VTNE practice questions
The veterinarian uses a(n) ______ to stabilize a fracture, placing pins through the skin and bone. a) osteotome b) external fixator c) trephine d) rongeur
b) external fixator External fixation is a means of stabilizing fractures using pins or wire placed through the skin and bone.
Multimodal analgesia takes advantage of the _______ obtained by combining two or more classes of analgesic drugs to alter more than one phase. a) "kitty magic" B) synergistic effects c) "doubled" neurotransmission d) the wind-up phenomenon
B) synergistic effects Multimodal analgesia takes advantage of the synergistic effects obtained by combining two or more classes of analgesic drugs to alter more than one phase.
Fleas are: a) endoparasites. b)pseudoparasites. c) periodic parasites. d) ectoparasties
Ectoparasites Parasites are divided into two large groups: endoparasites (internal parasites), which include nematodes, cestodes, trematodes, protozoa, and acanthocephalans; and ectoparasites (external parasites), which include fleas.
Which of the following statements is not true regarding anthrax? a) Anthrax-contaminated carcasses should be buried in lime or incinerated. b) Anthrax is endemic in many areas of the southern United States. c) If an animal is suspected of having anthrax, necropsy should be performed and the brain sent to the state veterinarian. d) Contact the area's federal veterinarian immediately if an animal is suspected of having anthrax.
If an animal is suspected of having anthrax, necropsy should be performed and the brain sent to the state veterinarian. Because people can easily contract this disease, it is important not to perform necropsy on any animal suspected of dying from anthrax.
Which drugs can be administered safely via the endotracheal route? a)Atropine, lidocaine, epinephrine, naloxone, vasopressin b) Dopamine, epinephrine c) Corticosteroids, atropine, vasopressin d) Epinephrine, naloxone only
a ) Atropine, lidocaine, epinephrine, naloxone, vasopressin Drugs that are safe to administer through an endotracheal tube are easily remembered by the acronym NAVEL (naloxone, atropine, vasopressin, epinephrine, lidocaine).
__________ are important mediators of hypersensitivity reactions and contain substances that can damage and kill some parasites. a) Eosinophils b) Metamyelocytes c) Döhle bodies d) Neutrophils
a) Eosinophils Eosinophils circulate in low numbers in health. They are important mediators of hypersensitivity reactions and contain substances that can damage and kill some parasites.
For which of the following procedures would it be most beneficial to count the gauze sponges used for hemostasis? a) Feline gastrointestinal surgical repair b) Feline castration c) Feline declawing procedure d) Adult canine tail amputation
a) Feline gastrointestinal surgical repair Surgical sponges and gauze should be counted prior to the initiation of surgery. In addition, gauze that is placed into a cavity should be accounted for and tracked closely. Prior to closure of that cavity, the surgical assistant should be sure that the gauze has been removed and all gauze is accounted for. However, it is important that none of the gauze sponges fall into the abdominal cavity unnoticed. Serious life-threatening consequences could occur
In evaluating a blood smear: a) the counting area, where most of the evaluation takes place, is between the body and the feathered edge. b) cell morphology can only be accurately evaluated in the largest, "body" area of the smear. c) the counting area is the largest part, and is a homogenous area beginning at the end of the slide where the drop of blood was placed. d) cell morphology should only be evaluated at the feathered edge, where the cells are spread thinly and appear singly.
a) In evaluating a blood smear: The counting area is between the body and the feathered edge and contains a monolayer of cells. In this region, RBCs, WBCs, and platelets can be identified and their morphology can be adequately evaluated. Most of the blood smear evaluation is performed in the counting area. In the body, the blood smear is thick and the cells are piled on top of each other so it is difficult to identify cells or evaluate cell morphology. At the feathered edge, many of the cells may be broken, distribution of cells may be uneven, and RBCs often lose their central zone of pallor.
Which of the following statements is false regarding calves with diarrhea? a) Milk and milk products should be warmed before being offered. b) Cows should be vaccinated before calving. c) Poor sanitation and poor nutrition can contribute to the development of diarrhea. d) Warm intravenous fluids should be administered and supplemented with dextrose and bicarbonate as needed.
a) Milk and milk products should be warmed before being offered. A variety of management conditions, including poor nutrition and improper sanitation, may cause or contribute to the development of diarrhea in calves. Sick, weak calves should be started on warm, balanced intravenous fluids supplemented with dextrose and bicarbonate. On farms where calf diarrhea is a persistent problem, it is very important to ensure adequate colostrum feeding and it may also be necessary to vaccinate cows and heifers before calving.
Which of the following must always be supplemented to beef cattle feeding with pasture grasses? a)Minerals b) Energy in the form of grain c) Fat d) Protein
a) Minerals
Which of the following describes the transduction phase of nociception? a) The conversion of energy into an electrical impulse b) The transmission of a nerve impulse to the spinal cord c) The nerve ending's initial contact with a pain-causing energy d) The activation of sympathetic reflexes to dampen pain
a) The conversion of energy into an electrical impulse The pain pathway from the nerve ending to the central nervous system (CNS) begins at the site of tissue damage.Once their threshold is exceeded, nociceptors (pain receptors) are stimulated, converting mechanical, chemical, and thermal energy into electrical impulses. This process is called transduction. The electrical impulses are then sent to the CNS during the transmission phase, and the CNS reacts in the modulation phase.
The most common breed of alpacas are: a) huacaya. b)suri. c) llama. d) camel.
a)huacaya. Two breeds of alpacas, the huacaya and the suri, have gained popularity in the United States. The huacaya breed is the most common; the fiber of this breed is crimped and shorter than that of the suri.
