Combo with AP Final Review and 19 others
14. leukocytes NLMEB relative numbers more common versus more rare
"never let monkeys eat bananas" acronym for the different types of leukocytes. Neutrophils 60-70% of all WBC's, Lymphocytes- 20-25%, Monocytes- 3-8%, Eosinophils- 2-4%, Basophils- 0.5-1%
56. components of blood
- These blood cells (which are also called corpuscles or "formed elements") consist of erythrocytes (red blood cells, RBCs), leukocytes (white blood cells), and thrombocytes (platelets). By volume, the red blood cells constitute about 45% of whole blood, the plasma about 54.3%, and white cells about 0.7%. ferritin blood component that is a protein albumin protein blood component antibodies protein blood component prothrombin protein component of blood
11. Neutrophils, eosinophil, basophils, and monocytes are all derived from
- granulocyte-macrophage colony-forming units
31. Suppose the atmospheric pressure at a given time is 765 mmHg, the intrapleural pressure during inspiration is 759 mmHg, and the intrapulmonary pressure is 763 mmHg. Under these conditions the transpulmonary pressure would be.
-4 mmHg
IgM
-It is the first immunoglobulin to appear on the surface of B cells and the first antibody secreted during an immune response. It is secreted in pentameric form. -produced in B cells, anti-A, anti-B blood agglutinins
64. Proteins can buffer a drop in pH by their _____ side groups and can buffer an increase in pH by their _____ side groups.
-NH2; -COOH
Three Main Regions of the Kidney
-Renal cortex-a smooth area/most superficial region -Renal pyramids-located in the medulla and has cone shaped pyramids that have extensions of the cortex (the base of each pyramid faces the cortex) -Renal papilla-is the apex that is pointed towards the renal sinus
41. Red blood cells have two peripheral proteins, spectrin and actin that
-permit RBCs to squeeze through capillaries
IgG
-the most common antibodies. passable through the placenta. provides passive immunity. aka gamma globulin -produced by B cells, 80% of plasma antibodies crosses placenta, confers immunity to fetus
29. The blood plasma is about ___ of the total body water
. 8%
* The ovarian artery and ovarian vein travel through the __ ligament suspensory
...
*The _ area of the uterus communicates with the uterine tube, and the _ area of the uterus communicates with the vagina. Fundus; cervix
...
10. What anchors the ovary to the broad ligament? Mesovarium
...
11. Blood is supplied to the endometrium by the _ arteries between the endometrial glands Spiral
...
12. In the last day or two of the pre-ovulatory phase, estrogen levels are high and these two hormones surge dramatically FSH and LH
...
13. After climacteric, some females experience hot flashes, which are caused by vasodilation of cutaneous arteries
...
13. HCl and intrinsic factor / pepsinogen
...
14. Estrogen causes all of the following effects in adolescent girls except growth of the pubic and axillary hair
...
15. The majority of breast cancers have no identifiable risk factor.
...
16. Which of these occurs in first-stage labor? Effacement
...
17. The developing individual is called a(n) ____ during the first two weeks, a(n) ____ from two through eight weeks, and a(n) _____ from the beginning of week nine until birth. Blastocyte; embryo; fetus
...
17. sinusoids
...
18. The female reproductive tract develops from the paramesonephric duct because of absence of testosterone and mullerian-inhibiting factor
...
19. Pregnancy tests are based on the detection of _ in the urine HCG
...
20. Blood produces and functions
...
20. The layer of uterine mucosa that is shed in menstruation is called the myometrium
...
21. The layer of uterine mucosa that is shed in menstruation is called the stratum functionalis
...
22. The second half of the menstrual cycle is regulated largely by the corpus luteum
...
22. tunica mucosa, tunica submucosa, tunica muscularis, externa tunica, serosa tunica adventitia
...
23. What is one advantage of breast-feeding to the mother? It promotes involution of the uterus
...
23. secretin, trypsin, pepsin, glucoamylase, enterokinase
...
24. Autolysis is a process that results in postpartum shrinkage of the uterus
...
24. Excessive ADH secretion is most likely to produce hypotonic hydration
...
25. The constricted part of the uterus that protrudes into the vagina is called the cervix
...
25. enterokinase is not a component of the pancreatic juice
...
26. In the first 2 to 3 days postpartum, the mammary glands secrete _ rather than milk colostrum
...
26. chief cells, goblet cells, parietal cells, mucous neck cells, enteroendocrine cells
...
27. Milk ejection or letdown reflex is stimulated by which of the following hormones associated with pregnancy? Oxytocin
...
27. Tissue macrophages develop from monocytes
...
28. After ovulation, an egg has about _ to be fertilized, or else it dies. 24 hours
...
29. The theca folliculi secrete _ and the granulosa cells secrete _ androgen; estrogen
...
29. lesser omentum; mesentery, greater omentum; mesocolon, mesentery; greater omentum, mesocolon; lesser omentum, mesentery; lesser omentum
...
30. During the plateau phase, the glans and clitoris swell as the _________ arteries dilate and the corpus or corpora ____________swell. Deep; cavernosa
...
30. mucosa, submucosa, serosa, adventitia
...
31. Lymph nodes in the cervical region that are temporarily swollen and painful to the touch most likely indicate inflammation or infection in that area
...
31. The primary follicle gives rise to the secondary follicle when the follicular fluid forms the antrum
...
32. When an antigen triggers the multiplication of B lymphocytes some daughter cells transform into antibody producing cells and mount an attack while others become memory cells
...
32. Which of the following is commonly classified as a female secondary sex characteristic? The distribution of body fat
...
33. In an area of injury leukocytes adhere to the endothelium which is called _____ and then squeeze through spaces between endothelial cells into the interstitial fluid which is called _____. margination; diapedesis
...
33. In female sexual response, the __ may secrete a fluid similar to the prostatic secretion of the male. Paraurethral glands
...
34. Antigen-presenting cells usually display processed antigens to T cells in lymph nodes.
...
34. The vaginal secretion has a pH of about 3.5 to 4.0, this pH _____ and is primarily caused by the production of ______ inhibits pathogens; lactic acid
...
34. the falciform ligament, the mesentery, the greater omentum, the lesser omentum, the epiploic appendages
...
35. Macrophages secrete a lymphokine called _______, which stimulates the multiplication of T cells. Interleukin 1
...
35. When the follicle expels the secondary oocyte, it becomes the _____ and secretes _____
...
36. In inflammation, basophils produce all of the following chemicals except Perforin
...
36. Most people with AIDs become infected through sexual contact. A female can become infected by a male who has HIV but may not be showing any symptoms of AIDs. HIV from infected males can invade the female through dendritic cells.
...
37 A patient with a snakebite is given an anti-venom in horse serum. His blood pressure quickly drops drastically. What do you suspect is wrong? Anaphylactic shock
...
37. Milk is not secreted until after birth because the mammary gland cells do not respond to prolactin until then
...
37. sucrose, lactase, maltase
...
38. Humoral immunity is generated through the process of: producing antibodies.
...
38. Size of blood cells relative large and small
...
38. The ischemic phase of the uterine cycle is brought on by vascular spasms, which in turn are a response to falling progesterone level
...
39. At the time of the sexual cycle when the uterus is building up endometrial tissue by mitosis, several follicles are developing antra.
...
39. Bacterial infection is especially likely to elevate the ___ count. Neutrophil
...
4. After ovulation an egg has about 24 hours
...
40. An egg, or ovum, is defined as any stage from the primary oocyte to the fertilized egg.
...
40. RHoGam is an antibody given to Rh- women who give birth to a Rh+ child. Rh0GAM is what type of plasma protein? Gamma-globulin
...
40. Tapeworms, hookworms, and other parasites too large to phagocytize are attacked mainly by eosinophils
...
41. Antibodies are proteins
...
41. Fertilization occurs in the ___, and implantation occurs in the ___. Uterine tube; body of uterus
...
42. All of the following are macrophages except Eosinophils
...
42. The most abundant hormone of pregnancy is human chorionic somatomammotropin.
...
42. pseudostratified columnar; nonkeratinized stratified squamous, simple columnar; nonkeratinized stratified squamous, simple cuboidal; keratinized stratified squamous, simple squamous; transitional, simple columnar; simple squamous
...
43. In early pregnancy, _ stimulates growth of the corpus luteum human chorionic gonadotropin
...
43. Lymphocytes are ___ once they have developed surface receptors for a particular antigen. Immunocompetent
...
44. Human milk has all of the following advantages over cow's milk for infant nutrition except it has more protein
...
44. The human immunodeficiency virus contains the enzyme __that stimulates host cells that produce DNA from viral __.reverse transcriptive; RNA
...
45. Lymph most closely resembles Plasma
...
45. adrenocorticotropic hormone, human placental lactogen, human chorionic somatomammotropin, human chorionic gonadotropin, progesterone
...
45. pepsin, trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase, ribonuclease
...
46. Complement fixation can lead to any of the following effects except endogenous pyrexia
...
46. Which of these is a consequence of the ischemic phase of the uterine cycle? Endometrial necrosis
...
46. components of the pancreatic juice enterokinase, insulin
...
47. When neutrophils and macrophages phagocytize bacteria they secrete interleukin-1, which acts as a pyrogen
...
47. Which of these is not included in the female vestibule? Mons pubis
...
47. chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase, enterokinase, sucrose, lingual lipase
...
48. At the time a woman begins her next ovarian cycle, the former graafian follicle of the previous cycle is now a corpus albicans.
...
48. Complement C3b protein coats bacteria and stimulates phagocytosis by ___________ in a process called _____________. Neutrophils and macrophages; opsonization
...
