* Combined 15 - 21 GYN Penny Qs
A patient presents to the sonography department with a history of uterine prolapsed. Which of the following best describes this disorder? a. A condition that results from the weakening of the pelvic diaphragm muscles and allows for the displacement of the uterus, often through the vagina. b. A congenital anomaly that results in the duplication of the uterus. c. A condition that results in the abnormal invasion of the myometrium through the bladder wall leading to hematuria. d. An abnormality that describes the inversion of the myometrium and endometrium.
a.
All of the following statements are true of endovaginal imaging except: a. Endovaginal imaging requires a full urinary bladder. b. Endovaginal imaging leads to reduced waiting time for the patient and quicker medical management. c. Endovaginal imaging offers improved resolution of the endometrium, uterus, and ovaries, especially in the obese patient. d. Endovaginal imaging is contraindicated for pediatric patients, and for those with an intact hymen.
a.
Endovaginal transducers may be cleaned by submerging in a(n) ___-based solution. a. glutaraldehyde b. ascites c. formaldehyde d. Alcohol
a.
Pelvic bones, when visualized on sonography, will produce: a. Posterior shadowing b. Posterior enhancement c. Mirror image artifact d. Minimal enhancement
a.
Precocious puberty is best defined as: a. Pubertal development before the age of 8 b. Pubertal development before the age of 13 c. Excessive hair growth in girls in areas where hair growth is normally negligible d. Changes within the female that are caused by increased levels of α- fetoprotein
a.
The innominate bones of the pelvis consist of the: a. Ischium, ilium, and pubic bones b. Ilium, sacrum, and coccyx bones c. Sacrum, coccyx, and pubic bones d. Sacrum, ischium, and ilium bones
a.
The largest part of the uterus is the: a. Corpus b. Isthmus c. Cervix d. Fundus
a.
The ligament that houses the vasculature of the uterus is the: a. Cardinal ligament b. Ovarian ligament c. Broad ligament d. Suspensory ligament of the ovary
a.
The paired muscles that are located lateral to the uterus and anterior to the iliac crest are the: a. Iliopsoas muscles b. Rectus abdominis muscles c. Obturator interni muscles d. Piriformis muscles
a.
The pelvic ligament that extends from the lateral aspect of the uterus to the side walls of the pelvis is the: a. Broad ligament b. Ovarian ligament c. Piriformis ligament d. Round ligament
a.
The pelvic muscle group that is located between the coccyx and the pubis is the: a. Levator ani muscles b. Rectus abdominis muscles c. Obturator internus muscles d. Piriformis muscle
a.
The right ovarian artery branches off of the: a. Aorta b. Right renal artery c. Uterine artery d. Internal iliac artery
a.
The sonographic pelvic examination of a female patient reveals an extensive amount of ascites. In the transverse plane, you visualize two echogenic structures extending from the side walls of uterus to the pelvic side walls bilaterally. These structures are most likely the: a. Broad ligaments b. Cardinal ligaments c. Ovarian ligaments d. Uterosacral ligaments
a.
The urinary bladder, uterus, and ovaries are located within the: a. True pelvis b. False pelvis
a.
What artifact could be noted emanating from air or gas within the endometrium in a patient with endometritis? a. Ring-down b. Mirror image c. Posterior enhancement d. Dirty transmission
a.
What term describes the echogenicity of a simple ovarian cyst? a. Anechoic b. Hypoechoic c. Echogenic d. Hyperechoic
a.
Which of the following fibroid locations would most likely result in abnormal uterine bleeding because of its relationship to the endometrium? a. Submucosal b. Intramural c. Subserosal d. Subserosal pedunculated
a.
Which of the following is best defined as difficult or painful menstruation? a. Dysmenorrhea b. Dyspareunia c. Dysuria d. Menorrhagia
a.
Which of the following laboratory tests may be used as a tumor marker for an ovarian dysgerminoma? a. Lactate dehydrogenase b. Alpha-Fetoprotein c. Cancer antigen 125 (CA-125) d. Tamoxifen
a.
Which of the following most often leads to an elevation of CA-125? a. Ovarian carcinoma b. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome c. Ovarian torsion d. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
a.
Which of the following statements would be considered an acceptable disadvantage of endovaginal imaging? a. Endovaginal imaging has a limited field of view. b. The resolution of endovaginal imaging is reduced compared to transabdominal imaging. c. Endovaginal imaging is more time consuming than transabdominal imaging. d. Endovaginal imaging can be performed only by female sonographers.
a.
Which of the following would most likely be associated with hirsutism? a. Polycystic ovary syndrome b. Meigs syndrome c. Adenomyosis d. Adenomyomatosis
a.
Which vessels supply blood to the deeper layers of the myometrium? a. Radial arteries b. Spiral arteries c. Straight arteries d. Arcuate arteries
a.
A 24-year-old female patient presents to the sonography department for a pelvic sonogram with an indication of pelvic pain. Upon sonographic interrogation, the sonographer notes an anechoic mass within the vagina. This mass most likely represents a: a. Nabothian cyst b. Gartner duct cyst c. Dandy-Walker cyst d. Ovarian cyst
b.
A simple fluid accumulation within the vagina secondary to an imperforate hymen is: a. Hydrometrocolpos b. Hydrocolpos c. Hematometra d. Hematocolpos
b.
All of the following are common indications for a pelvic sonogram except: a. Evaluation of congenital anomalies b. Evaluation of pelvic anatomy immediately following a motor vehicle accident c. Localization of an intrauterine contraceptive device d. Postmenopausal bleeding
b.
Fluid noted anterior to the uterus would most likely be located within the: a. Pouch of Douglas b. Vesicouterine pouch c. Space of Retzius d. Rectouterine pouch
b.
Fluid noted posterior to the uterus would most likely be located within the: a. Space of Retzius b. Pouch of Douglas c. Anterior cul-de-sac d. Adnexa
b.
Having the same echogenicity means: a. Anechoic b. Isoechoic c. Echogenic d. Hypoechoic
b.
Malignant ovarian tumors may leak mucinous material, and this condition is known as: a. Dandy-Walker syndrome b. Pseudomyxoma peritonei c. Asherman syndrome d. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
b.