How is an antiseptic different from a disinfectant? a) The former kills or inhibits infectious agents on living tissues and the latter on inanimate objects. b) The former is used in consumer cleaners and the latter in cleaners intended for hospital use only. c) The former kills only growing bacteria, whereas the latter kills growing bacteria, bacterial spores, and viruses. d) The former is used only in soaps and the latter only in foams or liquids.
a) The former kills or inhibits infectious agents on living tissues and the latter on inanimate objects. Disinfectants are chemical agents that are applied to inanimate objects to destroy the vegetative forms of bacteria but not necessarily the spore forms. Antiseptic agents, such as iodine or chlorhexidine, are substances used on living tissue to effect antisepsis
You are unsure whether a ferret that has received an adrenalectomy is experiencing a significant amount of pain. What is the best way to determine whether this patient needs analgesics? a) The rule of thumb is that if a procedure would be painful for you to endure, it is likely that it is painful for the animal. b) Check the body temperature; if it is more than 2° F above normal less than 12 hours after the surgery, administer analgesics. c)Check the respiratory rate; if it is greater than two times normal, administer analgesics. d) Check the heart rate; if it is greater than two times normal, administer analgesics.
a) The rule of thumb is that if a procedure would be painful for you to endure, it is likely that it is painful for the animal. If a procedure or injury would be painful to you, it is likely to be painful to other animals.
To avoid infection from _____, pregnant women must avoid contact with soil, cat litter, raw meat, and cats excreting oocysts. a) Toxoplasma gondii b) Giardia c) Cheyletiella d) Dipylidium caninum
a) Toxoplasma gondii Though humans can be infected from a cat that is shedding oocysts, people are more often infected from eating raw or undercooked meat containing cysts. Pregnant women should be extra cautious about avoiding contact with soil, cat litter, and cats excreting oocysts, and should not eat raw meat.
During surgery, the veterinarian wants to remove a core of bone for biopsy. He asks you for a T-shaped, tubular instrument with a cylindrical cutting blade called a(n): a) trephine. b) osteotome. c)rongeur. d) external fixator.
a) Trephines Trephines and Jamshidi needles are specially designed to remove a core of bone for biopsy. Trephines are T-shaped reusable stainless steel tubular instruments with a cylindrical cutting blade similar to that used in a traditional punch biopsy.
A unicellular parasite is: a) a protozoan. b) a zoonosis. c) coenurus. d) a trematode.
a) a protozoan. A protozoan is a unicellular organism. Some protozoans are parasitic in human beings and in wild and domestic animals.
Variation in the PR interval may occur with: left atrial enlargement. a) atrioventricular dissociation. b) right ventricular enlargement. c) right atrial enlargement.
a) atrioventricular dissociation. The PR interval indicates conduction time through the AV node. Variation in the PR interval may occur with changes in vagal tone or with AV dissociation.
Two tests that can evaluate the intrinsic and common pathways of the coagulation cascade are the activated clotting time (ACT) and the _____, which measures the time it takes for the primary platelet plug to form. a) bleeding time b) CPPT c) hemostasis d) PT
a) bleeding time Using laboratory testing, the coagulation cascade can be divided into two pathways that result in formation of thrombin, the "intrinsic" and "extrinsic" pathways. Two tests that can be performed in house are the bleeding time and the activated clotting time (ACT). The bleeding time measures the time it takes for the primary platelet plug to form.
An animal that is dehydrated before surgery may require a _____ because _____ of the cell volume occurs after rehydration. a) blood/plasma transfusion; dilution b) blood/plasma transfusion; hemoconcentration c) splenectomy; hemoconcentration d) splenectomy; sequestration
a) blood/plasma transfusion; dilution Rehydration may necessitate a blood or plasma transfusion because dilution of the blood cell volume occurs with rehydration.
Platelets in birds and reptiles: a) have nuclei and are called thrombocytes. b) lack nuclei. c) have a prominent central zone of pallor. d) lack cytoplasm.
a) have nuclei and are called thrombocytes. In birds and reptiles, platelets have nuclei and are called thrombocytes.
Your patient's fecal sample shows streaks of blood on the outsides of otherwise normally formed stools, a symptom you quickly identify as: a) hematochezia. b) melena. c) tenesmus. d) hematemesis.
a) hematochezia. Hematochezia is the presence of blood in the feces. It can be seen with diarrhea or as streaks of blood on the outside of normally formed stools.
During surgery, you place gelatin foams into the surgical site to provide effective: a) hemostasis. b) wound dressing. c) bandaging. d) packing around cut skin edges during surgery.
a) hemostasis. Gelatin foams can be placed onto regions of bleeding and provide a framework for the initiation of clotting. Gelatin foams can be cut or torn into shapes that can be more effectively placed into a bleeding site, and these materials are absorbed over time.
Your equine patient develops rhinopneumonitis, caused by _____, which produces respiratory disease, abortion, and neonatal and neurologic disease (ascending paralysis) in horses. a) herpesvirus b) influenza c) gttural pouch mycosis d) strangles
a) herpesvirus Equine herpesvirus (the causative agent of rhinopneumonitis) is a contagious virus that produces respiratory disease, abortion, and neonatal and neurologic disease (ascending paralysis) in horses.
In some species, neutrophils are called __________because of the intense staining of the granules. a) heterophils b) metarubricytes c) eccentrocytes d) acanthocytes
a) heterophils In some species, neutrophils are called heterophils because of the intense staining of the granules. Heterophils are the most abundant granulocyte in rabbits and in many nonmammalian species. The granules are larger and typically are rod or seed shaped but may appear oval or round in some species. The granules appear dark orange or reddish-brown with routine stains and may obscure the nucleus.