49. This lymphatic organ is very large in the fetus. It begins to shrink after the age of 14 and is replaced almost entirely by fibrous and fatty tissue in the elderly. Thymus
...
49. This placental hormone suppresses FSH and LH secretions, suppresses uterine contractions, and prevents menstruation. Progesterone
...
5. In women, the cessation of menstruation is called _ and the decrease in estrogen and progesterone production is called __ menopause; climacteric
...
50. Ovulation is triggered by LH
...
50. T cells become immunocompetent during their stay in the thymus
...
50. vitamin D
...
51. Hyperenemia can be stimulated by: Histamine, bradykinin, and leukotrienes
...
51. Which of the following would sustain a pregnancy in the beginning? Corpus Luteum
...
51. circular folds, teniae coli, haustra, epiploic appendages
...
52. Cells recognize AG-MHCP complex secrete interleukins, attracts helper T cells
...
52. The stratum functionalis and The stratum basalis
...
52. swallowing center is located in the brainstem/medulla oblongata
...
53. The most abundant form of estrogen in females is estradiol.
...
54. The _ glands of the female are homologous to the bulbourethral glands of the male greater vestibular
...
54. The largest of the following cartilages is the thyroid cartilage.
...
55. Development of a girl's breasts at puberty is called larche
...
55. The lymphatic system returns _______to the circulatory system each day. 2-4 L of tissue fluids
...
55. nasopharynx
...
56. It is allergy season, and you have tremendous nasal congestion, watery eyes, and a runny nose. These symptoms are caused when allergens bind to IgE on the membranes of ______ and stimulate them to release __________? Mast cells and basophils; histamine
...
56. Mammary gland development and lactation depend on all of the following hormones except
...
56. insulin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucagon, gastrin
...
57. All of the following procsses are important in follicular development. Which one occurs first? GnRH secretion
...
57. In order for a helper T cell to recognize an antigen, the antigen must be bound to an MHC protein
...
58. Menarche is often delayed in girls who seriously train for athletic events, such as long distance runners and dancers. This is delayed because they maintain low body fat
...
58. Neutrophils produce a respiratory burst, which destroys more bacteria that can be destroyed by phagocytosis. A respiratory burst results from the formation of a ____ that reacts with H+ to form _____ Superoxide anion; hydrogen peroxide
...
59. Activated macrophages and T cells in inflamed tissue release______ that promote the production of more leukocytes. Colony-stimulating factors
...
59. The vestibular bulbs serve to constrict the vagina during intercourse
...
59. gluconeogenesis, lipogenesis, glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, glyconeogenesis
...
6. The mother is Rh- has Rh antibodies and is carrying an Rh+ fetus. The movement of Rh antibodies across the placenta causes ____ immunity. Rh- mothers should be given RhoGAM after every fetal event where the fetus is Rh+. Injecting the mother with RhoGAM causes ____ immunity. Natural passive; artificial passive
...
6. The pathway of an ovulated egg from the ovary to the uterus is pelvic cavity->fimbriae->infundibulum->ampulla->isthmus
...
6. lists some of the tissue layers of the digestive tract. (order from lumen to external surface)
...
60. Lutein cells, a source of ovarian androgens, develop from the theca interna
...
60. Neutrophils are the chief enemies of bacteria. They exhibit the following steps in fighting bacteria: margination → diapedesis → chemotaxis → phagocytosis
...
61. Just before it is withdrawn by a nursing infant, milk enters a dilated sac behind the lactiferous sinus
...
61. The lymphatic cell when activated forms colonies of helper cells, cytotoxic cells, suppressor cells, and memory cells T lymphocytes
...
62. Antibodies belong to a class of plasma proteins called. Globulins
...
62. Thinning of the cervical tissue during first-stage labor is called effacement.
...
63. A fetus is nourished by way of a disc-shaped organ, the _, attached to the uterine wall. Placenta
...
63. Which of the following is not a form of nonspecific resistance? Vaccination
...
64 MALT is lymphatic tissue found in such places as the digestive mucosa
...
64. Blood osmolarity plasma proteins
...
64. During pregnancy, _ elevates the mother's metabolic rate Human chorionic thyrotropin
...
65. Plasma cells arise from B cells
...
65. What differs the primordial follicle from the primary? The primordial a lady has from birth
...
66. In the milk ejection, reflex, sensitive nerve fibers in the _ stimulate the hypothalamus to release _ areola; oxytocin
...
67. The myometrium contains _ whose function is to _ smooth muscle; produce labor contractions
...
68. In the luteal phase, all of the following things happen except the endometrial cells exhibit rapid mitosis
...
69. The sudden vasodilation of skin arteris due to hormone shifts (low estrogen) causes hot flashes
...
7. The most abundant estrogen of pregnancy is _ and the estrogen that has the greatest effects during pregnancy is by estriol; estrodial
...
70. To stimulate ovulation, LH stimulates increased blood flow to the maturing follicle and release of collagenase
...
8 In a transfusion reaction the hemolysis of mismatched erythrocytes results from
...
8. The eggs are moved along the uterine tube by cilia and peristaltic waves
...
9. The superior curvature of the uterus is called the fundus
...
9. enterogastric reflex
...
Corpus luteum; estrogen and progesterone
...
HCG
...
Major histocompatibility complex proteins
...
54. An autoimmune disease (AID) in which antibodies damage the capillaries of the kidneys Acute
...Glomerulonephritis
53. The main antigen presenting cells in the body are _ because they display fragments of phagocytized material to alert the T-cell of the immune system.
...Macrophages
Most people have been to the hospital have seen people hooked up by an IV to a plastic bag containing various solutions. One of the most common solutions used in an IV is normal saline. If you looked at the bag of normal saline, you would expect its salinity to be about _____%
0.9
3 regions of the urethra
1 prostatic urethra, 2 membranous urethra, 3 spongy penile urethra
Duct cells secrete bicarbonate, which neutralizes HCl in the acidic chyme coming from the stomach, in the following process:
1. Acidic chyme enters duodenum 2. Intestinal mucosa releases secretin into bloodstream 3. Secretin stimulates pancreas (duct cells) 4. Pancreas (or duct cells) secretes pancreatic juice in bicarbonate ions 5. Bicarbonate ions neutralize acidic chyme
Saliva functions:
1. Begin digestion of starch and fats 2. Cleanse teeth 3. Inhibit bacteria 4. Aid in swallowing
The Process of Producing Stomach Acid:
1. CO2 from blood binds with H2O to form H2CO3 2. H+ dissociates into HCO3 and H+ in the parietal cell 3. H/K pump will pump H+ out in lumen of gastric gland, K in parietal cell 4. HCO3 goes into blood 5. CL- goes from blood to the lumen of gastric gland. Cl bonds with H+ and forms HCl (stomach acid)
Chemica Digestion and Abosorption of Lipids
1. Emulsification of Fats 2. Fat hydrolysis 3. Lipid uptake by micelles 4. Chylomicron Formation 5. Chylomicron exocytosis and lymphatic uptake circulation
Gastric Phase:
1. Food stretches the stomach and activates myenteric and vagovogol reflexes 2. These reflexes stimulate gastric secretion 3. Histamine and gastrin also stimulate acid and enzyme production
Chylomicron exocytosis and lymphatic uptake
1. Golgi apparatus repackages chylomicrons into secretory vesicles 2. Chylomicrons are released from basal cell membrane by exocytosis and enter the lacteal (lymphatic capillary) of the villus 3. Enters lymphatic system 4. Enters subclavian vein the general circulation
Large Intestine Motility
1. Haustral Contractions: similar to segmentation 2. Mass Movement: big contractions of ascending and transverse colon 3. Internal anal sphincter: smooth muscle; involuntary; responds to pressure in rectum 4. External anal sphincter: skeletal muscle; under voluntary control
Starting from the digestion of food, how is pepsin made?
1. Ingested food buffers stomach acid 2. Elevated pH stimulates G cell 3. G cells (enteroendecrine) secrete gastrin 4. Gastrin stimulates chief cells and parietal cells 5. Chief cells secrete pepsinogen 6. Parietal cells secrete HCl 7. HCl helps convert pepsinogen to pepsin 8. Pepsin digests dietary proteins 9. Oligopeptides directly stimulate G cells 10. Oligopeptides and amino acids buffer stomach acid
Chemical Digestion and Absorption of Carbohydrates
1. Initial digestion. Chemical and mechanical digestion begins in the mouth; Salivary amylase preps the carbs for the duodenum. 2. The carb is not broken down in the stomach 3. Secondary digestion. Pancreatic amylase begins the digestion in the lumen of SI (duodenum); Breaks down starch into oligosaccharides; 4. Contact digestion: Enzymes on the brush border will break carbs down further into monosaccharides 5. Glucose and galactose are co-transported with Na+. 6. Fructose slips in the thru facilitated diffusion. This is a passive process; Fructose is going down its pressure gradient but needs a protein channel to help it. 7. All 3 pass to the basal side thru facilitated diffusion 8. Passive pass thru blood capillary a. Chemical gradient set up by NA/K pump and the drive for Na to come in is coupled with glucose and galactose in co-transport.
