Chapter 65: Assessment of Neurologic Function
A client preparing to undergo a lumbar puncture states he doesn't think he will be able to get comfortable with his knees drawn up to his abdomen and his chin touching his chest. He asks if he can lie on his left side. Which statement is the best response by the nurse?
"Although the required position may not be comfortable, it will make the procedure safer and easier to perform." Explanation: The nurse should explain that the knee-chest position is necessary to make the procedure safer and easier to perform. Lying on his left side won't make the procedure easy or safe to perform. The nurse shouldn't simply tell the client there is no other option because the client is entitled to understand the rationale for the required position. Reporting the client's concerns to the physician won't meet the client's needs in this situation.
To evaluate a client's cerebellar function, a nurse should ask:
"Do you have any problems with balance?" Explanation: To evaluate cerebellar function, the nurse should ask the client about problems with balance and coordination. The nurse asks about difficulty speaking or swallowing to assess the functions of cranial nerves IX, X, and XII. Questions about muscle strength help her evaluate the client's motor system.
A patient arrives to have an MRI done in the outpatient department. What information provided by the patient warrants further assessment to prevent complications related to the MRI?
"I am trying to quit smoking and have a patch on." Explanation: Before the patient enters the room where the MRI is to be performed, all metal objects and credit cards (the magnetic field can erase them) must be removed. This includes medication patches that have a metal backing and metallic lead wires; these can cause burns if not removed (Bremner, 2005).
The nurse is preparing a client for a neurological examination by the physician and explains tests the physician will be doing, including the Romberg test. The client asks the purpose of this particular test. The correct reply by the nurse is which of the following?
"It is a test for balance." Explanation: The Romberg test screens for balance. The client stands with feet together and arms at the side, first with eyes open and then with both eyes closed for 20 to 30 seconds. Slight swaying is normal, but a loss of balance is abnormal and is considered a positive Romberg test.
A nurse and nursing student are caring for a client recovering from a lumbar puncture yesterday. The client reports a headache despite being on bedrest overnight. The physician plans an epidural blood patch this morning. The student asks how this will help the headache. The correct reply from the nurse is which of the following?
"The blood will seal the hole in the dura and prevent further loss of cerebral spinal fluid." Explanation: Loss of CSF causes the headache. Occasionally, if the headache persists, the epidural blood patch technique may be used. Blood is withdrawn from the antecubital vein and injected into the site of the previous puncture. The rationale is that the blood will act as a plug to seal the hole in the dura and prevent further loss of CSF. The blood is not put into the subarachnoid space. The needle is inserted below the level of the spinal cord, which prevents damage to the cord. It is not a lack of moisture that prevents healing; it is more related to the size of the needle used for the puncture.
The nurse is assessing the client's mental status . Which question will the nurse include in the assessment?
"Who is the president of the United States?" Explanation: Assessing orientation to time, place, and person assists in evaluating mental status. Does the client know what day it is, what year it is, and the name of the president of the United States? Is the client aware of where he or she is? Is the client aware of who the examiner is and why he or she is in the room? "Can you write your name on this piece of paper?" will assess language ability. "Can you count backward from 100?" assesses the client's intellectual function. "Are you having hallucinations?" assesses the client's thought content.
The nurse is caring for a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident and sustained a head injury. When assessing deep tendon reflexes (DTR), the nurse observes diminished or hypoactive reflexes. How will the nurse document this finding?
1+ Explanation: Diminished or hypoactive DTRs are indicated by a score of 1+, no response by a score of 0, a normal response by a score of 2+, and an increased response by a score of 3+.
Which of the following neurotransmitters are deficient in myasthenia gravis?
Acetylcholine Explanation: A decrease in the amount of acetylcholine causes myasthenia gravis. A decrease of serotonin leads to depression. Parkinson's disease is caused by a depletion of dopamine. Decreased levels of GABA may cause seizures.
A client is ordered to undergo CT of the brain with IV contrast. Before the test, the nurse should complete which action first?
Assess the client for medication allergies. Explanation: If a contrast agent is used, the client must be assessed before the CT scan for an iodine/shellfish allergy, because the contrast agent used may be iodine based. If the client has no allergies to iodine, then kidney function must also be evaluated, as the contrast material is cleared through the kidneys. A suitable IV line for contrast injection and a period of fasting (usually 4 hours) are required before the study. Clients who receive an IV contrast agent are monitored during and after the procedure for allergic reactions and changes in kidney function.