Actinobacillosis is usually treated with antibiotics, an antiinflammatory drug, and intravenous administration of: a) sodium iodide. b) penicillin c) dexamethasone. d) oxytetracycline.
a) sodium iodide. Actinobacillosis (wooden tongue) is diagnosed by oral examination and biopsy, with isolation of the organism. It is treated with sodium iodide and antibiotics, as well as antiinflammatory drugs.
You are attempting to calibrate a microscope. Starting on low power (10´ magnification), you focus on the 2-mm line on the stage micrometer and then rotate the eyepiece so that the hash-mark scale is parallel to the stage micrometer scale, aligning the zero point on both scales. Now you notice that the 0.125-mm mark aligns with the "10" hash mark on the eyepiece. What is the distance between each hash mark on the eyepiece? a) M 0.0125 µm b) 12.5 µm c) 1.25 µm d) 0.125 µm
b) 12.5 µm The steps described in the question are repeated at each magnification; the distance between hash marks (µm) for the lowest power (10´) is 12.5 µm.
Which of the following statements is true concerning veterinary use of controlled substances? a) A controlled substance is a substance that can be sold over the counter. b) A controlled substance is a substance of high abuse potential for which detailed written records of amounts used and amounts on hand are required. c) The law states that controlled substances must be kept in a cabinet. d) The controlled substances used medically are designated on the label with a skull and crossbones icon.
b) A controlled substance is a substance of high abuse potential for which detailed written records of amounts used and amounts on hand are required. The use of controlled substances by a registered individual requires accurate record keeping of orders, receipts, and use. The inventory needs to be reconcilable with the records, and all records must be available for inspection by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) at any time.
Platelets in mammals: a) appear within RBC agglutinations in cases of hemolytic anemia. b ) do not have nuclei. c) appear as microfilaria in a Wright-stain smear. d) are too small to be detected, even clumped, on the feathered edge of a blood smear.
b) Do not have a nuclei In mammals, platelets are nonnucleated fragments of cytoplasm released from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow.
Which of the following is not usually part of the patient data-gathering phase in the nursing process? a) Performing a physical examination b) Identifying and prioritizing to generate a technician evaluation c) Gathering the initial medical history from the owner d) Reviewing the medical record for the past history
b) Identifying and prioritizing to generate a technician evaluation The veterinary technician gathers subjective and objective patient data, including taking an initial medical history; reviewing the medical record for past historical information; and gathering data during the physical examination.
What covers the feet of horses to help decrease contamination in the surgical suite? a) Sterile surgical tape b) Obstetric sleeves c) Fluid bags d) Paper booties
b) Obstetric sleeves Large examination gloves or obstetric (OB) sleeves are used to cover the feet of the horse to reduce contamination of the surgical suite.
Which of the following means of hemostasis is avoided during equine abdominal surgery? a) Suction b) Sponge c) Clamping with ligation d) Hemostats in combination with electrocautery
b) Sponge Sponge hemostasis is avoided in equine abdominal surgery because of the potential for loss of a sponge within the abdominal cavity, which can be devastating and life threatening to a horse.
Which of the following is not one of the three physical sterilization methods? a) Radiation b) Water c) Heat d) Filtration
b) Water The three physical sterilization methods are filtration (use of a filter to separate particulate matter from liquid or gas), heat (use of wet or dry heat), and radiation (use of radiation to kill microorganisms when another method would cause damage to the other materials)
An animal that assumes a praying or play bowing position most likely has _____ pain. a) neurologically induced b) abdominal c) thoracic d) musculoskeletal
b) abdominal Animals with severe abdominal pain will often adopt a posture with an arched back and the hind legs moved backward, whereas others will repeatedly stretch into a "praying" posture, with the forelimbs down and stretched in front of them while the hind limbs remain standing in a normal position.
Surgically prepared skin is considered _______, not ________. a) sterile; aseptic b) aseptic; sterile c) scrubbed; aseptic d) clean; aseptic
b) aseptic; sterile The skin is prepared with aseptic technique prior to surgery, but the skin should never be considered sterile.
Chemotherapeutic drugs: a) can help patients avoid the bone marrow suppression side effect seen with radiation therapy. b) cannot differentiate between cancer cells and normal cells that have high proliferation rates, such as the cells of bone marrow, the gastrointestinal tract, or hair follicles. c) target primarily slowly proliferating cells. d) have certain safe levels of occupational exposure, unlike radiation.
b) cannot differentiate between cancer cells and normal cells that have high proliferation rates, such as the cells of bone marrow, the gastrointestinal tract, or hair follicles. Chemotherapy targets cells undergoing rapid proliferation, such as neoplastic cells. However, chemotherapeutic agents cannot differentiate between cancer cells and normal cells that have high proliferation rates, such as the cells of bone marrow, the gastrointestinal tract, or hair follicles.
In a blood smear, oxidative damage results in __________, which are RBCs in which the hemoglobin has shifted to one side of the cell, creating a clear area outlined by a thin rim of membrane. a) keratocytes b) eccentrocytes c) spherocytes d) acanthocytes
b) eccentrocytes Eccentrocytes are RBCs in which the hemoglobin has shifted to one side of the cell, creating a clear area outlined by a thin rim of membrane.