Intestinal Phase:
1. Intestinal gastrin briefly stimulates the stomach but... 2. Secretin and CCK and enterogastric reflex inhibit gastric secretion and motility while the duodenum processes chime already in it 3. Sympathetic never fibers suppress gastric activity while vagal stimulation of the stomach is now inhibited
Emulsification of Fats
1. Large gat gloue not able to be digested bc the lipase enymes will not have access to theinterior portion of fat globule; So breaks down into smaller parts 2. Fat globules broken up and coated by lecithin (lipid) and bile acids i. Produced in liver and stored in gall bladder ii. EX: How soap breaks up grease
Structure of the Small Intestine:
1. Lined with villi 2. Plicae circularis
A sample of liver functions:
1. Makes bile 2. Makes bile 3. Makes plasma proteins (clotting) 4. Makes plasma proteins (clotting) 5. Makes nonessential amino acids 6. Makes nonessential amino acids 7. Makes vitamin A 8. Makes vitamin A 9. Stores vitamins K, D, B12, & iron 10. Stores vitamins K, D, B12, & iron
Regulation of Small Intestine
1. Mechanical and chemical stimulation from chyme stimulates goblet cells to secrete mucus 2. Distention (stretching) of intestinal wall stimulates parasympathetic reflexes that stimulate secretions from the small intestine a. Cholecystokinin b. Secretin 3. Movements: Peristalsis and Segmentation ( mixes which is important for contact digestion)
Chemica Digestion and Abosorption of Proteins
1. Mouth: No chemical digestion occurs only mechanical. 2. Stomach: Pepsin hydrolyzes protein to smaller polypeptides 3. Small Intestine: Pancreatic proteases will help break up polypeptides further into oligopeptides a. Trypsin and chymotrypsin will hydrolyze some peptide bonds. b. Carboxypeptidase cleaves off one AA at a time from the carboxyl end c. Aminopeptidase removes an AA from the amino end d. Dipeptidase splits dipeptides into single AAs 4. Not an AA until reaches the brush border 5. AAs absorbed via co-transport w/ Na+ 6. Dipeptide co-transport with H+ 7. Specific carriers for transport of AAs into blood a. Facilitated diffusion into blood; Na/K pump helps
Fat hydrolysis
1. Once in smaller droplets then the pancreatic lipase has an increase in surface area 2. The pancreatic lipase hydrolyzes the 1st and 3rd fatty acids from the triglycerides 3. Result is 2 free fatty acids and one monoglyceride
How Pepsin makes more of itself
1. Parietal and chief cell secretions together make the enzyme pepsin (for protein digestion) a. Chief cells secrete pepsinogen: a zymogen b. Parietal cells secrete HCl to cleave the peptide to make pepsin c. Pepsin will help cleave peptide to make more of its active form
Small Intestine:
1. Receives secretions from pancreas and liver 2. SITE OF NEARLY ALL CHEMICAL DIGESTION AND NUTRIENT ABSORPTION 3. Transports the remaining residue to the large intestine 4. Major site of absorption: Food, Fuel and Water 5. Consists of duodenum (10"), jejenulum (6'), and ilium (9') 6. Attached to posterior abdominal wall by double layered peritoneum called mesentery 7. Volume absorbed by small intestine per day: 9,000 ml
Small Intestine Digestion:
1. Secretes mucus and water into lumen 2. No digestive enzyme secretions: Does not secrete enxymes into its lumen; Its all on the walls a. Digestion accomplished by pancreatic enzymes b. Only fat digestion completed in lumen; Bile + pancreatic enzymes c. Carbs, protein rely on contact digestion 3. Contact digestion
Intestinal Flora
1. The "good" bacteria... 2. 100000000000000 cells in human body (100 trillion) 3. 10x more microbes in colon than cells in the body! a. Mostly bacteria; Also fungi and protists 4. Mutually beneficial a. We feed them, they help us: i. Carbohydrate fermentation & absorption ii. Vit K, biotin iii. Colonization resistance iv. Immune system v. Even hormones! b. Imbalance may contribute to some digestive diseases c. Probiotics (yogurt anyone?) found to enhance metabolism of polysaccharides by gut bacteria
Lipid uptake by micelles
1. The monoglycerides, fatty acids, cholesterol, and fat-soluble vitamins (A, E, K) combine to form micelles 2. Micelles in the bile pass to the small intestine
22. During vigorous exercise, RBCs spend 0.3 sec in an alveolar capillary, compared to 0.75 sec at rest. In alveolar capillaries, RBCs in 0.3 sec would be able to load _____% of the O2 compared to RBCs in 0.75 sec.
100
After exercise ___% of oxygen is able to load in capillary.
100
The mean temperature of blood is ____ F
100.4
8. The mean temperature of the blood is ____ degrees Fahrenheit.
100.4 F
If a person's arterial blood pressure measures 130/85, the mean arterial blood pressure is
100mmHg
His mean arterial pressure
115 mmHg
The pressure peaks at about __mmHg in the left ventricle and at about __ mmHg in the right ventricle.
120 and 25
40. The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is about _____ mL/min.
125
the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is about ___ ml/min
125
42. Adults produce about _____ L/day of glomerular filtrate and excrete about ____ L/day of urine.
150 to 180; 1 to 2
41. You have a closed container full of air with a pressure of 760 mmHg. Oxygen makes up 21% of the air. The pressure of the air just due to oxygen is _____ mmHg.
159
You have a closed container full of air with a pressure of 760mmHg. Oxygen makes up 21% of the air. The pressure of the air just due to oxygen is __mmHg.
159
How much does PO2 decrease over time?
1mmHg/year over the age of 60
18. What percent change in plasma osmolarity would make one intensely thirsty?
2 to 3
36 Several hormones promote oxygen unloading from the hemoglobin to the systemic tissues by promoting the synthesis of
2, 3 biphosphoglycerate (BPG).
What percent change in plasma osmolarity would make one intensely thirsty?
2-3
The lymphatic system returns about __L of fluid back to the circulatory system each day.
2-4
59. A sperm count lower than ____ is usually associated with infertility.
20 to 25 million sperm/ml semen
25. The venous blood coming out of your leg muscles at rest probably has about ___ as/than the arterial blood going into it.
20% to 25% less oxygen
Venous blood coming out of your leg at rest has __ oxygen let off
20-25%
28. deciduous teeth, permanent teeth. Infants have _____ deciduous teeth, whereas adults have _______ permanent teeth.
20; 32
23. An individual has a height of six feet and a weight of 150 pounds. This individual has a BMI of _____ and is considered _____.
20; optimal
Infants have ___ decidous teeth, while adults have ____ permanent teeth.
20;32
An individual has a height of six feet and a weight of 150 lbs. This individual has a BMI of _____ and is considered ____.
20;optimal
41. 30% Bacteria constitute about _____ % of the dry weight of feces
30
46. Fats should account for about _____% of your daily caloric intake.
30
A typical neuron will have a membrane voltage of about ___ at the time when sodium gates close and potassium ions begin rapidly leaving the cell.
30 mV
Bacteria constitute about ___ of dry weight of the feces.
30%
58. Blood plasma has an osmolality of about
300 mOsm/L.
24 The optimal temperature for sperm production is
35 degrees C.
30. The hematocrit is ____________ of the total blood volume.
37% to 52%
63. When a cell divides by meiosis, it ultimately produces ___ daughter cells.
4
48. Your resting ventilation rate is about ____ mL per minute.
4,200
15. Your frequency of breathing is 12 breaths/minute; your tidal volume is 500 mL; your vital capacity is 4,700 mL; and your dead air space is 150 mL. Your alveolar ventilation rate is ____ mL/min.
4,200.
45. Approximately ___ of the energy in a glucose molecule winds up in ATP molecules at the end of aerobic respiration.
40%
Approximately ___ of the energy in a glucose molecule winds up in ATP molecules at the end of areobic respiration.
40%
17 The minimum urine output to avoid abnormally high levels of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is about ____ mL/day.
400
The minimum urine output to avoid abnormally high levels of blood urea nitrogen BUN is about mL/day
400
13. The average adult must excrete at least ___ of urine per day to maintain a safe and stable concentration of urea in the blood.
400 mL
The average adult must excrete at least ___ of urine per day to maintain a stable concentration of urea in the blood.
400 ml
49. Carbohydrates and proteins yield about ____ kcal/g, while fats yield about ____ kcal/g when completely oxidized.
4; 9
33. Each hemoglobin can carry up to ____ O2 molecules that are bound to ____.
4; iron
Suppose that atmospheric pressure at a given time is 765 mmHg, the intrapleural pressure during inspiration is 759 mmHg, and the intrapulmonary pressure is 763 mmHg. Under these conditions the transpulmonary pressure would be
4mmHg
26. Urine normally has a pH of approximately
5.5
Urine normally has pH of approximately.
5.5
29. Carbohydrates should account for about _____% of your daily caloric intake.
50
22. If magnesium chloride (MgCl2) completely ionizes in water to Mg2+ and 2 Cl-, it would require ___ of MgCl2 to make 0.5 L of a 300 mOsm/L solution.
50 millimoles
47. A normal sperm count is
50 to 120 million sperm/ml semen.
What is a normal tidal volume?
500ml
Man with hypertension and type 2 diabetes. Stroke Volume
50mL/beat; more blood being pumped out of right ventricle than left
7. The optimum pH for the phosphate buffer system is about _____, while the optimum pH for the bicarbonate buffer system is about _____.
6.8; 6.1
Suppose a person has a tidal volume of 650 mL, an inspiratory reserve volume of 3,400 mL, an anatomic dead space of 155 mL, and a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min. what would be the value of his alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)?
6.93 L/ min
10. Suppose a person has a tidal volume of 650 mL, an inspiratory reserve volume of 3,400 mL, an anatomic dead space of 155 mL, and a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min. What would be the value of his alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)?