Prolapse of the pelvic organs most often involves the: a. Rectus abdominis and obturator internus muscles b. Levator ani and coccygeus muscles c. Obturator internus and levator ani muscles d. Piriformis and iliopsoas muscles
b.
The abdominal aorta bifurcates into the: a. Internal iliac arteries b. Common iliac arteries c. Ovarian arteries d. External iliac arteries
b.
The arteries that directly supply blood to the functional layer of the endometrium are the: a. Radial arteries b. Spiral arteries c. Straight arteries d. Arcuate arteries
b.
The inner mucosal lining of the uterus is the: a. Myometrium b. Endometrium c. Serosal layer d. Perimetrium
b.
The ovary is supplied blood by the: a. Ovarian artery b. Ovarian artery and uterine artery c. Uterine artery d. Arcuate artery
b.
The pelvic ligament that provides support to the ovary and extends from the ovary to the lateral surface of the uterus is the: a. Cardinal ligament b. Ovarian ligament c. Broad ligament d. Suspensory ligament of the ovary
b.
Which of the following are the paired anterior abdominal muscles that extend from the xiphoid process of the sternum to the pubic bone? a. Iliopsoas muscles b. Rectus abdominis muscles c. Obturator interni muscles d. Piriformis muscles
b.
Which of the following could be described as an infection of the female genital tract that may involve the ovaries, uterus, and/or the fallopian tubes? a. Pseudomyxoma peritonei b. Pelvic inflammatory disease c. Polycystic ovarian disease d. Ovarian torsion
b.
Which of the following definitions best describes the term adnexa? a. The area posterior to the uterus, between the uterus and rectum b. The area located posterior to the broad ligaments and adjacent to the uterus c. The area anterior to the uterus, between the uterus and urinary bladder d. The area lateral to the iliac crest and posterior to the pubic symphysis
b.
Which of the following diagnostic tests is used to evaluate emitted radiation from the patient to assess the function of organs? a. Magnetic resonance imaging b. Nuclear medicine c. Radiography d. Computed tomography
b.
Which of the following is best described as an artifact that is produced by a strong reflector and results in a copy of the anatomy being placed deeper than the correct location? a. Reverberation b. Mirror image c. Acoustic shadowing d. Comet tail
b.
Which of the following is defined as excessive hair growth in women in areas where hair growth is normally negligible? a. Dyspareunia b. Hirsutism c. Meigs syndrome d. Polycystic ovary syndrome
b.
All of the following are proper techniques for providing patient care for patients during a pelvic sonogram except: a. All transducers and their cords should be cleaned before performing a pelvic sonogram. b. Endovaginal transducers should be cleaned with a high-level disinfectant. c. A probe cover should be placed on the transducer for transabdominal imaging to prevent the spread of infection. d. Sterile jelly should be used as a lubricant for endovaginal imaging.
c.
Amenorrhea is defined as: a. The first menstrual cycle b. Excessive bleeding after the cycle c. Lack of menstrual flow d. Painful menstrual flow
c.
Another name for the rectouterine pouch is the: a. Space of Retzius b. Pouch of Retzius c. Pouch of Douglas d. Anterior cul-de-sac
c.
Difficult or painful intercourse is referred to as: a. Dysuria b. Dysmenorrhea c. Dyspareunia d. Hydrocolpos
c.
Pelvic muscles appear: a. Echogenic b. Anechoic c. Hypoechoic d. Complex
c.
The "S" in the STAR criteria stands for: a. Simple b. Sound c. Smooth walls d. Septations
c.
The inferior portion of the cervix closest to the vagina is the: a. Cornu b. Internal os c. External os d. Inferior fornix
c.
The layer of the endometrium that is significantly altered as a result of hormonal stimulation during the menstrual cycle is the: a. Myometrium b. Endometrial cavity c. Functional layer d. Basal layer
c.
The muscle located lateral to the ovaries is the: a. Iliopsoas muscle b. Rectus abdominis muscle c. Obturator internus muscle d. Piriformis muscle
c.
The right ovarian vein drains directly into the: a. Right renal vein b. Aorta c. Inferior vena cava d. Common iliac vein
c.
The rigid region of the uterus located between the vagina and the isthmus is the: a. Cornu b. Corpus c. Cervix d. Fundus
c.
The true pelvis is delineated from the false pelvis by the: a. Space of Retzius b. Adnexa c. Linea terminalis d. Iliac crest
c.
The uterine artery branches off of the: a. Abdominal aorta b. Uterine plexus c. Internal iliac artery d. External iliac artery
c.
The vagina is located __ to the uterus: a. anterior b. posterior c. inferior d. Medial
c.
What abnormality results from the ovary twisting on its mesenteric connection? a. Pelvic inflammatory disease b. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome c. Ovarian torsion d. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
c.
When does the Centers for Disease Control recommend that alcohol-based handrub not be used by the sonographer? a. After performing a sonogram b. Before performing a sonogram c. When your hands are visibly soiled d. Between patients
c.
Which of the following is defined as pain during intercourse? a. Dysuria b. Dysmenorrhea c. Dyspareunia d. Hirsutism
c.
All of the following are associated with acute pelvic pain except: a. Pelvic inflammatory disease b. Ruptured ovarian hemorrhagic cyst c. Perforated intrauterine contraceptive device d. Asherman syndrome
d.
All of the following are sonographic findings consistent with adenomyosis except: a. Diffuse, enlarged uterus b. Myometrial cysts c. Hypoechoic areas adjacent to the endometrium d. Complex adnexal mass
d.
All of the following would be relevant laboratory tests to evaluate before performing a routine pelvic sonogram except: a. Human chorionic gonadotropin b. Hematocrit c. White blood cell count d. Lipase
d.
Leukocytosis would most likely be associated with: a. Multiple degenerating fibroids b. Ovarian teratoma c. Adenomyosis d. Pelvic inflammatory disease
d.
Pelvic bones, when visualized on sonography, will appear: a. Anechoic b. Hypoechoic c. Dark d. Hyperechoic
d.
Peritoneal spaces located posterior to the broad ligament are referred to as the: a. Rectouterine spaces b. Anterior cul-de-sacs c. Lateral cul-de-sacs d. Adnexa
d.
Pseudoprecocious puberty may be associated with all of the following except: a. Ovarian tumor b. Adrenal tumor c. Liver tumor d. Brain tumor
d.