Treatment for galactostasis: a) is indicated during the first 1 to 3 weeks of the postpartum period. b) is begun during weaning and focuses on decreasing milk production and inflammation, using warm compresses. c)focuses on treating the inflammation and massaging the affected mammary gland. d) involves a decrease in milk production, coupled with cold compresses to reduce ever.
b) is begun during weaning and focuses on decreasing milk production and inflammation, using warm compresses. Treatment is begun if galactostasis occurs during the weaning period and focuses on decreasing milk production (reducing food and water intake and preventing nursing) and decreasing inflammation with gentle application of warm compresses.
Most surgical instruments are made of: a) silver. b)stainless steel. c) chrome. d) titanium.
b) stainless steel Most surgical instruments are made of satin-finished stainless steel
Unstained smears being sent to a reference laboratory should be: a) frozen. b) stored at room temperature. c) preserved with formalin before shipping. d) stored in a refrigerator.
b) stored at room temperature. Unstained smears being sent to a reference laboratory should be stored at room temperature, not in a refrigerator or freezer, because water condensation will damage the cells. Unstained smears should be stored away from formalin fumes.
Pepper has an echocardiogram after surgery, and the veterinarian sees shadows that suggest the possibility of heart disease. Pepper has no symptoms, however, and is sent home after recovering well from surgery. Because Pepper is asymptomatic, the veterinarian instructs the owner to monitor for rapid breathing, or _____, which can be the first sign that heart disease has progressed to heart failure. a) inadequate tissue perfusion b) tachypnea c) bradycardia d) syncope
b) tachypnea It is recommended that asymptomatic patients be closely monitored. This includes obtaining periodic echocardiograms and, perhaps more importantly, educating the owners to monitor the resting respiratory rate at home for tachypnea, one of the earliest signs of heart failure.
Acarines are: a) any parasitic insect. b) the same as mites or ticks. c) insects with two wings. d) the order that contains fleas.
b) the same as mites or ticks. Acarines are mites, such as ticks, scabies mites, ear mites, hair follicle and sebaceous gland-dwelling mites, chiggers, and "walking dandruff" mites.
In evaluating an antibody response using serologic testing, the first sample is taken: a) only after the animal has had time to develop a humoral immune response. b) when the patient initially shows clinical signs and is presented for examination. c)only after vaccination to ensure accuracy. d)within 1 to 3 days of the second sample, when titer increases are most meaningful.
b) when the patient initially shows clinical signs and is presented for examination. When evaluating an antibody response, paired samples taken 1 to 3 weeks apart are usually needed to diagnose an active infection because of the time it takes for an animal to develop a humoral immune response. The first sample is taken when the patient initially shows clinical signs and is presented for examination.
Fescue toxicosis is a nutritional disease that can involve lameness, tail-tip necrosis, abortion, and/or decreased milk production. This disease affects: a) pigs. b)sheep. c) both B and C. d) horses.
b)sheep. Cattle and sheep suffer from fescue toxicosis, as demonstrated in Table 10-1.
A 10% concentration of solution contains _____ of a dug per _____ of solution. a) 1 g; 100 ml b)1 mg; 10 ml c) 10 mL; 100 mL d)100 g; 100 ml
c) 10 mL; 100 mL Percent solutions can be expressed as vol/vol, meaning the number of milliliters (mL) of a drug in 100 mL of solution. For example, a 10% solution (vol/vol) solution contains 10 mL of a drug in 100 mL of solution.
As you monitor your postsurgical patient, you are aware that packed cell volume (PCV) and total protein (TP) values can drop up to _____ due to anesthesia and surgery, even if no blood loss occurs. a) 15% b) 20% c) 10% d)35%
c) 10% It is not unusual for the PCV and TP to drop up to 10% as a result of anesthesia and surgery, even when no major blood loss occurred.
Which of the following is not a key aspect of recumbent care? a) Taking care of the recumbent patient's airways involves humidification, sterile suctioning, and changing the ET tube daily. b) Appropriate bedding and padding can reduce the incidence of decubital ulcer development. c) Do not apply fluorescein stain to the corneas of a patient who is under general anesthesia. d) None of the above. All are key aspects of recumbent care.
c) Do not apply fluorescein stain to the corneas of a patient who is under general anesthesia. Animals under general anesthesia can develop corneal ulceration. Examining the corneas with a fluorescein stain daily or every other day is a good way to detect ulcers early, allowing for early and efficient treatment.
In both the horse and dog, what is the most commonly encountered adverse reaction to NSAIDs? a) Constipation b) Diarrhea c) Gastrointestinal upset d) Low blood pressure
c) Gastrointestinal upset The most common side effect from NSAIDs in all species is gastrointestinal (GI) upset and/or ulceration, with large animals more likely to experience ulceration
Which of the following medication routes has the highest bioavailability? a) Oral b)Intramuscular c)Intravenous d) Bioavailability is not related to the route; it is related to the concentration of the drug.
c) Intravenous Bioavailability is the fraction of the drug that actually reaches the blood stream. When administering a drug intravenously, the bioavailability is 100%. Orally ingested drugs need to pass through the stomach and then into the small intestine before making it into the blood stream, and a fraction of the bioavailability remains at that point.
What is the single most common disease syndrome in adult dairy cows? a) Lymphosarcoma b) Periparturient hypocalcemia (milk fever) c) Mastitis d) Bovine respiratory disease syndrome
c) Mastitis Economically, mastitis is one of the most important diseases in the dairy industry, and it is the single most common disease syndrome in adult dairy cows.