6.93 L/min
49. A patient produces 80 mL of urine per hour. Her urine contains 9.0 mg of urea per milliliter, and her blood contains 0.20 mg of urea per milliliter. What is her rate of renal clearance for urea?
60 mL/min
carbohydrates should account for about ____% of your daily intake.
60%
Your resting ventilation rate is about __ mL per minute.
600
37. The pH of systemic arterial blood is normally
7.4.
If end-diastolic volume is 108 mL, end-systolic volume is 35mL, and ejection fraction is 0.86, then the stroke volume must be
73 mL
10. The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation is the A) foramen ovale. B) interatrial septum. C) coronary sinus. D) fossa ovalis. E) ligamentum arteriosus.
A
14. The atrioventricular valves permit blood flow A) in one direction only. B) in both directions. C) in many directions. D) in opposite directions on the right and left. E) from a ventricle to an atrium.
A
15. Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the A) right atrium. B) right ventricle. C) left atrium. D) left ventricle. E) conus arteriosus.
A
18. The coronary sulcus is a groove that A) marks the border between the atria and ventricles. B) marks the boundary line between the right and left ventricles. C) marks the boundary line between the right and left atria. D) separates the atrioventricular valves from the atria. E) separates the coronary arteries from the coronary veins.
A
23. Most of the middle layer in the heart wall is composed of A) cardiac muscle cells. B) chondrocytes. C) epitheliocytes. D) fibrocytes. E) smooth muscle cells.
A
24. The right ventricle pumps blood to the A) right and left lungs. B) left ventricle. C) left atrium. D) aorta. E) right atrium.
A
27. In order to perform a CABG, a cardiac surgeon must A) open the pericardial sac. B) open the myocardium to see the AV valves. C) visualize the pulmonary valve. D) visualize the carotid arteries. E) All of the answers are correct.
A
38. The ________ deliver(s) blood to the myocardium. A) coronary arteries B) cardiac veins C) superior vena cava D) carotid arteries E) coronary sinus
A
49. The pulmonary veins carry blood to the A) heart. B) lungs. C) brain. D) intestines. E) liver.
A
53. The marginal branch and posterior interventricular branch are branches of the A) right coronary artery. B) left coronary artery. C) circumflex artery. D) coronary sinus. E) aorta.
A
69. Depolarization of the atria corresponds to the EKG's A) P wave. B) QRS complex. C) QT interval. D) T wave. E) S-T segment.
A
8. The term used to describe fluid collecting in the pericardial cavity that restricts the movement of the heart is known as A) cardiac tamponade. B) mitral valve prolapse. C) pleural effusion. D) cardiomyopathy. E) pericarditis.
A
86. Cardiac output can be increased by all of the following except one. Choose the exception. A) decreasing ejection fraction B) decreasing end systolic volume C) increasing stroke volume D) increasing ejection fraction E) increasing heart rate
A
92. Cardiac output is increased by A) sympathetic stimulation. B) increased end systolic volume. C) decreased end diastolic volume. D) decreased venous return. E) inhibiting the atrial reflex.
A
97. A patient has an end-diastolic volume of 125 ml. A heart attack has weakened her left ventricle so it can pump a stroke volume of only 40 ml. Calculate her end-systolic volume. A) 85 ml B) 3.1 ml C) 5000 ml D) 165 ml E) not enough data given to calculate the end-systolic volume
A
Artery is to ________ as vein is to ________. A) efferent; afferent B) afferent; efferent C) toward; away D) afferent; away E) efferent; away
A
Excess fluid in the ________ causes cardiac tamponade. A) pericardial cavity B) visceral pericardium C) apex of heart D) left ventricle E) both atria
A
The heart pumps approximately ________ liters of blood each day. A) 8,000 B) 15,000 C) 20,000 D) 50,000 E) 100,000
A
acidosis
A blool pH below 7.35 is called ___.
buffer
A chemical that converts a strong acid or base to a weak one and thus resists pH changes is called a/an __.
What is a circumcision?
A circumcision is the surgical removal of the foreskin of the penis
chorionic villi
A conceptus is anchored to the endometrium by rootlike outgrowths of the syncytiotrophoblast called ___
edema
A local accumulation of interstitial fluid is called__.
renin; increase blood pressure
A low glomerular filtration rate (GFR) will cause the juxtaglomerular cells to release __, which will __.
phenylketonuria
A newborn infant is screened for this disorder, which prevents the individual from producing the amino acid tyrosine, a critical amino acid for the formation of melanin, EP, NE, thyroid hormones and dopamine.
glomerular filtration rate
A realistic value for __ is about 180 L/day.
Chemical digestion:
A series of hydrolysis reactions that break dietary macromolecules into their monomers
acrosome
A sperm penetrates an egg by means of enzymes from its __.
acrosome
A spermatozoon secretes enzymes from its __ to penetrate the egg.
Klinefelter syndrome
A sterile male with undeveloped testes, overdeveloped breasts, and unusually long arms and legs is most likely to have
38. Which of the following nutrients is most likely to circulate through skeletal muscle before it ever circulates through the liver?
A triglyceride
61. The cell that migrates from the outside to the inside of the blood-testis barrier is
A type B spermatogonium
true
A woman's blood cholesterol tends to rise after menopause.
A woman has a normal pregnancy, but the second pregnancy results in hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) or erythroblastosistalis. The second child needed a transfusion to completely replace the agglutinating blood the mother was ost likely type ____ and both children are most likely ____.
A, Rh negative; B, Rh positive
An individual has type B, Rh positive blood. The individual has the __antigens and __ antibodies.
A, Rh negative; b, Rh positive
It would be impossible for a type O baby to have a/an ___ father.
AB
The universal recipient is type
AB positive
55. Your blood type is AB, Rh and you are willing to give blood. In spite of a national shortage of blood, you were turned down by your local blood bank. The reason for being turned down is that your blood is a rare type and can only be given to
AB, Rh positive recipients
42. Blood types
ABO, RH+, RH - A B AB or O
polypeptide precursor that is split up also forms
ACTH
Nicotonic receptors bind to
ACh
Which of the following reduces the heart rate?
ACh
In the ANS, the preganglionic neurons releases____, while the postganglionic neurons releases____.
ACh; ACh or NE
Neurons called osmoreceptors trigger the secretion of-
ADH
30. Dehydration results in increased blood and ECF osmolarity, which causes osmolarity receptors to stimulate the formation of ____ by the hypothalamus that causes ____ in the DCT and CD.
ADH; increased water reabsorption
Dehydration results in increased blood and ECF osmolarity.... formation of ____ by the hypothalamus that causes ____....
ADH;Increased water reabsorption
Brunner's glands
AKA duodenal glands Role: Secrete bicarbonate mucus because the acidic chime of the stomach needs to be counterbalanced
In response to high blood pressure, this hormone increases the secretion of Na+ and H2O in urine
ANP
In response to high blood pressure, this hormone increases the secretion of Na+ and H2O in urine.
ANP
18. Shivering warms the body because it increases the rate of
ATP hydrolysis
Hydrogen ions diffuse from the intermembrane space of a mitochondrion into the mitochondrial matrix by way of?
ATP synthase
53. Hydrogen ions diffuse from the intermembrane space of a mitochondrion into the mitochondrial matrix by way of
ATP synthase.
the inner membrane of mitochondria or mitochondrial cristae contains the protein called ____, which harness electrical energy to produce ATP by ____.
ATP synthase; Chemiosmosis
44. The inner membrane of mitochondria or mitochondrial cristae contains the protein called _____, which harnesses electrical energy to produce ATP by _____.
ATP synthase; chemiosmosis
true
Abnormal loss of protein in the urine can lead to edema.
The presence of bronchovesicular breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields is described as _______
Abnormal lung sounds
What is Emphysema?
Abnormal permanent enlargement of the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, accompanied by destruction of their walls
true
About 2/3 's of the total water is intracellular.
prostate
About 30% of the semen is produced by the __, a medial gland that encloses part of the urethra.
The large intestine
Absorbs water an forms and stored feces 1. Doesn't digest or absorb nutrients 2. Secretes mucus and absorbs water and electrolytes 3. Contains important intestinal flora which synthesize vitamins (K)
Which of the following reduces heart rate?
Acetylcholine
If a person's urine has an unusually high concentration of ammonium CL, we could suspect that the person has
Acidosis
54. A spermatozoon secretes enzymes from its ___ to penetrate the egg.
Acrosome
After about 120 days and 700 miles, red blood cells become fragile due to the deteoration of the preipheral protein called ____/ The cell fragments are phagocitized by ___ in the spleen and liver
Actin; macrophages
32. The kidney adds a hydroxyl group to calcidiol, converting it to what?
Active form of Vitamin D
Sodium ions enter epithelilal cells from the glomerular filtrate by symport and andiport,.... this can be explained becasue Na+ is
Actively transported by the Na+ - K+ pump into the extracellular fluid.
____ is an autoimmune disease in which antibodies damage the capillaries of the kidneys.
Acute glomerulonephritis.
11. Leptin is produced by _____ and inhibits the synthesis of _____.
Adipocytes; neuropeptide Y
32. Hyperkalemia (increased K+) will stimulate the _____ to release _____.
Adrenal cortex; aldosterone
When a patient with asthma is admitted to the ER in sever resp distress, the nurse anticipates that initial drug treatment will most likely include administration of ...
Aerosolized albuterol
41. The _____ feeds into the glomerulus and the _____ drains the glomerulus.
Afferent arteriole; efferent arteriole
Lymphatic (lymphoid) tissues
Aggregations of lymphocytes in the connective tissue of mucous membranes and various organs
Hyperresonance is associated with what etiology?