A client has sustained a head injury to the parietal lobe and cannot identify a familiar object by touch. The nurse knows that this deficit is
Astereognosis Explanation: Astereognosis is the inability to identify an object by touch. Visual agnosia is the loss of ability to recognize objects through visualizing them. The Romberg test has to do with balance. Ataxia is defined as incoordination of voluntary muscle action.
Which term refers to the inability to coordinate muscle movements, resulting in difficulty walking?
Ataxia Explanation: Ataxia is the inability to coordinate voluntary muscle action; tremors (rhythmic, involuntary movements) noted at rest or during movement suggest a problem in the anatomic areas responsible for balance and coordination. Agnosia is the loss of ability to recognize objects through a particular sensory system. Spasticity is the sustained increase in tension of a muscle when it is passively lengthened or stretched.
Lesions in the temporal lobe may result in which type of agnosia?
Auditory Explanation: Lesions in the temporal lobe (lateral and superior portions) may result in auditory agnosia. Lesions in the occipital lobe may result in visual agnosia. Lesions in the parietal lobe may result in tactile agnosia. Lesions in the parietal lobe (posteroinferior regions) may result in relationship and body part agnosia
A client is scheduled for an EEG. The client asks about any diet-related prerequisites before the EEG. Which diet-related advice should the nurse provide to the client?
Avoid taking sedative drugs or drinks that contain caffeine for at least 8 hours before the test. Explanation: The client is advised to refrain from taking sedative drugs or consuming drinks that contain caffeine at least 8 hours before the test because these may interfere with the EEG results. The client is not advised to increase or decrease the intake of minerals in the diet or to avoid eating food 8 hours before the test.
The nurse is performing an assessment of cranial nerve function and asks the patient to cover one nostril at a time to see if the patient can smell coffee, alcohol, and mint. The patient is unable to smell any of the odors. The nurse is aware that the patient has a dysfunction of which cranial nerve?
CN I Explanation: Cranial nerve (CN) I is the olfactory nerve, which allows the sense of smell. Testing of CN I is done by having the patient identify familiar odors with eyes closed, testing each nostril separately. An inability to smell an odor is a significant finding, indicating dysfunction of this nerve.
The nurse obtains a Snellen eye chart when assessing cranial nerve function. Which cranial nerve is the nurse testing when using the chart?
CN II Explanation: The nurse assesses vision and thus the optic nerve (cranial nerve II) by use of a Snellen eye chart.
What part of the brain controls and coordinates muscle movement?
Cerebellum Explanation: The cerebellum, which is located behind and below the cerebrum, controls and coordinates muscle movement.
A patient recently noted difficulty maintaining his balance and controlling fine movements. The nurse explains that the provider will order diagnostic studies for the part of his brain known as the:
Cerebellum. Explanation: The cerebellum is largely responsible for coordination of all movement. It also controls fine movement, balance, position (postural) sense or proprioception (awareness of where each part of the body is), and integration of sensory input.
The physician's office nurse is caring for a client who has a history of a cerebral aneurysm. Which diagnostic test does the nurse anticipate to monitor the status of the aneurysm?
Cerebral angiography Explanation: The nurse would anticipate a cerebral angiography, which detects distortion of the cerebral arteries and veins . A myelogram detects abnormalities of the spinal canal. An electroencephalogram records electrical impulses of the brain. An echoencephalography is an ultrasound of the structures of the brain.
Which occurs when reflexes are hyperactive when the foot is abruptly dorsiflexed?
Clonus Explanation: Clonus occurs when the foot is abruptly dorsiflexed. It continues to "beat" two or three times before it settles into a position of rest. Sustained clonus always indicates the present of central nervous system disease and requires further evaluation. Ataxia is incoordination of voluntary muscle action. Rigidity is an increase in muscle tone at rest characterized by increased resistance to passive movement. Flaccid posturing is usually the result of lower brain stem dysfunction; the client has no motor function, is limp, and lacks motor tone.
The critical care nurse is giving end-of-shift report on a client she is caring for. The nurse uses the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) to assess the level of consciousness (LOC) of a female client and reports to the oncoming nurse that the client has an LOC of 6. What does an LOC score of 6 in a client indicate?
