Chapter 6 instrument
(Refer to Figures 163 and 164.) Using an average ground speed of 120 knots, what minimum rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate (feet per NM) to 6,800 feet as specified on the instrument departure procedure for Rwy 32? A- 800 feet per minute. B- 400 feet per minute. C- 600 feet per minute.
A- 800 feet per minute.
When is radar service terminated during a visual approach? A- Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower. B- Immediately upon acceptance of the approach by the pilot. C-When ATC advises, "Radar service terminated; resume own navigation."
A- Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower.
For helicopters, what forecast weather mini- mums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only? A- Ceiling 200 feet above the approach minimums and visibility 1 statute mile, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach, at the alternate airport ETA. B- Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively. C-Ceiling 1,000 feet above airport elevation and 2 statute miles visibility for 1 hour after the alternate airport ETA.
A- Ceiling 200 feet above the approach minimums and visibility 1 statute mile, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach, at the alternate airport ETA.
For helicopters, what minimum weather condi- tions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan? A- Ceiling 200 feet above the minimums for the approach to be flown and 1 statute mile visibility, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach to be flown. B-800 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility. C-800 foot ceiling and 1 statute mile (SM) visibility.
A- Ceiling 200 feet above the minimums for the approach to be flown and 1 statute mile visibility, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach to be flown.
For aircraft other than helicopters, what forecast weather minimums required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only? A- Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively. B-Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively. C-Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively.
A- Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.
(Refer to Figures 216 and 216A.) What route should you take if cleared for the RENO Nine Departure with filed routing to V6, takeoff from runway 25? A- Climb on heading 254° to 5,000 feet MSL, then climbing right turn heading 340° and expect radar vectors to V6. B- Climb on runway heading to 5,000 feet MSL, then climbing right turn heading 340° to 9,700 feet MSL, then direct V6. C-Climb on heading 254° to 5,000 feet MSL, then climbing left turn to intercept V6.
A- Climb on heading 254° to 5,000 feet MSL, then climbing right turn heading 340° and expect radar vectors to V6.
What are the fuel requirements for a night IFR flight in a helicopter when an alternate airport is not required? A- Enough fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing and fly after that for 30 minutes. B-Enough fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at cruising speed. C-Enough fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, make an approach, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at cruising speed.
A- Enough fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing and fly after that for 30 minutes.
For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alter- nate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z? TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR= A- No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. B- No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively. C- Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.
A- No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.
While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken? A- Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible. B-Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency. C-Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.
A- Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.
What is the recommended procedure for tran- sitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan? A- Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance. B- Upon reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact the nearest FSS and cancel your VFR flight plan, then contact ARTCC and request an IFR clearance. C-Prior to reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact ARTCC, request your IFR clearance, and instruct them to cancel the VFR flight plan.
A- Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance.
When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated? A- When priority has been given. B- Any time an emergency occurs. C-When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.
A- When priority has been given.
What is meant when departure control instructs you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to a Victor airway? A- You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment. B-Radar service is terminated. C- You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
A- You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment.
operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance prior to A- entering controlled airspace. B- entering weather conditions below VFR minimums. C-takeoff.
A- entering controlled airspace.
If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alter- nate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be the A- minimums specified for the approach procedure selected. B- alternate minimums shown on the approach chart. C-minimums shown for that airport in a separate listing of "IFR Alternate Minimums."
A- minimums specified for the approach procedure selected.
During your preflight planning for an IFR flight in a helicopter, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3,000 feet scattered with 6 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing, A- then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. B-then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. C- and then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
A- then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
A "CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET" clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to A- vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC. B- climb to, but not descend from 4,000 feet, without further ATC clearance. C-use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude.
A- vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.
(Refer to Figure 216.) Departing runway 34L or 34R with weather minimums for takeoff and a climb ground speed of 150 knots, what minimum rate of climb would be required to 8,700 feet? A-1,200 feet per minute. B-1,125 feet per minute. C-1,225 feet per minute.
A-1,200 feet per minute.