You are asked to prepare Brownie, a 6-month-old, brown-tabby domestic shorthair cat, for castration. He will be restrained in the dorsal recumbent position with his hind legs tied cranially to expose the scrotal region. How do you prepare his scrotum? a) Shave with a safety razor and perform a surgical scrub. b) Shave with a no. 40 clipper blade and perform a surgical scrub. c) Pluck hair and perform a surgical scrub. d) Leave hair on the scrotum and perform a surgical scrub.
c) Pluck hair and perform a surgical scrub. For this procedure, the scrotal hair is plucked rather than clipped.
Both a goat and a sheep are scheduled for surgery. Which of the following presurgical injections will each animal be given? a) An anticonvulsant b) NSAIDs c) Tetanus toxoid or antitoxin d) Ceftiofur
c) Tetanus toxoid or antitoxin Small ruminants are extremely susceptible to tetanus; therefore, tetanus toxoid and/or antitoxin should be given to small ruminants any time surgery is performed or an injury occurs
One common physiologic response to pain is: a) pupillary constriction. b)warm (not hot) extremities. c) an increased heart rate and blood pressure level. d) a decreased respiratory rate.
c) an increased heart rate and blood pressure level. Physiologic pain signs may be obvious and include an increased heart rate and blood pressure level, an increased respiratory rate, and vocalization.
Your patient, Miss Marple, a Persian cat, has been sneezing excessively. You most likely suspect that she has: a) Throat or lung cancer. b)inhaled a foreign material. c) an upper respiratory infection. d) simply experienced normal, routine expulsion of air in an effort to expel respiratory irritants.
c) an upper respiratory infection. In dogs, persistent sneezing is most commonly seen with inhalation of foreign material, whereas with cats, it is most often associated with upper respiratory viral infections
Increased serum _____ is a normal physiologic response in the fasted horse. a) sorbitol dehydrogenase b) gamma-glutamyl transferase c) bilirubin d) creatine phosphokinase
c) bilirubin Serum bilirubin concentrations will increase dramatically if feed is withheld for more than 24 hours. This condition, which is called fasting hyperbilirubinemia, is a normal physiologic response in horses and does not indicate liver disease.
Artie, a Pekinese, has begun losing weight and experiences some anorexia. He is frequently suddenly exhausted. Tests indicate that Artie has _____, or disease of the heart muscle. a) cardiovascular disease b) cardiomuscular disease c) cardiomyopathy d) congestive heart failure
c) cardiomyopathy Cardiomyopathy is a disease (-pathy) of the heart (cardi/o) muscle (my/o)
Sarcomas can arise from _____, whereas carcinomas can arise from _____. a) organs; cartilage b) mucous membranes; bone c)cartilage; lymph nodes d)skin; connective tissue
c) cartilage; lymph nodes Carcinomas generally spread through both the lymphatic system and the bloodstream, so regional lymph node and lung metastases are commonly seen. Sarcomas, on the other hand, arise from mesenchymal tissues, such as cartilage, connective tissue, or bone.
You are treating a dog who is suffering malabsorption, eating constantly yet losing weight. He has chronic diarrhea that is pale, fatty, and voluminous. He is diagnosed with EPI, which is: a) characterized by painful straining at urination or defecation. b) caused by complications of advanced diabetes mellitus (DM). c) caused by insufficient production and secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes. d) characterized by an accumulation of lipids or fats in the cytoplasm of more than 80% of the hepatocytes.
c) caused by insufficient production and secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI) is caused by insufficient production and secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes.
If the contents of a horse's large intestine are to be evacuated, a sterile-draped tray is prepared on which the ______ is to be placed. a) ingesta b) mesentery c) colon d) small intestine
c) colon If the contents from the large intestine are to be evacuated, a colon tray is positioned along side of the horse and draped with sterile impervious drapes that allow the large colon to be placed onto the tray away from the abdominal opening.
You examine a microhematocrit tube after centrifugation. The buffy coat: a) is the uppermost layer and contains plasma. b) represents the middle layer and contains packed red blood cells (RBCs). c) contains white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets and is the middle layer between plasma and RBCs. d) is in the lower portion and contains packed RBCs.
c) contains white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets and is the middle layer between plasma and RBCs. After centrifugation, there are three visible components of the blood in the microhematocrit tube: a column of packed RBCs at the bottom, a buffy coat layer of WBCs and platelets just above the packed RBCs, and finally, plasma at the top.
Hypoadrenocorticism is: a) a result of overproduction of the pituitary hormone adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). b) due to excess cortisol production by the adrenal gland. c) due to a decrease in adrenal gland function. d) associated with the excess production of glucocorticoids.
c) due to a decrease in adrenal gland function. Diseases of the adrenal gland occur either due to an increase in function (hyperadrenocorticism) or a decrease in function (hypoadrenocorticism
Aseptic technique: a)requires that all cages be cleaned and thoroughly disinfected between patients. b) is only used for emergency surgery. c) includes all steps taken to prevent contamination of the surgical site by infectious agents. d) requires all people involved in patient care to wash their hands thoroughly with an antibacterial soap between patients.
c) includes all steps taken to prevent contamination of the surgical site by infectious agents. Aseptic technique includes all steps taken to prevent contamination of the surgical site by infectious agents.
If using an aminoglycoside antimicrobial agent to treat a patient, it is important to monitor the patient because these agents are known to cause: a) liver problems. b) heart problems. c) kidney problems. d) an increase in blood pressure.
c) kidney problems. Aminoglycoside antimicrobials (gentamicin, amikacin sulfate) are efficacious against gram-negative pathogens and can be administered intramuscularly or intravenously. These antimicrobials are nephrotoxic, so renal function should be monitored during therapy.