Comatose Explanation: The GSC is used to measure the LOC. The scale consists of three parts: eye opening response, best verbal response, and best motor response. A normal response is 15. A score of 7 or less is considered comatose. Therefore, a score of 6 indicates the client is in a state of coma and not in any other state such as stupor or somnolence. The evaluations are recorded on a graphic sheet where connecting lines show an increase or decrease in the LOC.
The nurse is assessing the pupils of a patient who has had a head injury. What does the nurse recognize as a parasympathetic effect?
Constricted pupils Explanation: Constricted pupils are a parasympathetic effect; dilated pupils are a sympathetic effect.
There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves. Only three are sensory. Select the cranial nerve that is affected with decreased visual fields.
Cranial nerve II Explanation: The three sensory cranial nerves are I, II and VIII. Cranial nerve II (optic) is affected with decreased visual fields and acuity.
The nurse is assessing the throat of a client with throat pain. In asking the client to stick out the tongue, the nurse is also assessing which cranial nerve?
Cranial nerve XII Explanation: Assessment of the movement of the tongue is cranial nerve XII . Cranial nerve I is the olfactory nerve. Cranial nerve V is the trigeminal nerve responsible for sensation to the face and chewing. Cranial nerve XI is the spinal or accessory nerve responsible for head and shoulder and shoulder movement.
If a client has a lower motor neuron lesion, the nurse would expect to observe which manifestation upon physical assessment?
Decreased muscle tone Explanation: A client with a lower motor neuron lesion would be expected to have decreased muscle tone. Those with upper motor neuron lesion would have hyperactive reflexes, no muscle atrophy, and muscle spasticity.
Low levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin lead to which of the following disease processes?
Depression Explanation: A decrease of serotonin leads to depression. A decrease in the amount of acetylcholine causes myasthenia gravis. Parkinson's disease is caused by a depletion of dopamine. Decreased levels of GABA may cause seizures.
Which is a sympathetic effect of the nervous system?
Dilated pupils Explanation: Dilated pupils are a sympathetic effect of the nervous system, whereas constricted pupils are a parasympathetic effect. Decreased blood pressure is a parasympathetic effect, whereas increased blood pressure is a sympathetic effect. Increased peristalsis is a parasympathetic effect, but decreased peristalsis is a sympathetic effect. Decreased respiratory rate is a parasympathetic effect, and increased respiratory rate is a sympathetic effect.
A client has undergone a lumbar puncture as part of a neurological assessment. The client is put under the care of a nurse after the procedure. Which important postprocedure nursing intervention should be performed to ensure the client's maximum comfort?
Encourage the client to drink liberal amounts of fluids Explanation: The nurse should encourage the client to take liberal fluids and should inspect the injection site for swelling or hematoma. These measures help restore the volume of cerebrospinal fluid extracted. The client is administered antihistamines before a test only if he or she is allergic to contrast dye and contrast dye will be used. The room of the client who has undergone a lumbar puncture should be kept dark and quiet. The client should be encouraged to rest, because sensory stimulation tends to magnify discomfort.
The trochlear nerve controls which function?
Eye muscle movement Explanation: The trochlear nerve coordinates the muscles that move the eye. The acoustic nerve functions in hearing and equilibrium. The optic nerve functions in visual acuity and visual fields. The hypoglossal nerve functions in the movement of the tongue.
Which cerebral lobes is the largest and controls abstract thought?
Frontal Explanation: The frontal lobe also controls information storage or memory and motor function. The temporal lobe contains the auditory receptive area. The parietal lobe contains the primary sensory cortex, which analyzes sensory information and relays interpretation to the thalamus and other cortical areas. The occipital lobe is responsible for visual interpretation.
Which lobe of the brain is responsible for concentration and abstract thought?
Frontal Explanation: The major functions of the frontal lobe are concentration, abstract thought, information storage or memory, and motor function. The parietal lobe analyzes sensory information such as pressure, vibration, pain, and temperature. The occipital lobe is the primary visual cortex. The temporal lobe contains the auditory receptive areas located around the temples.
A patient sustained a head injury during a fall and has changes in personality and affect. What part of the brain does the nurse recognize has been affected in this injury?