The anterior cul-de-sac is also referred to as the: a. Space of Retzius b. Rectouterine pouch c. Pouch of Douglas d. Vesicouterine pouch
d.
The best way to communicate with a patient who speaks a language other than your own is to: a. Use sign language b. Use proper body cues c. Use an online search engine d. Use a trained medical interpreter
d.
The bilateral muscles that are located posterior to and extend from the sacrum to the femoral greater trochanter are the: a. Levator ani muscles b. Rectus abdominis muscles c. Obturator internus muscles d. Piriformis muscles
d.
The breast cancer drug that inhibits the effects of estrogen in the breast is: a. CA-125 b. Methotrexate c. RA-916 d. Tamoxifen
d.
The invasion of endometrial tissue into the myometrium of the uterus is referred to as: a. Amenorrhea b. Endometriosis c. Adenomyomatosis d. Adenomyosis
d.
The left ovarian vein drains directly into the: a. Right renal vein b. Inferior vena cava c. Aorta d. Left renal vein
d.
The most superior and widest portion of the uterus is the: a. Corpus b. Isthmus c. Cervix d. Fundus
d.
The muscles that may be confused with the ovaries on a pelvic sonogram include the: a. Rectus abdominis and obturator internus muscles b. Levator ani and coccygeus muscles c. Obturator internus and levator ani muscles d. Piriformis and iliopsoas muscles
d.
The outer layer of the endometrium is the: a. Myometrium b. Endometrial cavity c. Functional layer d. Basal layer
d.
The pelvic ligament that provides support to the ovary to the pelvic side wall is the: a. Cardinal ligament b. Ovarian ligament c. Broad ligament d. Suspensory ligament of the ovary
d.
The peripheral arteries of the uterus are the: a. Radial arteries b. Spiral arteries c. Straight arteries d. Arcuate arteries
d.
The space of Retzius is located: a. Between the uterus and bladder b. Between the bladder and ilium c. Along the lateral aspect of the uterus d. Between the bladder and pubic bone
d.
What artifact would be seen posterior to a tooth within a cystic teratoma? a. Ring-down b. Reverberation c. Through transmission d. Shadowing
d.
What congenital malformation of the uterus is common and has a clear association with an increased risk for spontaneous abortion? a. Anteflexed uterus b. Levoverted uterus c. Dextroverted uterus d. Septate uterus
d.
What laboratory value would be most useful to evaluate in a patient with suspected internal hemorrhage? a. White blood cells b. Lactate dehydrogenase c. Amylase d. Hematocrit
d.
What other term is used to describe the space of Retzius? a. Posterior cul-de-sac b. Anterior cul-de-sac c. Murphy pouch d. Retropubic space
d.
What structure within the female pelvis lies posterior to the urinary bladder and anterior to the rectum? a. Broad ligament b. Rectus abdominus muscle c. Space of Retzius d. Uterus
d.
What term relates to the number of pregnancies a patient has had? a. Para b. Menarche c. Menorrhagia d. Gravida
d.
Which of the following is best defined as intermenstrual bleeding? a. Dysmenorrhea b. Menorrhagia c. Menometrorrhagia d. Metrorrhagia
d.
Which of the following statements is not true concerning transabdominal pelvic imaging? a. Transabdominal imaging of the pelvis provides a global view of the entire pelvis. b. Transabdominal imaging lacks the detail of endovaginal imaging. c. Obese patients and patients with a retroverted or retroflexed uterus present a unique challenge to the transabdominal technique. d. Transabdominal imaging is contraindicated for pediatric patients.
d.
Which of the following would be caused by a large acoustic interface and subsequent production of false echoes? a. Posterior shadowing b. Acoustic enhancement c. Mirror image d. Reverberation
d.
Which of the following would be considered the more common uterine anomaly? a. Bicornis univernus b. Bicornis bicollis c. Uterus didelphys d. Septate uterus
d.
Which of the following would be the least likely to cause abdominal distension? a. Ascites b. Multiple leiomyoma c. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome d. Polycystic ovarian disease
d.
Which of the following would typically not be associated with amenorrhea? a. Asherman syndrome b. Polycystic ovarian disease c. Pregnancy d. Adenomyosis
d.
A 34-year-old patient presents to the sonography department for an endovaginal sonogram complaining of intermenstrual bleeding. The sonographic findings include a focal irregularity and enlargement of one area of the endometrium. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Endometrial polyps b. Endometrial carcinoma c. Endometrial atrophy d. Intramural leiomyoma
a.
A 38-year-old female patient presents to the sonography department for a pelvic sonogram with an indication of pelvic pain. Upon sonography interrogation, the sonographer notes an anechoic mass within the cervix. This mass most likely represents a: a. Nabothian cyst b. Benign follicular cyst c. Dermoid cyst d. Gartner duct cyst
a.
A 55-year-old patient presents to the sonography department with a history of pelvic pressure, abdominal swelling, and abnormal uterine bleeding. A pelvic sonogram reveals a large, multiloculated cystic mass with papillary projections. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Serous cystadenocarcinoma b. Cystic teratoma c. Androblastoma d. Dysgerminoma
a.
A 60-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of vaginal bleeding. The sonographic examination reveals an endometrium that measures 4 mm. There are no other significant sonographic findings. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Endometrial atrophy b. Endometrial carcinoma c. Endometrial polyp d. Cervical stenosis
a.
Abnormally heavy and prolonged menstrual flow between periods is termed: a. Menometrorrhagia b. Menarche c. Menorrhagia d. Dysmenorrhea
a.
All of the following are clinical findings associated with leiomyoma except: a. Myometrial cysts b. Infertility c. Palpable pelvic mass d. Menorrhagia
a.
All of the following are sonographic findings of a tubo-ovarian abscess except: a. The presence of 10 or more small cysts along the periphery of the ovaries b. Cul-de-sac fluid c. Thickened, irregular endometrium d. Fusion of the pelvic organs as a conglomerated mass
a.
All of the following statements concerning PID are true except: a. PID is typically a unilateral condition. b. PID can be caused by douching. c. PID can lead to a tubo-ovarian abscess. d. Dyspareunia is a clinical finding in acute PID.
a.
An increase in the number of endometrial cells is termed: a. Endometrial hyperplasia b. Endometrial atrophy c. Endometrial carcinoma d. Polyps
a.