The condition in which air becomes trapped between the body wall and the lung is called: a) flail chest. b) hemothorax. c) pneumothorax. d) subcutaneous emphysema.
c) pneumothorax. he presence of air in the pleural space indicates a pneumothorax. Pneumothorax is commonly secondary to external trauma to the chest cavity that allows the influx of air into the pleural space, which collapses the lung and prevents reexpansion.
The term that describes false pregnancy is: a) Pseudomonas. b) cytokinesis. c) pseudocyesis. d) metritis.
c) pseudocyesis. Pseudocyesis means false pregnancy and is a result of an endocrine disturbance.
An allergic disease associated with airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and excessive mucous production is: a) influenza. b) herpes. c) recurrent airway obstruction. d)viral arteritis.
c) recurrent airway obstruction Heaves, or recurrent airway obstruction (RAO), is an allergic airway disease caused by airway inflammation, narrowing of small airways (bronchoconstriction), and excessive mucus production.
When collecting serum samples, be sure to: a) refrigerate the sample during the clotting procedure. b) never use a tube containing a serum separator. c)separate the serum as soon as a firm clot has formed. d) ensure that the sample contains fibrin to avoid false analyte measurements.
c) separate the serum as soon as a firm clot has formed. Serum should be separated as soon as a firm clot has formed. When removing the upper serum layer from the tube, it is important to avoid pulling up cells from the clot into the serum sample. Some red-top tubes contain a serum separator to aid in clean removal of the serum. Refrigeration of the sample during the clotting procedure is not recommended, because it will delay clot formation. This can result in an incompletely clotted sample at the time of serum removal or formation of a fibrin clot above the cells in the serum portion of the sample. The presence of fibrin in a sample can clog analyzer tubing or falsely alter the measured amount of an analyte.
The average heart rate (HR) (in beats per minute) can be calculated by counting the number of: a) millimeters between two R waves and dividing into 3000 when using a paper speed of 50 mm/sec. b)P waves in a predetermined time period and multiplying by the number of QRS complexes in that same time period. c)QRS complexes in a predetermined time period and multiplying the number of complexes by a specific factor. d) millimeters between two R waves and dividing into 1500 when using a paper speed of 25 mm/sec.
c)QRS complexes in a predetermined time period and multiplying the number of complexes by a specific factor. The average HR is determined by counting the number of QRS complexes in a predetermined time period (usually 3 seconds) and multiplying the number of complexes by a factor (20 when using 3 seconds) to calculate the number of beats per minute.
For tracheostomy in a calf, you will use a ______mm ID tube. a) 10- to 15- b) 10- to 12- c) 15- to 20- d) 5- to 10-
d) 5- to 10- If a patient is presented with an upper airway obstruction, then a tracheostomy can be performed to permit the animal to breathe. Calves and small ruminants will require 5- to 10-mm ID tubes.
According to the text, which of the following is not a common small animal emergency? a) Respiratory distress b) Urethral obstruction c) Acute abdomen d) All of the above are common small animal emergencies.
d) All of the above are common small animal emergencies. In addition to A, B, and C, some of the most common small animal emergencies include trauma, gastric dilation volvulus (GDV), and toxin exposure.
Which of the following types of fluids is most often used for arthroscopic procedures to aid in visualizing the intraarticular space? a) 5% Dextrose in water b) 50% Dextrose in water c) 0.45% Sodium chloride with 10 ml/L of chlorhexidine added d) Any sterile, balanced electrolyte solution
d) Any sterile, balanced electrolyte solution Sterile fluid, usually a balanced electrolyte solution, is infused into the joint under pressure to maintain distention of the joint capsule, which is essential for visualization of the intraarticular space.
The veterinarian is about to perform a vaginal examination on a cow with dystocia. As you prep the perineal area, which of the following is not true? a) The perineal scrub will decrease uterine and vaginal contamination. b) The perineal scrub is not intended to achieve asepsis. c) Some veterinarians prefer to begin by cleaning out the rectum so that the cow does not defecate on the clean field. d) It is imperative to clean the perineal area before the rectal portion of the examination.
d) It is imperative to clean the perineal area before the rectal portion of the examination. The perineal area should be prepped before the vaginal examination so manure and dirt are not carried into the vagina. The perineal scrub is not intended to achieve asepsis but to decrease uterine and vaginal contamination. If a rectal examination is performed, do not clean the perineal area until after the rectal examination is completed. Some veterinarians prefer to begin by cleaning out the rectum so that the cow does not defecate on the clean field
Which of the following practices helps ensure adequate steam penetration in the autoclave? a) Keeping the pack weight below 5 kg b) Stacking packs on top of each other c) Leaving less than 2 cm of space between packs and between the packs and autoclave walls d) Keeping the pack size smaller than 30 cm by 30 cm by 50 cm
d) Keeping the pack size smaller than 30 cm by 30 cm by 50 cm It is recommended that packs be no larger than 30 cm by 30 cm by 50 cm and weigh no more than 5.4 kg, depending on the type of material being autoclaved.
Lidocaine and bupivacaine are examples of which drug class? a) a2-Agonists b) NSAIDs c) Opioids d) Local anesthetics
d) Local anesthetics Local anesthetics work by totally disrupting neural transmission of information. Lidocaine, the most widely used local anesthetic, takes effect in 3 to 5 minutes and is effective for 60 to 90 minutes. Bupivacaine takes longer to take effect (15 to 20 minutes), but its anesthetic and analgesic effects last 6 to 8 hours.