Frontal lobe Explanation: The frontal lobe, the largest lobe, located in the front of the brain. The major functions of this lobe are concentration, abstract thought, information storage or memory, and motor function. It contains Broca's area, which is located in the left hemisphere and is critical for motor control of speech. The frontal lobe is also responsible in large part for a person's affect, judgment, personality, and inhibitions (Hickey, 2009).
Cranial nerve IX is also known as which of the following?
Glossopharyngeal Explanation: Cranial nerve IX is the glossopharyngeal nerve. The vagus nerve is cranial nerve X. Cranial nerve XII is the hypoglossal nerve. The spinal accessory is the cranial nerve XI.
The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems have a direct effect on the circulatory system. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) causes which of the following?
Heartbeat to decrease Explanation: The parasympathetic nervous system has a constricting effect on the blood vessels in the heart and skeletal muscles; the heartbeat and blood pressure will decrease.
A client in the emergency department has a suspected neurologic disorder. To assess gait, the nurse asks the client to take a few steps; with each step, the client's feet make a half circle. To document the client's gait, the nurse should use which term?
Helicopod Explanation: A helicopod gait is an abnormal gait in which the client's feet make a half circle with each step. An ataxic gait is staggering and unsteady. In a dystrophic gait, the client waddles with the legs far apart. In a steppage gait, the feet and toes rise high off the floor and the heel comes down heavily with each step.
What is the function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
It cushions the brain and spinal cord. Explanation: CSF is produced primarily in the lateral ventricles of the brain. It acts as a shock absorber and cushions the spinal cord and brain against injury caused by sudden or extreme movement. CSF also functions in the removal of waste products from cerebral tissue. CSF doesn't act as an insulator or a barrier and it doesn't produce cerebral neurotransmitters.
A nurse is assisting during a lumbar puncture. How should the nurse position the client for this procedure?
Lateral recumbent, with thighs flexed Explanation: To maximize the space between the vertebrae, the client is placed in a lateral recumbent position with the thighs flexed toward the chin as much as possible. The needle is inserted between L4 and L5. The positions in the other answer choices would not allow as much space between L4 and L5.
A 53-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a chief complaint of inability to form words, and numbness and weakness of the right arm and leg. Where would you locate the site of injury?
Left frontoparietal region Explanation: The patient is exhibiting signs of expressive aphasia with numbness/tingling and weakness of the right arm and leg. This indicates injury to the expressive speech center (Broca's area), which is located in the inferior portion of the frontal lobe. The motor strip is located in the posterior portion of the frontal lobe. The sensory strip is located in the anterior parietal lobe
Which term describes the fibrous connective tissues that cover the brain and spinal cord?
Meninges Explanation: The meninges have three layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater. The dura mater is the outermost layer of the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord. The arachnoid is the middle membrane, and the pia mater is the innermost membrane of this protective covering.
The nurse is performing the physical examination of a client with a suspected neurologic disorder. In addition to assessing other parts of the body, the nurse should assess for neck rigidity. Which method should help the nurse assess for neck rigidity correctly?
Moving the head and chin toward the chest Explanation: The neck is examined for stiffness or abnormal position. The presence of rigidity is assessed by moving the head and chin toward the chest. The nurse should not maneuver the neck if a head or neck injury is suspected or known. The neck should also not be maneuvered if trauma to any part of the body is evident. Moving the head toward the sides or pressing the bones on the neck will not help assess for neck rigidity correctly. While assessing for neck rigidity, sensation at the neck area is not to be assessed.
A patient is admitted to a specialty care unit with a diagnosis of an upper motor neuron lesion. The nurse assesses the patient and documents the presence of:
Muscle spasticity. Explanation: An upper motor neuron lesion is associated with increased muscle tone, muscle spasticity, no muscle atrophy, and hyperactive and abnormal reflexes. Refer to Table 43-4 in the text.
Which cranial nerve is responsible for muscles that move the eye and lids?
Oculomotor Explanation: The oculomotor (III) cranial nerve is also responsible for pupillary constriction and lens accommodation. The trigeminal (V) cranial nerve is responsible for facial sensation, corneal reflex, and mastication. The vestibulocochlear (VIII) cranial nerve is responsible for hearing and equilibrium. The facial (VII) nerve is responsible for salivation, tearing, taste, and sensation in the ear.