Blood accumulation within the uterus is termed: a. Hematometra b. Hydrometra c. Asherman syndrome d. Endometrial carcinoma
a.
Causes of female infertility include all of the following except: a. Previous intrauterine device use b. Polycystic ovary syndrome c. Asherman syndrome d. Endometriosis
a.
Causes of postmenopausal bleeding include all of the following except: a. Asherman syndrome b. Endometrial atrophy c. Endometrial hyperplasia d. Intracavitary fibroids
a.
Complex-appearing fluid within the fallopian tubes seen with PID is most likely: a. Pyosalpinx b. Pyometra c. Hydrosalpinx d. Hematometra
a.
During which phase of the endometrial cycle would the endometrium yield the three-line sign? a. Late proliferative b. Early proliferative c. Early secretory d. Late secretory
a.
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome could be described as: a. Clinical findings of gallbladder disease as a result of PID b. The presence of uterine fibroids and adenomyosis in the gravid uterus c. Coexisting intrauterine and extrauterine pregnancies d. The presence of pyosalpinx, hydrosalpinx, and endometritis
a.
OHS can cause multiple large follicles to develop on the ovaries termed: a. Theca lutein cysts b. Chocolate cysts c. Corpus luteum cysts d. Dermoid cysts
a.
Patients with OHS are at increased risk for: a. Ovarian torsion b. Chlamydia c. Gonorrhea d. Vaginitis
a.
Tamoxifen effects on the endometrium will sonographically appear as: a. Cystic changes within a thickened endometrium b. Cystic areas within a thin endometrium c. Thin endometrium d. No apparent effect on endometrial thickness or appearance
a.
The absence of menstrual bleeding is termed: a. Amenorrhea b. Dysmenorrhea c. Oligomenorrhea d. Polymenorrhea
a.
The cystic mass commonly noted with a pregnancy is the: a. Corpus luteum b. Dermoid cyst c. Dysgerminoma d. Serous cystadenoma
a.
The development of adhesions between the liver and the diaphragm as a result of PID is termed: a. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome b. Dandy-Walker syndrome c. Stein-Leventhal syndrome d. Asherman syndrome
a.
The dominant follicle prior to ovulation is termed the: a. Graafian follicle b. Corpus albicans c. Corpus luteum d. Medulla
a.
The dominant follicle prior to ovulation is termed the: a. Graafian follicle b. Ovarian hyper follicle c. Corpus luteum d. Corpus albicans
a.
The fingerlike extensions of the fallopian tube are called: a. Fimbria b. Infundibulum c. Cilia d. Ampulla
a.
The most common benign ovarian tumor is the: a. Cystic teratoma b. Mucinous cystadenoma c. Fibroma d. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
a.
The ovarian mass that contains fat, sebum, and teeth is the: a. Dermoid b. Fibroma c. Mucinous cystadenoma d. Yolk sac tumor
a.
The ovarian tumor associated with an elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase is the: a. Dysgerminoma b. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor c. Androblastoma d. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
a.
The second phase of the endometrial cycle is the: a. Secretory phase b. Follicular phase c. Luteal phase d. Proliferative phase
a.
The sonographic "string of pearls" sign is indicative of: a. Polycystic ovary syndrome b. Tubo-ovarian disease c. PID d. OHS
a.
The sonographic findings of an endometrial polyp may include: a. Diffuse thickening of the endometrium b. Menometrorrhagia c. Intermenstrual bleeding d. Infertility
a.
The two hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland that impact the menstrual cycle are: a. LH and FSH b. LH and estrogen c. Progesterone and estrogen d. FSH and progesterone
a.
The uterine position in which the corpus tilts forward and comes in contact with the cervix describes: a. Anteflexion b. Anteversion c. Retroflexion d. Retroversion
a.
What form of permanent birth control would be seen sonographically as echogenic, linear structures within the lumen of both isthmic portions of the fallopian tubes? a. Essure devices b. ParaGards c. Lippes loops d. Mirenas
a.
What is the most likely pulsed Doppler characteristic of endometrial cancer? a. Low-impedance flow b. High-impedance flow c. Absent systolic flow d. Converse diastolic flow
a.
What term is used to describe painful intercourse? a. Dyspareunia b. Dysuria c. Dysmenorrhea d. Dysconception
a.
Which of the following could also be described as intermenstrual bleeding? a. Metrorrhagia b. Polymenorrhea c. Menometrorrrhagia d. Menorrhagia
a.
Which of the following is also referred to as a chocolate cyst? a. Endometrioma b. Endometroid c. Cystic teratoma d. Androblastoma
a.
Which of the following is associated with the "whirlpool sign"? a. Ovarian torsion b. Hydrosalpinx c. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome d. Ovarian carcinoma
a.
Which of the following is typically not a clinical complaint of women who are suffering from adenomyosis? a. Amenorrhea b. Dysmenorrhea c. Dyspareunia d. Menometrorrhagia
a.
Which of the following would be described as functional cysts that are found in the presence of elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin? a. Theca lutein cysts b. Chocolate cysts c. Corpus luteum cysts d. Endometrial cysts
a.
Which of the following would increase the risk of a patient developing endometrial cancer? a. Unopposed ERT b. Multiparity c. Osteoporosis d. Endometrial atrophy
a.
A change in menstrual bleeding associated with lesions within the uterus relates to: a. DUB b. AUB c. Pelvic inflammatory disease d. Fibroids
b.
A patient presents to the sonography department for a pelvic sonogram with a history of adenomyosis that was diagnosed following an MRI of the pelvis. What are the most likely sonographic findings? a. Complex, bilateral adnexal masses b. Myometrial cysts with enlargement of the posterior uterine wall c. Endometrial thinning and cervical dilation d. Uterine atrophy with bilateral ovarian cysts
b.
A patient presents to the sonography department with a fever, chills, and vaginal discharge. Sonographically, what findings would you most likely not encounter? a. Cul-de-sac fluid b. Uterine adhesions c. Dilated uterine tubes d. Ill-defined uterine border
b.
A patient presents to the sonography department with complaints of infertility and painful menstrual cycles. Sonographically, you discover a cystic mass on the ovary consisting low-level echoes. Based on the clinical and sonographic findings, what is the most likely diagnosis? a. Cystic teratoma b. Endometrioma c. PID d. OHS
b.