When collecting blood for a complete blood count (CBC), which of the following is not true? a) If clots are present, a new sample should be collected. b) 2 ml of blood is sufficient for a CBC from any animal species. c) The collection tube should be inverted 10-15 times before further processing to ensure the RBCs, WBCs, and platelets are evenly dispersed in the sample. d) None of the above. A, B, and C are all true.
d) None of the above. A, B, and C are all true. All of the answers are true for collecting a CBC from any animal species. Samples are collected in a collection tube containing an anticoagulant and should be labeled immediately with identifying information as well as the date and time the sample was collected.
__________ is the condition of an abnormally thickened portion of the articular cartilage. a) Rheumatoid arthritis b) Osteoarthritis c) Arthrodesis d) Osteochondrosis
d) Osteochondrosis Osteochondrosis is an abnormally thickened portion of the articular cartilage
A(n) _______ is a detailed step-by-step description for performing a test and operating an instrument. a) Levy-Jennings chart b) QC c) iSTAT d) SOP
d) SOP It is important to have a standard operating procedure (SOP) for each instrument. An SOP is a detailed step-by-step description for performing a test and operating an instrument. This ensures that the test is performed in a uniform fashion every time, whether by the same technician or multiple technicians.
Which is the correct order of the phases of nociception? a) Electrical, chemical, cardiovascular b) Injury, heat and swelling, inflammation c) Mechanical, chemical, thermal d) Transduction, transmission, modulation
d) Transduction, transmission, modulation Nociception, derived from the Latin word nocere (to injure), includes three distinct phases: transduction, transmission, and modulation.
Which nutritional myodegenerative disease may be caused by a deficiency of gestational vitamin E and/or selenium? a) Johne disease b) Caseous lymphadenitis c) Caprine arthritis-encephalitis d) White muscle disease
d) White muscle disease White muscle disease (WMD), also known as nutritional myodegeneration, occurs in young calves, lambs, and kids born to dams receiving diets deficient in selenium during gestation.
Hypoalbuminemia may develop from loss through: a) the gastrointestinal tract. b) the kidney. c) decreased production due to liver failure. d) all of the above. Hypoalbuminemia may develop from loss through the kidney or gastrointestinal tract or from decreased production due to liver failure. Both albumin and globulin can decrease with hemorrhage.
d) all of the above. Hypoalbuminemia may develop from loss through the kidney or gastrointestinal tract or from decreased production due to liver failure. Both albumin and globulin can decrease with hemorrhage.
In the infection process, a reservoir refers to: a) transmission of infection by direct contact with skin, secretions, excretions, or mucous membranes of an infected animal. b) the portal of entry by which the pathogen gains entry into a new host. c) a pathogen's mode of transmission. d) an animal, insect, or fomite in or on which a pathogen can survive.
d) an animal, insect, or fomite in or on which a pathogen can survive. A reservoir can be an animal, insect, or fomite (an inanimate substance or object such as water, a bowl, a cage, clipper blades, an instrument, a towel, or scrubs) in or on which a pathogen can survive
A surgeon removes a devitalized section of intestine and then performs a(n): a) onychectomy. b) urethrostomy. c) ovariohysterectomy. d) anastomosis.
d) anastomosis. Anastomosis is performed after damaged tissue or a tumor requires a segment of the gastrointestinal tract to be removed.
Trocar, sleeve, blunt obturator, triangulation, and light cable are all terms used in _____ surgery. a) orthopedic b) ophthalmologic c) emergency d) arthroscopic
d) arthroscopic In arthroscopy, the sharp trocar is a pointed instrument that is inserted inside a hollow, cannula-type instrument called the arthroscope sleeve. The trocar and sleeve unit are used to penetrate the fibrous portion of the joint capsule through a stab incision. Once the sharp trocar has penetrated the fibrous joint capsule, the sharp trocar is replaced with an obturator. A fiber-optic light cable is attached directly to the optical light port on the arthroscope. Finally, the arthroscopic operation is performed via a technique called triangulation.
A cat's serum sample is orange in color, indicating the presence of: a) normal serum. b) Lipemia. c) in vitro hemolysis. d) bilirubin.
d) bilirubin. The presence of bilirubin in serum or plasma imparts a yellow to orange color. Normal serum should be clear and colorless, and lipemia appears as a hazy to overtly milky fluid. Hemolysis is characterized by red discoloration.
Trichuris vulpis of the dog, fox, and coyote can be found in the: a) small intestine. b) right ventricle and pulmonary arteries. c) stomach d) cecum.
d) cecum. Trichuris vulpis resembles a whip, hence its name, the whipworm. For both species of whipworms, a very fresh fecal sample is best for diagnosis. The veterinary technician must be able to recognize the whipworm's unique whiplike shape. Trichurids are associated with the cecum and portions of the large intestine.
First-degree AV block occurs when: a) there is no conduction of sinus impulses through the AV node. b) the sinus impulse is blocked at the level of the left or right bundle branch but is conducted normally through the opposite bundle branch. c) there is intermittent disruption of AV nodal conduction. d) conduction through the AV node is delayed.
d) conduction through the AV node is delayed. First-degree AV block occurs when conduction through the AV node is delayed, causing a prolonged PR interval on the ECG. First-degree AV block is typically idiopathic, due to AV nodal fibrosis or vagal stimulation or induced by drugs.
You notice a family of neonatal piglets establishing teat order. Naturally, the ______ mammary glands are most sought after. a) caudal b) middle c )nearest random d) cranial
d) cranial Because more milk is produced in the cranial mammary glands, the stronger, more assertive piglets will fight to claim these teats.
