; lungs C) erythropoietin; kidneys D) erythropoietin; liver E) renin; kidneys

C) erythropoietin; kidneys

18) A hematocrit provides information on A) blood type. B) clotting factors. C) formed elements abundance. D) plasma composition. E) sedimentation rate.

C) formed elements abundance.

50) Each hemoglobin molecule contains A) four alpha chains. B) one alpha and one beta chain. C) four iron ions. D) one heme group. E) two heme groups.

C) four iron ions.

58) The waste product bilirubin is produced from A) globin chains of hemoglobin. B) heme molecules plus iron. C) heme molecules lacking iron. D) iron found in hemoglobin molecules. E) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells.

C) heme molecules lacking iron.

48) More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is A) albumin. B) porphyrin. C) hemoglobin. D) immunoglobulin. E) fibrinogen.

C) hemoglobin.

105) Some rat poisons contain a toxin that blocks the liver's ability to utilize vitamin K. Animals that consume this poison would die of A) anemia. B) acidosis. C) hemorrhage. D) thrombocytopenia. E) starvation.

C) hemorrhage.

31) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term colony stimulating factor? A) releases histamine B) antibodies are one type C) hormone that regulates blood cell formation D) kills bacteria using cytotoxic chemicals E) often elevated in allergic individuals

C) hormone that regulates blood cell formation

43) An increased mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration is termed A) anemia. B) polycythemia. C) hyperchromic. D) macrocytic. E) reticulocytosis.

C) hyperchromic.

15) Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the A) albumins. B) fibrinogens. C) immunoglobulins. D) platelets. E) transport proteins.

C) immunoglobulins.

39) An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would ultimately result in A) decreased iron absorption. B) renal anemia. C) increased erythropoiesis. D) decreased erythropoiesis. E) increased sensitivity to vitamin K.

C) increased erythropoiesis.

51) Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of A) magnesium. B) calcium. C) iron. D) sodium. E) copper.

C) iron.

67) If bile ducts are blocked, which of the following would not occur? A) more bilirubin appears in the plasma B) bilirubin appears in the skin C) less hemolysis would occur D) increased jaundice E) yellow color of the sclera

C) less hemolysis would occur

36) Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called A) erythroblasts. B) normoblasts. C) megakaryocytes. D) myeloblasts. E) lymphoblasts.

C) megakaryocytes.

110) A cancer involving neutrophils, eosinophils, or basophils is called a A) hemophilia. B) pernicious anemia. C) myeloid leukemia. D) lymphoid leukemia. E) jaundice.

C) myeloid leukemia.

60) In adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in A) the liver. B) yellow bone marrow. C) red bone marrow. D) the spleen. E) lymphoid tissue.

C) red bone marrow.

94) The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium.

68) Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood? A) erythrocytes B) platelets C) reticulocytes D) lymphocytes E) neutrophils

C) reticulocytes

26) When blood is fractionated, its components are ________ for the purpose of analysis. A) combined B) lysed C) separated D) marked E) returned to the body

C) separated

112) A condition where pathogens are present and multiplying in the blood is called A) viremia. B) bacteremia. C) septicemia. D) anemia. E) hemophilia.

C) septicemia.

23) Most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by A) platelets. B) megakaryocytes. C) the liver. D) the kidneys. E) the spleen.

C) the liver.

76) Sensitization during hemolytic disease of the newborn refers to A) the fetal immune system producing antibodies against the mother's RBCs. B) the fetal immune system producing antibodies against the fetus' RBCs. C) the mother's immune system producing antibodies against the fetus' RBCs. D) the mother's immune system producing antibodies against the mother's RBCs. E) spontaneous miscarriage of a woman's first baby due to blood incompatibilities.

C) the mother's immune system producing antibodies against the fetus' RBCs.

17) The most abundant component of plasma is A) ions. B) proteins. C) water. D) gases. E) nutrients.

C) water.

7) The combination of plasma and formed elements is called A) serum. B) lymph. C) whole blood. D) extracellular fluid. E) packed blood.

C) whole blood.

6) Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood? A) 55 percent B) 78 percent C) 60 percent D) 45 percent E) 20 percent

D) 45 percent

30) When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect A) a drop in oxygen levels. B) the release of erythropoietin. C) a rise in hematocrit. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct.

D) All of the answers are correct.