All of the following adnexal masses may appear sonographically similar to a uterine leiomyoma except: a. Thecoma b. Parovarian cyst c. Fibroma d. Granulosa cell tumor
b.
Amenorrhea, hirsutism, and obesity describe the clinical features of: a. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome b. Stein-Leventhal syndrome c. Asherman syndrome d. Endometriosis
b.
An asymptomatic 65-year-old patient presents to the sonography department with pelvic pain but no vaginal bleeding. Her endometrial thickness should not exceed: a. 6 mm b. 8 mm c. 5 mm d. 3 mm
b.
Anechoic fluid noted distending the uterus and vagina within a pediatric patient is termed: a. Hydrocolpos b. Hydrometrocolpos c. Hydrometra d. Hematometrocolpos
b.
Blood within the fallopian tube is termed: a. Hydrosalpinx b. Hematosalpinx c. Pyosalpinx d. Hemosalpinx
b.
Both the straight and spiral arteries are branches of the: a. Common iliac artery b. Radial artery c. Arcuate artery d. External iliac artery
b.
Ectopic endometrial tissue within the uterus that leads to AUB is termed: a. Endometriosis b. Adenomyosis c. Fibroids d. Endometrial hyperplasia
b.
Normal ovarian flow is said to be: a. Low resistant during menstruation and high resistant during the proliferative phase b. High resistant during menstruation and low resistant at the time of ovulation c. Low resistant d. High resistant
b.
Ovulation typically occurs on day — of the menstrual cycle. a. 12 b. 14 c. 16 d. 1
b.
PID can lead to all of the following except: a. Infertility b. Polycystic ovarian disease c. Ectopic pregnancy d. Scar formation in the fallopian tubes
b.
Painful and difficult menstruation is termed: a. Menorrhagia b. Dysmenorrhea c. Metrorrhagia d. Amenorrhea
b.
Precocious puberty is defined as the development of pubic hair, breasts, and the genitals before the age of: a. 13 b. 8 c. 5 d. 10
b.
Pus within the fallopian tube is termed: a. Hematosalpinx b. Pyosalpinx c. Hydrosalpinx d. Hemosalpinx
b.
Sonographic findings of the endometrium in a patient with a history of PID, fever, and elevated white blood cell count would include all of the following except: a. Ring-down artifact posterior to the endometrium b. Thin, hyperechoic endometrium c. Endometrial fluid d. Thickened, irregular endometrium
b.
The corpus luteum primarily releases: a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. LH d. FSH
b.
The hormone that surges at ovulation is: a. GnRH b. LH c. Aldosterone d. Progesterone
b.
The inner layer of the wall of the fallopian tube is the: a. Muscular layer b. Mucosal layer c. Myometrial layer d. Serosal layer
b.
The longest and most tortuous segment of the fallopian tube is the: a. Fimbria b. Ampulla c. Isthmus d. Interstitial
b.
The malignant ovarian tumor with gastrointestinal origin is the: a. Brenner tumor b. Krukenberg tumor c. Yolk sac tumor d. Granulosa cell tumor
b.
The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is: a. Endometrial carcinoma b. Endometrial atrophy c. Endometrial leiomyoma d. Cervical carcinoma
b.
The ovarian cyst associated with gestational trophoblastic disease is the: a. Corpus luteum cyst b. Theca lutein cyst c. Dermoid cyst d. Parovarian cyst
b.
The periovulatory phase may also be referred to as the: a. Early secretory phase b. Late proliferative phase c. Late secretory phase d. Early proliferative phase
b.
The presence of pus within the uterus defines: a. Pyosalpinx b. Pyometra c. Pyocolpos d. Pyomyoma
b.
The removal of tissue from the endometrium by scraping is termed: a. Dilatation b. Curettage c. Sonohysterography d. Hysteroscopy
b.
The second phase of the ovarian cycle is called the: a. Follicular phase b. Luteal phase c. Secretory phase d. Proliferative phase
b.
The sonographic appearance of an ovarian dermoid tumor in which only the anterior elements of the mass can be seen, while the greater part of the mass is obscured by shadowing is consistent with: a. Whirlpool sign b. Tip of the iceberg sign c. Dermoid mesh sign d. Dermoid plug sign
b.
The temporary endocrine gland that results from the rupture of the Graafian follicle is the: a. Corpus albicans b. Corpus luteum c. Cumulus oophorus d. Trophoblastic cells
b.
The uterine arteries supply blood to all of the following except: a. Fallopian tubes b. Rectum c. Ovaries d. Uterus
b.
Upon sonographic evaluation of a patient complaining of abnormal distention, you visualize a large, hypoechoic mass distorting the anterior border of the uterus. What is the most likely location of this mass? a. Intramural b. Subserosal c. Submucosal d. Intracavitary pedunculated
b.
What Doppler artifact occurs when the Doppler sampling rate is not high enough to display the Doppler shift frequency? a. Doppler noise b. Aliasing c. Twinkle artifact d. Absent Doppler signal
b.
What is another name for adhesions within the endometrial cavity? a. Endometritis b. Synechiae c. Septation d. Mural nodules
b.
What is defined as frequent regular cycles but less than 21 days apart? a. Hypomenorrhea b. Polymenorrhea c. Menorrhagia d. Cryptomenorrhea
b.
What is the radiographic procedure used to evaluate the patency of the fallopian tubes? a. Sonohysterography b. Hysterosalpingography c. Hysteroscopy d. Hysteroscopic fallopian septoplasty
b.
What is the typical sonographic appearance of the endometrium during the secretory phase? a. Anechoic and thin b. Hyperchoic and thick c. Hypoechoic and thin d. Echogenic basil layer and hypoechoic functional layer
b.
What section of the uterus is also referred to as the lower uterine segment? a. Cervix b. Isthmus c. Fundus d. Cornu
b.
What substance does hysterosalpingography utilize for the visualization of the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes? a. Saline b. Radiographic contrast c. Water d. Betadine
b.
What would increase a patient's likelihood of suffering from thromboembolism? a. Polycystic ovary disease b. ERT c. Endometrial carcinoma d. Endometrial atrophy
b.
