Clinical Correlations

When collecting a capillary sample, which of the following errors will cause specimen hemolysis? A. Using a swollen or previously punctured site for specimen collection B. Not mixing a sample containing an anticoagulant after drawing the specimen C. Not allowing the alcohol to air dry on the puncture site D. Not wiping away the first from of blood after the skin is puncture is performed

Not allowing the alcohol to air dry on the puncture site

Which one of these physical exam results would cause a donor to be deferred? A. A hemoglobin of 12.0 g/dL B. A pulse of 75 C. A diastolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg D. A temperature of 99.3°F

A diastolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg

The pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus, as well as the frequency with which this organism produces infections, can be attributed to all the following EXCEPT: A. Exfoliative toxin and enterotoxins B. A porous cell wall C. Natural colonization/reservoir for infection D. Hyaluronidase

A porous cell wall

All of the following are advantages of performing the computer crossmatch EXCEPT: A. Greater flexibility in staffing B. One determination of recipient's ABO group is made C. Better management of blood bank inventory D. Reduced volume of sample needed on large crossmatch orders

One determination of recipient's ABO group is made

Which of the following viruses is MOST often reported as the cause of infection leading to aplastic crisis in a patient with sickle cell disease? A. Adenovirus B. Epstein-Barr virus C. Parvovirus B19 D. Zoster-simplex virus

Parvovirus B19

What is a human infection caused by flukes called? A. Elephantiasis B. Distomiasis C. Zoonoses D. Swimmer's itch

Distomiasis

Which of the following organisms show a characteristic "test-tube brush like" pattern at 22 degrees Celsius? A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Pseudomonas fluorescens C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae D. Entercoccus casseliflavus

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A deficiency in which of the following coagulation factors will produce an abnormal PT test result, but will not affect aPTT test result? A. Factor X B. Factor VII C. Factor V D. Factor II

Factor VII

ACTH controls which step of steroid hormone production? A. First step (cholesterol to cholesterol esters) B. First step (cholesterol esters to cholesterol) C. Second step (cholesterol to pregnenolone) D. Third step (cholesterol esters to pregnenolone)

First step (cholesterol esters to cholesterol)

In which disorder do neonates demonstrate the presence of Bart's hemoglobin that changes to beta chain tetramers in adults? A. Alpha thalassemia major B. Alpha thalassemia minor C. Hemoglobin H disease D. Hydrops fetalis

Hemoglobin H disease

The primary mechanism responsible for glomerular filtration is: A. Osmotic gradient B. Concentration of blood components C. Rate of blood flow through the kidneys D. Hydrostatic differential in glomerular tufts

Hydrostatic differential in glomerular tufts

Spherocytes are associated with which of the following conditions A. Hereditary stomatocytosis B. Immune hemolytic anemia C. Thalassemia D. Iron deficiency

Immune hemolytic anemia

Hereditary hemochromatosis has been found to result from genetic mutations of which HFE is the most common? This mutation causes hemochromatosis by which of the following mechanisms? A. Impairs hepcidin regulation of ferroportin activity B. Increased binding of B2 micro globulin C. Impairs transferrin synthesis D. Increases hepcidin synthesis therefore increasing iron absorption

Impairs hepcidin regulation of ferroportin activity

Pernicious anemia refers to cobalamin deficiency that results from a lack of which of the following? A. Vitamin B12 B. Intrinsic Factor C. Folate D. Vitamin C

Intrinsic Factor

Tumor markers are especially valuable when used to: A. Rule out cancer B. Screen the general population for cancer C. Monitor response to cancer therapy D. Confirm other assays

Monitor response to cancer therapy

An example of neoplastic proliferative disease of the plasma cells is: A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia B. B Lymphoblastic Leukemia/Lymphoma C. Multiple Myeloma D. Polycythemia Vera

Multiple Myeloma

Which of the following distinguishing characteristic is associated with Streptomyces species? A. Partial acid-fast organism B. Resistance to lysozyme C. Musty basement odor D. Salmon pink colones