When an alternate airport is required for helicop- ters on the flight plan, you must have sufficient fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, fly to the alternate, and thereafter fly for at least A-30 minutes at normal cruising speed. B-45 minutes at holding speed. C-45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
A-30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
During a flight, the controller advises "traffic 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound." The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic? A-40° to the right of the aircraft's nose. B-20° to the right of the aircraft's nose. C- Straight ahead.
A-40° to the right of the aircraft's nose.
(Refer to Figures 216 and 216A.) What is the minimum rate of climb per NM to 9,700 feet departing runway 25? A-500 feet. B-450 feet. C-400 feet.
A-500 feet.
For aircraft other than helicopters, what mini- mum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight? A-600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA. B- 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before to 2 hours after your ETA. C-800-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.
A-600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.
When an alternate airport is required, for heli- copters, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure? A-Ceiling 200 feet above the approach minimums and at least 1 statute mile visibility, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach. B-Ceiling 200 feet above field elevation and visibility 1 statute mile, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach. C-600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
A-Ceiling 200 feet above the approach minimums and at least 1 statute mile visibility, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach.
When may VFR waypoints be used on an IFR flight plan? A-Never. B- Always. C-When filing a composite flight plan.
A-Never.
(Refer to Figure 94.) What colors are runway holding position signs? A-White with a red background. B- Red with a white background. C- Yellow with a black background.
A-White with a red background.
When your aircraft is equipped with a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS, an airport may not be qualified for alternate use if A-the only standard approach procedure is GPS at the destination and alternate. B-the airport has only AWOS-3 weather reporting and no LAAS equipment operational. C-the airport is next to a restricted or prohibited area.
A-the only standard approach procedure is GPS at the destination and alternate.
The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from the A-ATIS broadcast. B- AFSS. C-Notices to Airmen publications.
B- AFSS.
If you are performing a VFR practice instrument approach and Radar Approach Control assigns an alti- tude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should you take? A-Continue as directed. B- Advise "unable" and remain clear of clouds. C-Deviate as needed; then rejoin the approach.
B- Advise "unable" and remain clear of clouds.
When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight? A- Only when ATC requests Mode C. B- At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC. C-When passing 12,500 feet MSL.
B- At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC.
What is the significance of an ATC clearance. which reads "... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND ..."? A- The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure. B- Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion. C-The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/ MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.
B- Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion.
(Refer to Figures 182 and 183.) All transitions on the GROMO Three Departure require A-a minimum climb to 8100. B- DME. C-a climb-in-hold to 8100 before proceeding on course.
B- DME.
Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.) A- Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight. B- Destination airport, altitude, and DP Name- Number-Transition, if appropriate. C-Clearance limit, and DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
B- Destination airport, altitude, and DP Name- Number-Transition, if appropriate.
Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received? A- Flying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace. B-Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists. C- Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist.
B- Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists.
Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI? A- If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red, and the far bars will appear white. B- If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white. C- If on the glidepath, both near bars and far bars will appear white.
B- If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.
(Refer to Figures 216 and 216A.) What procedure should be followed if communication is not established with departure control 1 minute after takeoff from run- way 34L? A-Turn right direct FMG VORTAC, then via assigned route. B- Maintain 330° heading up to 10,000 feet MSL, then right turn direct FMG VORTAC, then via assigned route. C-Turn right direct FMG VORTAC and hold until reaching 8,700 feet MSL, then via assigned route.
B- Maintain 330° heading up to 10,000 feet MSL, then right turn direct FMG VORTAC, then via assigned route.
(Refer to Figure 94.) What sign is designated by illustration 7? A- Location sign. B- Mandatory instruction sign. C- Direction sign.
B- Mandatory instruction sign.
What does the ATC term "Radar Contact" signify? A- Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility. B- Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated. C-You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.
B- Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by A-the established airway(s) between the departure 1e airport and the fix. B- an instrument departure procedure (DP) or radar vectors. C- direct route only.
B- an instrument departure procedure (DP) or radar vectors.
On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED - MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND-SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPAR- TURE-DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER. An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the A- departure control frequency. B- destination airport and route. C-requested enroute altitude.
B- destination airport and route.