Which of the following is said to be a common cause of DUB? a. Hursutism b. Polycystic ovary syndrome c. Fibroids d. Pelvic inflammatory disease
b.
Which of the following is the most common malignancy of the ovary? a. Cystic teratoma b. Serous cystadenocarcinoma c. Krukenberg tumor d. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
b.
Which of the following would be best defined as abnormally heavy menstrual flow? a. Menometrorrhagia b. Menorrhagia c. Metrorrhagia d. Hypomenorrhea
b.
Which of the following would be most indicative of a leiomyosarcoma? a. Vaginal bleeding b. Rapid growth c. Dysuria d. Large hypoechoic mass
b.
Which of the following would most likely lead to the development of endometrial adhesions? a. Endometrial carcinoma b. D&C c. Pregnancy d. Adenomyomatosis
b.
A 24-year-old female patient presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting. The sonographic examination reveals an enlarged ovary with no detectable Doppler signal. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Ovarian cystadenocarcinoma b. Cystic teratoma c. Ovarian torsion d. Endometriosis
c.
A 25-year-old patient presents to the sonography department complaining of pelvic pain, dyspareunia, and oligomenorrhea. An ovarian mass, thought to be a chocolate cyst, is noted during the examination. Which of the following is consistent with the sonographic appearance of a chocolate cyst? a. Simple-appearing anechoic mass b. Echogenic mass with posterior shadowing c. Cystic mass with low-level echoes d. Anechoic mass with posterior shadowing
c.
A 68-year-old patient presents to the sonography department complaining of vaginal bleeding. The most likely cause of her bleeding is: a. Endometrial carcinoma b. Endometrial polyps c. Endometrial atrophy d. Endometrial fibroids
c.
Absence of a menstruation is referred to as: a. Dysuria b. Dysmenorrhea c. Amenorrhea d. Menorrhagia
c.
After the Graafian follicle ruptures, the remaining structure is termed the: a. Graafian remnant b. Corpus albicans c. Corpus luteum d. Theca lutein cyst
c.
An 84-year-old patient presents to the sonography department with sudden onset of vaginal bleeding. Her endometrium should not exceed: a. 6 mm b. 8 mm c. 5 mm d. 3 mm
c.
An edometrioma most likely appears as a: a. Simple, anechoic mass with through transmission b. Complex mass with internal shadowing components c. Mostly cystic mass with low-level echoes d. Solid, hyperechoic shadowing mass
c.
Asherman syndrome is associated with: a. Uterine leiomyoma b. Endometrial polyps c. Endometrial adhesions d. Ovarian fibroma
c.
Congenital malformation of the uterus that results in complete duplication of the genital tract is: a. Unicornuate uterus b. Bicornis bicollis c. Uterus didelphys d. Subseptate uterus
c.
Endometrial hyperplasia may be caused by all of the following except: a. HRT b. ERT c. Endometrial atrophy d. Tamoxifen
c.
Hairlike projections within the fallopian tube are called: a. Interstitia b. Fimbria c. Cilia d. Peristalsis
c.
Infertility is defined as: a. The inability to conceive a child after 2 years of unprotected intercourse b. The inability to conceive a child after 5 years of unprotected intercourse c. The inability to conceive a child after 1 year of unprotected intercourse d. The inability to conceive a child after 3 months of unprotected intercourse
c.
Leiomyosarcoma of the uterus denotes: a. The benign invasion of endometrial tissue into the myometrium b. The ectopic location of endometrial tissue in the adnexa c. The malignant counterpart of a fibroid d. An anechoic, simple cyst located within the cervix
c.
Polycystic ovarian syndrome may also be referred to as: a. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome b. Plateau syndrome c. Stein-Leventhal syndrome d. Asherman syndrome
c.
Sonographically, which of the following would most likely be confused for a pedunculated fibroid tumor because of its solid appearing structure? a. Serous cystadenoma b. Mucinous cystadenoma c. Fibroma d. Theca lutein cyst
c.
Tamoxifen has been linked with all of the following except: a. Endometrial polyps b. Endometrial hyperplasia c. Endometrial leiomyoma d. Endometrial carcinoma
c.
The breast cancer treatment drug that may alter the sonographic appearance of the endometrium is: a. Progestogen b. Estrogenate c. Tamoxifen d. CA-125
c.
The hormone of the pituitary gland that stimulates follicular development of the ovary is: a. LH b. Estrogen c. FSH d. GnRH
c.
The hormone produced by the hypothalamus that controls the release of the hormones for menstruation by the anterior pituitary gland is: a. FSH b. Estrogen c. GnRH d. LH
c.
The measurement of the endometrium during the early proliferative phase ranges from: a. 6 to 10 mm b. 8 to 12 mm c. 4 to 8 mm d. 1 to 2 mm
c.
The most common female genital tract malignancy is: a. Ovarian carcinoma b. Cervical carcinoma c. Endometrial carcinoma d. Pelvic inflammatory disease
c.
The most common initial clinical presentation of PID is: a. Endometritis b. Tubo-ovarian abscess c. Vaginitis d. Pyosalpinx
c.
The normal position of the uterus is: a. Retroverted b. Retroflexed c. Anteverted d. Dysverted
c.
The occurrence of having both an intrauterine and extrauterine pregnancy at the same time describes: a. PID b. Ectopic pregnancy c. Heterotopic pregnancy d. Molar pregnancy
c.
The recesses of the vagina are the: a. Cornu b. Isthmi c. Fornices d. Parity
c.
The sonographic finding of a tubular, simple-appearing, anechoic structure within the adnexa is most consistent with: a. Dyspareunia b. Hematometra c. Hydrosalpinx d. Endometritis
c.
The structure noted within the Graafian follicle containing the developing ovum is the: a. Corpus luteum b. Corpus albicans c. Cumulus oophorus d. Theca internal cells
c.
The superior portion of the cervix is the: a. Cornu b. Corpus c. Internal os d. External os
c.
The surgical removal of a fibroid is termed: a. Hysterosonogram b. Total abdominal hysterectomy c. Myomectomy d. Uterine artery embolization
c.
What hormone maintains the thickness of the endometrium after ovulation? a. LH b. Estrogen c. Progesterone d. FSH
c.
What hormone plays a major role in the symptoms associated with menopause? a. hCG b. LH c. Estrogen d. CA-120
c.