The pre-nursing class is learning about the nervous system in their anatomy class. What part of the nervous system would the students learn is responsible for digesting food and eliminating body waste?
Parasympathetic Explanation: The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system works to conserve body energy and is partly responsible for slowing heart rate, digesting food, and eliminating body wastes.
Which lobe of the brain is responsible for spatial relationships?
Parietal Explanation: The parietal lobe is essential to a person's awareness of body position in space, size and shape discrimination, and right-left orientation. The frontal lobe controls information storage or memory and motor function. The temporal lobe contains the auditory receptive area. The occipital lobe is responsible for visual interpretation
A patient has difficulty interpreting his awareness of body position in space. Which lobe is most likely to be damaged?
Parietal Explanation: The parietal lobe is the primary sensory cortex. It is essential to a person's awareness of his body in space, as well as orientation in space and spatial relations.
Which neurotransmitter demonstrates inhibitory action, helps control mood and sleep, and inhibits pain pathways?
Serotonin Explanation: The brain stem, hypothalamus, and dorsal horn of the spinal cord are sources of serotonin. Enkephalin is excitatory and associated with pleasurable sensations. Norepinephrine is usually excitatory and affects mood and overall activity. Acetylcholine is usually excitatory, but the parasympathetic effects are sometimes inhibitory.
A patient has been diagnosed with damage to Broca's area of the left frontal lobe. To document the extent of damage, the nurse would assess the patient's:
Speech. Explanation: The motor strip, which lies in the frontal lobe, anterior to the central sulcus, is responsible for muscle movement. It also contains Broca's area (left frontal lobe region in most people), critical for motor control of speech.
When learning about the nervous system, students learn that which nervous system regulates the expenditure of energy?
Sympathetic Explanation: Sympathetic Nervous System: This division of the autonomic nervous system regulates the expenditure of energy.
The nurse is performing a neurological assessment of a client who has sustained damage to the frontal cortex. Which of the following deficits will the nurse look for during assessment?
The inability to tell how a mouse and a cat are alike Explanation: The client with damage to the frontal cortex will display a deficit in intellectual functioning. Questions designed to assess this capacity might include the ability to recognize similarities: for example, how are a mouse and dog or pen and pencil alike? The Romberg test assesses balance, which has to do with the cerebellar and basal ganglia influence on the motor system. Absence of movement below the waist suggests a deficit with the spinal cord. Intentional tremors have to do with deficits of the motor system.
The nurse is preparing the client for a diagnostic test to evaluate blood flow within intracranial blood vessels. For which test is the nurse preparing the client?
Transcranial Doppler Explanation: Transcranial Doppler flow studies are used to study a tumor's blood flow within intracranial blood vessels. Cerebral angiography may be used to study a tumor's blood supply or obtain information about vascular lesions. Magnetic resonance imaging provides information similar to that provided by computed tomography, but with improved tissue contrast, resolution, and anatomic definition, and it examines the lesion in multiple planes.
The brain stem holds the medulla oblongata. What is the function of the medulla oblongata?
Transmits motor impulses from the brain to the spinal cord Explanation: The medulla oblongata lies below the pons and transmits motor impulses from the brain to the spinal cord and sensory impulses from peripheral sensory neurons to the brain. The medulla contains vital centers concerned with respiration, heartbeat, and vasomotor activity (the control of smooth muscle activity in blood vessel walls).
The spinal cord is composed of 31 pairs of spinal nerves. How many pairs of thoracic nerves are contained within the spinal column?
Twelve Explanation: There are twelve pairs of thoracic nerves, five lumbar and sacral nerves, eight cervical, and one coccygeal.
A patient comes to the emergency department with severe pain in the face that was stimulated by brushing the teeth. What cranial nerve does the nurse understand can cause this type of pain?
V Explanation: The trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V) innervates the forehead, cheeks, and jaw, so pain in the face elicited when brushing the teeth would most likely involve this nerve.
The provider orders the Romberg test for a patient. The nurse tells the patient that the provider wants to evaluate his equilibrium by assessing which cranial nerve?