Hepatic encephalopathy can be caused by: a) the presence of trypsin in the liver and pancreas, causing autodigestion. b) persistent endoparasites, ulcerations, neoplasms, or coagulopathies. c) complications of pancreatitis. d) exposure of the brain to gastrointestinal (GI) toxins as a consequence of decreased liver function or portosystemic shunts.
d) exposure of the brain to gastrointestinal (GI) toxins as a consequence of decreased liver function or portosystemic shunts. Hepatic encephalopathy results when the brain is exposed to GI toxins, such as ammonia, as a consequence of decreased liver function or the presence of portosystemic shunts, which compromise the normal functioning of liver detoxification or the enterohepatic circulation.
Fecal samples collected from small animals using the ______ collecting method should be used for direct examination only because of the amount collected this way. a) jarred b) owner-bagged c) gloved-finger d) fecal loop
d) fecal loop Fecal samples collected directly from the animal at the veterinary hospital using a fecal loop should be used for direct examination only, as the amount collected is relatively small.
Cushing syndrome, or _____, primarily affects dogs and is characterized by _____. a)hypothyroidism; an underactive thyroid, resulting in subnormal circulating levels of the thyroid hormones, which causes a subsequent decrease in the metabolic rate b) diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA); the presence of ketones in the urine c) hypoadrenocorticism; inadequate secretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids, primarily cortisol and aldosterone d) hyperadrenocorticism; elevated circulating levels of cortisol produced by the adrenal cortex
d) hyperadrenocorticism; elevated circulating levels of cortisol produced by the adrenal cortex Hyperadrenocorticism, or Cushing syndrome, is a disease that primarily affects dogs and is characterized by elevated circulating levels of cortisol (hypercortisolemia) produced by the adrenal cortex.
Nacho, a dog, is exhibiting dyspnea. The mucous membranes show signs of pallor. The veterinarian diagnoses this as ______, or deficient oxygenation of the tissues. a)dyspnea b) hypoxemia c) hemoptysis d) hypoxia
d) hypoxia Hypoxia is defined as deficient oxygenation of the tissues. It manifests clinically as tachypnea, cyanosis or pallor, and dyspnea.
Indications of postoperative pain include a(n): a) decreased heart rate. b) increased appetite. c) decreased respiratory rate. d) increased heart rate.
d) increased heart rate. During recovery, animals that are in pain, among other things, may vocalize; have elevated heart and respiratory rates; thrash, bite, or chew at the surgery site; and/or become aggressive
Cerebrospinal (CSF) fluid from a horse is collected at the: a) atlantooccipital space. b) sacrococcygeal junction. c) cervical thoracic junction. d) lumbosacral space.
d) lumbosacral space. In horses with spinal cord disease, CSF is collected under sedation from the lumbosacral space.
A control is: a) software used to record, graph, and analyze control data. b) the antigen measured by any serologic test. c) a calibrator that is used to set up and adjust the instrument and/or procedure to perform correctly and to desired specifications. d) material that contains a known quantity of the analyte that is being tested.
d) material that contains a known quantity of the analyte that is being tested. Routinely running controls is an integral part of good quality control (QC). A control is material that contains a known quantity of the analyte that is being tested. Controls are used to monitor the performance of a test to ensure that the instrument and/or test procedure is working correctly and consistently. Controls are different from calibrators.
The most common nutritional disease of pot-bellied pigs is: a) malnourishment. b) stunted growth. c) anorexia. d) obesity.
d) obesity. The most common nutritional disease of pot-bellied pigs is obesity; however, many stunted and malnourished pigs are also seen owing to their owners' misguided attempts to keep them small.
In arthroscopic surgery, burs (or burrs) are: a) removed from the animal's coat before the procedure. b) the pumps used to deliver fluids to the surgical site. c) a type of forceps used to grasp and remove osteochondral chip fragments. d) often referred to as a motorized arthroplasty system.
d) often referred to as a motorized arthroplasty system. Motorized burs (or burrs) are often referred to as a motorized arthroplasty system. The system consists of a small rounded bur attached to a power-driven shaft. The bur and shaft are enclosed in a sleeve, with a portion of the bur protected to prevent inadvertent damage to surrounding articular cartilage.
During surgery, you hand the veterinary surgeon a(n) _____, which she uses to cut bone by applying the blade end to the area to be cut before pounding on the flared end of the handle with a mallet. a) external fixator b) rongeur c) trephine d) osteotome
d) osteotome Osteotomes and chisels are used to cut bone. Osteotomes and chisels are used by pounding on the flat or flared end of the instrument with a mallet.
Pyometra, metritis, and endometrial hyperplasia may be treated with a(n): a) onychectomy. b) anastomosis. c) urethrostomy. d) ovariohysterectomy.
d) ovariohysterectomy. terine diseases that may require ovariohysterectomy include metritis, pyometra, uterine prolapse, endometrial hyperplasia, neoplasia, injury, neglected dystocia, and congenital abnormalities.
Vertical measurements on an ECG paper represent: a) time expressed in seconds. b)strength of the electrical impulse expressed in millimeters per millivolt. c)time expressed in millimeters per second. d) strength of the electrical impulse expressed in millivolts.
d) strength of the electrical impulse expressed in millivolts. All standard ECG paper is composed of narrow vertical and horizontal lines 1 mm apart, creating a grid of 1-mm boxes. Vertical measurements represent strength of the electrical impulse expressed in millivolts (mV) and horizontal measurements represent time expressed in seconds (sec).
The analgesic effect of NSAIDs is due to: a) interaction with receptors in the central nervous system. b) interaction with specific opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord. c) interaction with histamine receptors. d)modification of the inflammatory response.
modification of the inflammatory response. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) provide analgesia by modifying the inflammatory response.