Air trapping
The effect of alveolar destruction in emphysema results in...
Air trapping in distal alveoli
What type of precautions need to be instituted for TB?
Airborne
30. Which molecule would you expect to have the most difficulty crossing the glomerular filtration membrane?
Albumin
28. What would be the benefit of giving intravenous albumin to a patient who has experienced fluid loss and low blood volume?
Albumin increases colloid osmotic pressure
What would be the benefit of giving intravenous albumin to a patient who has experienced fluid loss and low blood volume?
Albumin increases colloid osmotic pressure.
46. Kidney damage can cause ___, the excretion of protein in the urine.
Albuminuria
56. This hormone binds to principal cells in the DCT to reabsorb Na+ and secrete K+.
Aldosterone
8. nutrients are absorbed by blood capillaries of the villus
All of the following nutrients are absorbed by blood capillaries of the villus except cholesterol
GnRH secretion
All of the following processes are important in follicular development. Which one occurs first?
Who should get the inactivated flu vaccine?
All patients greater than 50 years of age or who are at high risk during routine office visits or, if hospitalized, at the time of discharge
What is an extrinsic etiology of asthma?
Allergic reaction
Crypt of Lieberkühn
Also called intestinal crypt Mucous and absorptive cells At base, stem cells i. cycle cells on villus every 3-6 days ii. shed 100 million intestinal cells per minute
The pulmonary VC leading to the development of cor pulmonale is the patient with COPD results from...
Alveolar hypoxia and hypercapnia
Terminal structures of the respiratory tract
Alveoli
40. salivary amylase, pancreatic amylase, pepsin, trypsin, dipeptidase
Amylase is an enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis of starch into sugars. Amylase is present in the saliva of humans and some other mammals, where it begins the chemical process of digestion. pancreatic amylase-Any of a group of enzymes that are present in saliva, pancreatic juice, and parts of plants and catalyze the hydrolysis of starch to sugar to produce carbohydrate derivatives. Pepsin- Pepsin is an enzyme whose zymogen is released by the chief cells in the stomach and that degrades food proteins into peptides. It was discovered in 1836 by Theodor Schwann who also coined its name from the Greek word pepsis, meaning digestion. Trypsin-Trypsin (EC 3.4.21.4) is a serine protease from the PA clan superfamily, found in the digestive system of many vertebrates, where it hydrolyses proteins.[2][3] Trypsin is produced in the pancreas as the inactive proenzyme trypsinogen. Trypsin cleaves peptide chains mainly at the carboxyl side of the amino acids lysine or arginine, except when either is followed by proline. It is used for numerous biotechnological processes. The process is commonly referred to as trypsin proteolysis or trypsinisation, and proteins that have been digested/treated with trypsin are said to have been trypsinized. Dipeptidase-An enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of dipeptides into their constituent amino acids.
Klinefelter syndrome
An XXY combination of sex chomomsomes produces an individual with
uncompensated
An acid-base imbalance that the body cannot correct is said to be __.
true
An adolescent girl's growth of axillary hair and apocrine glands is stimulated by androgens.
8 weeks
An individual becomes a fetus at the end of __ weeks of gestation.
11. All of the following are autoimmune diseases except
Anaphylaxis
150 ml of air in this area is not available for gas exchange
Anatomic dead space
Manubriosternal junction at level of carina
Angle of Louis
Internal Urethral
Anterior opening in urinary bladder that leads into urethra
10. Capping and antigen endocytosis are early steps in the action of:
Antigen presenting cells
congenital anomaly
Any abnormality present at birth is called a _____.
Renal Papilla
Apex of renal pyramid
26. The interlobar artery penetrates each renal column and gives off the _____ artery that runs at the boundary between the cortex and medulla.
Arcuate
Lymphatic Trunks
Are formed by the union of the largest collecting vessels and drain fairly large areas of the body. The major trunks are the paired lumbar, bronchomediastinal, subclavian, and jugular trunks, and the single intestinal trunk.
Trigone
Area bounded by urethral openings and internal urethral orifice
The amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin, expressed as a %
Arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2)
The amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma and is expressed in mmHg
Arterial oxygen tension (PaO2)
Absent breath sounds are associated with what etiology?
Atelectasis
hypertension
Atrial natriuretic factor is secreted in response to __.
53. In response to high blood pressure, this hormone increases the secretion of Na+ and H2O in urine.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
Which one of the following hormones reduces blood pressure?
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
implantation
Attachment of the conceptus to the uterine wall is called __.
11. Blood leaves the right ventricle by passing through the A) aortic valve. B) pulmonary valve. C) mitral valve. D) tricuspid valve. E) bicuspid valve.
B
29. When the left ventricle contracts, the distance from the apex to the base A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains unchanged.
B
30. When the left ventricle contracts, the diameter of the ventricular chamber A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same.
B
33. As blood leaves the right ventricle it passes through the ________ and then into the pulmonary trunk. A) pulmonary veins B) conus arteriosus C) aorta D) inferior vena cava E) superior vena cava
B
35. There are ________ pulmonary veins. A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 12
B
37. When the semilunar valves close, the AV valves then A) close. B) open. C) make the third heart sound. D) contract. E) prolapse.
B
48. The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the A) heart. B) lungs. C) brain. D) intestines. E) liver.
B
52. The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta are the ________ arteries. A) pulmonary B) coronary C) circumflex D) carotid E) subclavian
B
54. The circumflex branch and the anterior interventricular artery are branches of the A) right coronary artery. B) left coronary artery. C) interventricular artery. D) coronary sinus. E) aorta.
B
59. If the connection between the SA node and AV node becomes blocked, A) the ventricles will beat faster. B) the ventricles will beat more slowly. C) the ventricular beat will remain unchanged. D) cardiac output will increase. E) the atria will contract more forcefully.
B
64. Analysis of the electrocardiogram can reveal all of the following, except the A) heart rate. B) stroke volume. C) condition of the conducting system. D) effects of drugs and poisons. E) duration of the ventricular action potential.
B
66. Pacemaker cells in the SA node A) have a well-defined resting potential. B) can spontaneously depolarize. C) also contract with the rest of the cells in the heart wall. D) are special neurons that convey signals from the brain to the heart. E) All of the answers are correct.
B
70. The first heart sound is heard when the A) AV valves open. B) AV valves close. C) semilunar valves close. D) atria contract. E) blood enters the aorta.
B
71. The first heart sound ("lub") A) is associated with atrial systole. B) is associated with closing of the mitral valve. C) is associated with opening of the mitral valve. D) is associated with closing of the aortic valve. E) is associated with opening of the aortic valve.
B
75. The systolic part (both atrial and ventricular) of a cardiac cycle lasts on average A) 3 seconds. B) 370 msec. C) 5 seconds. D) 100 msec. E) 800 msec.
B
81. Each of the following factors will increase cardiac output, except A) increased venous return. B) increased parasympathetic stimulation. C) increased sympathetic stimulation. D) increased heart rate. E) increased force of contraction.
B
93. Activation of which kind of receptor causes heart rate to increase? A) alpha-one receptor B) beta-one receptor C) muscarinic receptor D) beta-two receptor E) preganglionic
B
94. Drugs that block the beta-one adrenergic receptors will A) increase heart rate. B) decrease heart rate. C) increase contractility. D) increase cardiac output. E) decrease the end-systolic volume.
B
The adult heart is roughly the size of A) the liver. B) a man's clenched fist. C) the gallbladder. D) the hand of a 10-year-old. E) the brain.
B
A new born baby is type B, Rh positive. The RBCs will have the ____ antigen(s) and the plasma will have ____ antibdy(ies).
B and Rh; neither A or Rh antibodies
An individual has type B, Rh positive blood. The individual has the _____ antigen(s) and antibody(ies)
B and Rh;A
The formed elements most directly responsible for humoral immunity are
B lymphocytes
52. The coenzymes of aerobic respiration are synthesized from
B vitamins.
51. Because of the ___, very little albumin escapes from the blood during glomerular filtration.
Basement membrane of the glomerulus
Bile Composition:
Bile is a yellow-green liquid that hepatic cells secrete; Bile gets its color from heme breakdown after picked up from liver Contains water, bile salts, bile pigments, cholesterol, and electrolytes; Bile pigment bilirubin is from breakdown of heme (hemoglobin) Only bile salts involved in digestion Stored in gall bladder Bile salts emulsify fats and make them easier to digest and absorb
3. Of the following components of bile only _____ has/have a digestive function.
Bile salts
18. Bile gets its yellow, green color mainly from
Bilirubin
47. What is the final product of the breakdown of the organic nonprotein moiety of hemoglobin?
Bilirubin
__ is a bile pigment formed by the breakdown of hemoglobin from expired erythrocytes.
Bilirubin
67. ____ is a bile pigment found by the breakdown of hemoglobin from expired erythrocytes.
Biliverdin
_____ is a bile pigment formed by the breakdown of hemoglobin from expired erythrocytes.
Biliverdin
Macrophages in the spleen and liver will phagocytize ruptured RBCs and decompose heme into ____ and ____
Biliverdin: Iron
24. Macrophages in the spleen and liver will phagocytize ruptured RBCs and decompose heme into ____ and _____.
Biliverdin; iron
Peritubular Capillaries
Blood from the efferent arterole flows into this capillary bed
afferent arteriole; efferent arteriole
Blood pressure in the glomerulus is unusuallu high compared to the other capillaries because the diameter of the ___ is greater that of the ___.
where does the blood supply to the testes come from?