VIII Explanation: Cranial nerve VIII (acoustic) can be checked to assess equilibrium status
The nurse who is employed in a neurologist's office is performing a history and assessment on a client experiencing hearing difficulty. The nurse is most correct to gather equipment to assess the function of cranial nerve:
VIII Explanation: There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves. Cranial nerve VIII is the vestibulocochlear or auditory nerve responsible for hearing and balance. Cranial nerve II is the optic nerve. Cranial nerve VI is the abducens nerve responsible for eye movement. Cranial nerve XI is the accessory nerve and is involved with head and shoulder movement.
A client is scheduled for standard EEG testing to evaluate a possible seizure disorder. Which nursing intervention should the nurse perform before the procedure?
Withhold anticonvulsant medications for 24 to 48 hours before the exam Explanation: Anticonvulsant agents, tranquilizers, stimulants, and depressants should be withheld 24 to 48 hours before an EEG because these medications can alter EEG wave patterns or mask the abnormal wave patterns of seizure disorders. To increase the chances of recording seizure activity, it is sometimes recommended that the client be deprived of sleep on the night before the EEG. Coffee, tea, chocolate, and cola drinks are omitted in the meal before the test because of their stimulating effect. However, meals are not omitted, because an altered blood glucose concentration can cause changes in brain wave patterns. The client is informed that a standard EEG takes 45 to 60 minutes; a sleep EEG requires 12 hours.
The nurse is performing a neurologic assessment on a client diagnosed with a stroke and cannot elicit a gag reflex. This deficit is related to which of the following cranial nerves?
X Explanation: CN X is the vagus nerve and has to do with the gag reflex, laryngeal hoarseness, swallowing ability, and the symmetrical rise of the uvula and soft palate. CN VII is the facial nerve and has to do with symmetry of facial movements and the ability to discriminate between the tastes of sugar and salt. The inability to close one eyelid indicates impairment of this nerve. CN VIII is the acoustic nerve. It has to do with hearing, air and bone conduction, and balance. CN III is the oculomotor nerve and has to do with pupillary response, conjugate movements, and nystagmus.
The nurse is caring for a client with a significant allergy history to various medications and shellfish. Because the client needs to have a diagnostic study with contrast, which medication classification is anticipated?
antihistamine Explanation: Clients with an allergy history are administered a pretest dose of an antihistamine. Antihistamines block histamine receptors and reduce the manifestations of an allergic reaction. The other options are not administered in the pretest period.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of a cerebral aneurysm. Which diagnostic test does the nurse anticipate to monitor the status of the aneurysm?
cerebral angiography Explanation: The nurse would anticipate a cerebral angiography, which detects distortion of the cerebral arteries and veins . A milligram detects abnormalities of the spinal canal. An electroencephalogram records electrical impulses of the brain. An echoencephalography is an ultrasound of the structures of the brain.
A nurse is working in a neurologist's office. The physician orders a Romberg test. The nurse should have the client:
close his or her eyes and stand erect. Explanation: In the Romberg test, the client stands erect with the feet close together and eyes closed. If the client sways as if to fall, it is considered a positive Romberg test. All of the other options include components of neurologic tests, indicating neurologic deficits and balance.
Which diagnostic procedure would the nurse anticipate first if the goal was to obtain a thin slice of a muscular body area?
computed tomography (CT) Explanation: A computer tomography scan uses x-rays and computer analysis to produce three-dimensional views of the slices of the body. This is a good first test to obtain information. An MRI uses radiofrequency waves to produce images of tissue. PET scans use radioactive substances to examine metabolic activity and organ involvement. SPECT is an imaging tool that examines cerebral blood flow.
A client is waiting in a triage area to learn the medical status of family members following a motor vehicle accident. The client is pacing, taking deep breaths, and handwringing. Considering the effects in the body systems, the nurse anticipates that the liver will:
convert glycogen to glucose for immediate use. Explanation: When the body is under stress, the sympathetic nervous system is activated readying the body for action. The effect of the body is to mobilize stored glycogen to glucose to provide additional energy for body action.
A nurse observes that decerebrate posturing is a comatose client's response to painful stimuli. Decerebrate posturing as a response to pain indicates:
dysfunction in the brain stem. Explanation: Decerebrate posturing indicates damage of the upper brain stem. Decorticate posturing indicates cerebral dysfunction. Increased intracranial pressure is a cause of decortication and decerebration. Alterations in sensation or paralysis indicate dysfunction in the spinal column.