(Refer to Figure 94.) Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend 19tte across the width of the taxiway. These lines are- A- white and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. B- yellow and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. C-yellow and the solid lines are nearest the runway.
B- yellow and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.
(Refer to Figure 190.) What are the hours of operation (local standard time) of the control tower at Santa Barbara Muni (SBA)? A-5:30am - 10:00pm B-0600 - 2300 C-1400 - 0700
B-0600 - 2300
(Refer to Figure 165.) What are the hours of operation (local standard time) of the Cascade Approach/ Departure Control when flying into Medford Airport? A-1400 - 0730. B-0600 - 2330. C-0730-1400.
B-0600 - 2330.
(Refer to Figure 184.) What are the hours of opera- tion (local time) of the Class D service for the Yakima Air Terminal when daylight savings time is in effect? A-0500 to 2100 local. B-0700 to 2300 local. C-0600 to 2200 local
B-0700 to 2300 local.
When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure? A-Ceiling 200 feet above the approach minimums and at least 1 statute mile visibility, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach. B-600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. C-Ceiling 200 feet above field elevation and visibility 1 statute mile, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach.
B-600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
What are the alternate minimums for an airport with a precision approach procedure? A-400-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility. B-600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility. C-800-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
B-600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
(Refer to Figures 163 and 164.) Departing run- way 32 for takeoff with an average ground speed of 120 knots, what minimum rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate to 6,800 feet as specified on the instrument departure procedure? A-700 feet per minute. B-800 feet per minute. C-900 feet per minute.
B-800 feet per minute.
What minimum weather conditions must be fore- cast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan? A-800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility. B-800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. C-1,000-foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR.
B-800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
(Refer to Legend 27 and Figure 182.) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate (feet per NM) to 6,300 feet for Rwy 22 as specified on the instrument departure procedure? A-916 feet per minute. B-886 feet per minute. C-380 feet per minute.
B-886 feet per minute.
(Refer to Figure 211.) At which point does the basic instrument departure procedure terminate? A- When Helena Departure Control establishes radar contact. B-At STAKK intersection. C-Over the BOZEMAN VOR.
B-At STAKK intersection.
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND..."? A-The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure. B-It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000. C-The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.
B-It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.
Which information is always given in an abbrevi- ated departure clearance? A- DP or transition name and altitude to maintain. B-Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude. C- Altitude to maintain and code to squawk.
B-Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude.
What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft? A- Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation. B-Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification. C-Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.
B-Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.
Which is true regarding the use of an instrument- departure procedure chart? A-The use of instrument departure procedures is mandatory. B-To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure. C-To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved procedure.
B-To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure.
During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceil- ings, when should the pilot contact departure control? A-Before penetrating the clouds. B-When advised by the tower. C-Upon completing the first turn after takeoff.
B-When advised by the tower.
When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions? A- When operating in the Class E airspace. B-When operating in a Class A airspace. C-When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.
B-When operating in a Class A airspace.
For aircraft other than helicopters, under what conditions are you not required to list an alternate air- port on an IFR flight plan if 14 CFR part 97 prescribes a standard IAP for the destination airport? A- When the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1,000 feet above the lowest of the MEA, MOCA, or initial approach altitude and the visibility is 2 miles more than the minimum landing visibility within 2 hours of your ETA at the destination airport. B-When the weather reports or forecasts indicate the ceiling and visibility will be at least 2,000 feet and 3 miles for 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA at the destination airport. C- When the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1,000 feet above the lowest of the MEA, MOCA, or initial approach altitude within 2 hours of your ETA at the destination airport.
B-When the weather reports or forecasts indicate the ceiling and visibility will be at least 2,000 feet and 3 miles for 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA at the destination airport.
When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft? A-At all times when not in radar contact with ATC. B-When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR. C-Only when advised by ATC.
B-When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR.
(Refer to Figure 94.) Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having A- Yellow lettering with a black background. B-White lettering with a red background. C-Black lettering wit a yellow background.
B-White lettering with a red background.
What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is fore- cast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing, A- and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. B-fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. C-fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
B-fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
An abbreviated departure clearance "...CLEARED AS FILED..." will always contain the name A-and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan. B-of the destination airport filed in the flight plan. C-of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment.