What is a gynecologic procedure to remove an endometrial polyp? a. Hysterectomy with myomectomy b. Histogram with myomectomy c. Hysteroscopy with polypectomy d. Hysteroscopy with polyp myomectomy
c.
What is another name for an endometrioma? a. Dermoid b. Teratoma c. Chocolate cyst d. String of pearl
c.
What is considered the most dependent part of the peritoneal cavity? a. Space of Retzius b. Anterior cul-de-sac c. Pouch of Douglas d. Rectovessicular pouch
c.
What is the most common form of endometrial carcinoma? a. Cystadenocarcinoma b. Krukenberg tumor c. Adenocarcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma
c.
What is used as a tumor marker for endometrial carcinoma? a. CR-124 b. CE-125 c. CA-125 d. CA-45
c.
What leiomyoma location would have an increased risk to undergo torsion? a. Subserosal b. Intracavitary c. Pedunculated d. Submucosal
c.
What ovarian tumor will most likely have a moth-eaten appearance on sonography? a. Cystic teratoma b. Serous cystadenocarcinoma c. Krukenberg tumor d. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
c.
What structure may be noted on the ovary just prior to ovulation? a. Corpus albicans b. Corpus luteum c. Graafian follicle d. Blastocyst
c.
What structure produces hormones that directly act upon the endometrium to produce varying thicknesses and sonographic appearances? a. Hypothalamus b. Adrenal gland c. Ovary d. Uterus
c.
What would be a predisposing condition that would increase the risk for suffering from ovarian torsion? a. Hirsutism b. Excessive exercise c. Ovarian mass d. Sonohysterography
c.
When the sonographic three-line sign is present, the functional layer of the endometrium typically appears: a. Anechioc b. Echogenic c. Hypoechoic d. Complex
c.
Which hormone released by the ovary during the proliferative phase stimulates endometrial thickening? a. FSH b. LH c. Estrogen d. Progesterone
c.
Which of the following is an estrogen-producing ovarian tumor? a. Cystic teratoma b. Fibroma c. Thecoma d. Endometrioma
c.
Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating ovarian volume? a. Length × width × height × 0.6243 b. Length × width × height × 0.3899 c. Length × width × height × 0.5233 d. Ovarian volume cannot be calculated
c.
Which of the following ovarian tumors would be most likely to cause postmenopausal bleeding? a. Cystic teratoma b. Endometrioma c. Thecoma d. Fibroma
c.
Which structure remains after the corpus luteum has regressed? a. Theca luteal cyst b. Corpus luteum of pregnancy c. Corpus albicans d. Cumulus oophorus
c.
With what ovarian tumor is Meigs syndrome most likely associated? a. Dysgerminoma b. Cystic teratoma c. Fibroma d. Yolk sac tumor
c.
A 13-year-old girl presents to the sonography department with a history of cyclic pain, abdominal swelling, and amenorrhea. Sonographically, you visualize an enlarged uterus and a distended vagina that contains anechoic fluid with debris. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Cervical stenosis b. Adenomyosis c. Endometriosis d. Hematocolpos
d.
A 26-year-old patient presents to the sonography department with a history of infertility and oligomenorrhea. Sonographically, you discover that the ovaries are enlarged and contain multiple, small follicles along their periphery, with prominent echogenic stromal elements. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Ovarian torsion b. OHS c. PID d. PCOS
d.
A 31-year-old patient presents to the sonography department for a saline infusion sonohysterogram complaining of intermenstrual bleeding and infertility. Sonographically, a mass is demonstrated emanating from the myometrium and distorting the endometrial cavity. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Endometrial polyp b. Endometrial carcinoma c. Endometrial hyperplasia d. Submucosal leiomyoma
d.
A 35-year-old patient presents to the sonography department with a history of tubal ligation and positive pregnancy test. What condition should be highly suspected? a. Asherman syndrome b. Polycystic ovarian disease c. Endometriosis d. Ectopic pregnancy
d.
A 67-year-old patient on HRT presents to the sonography department with abnormal uterine bleeding. Sonographically, the endometrium is diffusely thickened, contains small cystic areas, and measures 9 mm in thickness. The most likely cause of her bleeding is: a. Endometrial atrophy b. Asherman syndrome c. Endometrial thecoma d. Endometrial hyperplasia
d.
A female patient presents to the sonography department with a clinical history of Clomid treatment. She is complaining of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distension. What circumstance is most likely causing her clinical symptoms? a. Stein-Leventhal syndrome b. Polycystic ovarian disease c. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome d. OHS
d.
A patient presents to the sonography department with a history of Chlamydia and suspected PID. Which of the following would be indicative of the typical sonographic findings of PID? a. Enlarged cervix, thin endometrium, and theca lutein cysts b. Atrophic uterus, free fluid, and small ovaries c. Bilateral, cystic enlargement of the ovaries with no detectable flow d. Thickened irregular endometrium, cul-de-sac fluid, and complex adnexal masses
d.
A patient with an ovarian mass presents with an elevated serum AFP. Which of the following would be the most likely? a. Ovarian fibroma b. Ovarian thecoma c. Cystic teratoma d. Yolk sac tumor
d.
All of the following are clinical findings with endometrial hyperplasia except: a. Obesity b. Polycystic ovary syndrome c. Abnormal uterine bleeding d. Thickened endometrium
d.
All of the following are considered risk factors for PID except: a. IUD b. Multiple sexual partners c. Post childbirth d. Uterine leiomyoma
d.
Assisted reproductive therapy can result in all of the following except: a. Heterotopic pregnancy b. Multiple gestations c. OHS d. Asherman syndrome
d.
Cessation of menstruation with advanced age is termed: a. Asherman disease b. Premenopausal syndrome c. Perimenopausal syndrome d. Menopause
d.
During a pelvic sonogram, you visualize a small cyst located adjacent to the ovary. What is the most likely etiology of this cyst? a. Dermoid cyst b. Ovarian cystadenoma c. Endometrioma d. Parovarian cyst
d.
Endometrial polyps are associated with all of the following except: a. Intermenstrual bleeding b. Tamoxifen therapy c. Prolapse through the cervix d. Coronary heart disease
d.
Excessive hair growth in women in areas where hair growth is normally negligible would be seen with: a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome c. Asherman syndrome d. Stein-Leventhal syndrome
d.