Musty basement odor

A patient with a high absolute eosinophil count of 2000/µl: organ biopsies show infiltration of eosinophils. The patient is diagnosed as having Chronic Eosinophilic Leukemia. Other causes for high eosinophil counts include all the following EXCEPT: A. Hypereosinophilia of familial origin B. Allergic reactions C. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia D. Mycosis Fungoides

Mycosis Fungoides

A maternal sample is collected 2 hours after delivery and a type and screen is performed. The screen is weakly positive and an anti-D is identified. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the positive antibody screen? A. Passive anti-D from RhIG given at 28 weeks B. Anti-D formed during delivery C. Anti-D in neonate D. False positive result

Passive anti-D from RhIG given at 28 weeks

Which is the best method for examination of synovial crystals? A. Phase contrast B. Darkfield microscopy C. Brightfield microscopy D. Polarized light

Polarized light

A patient is experiencing prolonged bleeding following a transfusion. The complete blood count indicated that the patient's platelet count has decreased following the transfusion. What is the most likely cause of this issue? A. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload B. Transfusion reaction to red cell antigens C. Posttransfusion purpura D. Transfusion related acute lung injury

Posttransfusion purpura

Which potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation is released by endothelial cells? A. Epinephrine B. Prostacyclin C. Ristocetin D. Thromboxane A2

Prostacyclin

In the evaluation of a positive DAT result, all of the below techniques can be used to dissociate the antibody(ies) form the RBCs EXCEPT: A. EDTA-glycine B. Saline replacement C. Chloroquine diphosphate D. Murine monoclonal antibodies

Saline replacement

The use of objective tests for evaluation clinical performance is limited because they: A. Cannot test problem-solving skills B. Are difficult to grade with a small number of students C. Are not related to clinical competence D. Tend to measure only cognitive abilities

Tend to measure only cognitive abilities

What does myocardium stand for? A. The outer layer of the heart B. The middle layer of the heart C. The inner layer of the heart D. The fluid filled sack surrounding the heart

The middle layer of the heart

Avidity is best described by which of the following statements? A. The strength with which red cells agglutinate B. The strength with which multivalent antigens and antibodies bind C. The strength with which univalent antigens and antibodies bind D. The speed with which an antigen-antibody reaction occurs

The strength with which multivalent antigens and antibodies bind

Infections with Eikenella corrodens is associated with: A. Ingestions of food contamination with saliva B. Bites from canines or felines C. Trauma associated with human teeth D. Inhalation of respiratory droplets

Trauma associated with human teeth

Which of the following ketones is NOT detected in the AceTest tablet method? A. Acetone B. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid C. Acetoacetic acid D. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid and acetone

Beta-hydroxybutyric acid

Which bacterial species is most likely represented by the spreading, wrinkled, non-hemolytic colony appearance? A. Burkholderia pseudomallei B. Pseudomonas aerginosa C. Bacillus cereus D. Listeria monocytogenes

Burkholderia pseudomallei

The historical medium of choice for isolation of Francisella is: A. Chocolate agar B. Cysteine blood glucose agar C. Modified Thayer-Martin agar D. MacConkey agar

Cysteine blood glucose agar

What is the minimum hemoglobin concentration required for autologous blood donation? A. 11 g/dL B. 10 g/dL C. 13 g/dL D. 12.5 g/dL

11 g/dL

Unless an alternative has been approved by the FDA, what is the expiration and storage temperature of rejuvanated RBCs? A. 24 hours; 1°C to 6°C B. 48 hours; 1°C to 10°C C. 72 hours; 1°C to 6°C D. 24 hours; room temperature

24 hours; 1°C to 6°C

How many SD above and below the mean is accepted as being an appropriate control limit on a control chart utilizing the Westgard rules? A. 1 SD B. 2 SD C. 3 SD D. 4 SD

3 SD

Whole blood is composed of approximately: A. 75% formed elements and 25% plasma B. 60% formed elements and 40% plasma C. 45% formed elements and 55% plasma D. 30% formed elements and 70% plasma