Blood supply comes from the testicular arteries and testicular veins
Afferent Arterole
Blood vessel that delivers blood to glomerulus
Efferent Arterole
Blood vessel that drains blood from glomerulus
Chest expanding so volume increases while pressure decrease is what law?
Boyle's law
Wheezes are associated with what etiology?
Bronchoconstriciton
What medication therapy is needed for respiratory acidosis?
Bronchoialators, Antibiotics, Mucolytics, Anticoagulants
57. Secretions from the ____ lubricate the head of the penis and neutralize acidity from residual urine in the urethra.
Bulbourethral glands
16. Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the A) right atrium. B) right ventricle. C) left atrium. D) left ventricle. E) conus arteriosus.
C
19. In the middle of the thoracic cavity is a region occupied by the heart, great vessels, thymus, esophagus, and trachea called the A) pleural space. B) pericardial space. C) mediastinum. D) cardiac notch. E) ventral cavity.
C
20. The cusps (leaflets) of atrioventricular valves attach directly to A) papillary muscles. B) trabeculae carneae. C) chordae tendineae. D) interatrial septa. E) coronary sulci.
C
22. The visceral pericardium is the same as the A) mediastinum. B) parietal pericardium. C) epicardium. D) myocardium. E) endocardium.
C
28. When a blood clot forms on a ruptured plaque in a coronary artery, the condition is referred to as a(n) A) coronary spasm. B) myocardial infarction. C) coronary thrombosis. D) angina pectoris. E) pulmonary embolism.
C
32. Blood flowing into the heart from the venae cavae flows next through the ________ valve. A) mitral B) bicuspid C) tricuspid D) pulmonary semilunar E) aortic semilunar
C
34. Coronary veins empty into the A) left atrium. B) left ventricle. C) right atrium. D) right ventricle. E) conus arteriosus.
C
40. Blood is supplied to the left atrium by the A) brachiocephalic artery. B) right coronary artery. C) left coronary artery. D) phrenic arteries. E) pulmonary arteries.
C
42. All of the following vitamins except ___ are fat-soluble.
C
43. The ________ valve prevents backward flow into the left atrium. A) semicaval B) semilunar C) bicuspid D) tricuspid E) pulmonic
C
45. Compared to the right ventricle, the left ventricle has all the following characteristics, except that it A) has a thicker wall. B) is round in cross section. C) pumps a greater volume. D) works harder. E) produces about four to six times more pressure when it contracts.
C
46. Which of the following are involved in the pulmonary circuit? A) superior vena cava, right atrium, left ventricle B) right ventricle, pulmonary veins, aorta C) right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, left atrium D) inferior vena cava, right atrium, aorta E) left ventricle, pulmonary veins, right atrium
C
51. Blood is supplied to the myocardium by A) the coronary sinus. B) contact with blood in the pumping chambers. C) the coronary arteries. D) arteries that branch from the pulmonary arteries. E) arteries that branch off the subclavian arteries.
C
55. The great and middle cardiac veins drain blood into the A) superior vena cava. B) inferior vena cava. C) coronary sinus. D) coronary sulcus. E) aorta.
C
56. Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing. A) P wave B) T wave C) QRS complex D) P-R interval E) R-T interval
C
57. As a result of the long refractory period in the cardiac action potential, cardiac muscle cannot exhibit A) tonus. B) treppe. C) tetany. D) recruitment. E) fatigue.
C
60. The P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal from A) depolarization of the SA node. B) depolarization of the AV node. C) depolarization of the atria. D) repolarization of the atria. E) depolarization of the ventricles.
C
67. Pacemaker cells isolated from the SA node generate action potentials at ________ beats per minute. A) 20-40 B) 40-60 C) 80-100 D) 100-140 E) 140-180
C
68. ________ is to slow heart rate as ________ is to fast heart rate. A) Tachycardia; bradycardia B) Bradycardia; cardiomyopathy C) Bradycardia; tachycardia D) Cardiac tamponade; bradycardia E) Angina; infarction
C
7. Which of the following descriptions matches the term near the left fifth intercostal space? A) pericardial cavity B) visceral pericardium C) apex of heart D) aorta E) right atrium
C
76. At a heart rate of 60 beats/minute, a cardiac cycle lasts A) 60 seconds. B) 60 milliseconds. C) 1 second. D) 370 milliseconds. E) 630 milliseconds.
C
77. During ventricular systole, the A) atria are contracting. B) blood is entering the ventricles. C) AV valves are closed. D) pressure in the ventricles remains constant. E) pressure in the aorta remains constant.
C
80. The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the A) end-diastolic volume. B) end-systolic volume. C) stroke volume. D) cardiac output. E) cardiac reserve.
C
82. "An increase in end-diastolic volume increases the stroke volume" is a way of stating A) Robin's law of the heart. B) Finch's law of the heart. C) Starling's law of the heart. D) Sparrow's law of the heart. E) Hawking's law of the heart.
C
84. The heart is innervated by ________ nerves. A) parasympathetic B) sympathetic C) both parasympathetic and sympathetic D) neither parasympathetic nor sympathetic E) somatomotor
C
88. Heart rate is controlled by neurons of the cardiovascular center located in the A) pons. B) thalamus. C) medulla oblongata. D) hypothalamus. E) higher centers.
C
91. Which of these would cause stroke volume to increase? A) when venous return is decreased B) when ventricular contraction is reduced C) when diastolic blood pressure is decreased D) decrease in heart rate E) All of the answers are correct.
C
98. Calculate cardiac output if the heart rate is 125 beats/minute, the end-diastolic volume is 130 ml, and the end-systolic volume is 40 ml. A) 21,250 ml / min B) 16,250 ml / min C) 11,250 ml / min D) 195 ml / min E) 200 ml / min
C
99. Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with a heart rate of 100 beats/minute and a stroke volume of 75 ml. A) 0.75 ml / min B) 750 ml / min C) 7500 ml / min D) 175 ml / min E) 25 ml / min
C
Tetanic muscle contractions don't occur in a normal cardiac muscle because A) cardiac muscle tissue contracts on its own. B) neural stimulation is lacking. C) the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes. D) the refractory period ends before the muscle reaches peak tension. E) potassium channels outnumber sodium channels.
C
The heart beats approximately ________ times each day. A) 1,000 B) 10,000 C) 100,000 D) 1,000,000 E) 10,000,000
C
Brain and spinal cord
CNS
The oligodendrocye is found in the _ and the function is ___.
CNS; form myelin sheaths
23. You have a chamber that contains an equal volume of atmospheric air and an equal volume of water. You would expect _____ in the air to reach equilibrium with the water the fastest.
CO2
49. Compared to inspired air, CO2 is higher in alveolar air, O2 is lower in alveolar air, water is higher in alveolar air, and nitrogen is lower in alveolar air. This can be explained because
CO2 moves into the alveoli, O2 moves out of the alveoli, and H2O is added all along the respiratory tract. (*2nd to largest *)
Which of the following ions serves as a cofactor in blood clotting?
Ca
3. Which of the following ions serves as a cofactor in blood clotting?
Ca2+
60. Which of the following is not a macronutrient?
Calcium
The absorption of ___ depends on the presence of vitamin D.
Calcium
The fast-rising phase of the SA node agtion potential is due to
Calcium influx
11. In spirometric measurements, the difference between a volume and a capacity is
Capacity is determined by adding two or more respiratory volumes.
Vasa Recta
Capillary loops that extend from the efferent arterole and run along the loop of Henle (nephron loop) of juxtamedullary nephrons
Glomerulus
Capillary network within the renal corpuscle
16. The recommended daily allowance is higher for ___ than for any of these other nutrients.
Carbohydrates
What is th point of bifucation of the trachea into the bronchi?
Carina
Ureters
Carries urine from renal pelvis to urinary bladder
1. Müllerian-inhibiting factor
Causes regression of the paramesonephric ducts.
What do you need to know about short-acting beta 2 agonists?
Causes tachycardia, use prior to using inhaled corticosteroid, avoid caffeine, may cause PVCs
Pharynx
Cavity posterior to the mouth; Connects to the esophagus Three regions: Nasopharynx, Oropharynx, Laryngopharynx
20. Suppressor T cells are associated with:
Cell-mediated immunity
Supressor T cells are associated with
Cell-mediated immunity.
Reticular cells
Cells that seal off the cortex of the thymus from the medulla and surround blood vessles and lymphocyte clusters in the cortex. They form a blood-thymus barrier that isolates developing lymphocytes from blood-borne antigens
Phases involved in Digestion:
Cephalic phase, Gastric phase, Intestinal phase
50. In keeping with ___, the warming of air as it is inhaled is one factor that inflates the lungs.
Charles' law
What receptor responds to a change in the chemical composition (PaCO2 and pH) of the fluid around it?
Chemoreceptor
Mastication:
Chewing; Breaks food into pieces small enough to be swallowed and exposes more surface to the action of digestive enzymes; First step in mechanical digestion
Ipratropium - Atrovent
Cholinergic antagonist
COPD encompasses what two diseases?
Chronic bronchitis and Emphysema
Finger clubbing is associated with what etiology?
Chronic hypoxemia
Small hairs that move mucus up the respiratory tract
Cilia
Internal Urethral Sphincter
Circular smooth muscle that involuntarily controls passage of urine from the urinary bladder to the urethra
6. When bicarbonate ions are produced in an erythrocyte, they diffuse into the blood plasma. To compensate for this, ___ diffuses from the plasma into the RBC.