FSH is produced by the: a. Ovary b. Endometrium c. Hypothalamus d. Anterior pituitary gland
d.
LH is produced by the: a. Ovary b. Endometrium c. Hypothalamus d. Anterior pituitary gland
d.
Leiomyomas that project from a stalk are termed: a. Submucosal b. Intramural c. Subserosal d. Pedunculated
d.
Measurement of the endometrium should include: a. The uterine cavity only b. The deep myometrial echoes and both basal layers c. The distance from the basal layer to the functional layer d. The measurement from the basal layer to the basal layer
d.
Possible benefits of ERT include all of the following except: a. Reduction in osteoporosis risk b. Reduction in colon cancer risk c. Reduction in heart disease risk d. Reduction in endometrial cancer risk
d.
Sonographic findings of OHS include all of the following except: a. Cystic enlargement of the ovaries b. Ascites c. Pleural effusions d. Oliguria
d.
Stein-Leventhal syndrome is related to all of the following except: a. Infertility b. Anovulatory cycles c. Hirsutism d. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
d.
The area of attachment of the fallopian tubes to the uterus is the: a. Fundus b. Corpus c. Isthmus d. Cornua
d.
The arteries within the functional layer of the endometrium that are altered by the hormones of the ovary and are shed with menstruation are the: a. Arcuate arteries b. Radial arteries c. Straight arteries d. Spiral arteries
d.
The average menstrual cycle lasts: a. 45 days b. 24 days c. 26 days d. 28 days
d.
The best description for endometrial polyps is: a. Malignant nodules that cause bleeding b. Benign lesions associated with cervical stenosis c. Malignant nodules that are associated with endometrial atrophy d. Benign nodules of hyperplastic endometrial tissue
d.
The development of adhesions within the uterine cavity is termed: a. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome b. Dandy-Walker syndrome c. Stein-Leventhal syndrome d. Asherman syndrome
d.
The first menstrual cycle is termed: a. Amenorrhea b. Metrorrhagia c. Mittelschmerz d. Menarche
d.
The first phase of the endometrial cycle is the: a. Secretory phase b. Follicular phase c. Luteal phase d. Proliferative phase
d.
The first phase of the ovarian cycle is the: a. Luteal phase b. Secretory phase c. Proliferative phase d. Follicular phase
d.
The hormone produced by the trophoblastic cells of the early placenta is: a. Estrogen b. FSH c. LH d. hCG
d.
The location of a fibroid within the myometrium is termed: a. Submucosal b. Intracavitary c. Subserosal d. Intramural
d.
The malignant ovarian mass that is associated with pseudomyxoma peritonei is the: a. Dysgerminoma b. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor c. Serous cystadenocarcinoma d. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
d.
The most distal part of the fallopian tube is the: a. Cornu b. Ampulla c. Interstitial d. Infundibulum
d.
The ovarian cysts that are most often bilateral and are associated with markedly elevated levels of hCG are the: a. Corpus luteum cysts b. Parovarian cysts c. Granulosa cell cysts d. Theca lutein cysts
d.
The paired embryonic ducts that develop into the female urogenital tract are the: a. Fallopian ducts b. Wolffian ducts c. Gartner ducts d. Müllerian ducts
d.
The presence of functional, ectopic endometrial tissue outside the uterus is termed: a. Adenomyosis b. Asherman syndrome c. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome d. Endometriosis
d.
The segment of the fallopian tube where fertilization typically occurs is the: a. Cornu b. Fimbria c. Interstitial d. Ampulla
d.
The short and narrow segment of the fallopian tube distal to the interstitial segment is the: a. Ampulla b. Fimbria c. Infundibulum d. Isthmus
d.
The sonographic appearance of a 59-year-old woman on HRT is: a. Hypoechoic and thickened b. Hyperechoic and thickened c. Cystic areas within a thickened endometrium d. Variable depending upon the menstrual cycle
d.
The sonographic evidence of a hyperemic fallopian tube is consistent with: a. Pyosalpinx b. Hydrosalpinx c. Endometritis d. Salpingitis
d.
Unopposed estrogen therapy has been shown to increase the risk for developing: a. Alzheimer disease b. Colon cancer c. Coronary heart disease d. Endometrial carcinoma
d.
What ovarian mass is associated with virilization? a. Krukenberg tumor b. Cystic teratoma c. Serous cystadenoma d. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
d.
When the ovary is in the luteal phase, the endometrium is in the: a. Early proliferative b. Periovulatory c. Late proliferative d. Secretory
d.
Which hormone maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy? a. FSH b. LH c. Progesterone d. hCG
d.
Which of the following does not occur as a result of menopause? a. Uterine atrophy b. Decreased sexual libido c. Accumulation of fat in the breasts d. Cystic enlargement of the ovaries
d.
Which of the following hormones is released by the ovary during the second half of the menstrual cycle? a. LH b. FSH c. hCG d. Progesterone
d.
Which of the following is a tumor of ectopic endometrial tissue? a. Brenner tumor b. Cystic teratoma c. Yolk sac tumor d. Endometrioma
d.
Which of the following is not a potential cause of PID is? a. Intrauterine contraception use b. Postabortion c. Chlamydia d. Pyelonephritis
d.
Which of the following is not associated with endometrial hyperplasia? a. Tamoxifen therapy b. Polycystic ovary syndrome c. Ovarian thecoma d. Asherman syndrome
d.
Which of the following sonographic findings would not increase the likelihood of an ovarian malignancy? a. Septation measuring >3 mm in thickness b. Irregular borders c. Solid wall nodule d. Anechoic components with acoustic enhancement
d.
Which of the following would be best defined as regularly timed menses but light flow? a. Menometrorrhagia b. Menorrhagia c. Metrorrhagia d. Hypomenorrhea
d.
Which of the following would be the least likely clinical finding for a patient with endometriosis? a. Pelvic pain b. Dysmenorrhea c. Painful bowel movements d. Hyperandrogenism
d.
Which of the following would not be a cause of AUB? a. Endometrial hyperplasia b. Hypothyroidism c. Adenomyosis d. Ovarian torsion
d.
With endometrial atrophy, the endometrial thickness should not exceed: a. 6 mm b. 3 mm c. 8 mm d. 5 mm
d.