B-of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that A-ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time. B-the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time. C- ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.
B-the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time.
During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000' scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel require- ments for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing, A-then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. B-then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. C- and then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
B-then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
During a takeoff into IMC with low ceilings, you should contact departure A- before entering the clouds. B-when the tower instructs the change. C-upon reaching traffic pattern altitude.
B-when the tower instructs the change.
Unless otherwise stated, instrument procedures use the standard IFR climb gradient of A- 500 feet per minute. B-400 feet per nautical mile. C- 200 feet per nautical mile.
C- 200 feet per nautical mile.
To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used? A- As rapidly as practicable to 500 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then at 500 feet per minute until the assigned altitude is reached. B-1,000 feet per minute during climb and 500 feet per minute during descents until reaching the assigned altitude. C- As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/ below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude.
C- As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/ below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude.
When 14 CFR part 97 prescribes a standard IAP for the destination airport, under what conditions are you not required to list an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan for an IFR flight in a helicopter? A- When the weather reports or forecasts indicate the ceiling and visibility will be at least 2,000 feet and 3 miles for 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA at the destination airport. B- When the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1,000 feet above the lowest of the MEA, MOCA, or initial approach altitude within 2 hours of your ETA at the destination airport. emi C- At your ETA and for 1 hour after your ETA, the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1,000 feet above the field elevation, or at least 400 feet above the lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and visibility of at least 2 statute miles.
C- At your ETA and for 1 hour after your ETA, the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1,000 feet above the field elevation, or at least 400 feet above the lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and visibility of at least 2 statute miles.
What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude? A-Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000 foot level. B-Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute the last 1,000 feet. C- Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.
C- Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.
No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan A-and receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff. B- prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway. C- and receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.
C- and receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.
(Refer to Figures 216 and 216A.) Of the following, which is the minimum acceptable rate of climb (feet per minute) to meet the takeoff minimums for runway 25 with a departure ground speed of 140 knots? A-970 feet per minute. B-1,225 feet per minute. C-1,167 feet per minute.
C-1,167 feet per minute.
(Refer to Figure 211.) At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection? A-11,800 feet MSL. B-10,800 feet MSL. C-10,200 feet MSL.
C-10,200 feet MSL.
For helicopters, what minimum weather con- ditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight? A-600 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA. B-200 foot ceiling above the airport elevation and 1 SM visibility from 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA.utss C-200 foot ceiling above the approach minimums and 1 SM visibility, but not less than the visibility minimums for the approach, at your ETA.
C-200 foot ceiling above the approach minimums and 1 SM visibility, but not less than the visibility minimums for the approach, at your ETA.
A particular instrument departure procedure requires a minimum climb rate of 210 feet per NM to 8,000 feet. If you climb with a ground speed of 140 knots, what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute? A-210. B-450. C-490.
C-490.
(Refer to Figure 189.) Using an average ground speed of 100 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as speci- fied by the instrument departure procedure? A-425 feet per minute. B-580 feet per minute. C-641 feet per minute.
C-641 feet per minute.
(Refer to Figure 211.) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as speci- fied on the instrument departure procedure for RWY 9? A-933 feet per minute. B-1,050 feet per minute. C-968 feet per minute.
C-968 feet per minute.
Which lines should you cross when exiting the runway? A-Solid lines B-Striped lines. C-Both solid and striped lines.
C-Both solid and striped lines.
(Refer to Figure 155.) Which restriction to use the BRICK transition would be applicable to the Grand Junction Six Departure (JNC6.BRICK)? A-Minimum climb of 300' per NM to 9300. B-Dual VOR receivers. C-DME.
C-DME.
Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request? A- DPs, STARS, and contact approaches. B-Contact and visual approaches. C-DPs, STARS, and visual approaches.
C-DPs, STARS, and visual approaches.
What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure? A-Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure. C-Enter "No DP" in the REMARKS section of the B- Advise departure control upon initial contact. IFR flight plan.
C-Enter "No DP" in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.
For aircraft other than helicopters, what mini- mum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available? A-From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles. B- From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles. C-From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.
C-From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.
For helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available? A-From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles. B- From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, reports and forecasts indicate a ceiling of 1,000 feet above the airport elevation and visibility 2 miles. C-From the ETA to 1 hour after the ETA, reports and forecasts indicate a ceiling 1,000 feet above the airport elevation, or at least 400 feet above the lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and visibility 2 statute miles.
C-From the ETA to 1 hour after the ETA, reports and forecasts indicate a ceiling 1,000 feet above the airport elevation, or at least 400 feet above the lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and visibility 2 statute miles.
Which procedure applies to instrument depar- ture procedures? A- Instrument departure clearances will not be issued unless requested by the pilot. B-The pilot in command must accept an instrument departure procedure when issued by ATC. C-If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess a textual or graphic description.
C-If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess a textual or graphic description.
When is an IFR flight plan required? A-When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace. B-In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace. C-In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.
C-In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.
For helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z? TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN040 BECMG 1012 0000OKT P6SM CLR= A- Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETА. B- No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively. C-No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 1,000 feet above the airport elevation (and 400 feet above the approach minima) with 3 miles visibility at the ETA to 1 hour thereafter.
C-No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 1,000 feet above the airport elevation (and 400 feet above the approach minima) with 3 miles visibility at the ETA to 1 hour thereafter.
What is the pilot in command's responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment.) A-Reduce TAS to 160 knots and maintain until advised by ATC. B-Reduce IAS to 160 MPH and maintain until advised by ATC. C-Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots.
C-Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots.
What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating within the outer area of Class C airspace? A- Separation from all aircraft. B- Position and altitude of all traffic within 2 miles of the IFR pilot's line of flight and altitude. C-Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft.
C-Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft.
What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP? A- The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively. B-The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively. C-The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR.
C-The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR.
When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate? A-600-1 if the airport has an ILS. B-Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum; visibility 2 miles. C-The landing minimums for the approach to be used.
C-The landing minimums for the approach to be used.
When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply? A- Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2). B-The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport. C-The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.
C-The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.
What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan? A- The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach. B- The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach. C-The point of first intended landing.
C-The point of first intended landing.
What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions? A- Report VFR conditions to ARTCC so that an amended clearance may be issued. B-Use VFR operating procedures. C-To see and avoid other traffic.
C-To see and avoid other traffic.
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff? A-When visibility is less than 1 mile. B-When parallel runways are in use. C-When departing from a runway intersection.
C-When departing from a runway intersection.
Under which of the following circumstances will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight? A-Whenever the pilot reports the loss of any navigational aid. B- When it is necessary to provide separation between IFR and special VFR traffic. C-When the pilot requests it.
C-When the pilot requests it.
Does the ATC term "cleared to cruise" apply to helicopter IFR operations? A- No, this term applies to airplane IFR operations only. B- Yes, but the pilot must report leaving an altitude. C-Yes, in part, it authorizes the pilot to commence the approach at the destination airport at pilot's discretion.
C-Yes, in part, it authorizes the pilot to commence the approach at the destination airport at pilot's discretion.
An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will A- allow for descent from the IAF to landing under basic VFR conditions. B- be at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile. C-allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions.
C-allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions.
The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will A- both appear white to the pilot when on the upper glidepath. B- constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the lower glidepath. C-constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath.
C-constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath.
When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before A- takeoff. B- entering IFR conditions. C-entering Class E airspace.
C-entering Class E airspace.
To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A- controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments. B-entering weather conditions in any airspace. C-entering controlled airspace.
C-entering controlled airspace.
What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing, A- and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. B-fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. C-fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
C-fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if A-the airport has only AWOS-3 weather reporting. B-the airport is next to a restricted or prohibited area. C-the only standard approach procedure is GPS.
C-the only standard approach procedure is GPS.
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to "RESUME OWN NAVIGATION." This phrase means that A-you are still in radar contact, but must make position reports. B-radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports. C-you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.
C-you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.
(Refer to Figure 134.) Unless a higher angle is necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath angle for a 2-bar VASI? A-2.75°. В-3.00°. C-3.25°.
В-3.00°.