Cl-
25. The male penis is homologous with the _____ of the female.
Clitoris
Strongest stimulatory effect on pulmonary venilation
Co2
21. Which of the following is not an organ of the urinary system?
Collecting duct
39. Which of these is not part of a nephron?
Collecting duct
Elasticity of the lungs and thorax
Compliance
Bag Valve Mask
Concentration: 100% Flow Rate: 15L
Nasal Cannula
Concentration: 24-44% Flow Rate: 1-6 L
Venturi Mask
Concentration: 24-50% Flow Rate: Varies with manufacturer
Aerosol Generator
Concentration: 28-50% Flow Rate: 10L
Simple Face Mask
Concentration: 35-60% Flow Rate: 6-10 L
Partial Rebreather Mask
Concentration: 65-75% Flow Rate: 6-10L
Non Rebreather Mask
Concentration: 85-95% Flow Rate: 8-12L
High-Flow Aerosol Generator
Concentration:60-96% Flow Rate: 25+L
32. The ___ consist of mucous membranes supported by the turbinate bones.
Conchae
Renal Pyramids
Cone-shaped structures located within the renal medulla
Pharynx:
Connect mouth with esophagus
What are the clinical manifestations of tuberculosis?
Copious frothy pink sputum, nonproductive cough early in the morning, night sweats, anorexia, weight loss,
58. Which of the following is not a dietary source of cholesterol?
Corn oil
Which one of the following is not a dietary source of cholesterol?
Corn oil
60. The renal parenchyma contains an outer renal _____ that extends inward to form renal _____.
Cortex; columns
Renal Capsule
Covers the outer surface of kidney
12. Which of the following blood components is not a protein?
Creatinine
58. Which of the following is not a paranasal sinus?
Cricoid
44. In gametogenesis, the genetic composition of each chromosome is changed by the process of
Crossing-over.
Minor Calyces
Cup-like structure that is located in renal sinus that receives urine from openings of papillary ducts
20. One effect of hypoxia is.
Cyanosis.
17. The earlike extension of the atrium is the A) ventricle. B) coronary sinus. C) coronary sulcus. D) auricle. E) atricle.
D
21. Contractions of the papillary muscles A) close the atrioventricular valves. B) close the semilunar valves. C) eject blood from the ventricles. D) prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria. E) eject blood from the atria into the ventricles.
D
25. The left ventricle pumps blood to the A) lungs. B) right ventricle. C) right atrium. D) aorta. E) pulmonary circuit.
D
41. The pulmonary semilunar valve prevents backward flow into the A) aorta. B) pulmonary trunk. C) pulmonary veins. D) right ventricle. E) left atrium.
D
62. Depolarization of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram by the A) P wave. B) T wave. C) S wave. D) QRS complex. E) PR complex.
D
63. The T wave on an ECG tracing represents A) atrial depolarization. B) atrial repolarization. C) ventricular depolarization. D) ventricular repolarization. E) ventricular contraction.
D
72. Considering the left ventricle, why does isovolumetric ventricular contraction occur during ventricular systole? A) The ventricle needs to pressurize the blood to close the aortic valve. B) Ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure so the ventricle cannot eject blood. C) The bicuspid valve needs time to shut before the ventricle can eject blood. D) Aortic pressure is higher than ventricular pressure and the ventricle must pressurize the blood to open the aortic valve. E) The ventricle is still filling with blood and therefore cannot eject blood during this time.
D
73. The phase in the cardiac cycle when the mitral valve is closed and the aortic valve is open is the A) atrial systole. B) early diastolic filling phase. C) late diastolic filling phase. D) systolic ejection phase. E) dicrotic phase.
D
79. An increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will trigger a reflex to A) increase in heart rate. B) decrease in heart rate. C) decrease in blood pressure. D) both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure. E) both increase heart rate and increase pressure.
D
95. If the force of ventricular contraction increases, what will happen to the end-systolic volume? A) increase B) fluctuate rapidly C) remain the same D) decrease E) reduced to zero
D
96. End-systolic volume is defined as the: A) amount of blood a ventricle ejects per cycle B) amount of blood which backflows into a ventricle C) amount of blood remaining in an atrium after atrial systole D) amount of blood remaining in a ventricle after contraction E) stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate
D
A heart rate of 45 bpm and an absence of P waves from the electrocardiogram would suggest
Damage to the SA node
59. If your chest expands, you would predict the intrapulmonary pressure to _____ because of ____ law.
Decrease; Boyle's
If the PEEP or other vent pressures are increased, what do you have to worry about?
Decreased BP and increased HR due to increased thoracic pressure
51 Which one of the following would not stimulate the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone?
Decreased Ca2+
60. When you opened a can of carbonated soda, bubbles of carbon dioxide form. When you opened the can, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the air above the soda _____, the resulting bubbles are explained by _____ Law. Decreased; Henry's
Decreased; Henry's
5. As altitude increases the partial pressure of O2 _____ and the partial pressure of CO2 ______.
Decreases; decreases
senescence
Degenerative change in an organ resulting from aging is called __.
Renal Fascia
Dense irregular connective tissue that covers the adipose capsule and attaches the kidney to the abdominal wall
Urinary bladder
Detrusor muscle is the main muscle for this structure
larche
Development of a girl's breasts at puberty is called
40. Which of the following diseases is most likely to produce metabolic acidosis?
Diabetes mellitus
36 This tubule has a simple cuboidal epithelium nearly devoid of microvilli.
Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
35. Short-term inhibition of thirst is caused by ___, and long-term inhibition of thirst is caused by_______.
Distension of stomach and small intestine; decreased osmolarity of the blood
39. diverticulitis, appendicitis, peritonitis, gastritis
Diverticulitis is small, bulging sacs or pouches of the inner lining of the intestine (diverticulosis) that become inflamed or infected. Most often, these pouches are in the large intestine (colon) Appendicitis is swelling (inflammation) of the appendix. The appendix is a small pouch attached to the beginning of your large intestine. Peritonitis is an inflammation (irritation) of the peritoneum, the thin tissue that lines the inner wall of the abdomen and covers most of the abdominal organs. Gastritis occurs when the lining of the stomach becomes inflamed or swollen. Gastritis can last for only a short time (acute gastritis), or linger for months to years (chronic gastritis).
What do you need to know about Cholinergic antagonists (Atrovent)?
Drug separates on standing, do not use if soy allergy, not effective for acute episodes
the accumulation of CO2 in the blood
During or immediately after birth, an infant is normally stimulated to breathe by
12. Intercalated discs serve to transfer ________ from cell to cell. A) ionic currents B) action potentials C) the force of contraction D) electrical signals E) All of the answers are correct.
E
13. Cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells differ in a few ways. Which of the following is not one of them? A) Cardiac muscle cells are smaller in size. B) Cardiac muscle cells have a single, centered nucleus. C) Cardiac muscle cells branch. D) Skeletal muscle cells lack intercalated discs. E) Cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules.
E
26. The right atrium receives blood from the A) coronary sinus. B) superior vena cava. C) inferior vena cava. D) systemic circuit. E) All of the answers are correct.
E
31. Cardiac cells damaged by infarction will show which of the following? A) switch to anaerobic metabolism B) release of enzymes into the circulation C) release of troponin T and I into the circulation D) release of CK-MB into the circulation E) All of the answers are correct.
E
36. Rupture of the papillary muscles in the left ventricle may result in A) mitral regurgitation. B) mitral valve prolapse. C) bicuspid regurgitation. D) bicuspid prolapse. E) All of the answers are correct.
E
39. The connective tissue fibers of the myocardium A) add strength and prevent overexpansion of the heart. B) help distribute the forces of contraction. C) provide elasticity to help return the heart to its normal size. D) provide physical support for cardiac muscle. E) All of the answers are correct.
E
42. The bicuspid or mitral valve is located A) in the opening of the aorta. B) in the opening of the pulmonary trunk. C) where the venae cavae join the right atrium. D) between the right atrium and right ventricle. E) between the left atrium and left ventricle.
E
44. The function of an atrium is to A) collect blood. B) pump blood to the lungs. C) pump blood into the systemic circuit. D) pump blood to the ventricle. E) collect blood then pump it to the ventricle.
E
47. The right pulmonary veins carry ________ blood to the ________ . A) deoxygenated; left atrium B) oxygenated; right lung C) deoxygenated; superior vena cava D) deoxygenated; right atrium E) oxygenated; left atrium
E
50. The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located in the A) right atrium. B) left atrium. C) right ventricle. D) left ventricle. E) interatrial septum.
E
58. If the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions, the A) heart rate will increase. B) heart rate will decrease. C) cells will depolarize. D) cells will hyperpolarize. E) heart rate will decrease and cells will hyperpolarize.
E
61. If there is a complete block between the SA node and the AV node, how would the ECG be affected? A) The P-R interval will be shorter. B) The QRS duration will be longer. C) There will be much bigger P waves. D) The ventricles will stop beating. E) The rate of P waves will be faster than the rate of QRS complexes.
E
65. During the T wave of the electrocardiogram, the ventricles are A) depolarizing. B) repolarizing. C) contracting. D) relaxing. E) both repolarizing and relaxing.
E
74. A heart murmur might be caused by A) aortic valve insufficiency. B) mitral valve insufficiency. C) pulmonic valve insufficiency. D) swirling of blood in the ventricle. E) All of the answers are correct.
E
78. With each ventricular systole, A) blood pressure remains steady. B) the ventricles fill with blood. C) blood pressure decreases. D) cardiac output decreases. E) blood pressure increases.
E
83. Which of the following would increase heart rate? A) increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node B) decreased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers C) increased levels of epinephrine D) faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential E) All of the answers are correct.