45% formed elements and 55% plasma

How long after collection can a patients sample be used for compatibility testing? A. 72 hours B. 24 hours C. 96 hours D. 7 days

72 hours

Which of the following statements is true about the emergence of penicillin-resistant strains of Streptococcus pneumonia? A. Resistance to penicillin disk diffusion is reliable B. A zone size = 20mm surrounding a 1 microgram oxacillin disk must b confirmed C. Penicillin resistance is reliable and reportage with a zone size of = 20mm with the oxacillin disk screen D. A zone size of = 20mm with the oxacillin disk screen must be confirmed with an MIC method to determine if Penicillin is susceptible or resistant

A zone size of = 20mm with the oxacillin disk screen must be confirmed with an MIC method to determine if Penicillin is susceptible or resistant

What is the composition of basophilic stippling? A. Aggregation of DNA B. Aggregation of hemoglobin C. Aggregation of ribosomes D. Aggregation of iron

Aggregation of ribosomes

Which of the following is used to determine if a person has had a recent infection with Strep pyogenes? A. Antistreptolysin O B. Hyaluronidase C. M-protein D. Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin

Antistreptolysin O

An increased reticulocyte count MAY be found in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT: A. Hemolytic anemias B. Following acute hemorrhage C. Aplastic anemia D. Satisfactory response to therapy to pernicious anemia

Aplastic anemia

Which of the following is the "activation unit" in the classical complement pathway? A. C1qrs B. Factors B and D C. C4, C2, C3 D. C5, C6, C7, C8, C9

C5, C6, C7, C8, C9

Which clinical laboratory regulation defines the personnel qualifications and responsibilities of the various positions in the clinical laboratory A. AMT B. OSHA C. CLIA D. CLMA

CLIA

The following is the primary virulence factor produced by Streptococcus pneumonia that prevents phagocytosis: A. Streptolysin O B. Capsule C. M protein D. Exfoliative toxin

Capsule

The following morphologic structure identifies Candida albicans and distinguishes it from most of the other Candida species A. Hypha B. Blastoconidia C. Mycelium D. Chlamydospore

Chlamydospore

Cystine-tellurite blood agar is recommended for the isolation of which organism? A. Yersinia enterocolitica B. Legionella pneumonphilia C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae D. Francisella tularenisis

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Nephelometry is based on the principle of: A. Turbidity resulting from specific antigen-coated latex agglutinated by corresponding antibody B. Agglutination resulting from physical attachment of antibody molecules to antigen on an erythrocyte membrane C. Agglutination of host antibody to antigenic determinant on a bacterial agent D. Precipitation of immune-related proteins in agarose gel

Turbidity resulting from specific antigen-coated latex agglutinated by corresponding antibody

The type of hypersensitivity reaction associated with macrophage activation, cytokine-mediated inflammation is: A. Type I ( Immediate hypersensitivity) B. Type II (Antibody mediated and antibody dependent, complement mediated hypersensitivity) C. Type III complex medicated hypersensitivity D. Type IV (T-cell dependent)

Type IV (T-cell dependent)

What causes polyacrylamide gels to have greater resolution of proteins than agarose gels? A. Polysaccharide composition B. Electroendosmosis C. Transparency D. Varying pore size in each polyacrylamide layer

Varying pore size in each polyacrylamide layer

Name the type of large blood vessels that carry carbon dioxide, oxygen-poor blood, and other water products from the body back to the heart. A. Arteries B. Arterioles C. Venules D. Veins

Veins

Which of the following is the most common type of autoimmune hemolytic anemia? A. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia B. Cold agglutinin disease C. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria D. Drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia

Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

What best describes high sensitivity CRP (hs-CRP) testing? A. hs-CRP is a measurement of acute inflammation and is used to monitor these types of conditions B. hs-CRP is an anti-inflammatory adipokine synthesized by adipocytes C. hs-CRP is a marker of chronic inflammation and measured to predict the risk of cardiovascular disease D. hs-CRP is decreased in inflammatory conditions and measured to predict a return of inflammation

hs-CRP is a marker of chronic inflammation and measured to predict the risk of cardiovascular disease