92) ________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. A) Vascular spasm B) The platelet phase C) Retraction D) Coagulation E) Fibrinolysis

D) Coagulation

45) ________ transport(s) oxygen and CO2 in the RBCs. A) Ribosomes B) Mitochondria C) DNA D) Hemoglobin molecules E) Components of the cytoskeleton

D) Hemoglobin molecules

78) How does a treatment with anti-Rh antibodies (RhoGAM) prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)? A) It prevents maternal anti-Rh antibodies from crossing the placenta. B) It destroys maternal anti-Rh antibodies. C) It destroys fetal anti-Rh antibodies. D) It destroys fetal RBCs that enter the maternal circulation. E) It destroys maternal RBCs that enter the fetal circulation.

D) It destroys fetal RBCs that enter the maternal circulation.

73) Overall, the most common blood type is A) A. B) B. C) AB. D) O. E) There is no common pattern of blood type distribution.

D) O.

104) How would removal of calcium ions from a blood sample affect coagulation? A) The coagulation pathway would be lacking a required cofactor at many steps. B) Coagulation would be prevented. C) There would be no effect because magnesium can substitute for calcium. D) The coagulation pathway would be lacking a required cofactor at many steps and coagulation would be prevented. E) There would be no effect because calcium is not a necessary cofactor in coagulation.

D) The coagulation pathway would be lacking a required cofactor at many steps and coagulation would be prevented.

22) Which plasma protein is a major contributor to the osmotic pressure of plasma? A) fibrinogen B) steroid-binding protein C) hormone-binding protein D) albumin E) gamma globulin

D) albumin

77) Hemolytic disease of the newborn may result if A) the mother is Rh positive and the father is Rh negative. B) both the father and the mother are Rh negative. C) both the father and the mother are Rh positive. D) an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. E) an Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus

D) an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus.

71) A person with Type A blood has A) antigen A on the RBCs. B) anti-B antibodies in the plasma. C) anti-A antibodies on the red blood cells. D) antigen A on the RBCs and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. E) anti-B antibodies in the plasma and anti-A antibodies on the red blood cells.

D) antigen A on the RBCs and anti-B antibodies in the plasma.

69) In which of the following would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated? A) a person suffering from higher levels of hemolysis B) an alcoholic with a damaged liver C) a person with an iron-deficient diet D) both a person suffering from hemolysis and an alcoholic with a damaged liver E) a person with increased clotting times.

D) both a person suffering from hemolysis and an alcoholic with a damaged liver

96) The common pathway of coagulation begins with the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium. D) conversion of Factor X to prothrombin activator. E) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

D) conversion of Factor X to prothrombin activator.

40) The ________ is a procedure that is used to determine the number of each of the various types of white blood cells. A) hematocrit B) complete blood count C) reticulocyte count D) differential count E) mean corpuscular volume

D) differential count

29) The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following except A) during anemia. B) at high altitudes. C) as a consequence of hemorrhage. D) during periods of fasting. E) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted.

D) during periods of fasting.

61) The process of red blood cell production is called A) erythrocytosis. B) erythropenia. C) hemocytosis. D) erythropoiesis. E) hematopenia.

D) erythropoiesis.

8) The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the A) viscosity. B) specific gravity. C) packed volume. D) hematocrit. E) differential cell count.

D) hematocrit.

113) All of the following blood diseases are caused by pathogens except A) malaria. B) bacteremia. C) viremia. D) hemophilia. E) septicemia.

D) hemophilia.

82) All of the following are true of neutrophils except that they are A) granular leukocytes. B) phagocytic. C) round cells with lobed nuclei. D) important in coagulation. E) active in fighting bacterial infections.

D) important in coagulation.

111) Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by A) oral doses of iron. B) injections of iron. C) injections of Vitamin K. D) injections of vitamin B12. E) injections of clotting factors.

D) injections of vitamin B12.

57) Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by macrophages in all of the following places except the A) spleen. B) liver. C) bone marrow. D) kidney. E) None of the answers is correct.

D) kidney.

54) RBCs typically live about 120 days. The main reason for this short lifespan in RBCs is their A) cell shape. B) concentration of Hb. C) flexibility. D) lack of nucleus. E) large surface area-to-volume ratio.

D) lack of nucleus.

2) All of the following are components of the cardiovascular system except A) blood. B) arteries. C) heart. D) lymph vessels. E) capillaries.

D) lymph vessels.

70) A person's blood type is determined largely by the A) size of the RBCs. B) volume of the RBCs. C) chemical character of the hemoglobin. D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane. E) shape of the RBCs.

D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane.

13) The chief differences between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the concentration of A) water. B) electrolytes. C) nitrogen wastes. D) proteins. E) glucose.

D) proteins.

59) Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is A) excreted by the kidneys. B) excreted by the liver. C) excreted by the intestines. D) recycled to red bone marrow. E) stored in yellow bone marrow.

D) recycled to red bone marrow.

33) Granulocytes form in A) the intestines. B) the spleen. C) the thymus. D) red bone marrow. E) yellow bone marrow.

D) red bone marrow.

34) In adults, the only site of red blood cell production and the primary site of white blood cell formation is A) the liver. B) the spleen. C) the thymus. D) red bone marrow. E) yellow bone marrow.

D) red bone marrow.

55) All the circulating red blood cells originate in the A) heart. B) thymus. C) spleen. D) red bone marrow. E) lymph tissue.

D) red bone marrow.

93) The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. B) plasmin. C) factor VIII. D) thrombin. E) prothrombin activator.

D) thrombin.

25) You are caring for a female adult patient who weighs 40 kg (90 lbs). Assuming no loss of blood, what would her approximate blood volume be? A) 6.6 L B) 6.0 L C) 5.6 L D) 1.8 L E) 3.8 L

E) 3.8 L

75) Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera but not with the anti-B or anti-D sera. Which of the following is not true? A) Bill could receive type A-negative blood in a transfusion. B) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type AB blood. C) Bill is Rh negative. D) Bill's plasma contains B antibodies. E) Bill's plasma contains Rh antibodies.

E) Bill's plasma contains Rh antibodies.

85) ________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells. A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes E) Monocytes

E) Monocytes

63) ________ are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation. A) Erythroblasts B) Normoblasts C) Myeloblasts D) Band cells E) Reticulocytes

E) Reticulocytes

42) Hematology can detect all of the following except A) anemia. B) clotting disorders. C) diminished erythropoiesis. D) infection. E) body temperature.

E) body temperature.

35) Erythropoiesis is stimulated when A) oxygen levels in the blood increase. B) oxygen levels in the blood decrease. C) blood flow to the kidney declines. D) both oxygen levels in the blood increase and blood flow to the kidney declines. E) both oxygen levels in the blood decrease and blood flow to the kidney declines.

E) both oxygen levels in the blood decrease and blood flow to the kidney declines.

10) Platelets are A) red cells that lack a nucleus. B) blue cells that have a nucleus. C) large cells with a prominent, concave nucleus. D) tiny cells with a polynucleus. E) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells.

E) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells.

65) The yellow color that is visible in the eyes and skin in jaundice results from all of the following except A) excessive amounts of bilirubin in the plasma. B) extensive breakdown of RBCs. C) destruction of hemoglobin. D) blockage of bile ducts. E) hematuria.

E) hematuria.

52) Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that A) she is suffering from anemia. B) she has fewer red blood cells than normal. C) her hematocrit is probably lower than normal. D) she may be suffering from a form of leukemia. E) her hemoglobin level is normal.

E) her hemoglobin level is normal.

79) Which of the following is not true of basophils? A) constitute about 1 percent of WBCs B) promote inflammation C) granules contain histamine D) contain dense blue stained granules in the Wright stain E) increased production during parasitic infections

E) increased production during parasitic infections

24) Plasma is closest in ionic composition to A) urine. B) isotonic saline solution. C) sterile water. D) CSF. E) interstitial fluid.

E) interstitial fluid.

12) Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins? A) pancreas B) heart C) kidney D) brain E) liver

E) liver

114) All of the following are heritable blood disorders except A) thalassemia. B) sickle cell anemia. C) hemophilia. D) sickle cell disease. E) malaria.

E) malaria.

115) All of the following blood disorders are due to specific issues with RBCs except A) malaria. B) pernicious anemia. C) iron deficiency anemia. D) thalassemia. E) myeloid leukemia.

E) myeloid leukemia.

80) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term eosinophils? A) release histamine B) become macrophages C) defend against specific pathogens or toxins and produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using cytotoxic chemicals E) often elevated in allergic individuals

E) often elevated in allergic individuals

1) Which of the following is not a function of blood? A) transport of nutrients and wastes B) transport of body heat C) transport of gases D) defense against toxins and pathogens E) produce hormones

E) produce hormones

72) If the blood types of a donor and recipient are compatible, then A) the donor's antibodies bind with the recipient's antigens. B) the donor's antigens bind with the recipient's antigens. C) the donor's antibodies bind with the recipient's antibodies. D) the donor's antigens bind with the recipient's antibodies. E) there is no reaction between antibodies and antigens.

E) there is no reaction between antibodies and antigens.