After a plane crash, a client is brought to the emergency department with severe burns and respiratory difficulty. The nurse helps to secure a patent airway and attends to the client's immediate needs, then prepares to perform an initial neurologic assessment. The nurse should perform an:
evaluation of the corneal reflex response. Explanation: During an acute crisis, the nurse should check the corneal reflex response to rapidly assess brain stem function. Other components of the brief initial neurologic assessment usually include level of consciousness, pupillary response, and motor response in the arms and legs. If appropriate and if time permits, the nurse also may assess sensory responses of the arms and legs. Emergency assessment doesn't include fundus examination unless the client has sustained direct eye trauma. The client shouldn't be moved unnecessarily until the extent of injuries is known, making gait evaluation impossible. Bowel and bladder functions aren't vital, so the nurse should delay their assessment.
Lower motor neuron lesions cause
flaccid muscles. Explanation: Lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccidity, muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone, and loss of voluntary control. Upper motor neuron lesions cause increased muscle tone. Upper motor neuron lesions cause no muscle atrophy. Upper motor neuron lesions cause hyperactive and abnormal reflexes.
To assess a client's cranial nerve function, a nurse should assess:
gag reflex. Explanation: The gag reflex is governed by the glossopharyngeal nerve, cranial nerve IX. The other choices would not be involved in a cranial nerve assessment. Hand grip and arm drifting are part of motor function assessment. Orientation is an assessment parameter related to a mental status examination.
The nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department with a diagnosis of head trauma secondary to a motorcycle accident. The nurse aide is assigned to clean the client's face and torso. The nurse would provide further instruction after seeing that the nurse aide:
moved the client's head to clean behind the ears. Explanation: Further instruction would be provided to the nurse aide when the nurse aide attempted to move the client's head to clean behind the ears. There should be no movement of the client's head when there is a history of head trauma. Cleaning the client's face with soapy water, cleaning the eye area, and cleaning the neck and upper chest are all appropriate actions completed by the nurse aide
A nurse is completing a neurological assessment and determines that the client has significant visual deficits. Considering the functions of the lobes of the brain, which area will most likely contain the neurologic deficit?
occipital Explanation: The vision center is located in the occipital lobe. There is little that may interfere with the visual process in the other lobes of the brain
The nurse has completed evaluating the client's cranial nerves. The nurse documents impairment of the right cervical nerves (CN IX and CN X). Based on these findings, the nurse should instruct the client to
refrain from eating or drinking for now. Explanation: Significant findings of CN IX (glossopharyngeal) include difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) and impaired taste, and significant findings of CN X (vagus) include weak or absent gag reflex, difficulty swallowing, aspiration, hoarseness, and slurred speech (dysarthria). Based on these findings, the nurse should instruct the client to refrain from eating and drinking and should contact the health care provider. The other instructions are associated with abnormalities of CN II (optic) and CN VIII (acoustic).
A nurse is caring for a client with an injury to the central nervous system. When caring for a client with a spinal cord insult slowing transmission of the motor neurons, the nurse would anticipate a delayed reaction in:
response due to interrupted impulses from the central nervous system Explanation: The central nervous system is composed of the brain and the spinal cord. Motor neurons transmit impulses from the central nervous system. Slowing transmission in this area would slow the response of transmission leading to a delay in reaction. Sensory neurons transmit impulses from the environment to the central nervous system, allowing identification of a stimulus. Cognitive centers of the brain interpret the information.
During a routine physical examination to assess a client's deep tendon reflexes, a nurse should make sure to:
support the joint where the tendon is being tested. Explanation: The nurse should support the joint where the tendon is being tested to prevent the attached muscle from contracting. The nurse should use the flat, not pointed, end of the reflex hammer when striking the Achilles tendon. (The pointed end is used to strike over small areas, such as the thumb placed over the biceps tendon.) Tapping the tendon slowly and softly wouldn't provoke a deep tendon reflex response. The nurse should hold the reflex hammer loosely, not tightly, between the thumb and fingers so it can swing in an arc.
A client is actively hallucinating during an assessment. The nurse would be correct in documenting the hallucination as a disturbance in
thought content. Explanation: Hallucinations are disturbances of thought content. They are not disturbances in motor ability, intellectual function, or emotional status.