E
85. Stroke volume depends on A) end diastolic volume. B) the contractility of the ventricle. C) the pressure required to pump blood into the aorta. D) venous return of blood to the heart. E) All of the answers are correct.
E
87. Drugs known as calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine can be used to A) decrease the force of cardiac contraction. B) decrease blood pressure. C) dilate the coronary arteries. D) produce a negative inotropic effect. E) All of the answers are correct.
E
89. The cardioacceleratory center activates sympathetic neurons and the cardioinhibitory center controls parasympathetic neurons. A) The first part of the statement is true but the second part is false. B) The first part of the statement is false but the second part is true. C) Both parts of the statement are true. D) Both parts of the statement are false. E) Both parts of the statement are true and relate to brainstem control of heart rate.
E
9. The interventricular sulci and coronary sulcus A) contain fat. B) contain arteries. C) contain veins. D) are grooves on the surface of the heart. E) All of the answers are correct.
E
90. Which of these is true about the atrial reflex? A) also called Bainbridge reflex B) triggered by atrial mechanoreceptors C) triggered by increasing venous return D) depends on sympathetic innervation E) All of the answers are correct.
E
Frank Starling Law is proportional to
EDV
Stress response, or GAS, primarily involves the elevated levels or these two hormones?
EP and cortisol
nephron
Each kidney has one million or more functional units called __.
12. By constricting the ___, angiotensin II maintains the blood pressure in the glomerulus even when systemic blood pressure drops.
Efferent arteriole
59. The glomerulus has the highest blood hydrostatic pressure of any capillary bed in the body because it is drained by the ____ arteriole, which has ____ diameter than the arteriole feeding the glomerulus.
Efferent; a smaller
56. Expiration is normally a passive process resulting from the ___ of the thoracic cage.
Elasticity
34. Which of the following hormonal changes contributes to male climacteric?
Elevated secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone
62. Which of these would not cause atelectasis?
Emphysema
Collection of pus in thoracic cavity
Empyema
Pancreatic juice is Regulated by:
Endocrine and nervous systems Secretin (hormone): stimulates bicarbonate release from pancreas (duct cell) Cholecystokinin (CCK) (released from wall of small intestine): stimulate enzyme release from pancreas
9. A differential WBC count revealed an elevated ___________ count. These are all symptoms of Leukemia, a bacterial infection, a parasitic infection, seasonal allergies, a viral infection.
Eosinophil
You are looking at differential WBC counts for two patients. One patient has a parasitic infection while the other has a viral infection. The patient with the parasitic infection would have a high ___ differential count, while the patient with a viral infection would have a high ____ differential count.
Eosinophil; Monocyte
6. You are looking at differential WBC counts for two patients. One patient has parasitic infection while the other has a viral infection. The patient with the parasitic infection would have a high _____ differential count, while the patient with the viral infection would have a high ____ differential count.
Eosinophil; monocyte
How does the body protect itself from all this acid?
Epithelium of stomach has a high cell turnover rate and the thick bicarbonate mucus covers epithelium. Mucus and cell turnover, then bicarbonate in small intestine
What covers the larynx during swallowing?
Eppiglottis
35. The viscosity of blood is due more to _____________ than to any other factor.
Erythrocytes
The viscosity of blood is due to more ___ than to any other factor?
Erythrocytes
59. Hematocrit is the percent volume of _____ and averages about ____ Percent.
Erythrocytes; 45
54. The kidneys secrete the hormone _____, which stimulates RBC production.
Erythropoietin
_____ is secreted in response to hypoxia and produces a negative feedback loop that raises the oxygen concentration of the blood.
Erythropoietin
true
Estrogen is a hormone that increases the incidence of certain types of breast cancer.
An antiport system on the brush borders of the kidney tubules
Exchanges H+ for Na+
Guaifenesin
Expectorant
Renal Columns
Extensions of renal cortex found in between renal pyramids
2. In the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle, __ inhibits
FSH and LH secretion progesterone
12. Which of these is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?
Fever
4. Blood serum is essentially the same as blood plasma, except that plasma contains ________ and serum does not.
Fibrinogen
These plasma proteins are made in the liver and form a major component of blood clots.
Fibrinogen
Mouth
First part of the alimentary canal; Mechanical breakdown of food; begins chemical digestion of carbohydrates Functions to receive food and begin mechanical and chemical digestion Masrication and Enzymes
Duodenum:
First portion of the small intestine; C-shaped
follicular
Follicles and oocytes develop during a portion of the ovarian cycle called the ___ phase.
Swallowing Reflex
Food forced into pharynx by the tongue Sensory receptors sense food, which triggers swallowing reflex (medulla and pons) Peristalsis transports food through the esophagus to the stomach
trophoblastic
For the first 8 weeks after ovulation, a conceptus depends primarily on __ nutrition.
Intestinal and mesenteric lymph nodes
Found in the mesenteris, adjacent to the appendix and intestines. Monitor lymph from the digestive tract.
Macrophages
Found within the lymph nodes, they are phagocytes that destroy bacteria, cancer cells, and other foreign matter in the lymphatic stream.
Liver Lobule
Functional unit of liver
The liver
Functions in metabolic activities, storage of nutrients, filtration of blood, and chemical digestion Performs over 500 jobs, and makes over 1000 essential enzymes!! Divided into left and right lobes, which consist of lobules containing hepatic cells radiating from a central vein
62. Each of the following lists some of the intermediates of glycolysis and aerobic respiration. Which one lists them in correct metabolic order?
G6P, PGAL, pyruvic acid, acetyl-CoA, citric acid
Each of the following lists some of the intermediates of glycolysis and aerobic respiration. which one lists them in the correct metabolic order?
G6P; PGAL, pyruvic acid, acetyl-CoA, citric acid
Rh0GAM (rhogam) is an antibody given to Rh- women who give birth to a Rh+ child. Rhogam is what type of plasma protein?
Gamma (γ) globulin
26. Which one of these plasma proteins is not made in the liver?
Gamma-globulin
Antibodies belong to a class of plasma proteins called
Gamma-globulins
Stimulate the stomach:
Gastrin, Histamine, Intestinal gastrin, and Parasympathetic stimulation
Urine Formation and Flow
Glomerulus----> Capsular space---> Proximal convoluted tubule---> descending loop----> ascending loop---> distal convoluted tubule---> Collecting duct----> papillary duct------> renal papilla-----> minor calyce----> major calyce----> renal pelvis-----> urethra-----> external urethral orifice
the proximal convoluted tubule
Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by __.
21. According to one hypothesis, the satiety center has neurons called _____ that rapidly absorb glucose after a meal and send inhibitory signals to the feeding center.
Glucostats
31 _____________ is not found in plasma.
Glycogen
Which of these is not found in the blood?
Glycogen
7. Which of these is least characteristic of the postabsorptive state?
Glycogenesis
57. About four hours after a meal, which one of the following will be stimulated?
Glycogenolysis
Which of the following cells are not found in the gastric glands?
Goblet cells
This hormone enhances amino acid transport into cells and increases protein synthesis, catabolizes fat for energy, and promotes glycogen synthesis.
Growth hormone
28. An antiport system on the brush borders of the kidney tubules exchanges
H+ for Na+.
14. Substantial amounts of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) are filtered out of the blood by the glomerulus, but urine is usually bicarbonate free. Bicarbonate ions combine with ____ ions in the glomerular filtrate to form ____, which diffuses into the epithelial cells.
H+; CO215.
13. If you could trace the hydrogen ions removed from the blood and excreted in the urine, most of them would be part of the ___ of the urine.
H2O
If you could trace the hydrogen ions removed from the blood and excreted in the urine, most of them would be part of the ____ of the urine
H2O
34. Which one of the below would be characterized as a strong acid?
HCl
Unlike the small intestine, the large intestine shows pouches called ___ along its length.
Haustra
These Cells recognize an Ag-MHCP complex, secrete interlukins, attract macrophages and stimulate T and B cell mitosis and maturation.
Helper T cells
7. Specialized cells called _____ produce all the formed elements.
Hemocytoblasts
32. ___________ is a protein not commonly found in plasma.
Hemoglobin
* When a mixture of gases is in contact with a liquid, the amount of each gas that dissolves in the liquid is proportional to its partial pressure, according to
Henry's law
Which of the following agents opposes coagulation?
Heparin
1. Basophils aid in the mobility and action of leukocytes by releasing an anticoagulant called _____ and a vasodilator called ____.
Heparin; histamine
56. Glucose and amino acids are absorbed into the _____ and fats are absorbed into the _____.
Hepatic portal system; lymphatic system
20. Which one of the following vessels would have the highest concentration of glucose?
Hepatic portal vein
Hepatic Triads Three structures found in corners of liver lobule:
Hepatic portal vein Hepatic Artery • Hepatic portal v. and hepatic a. mix together; Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood → drain into central vein → Hepatic Vein → Inferior vena cava Bile duct: • collects bile from bile canaliculi; Collecting bile, product of hepatocytes
Sinusoids
Hepatocytes remove nutrients from blood as the plasma leaks out between endothelial cells
61. The esophagus pierces through the diaphragm at the ____, and its submucosa contains ____ glands that secrete mucus.
Hiatus; esophageal
The esophagus pierces through the diaphragm at the ___, and its submucosa contains ___ glands that secrete mucus.
Hiatus; esopheageal
57. When you inhale, your lungs expand easily because they have.
High compliance.
What would you find with an assessment of a patient with bacterial pneumonia?
High fever, productive cough, high elevation of WBC, chest x-ray shows obvious infiltrates, more sever than viral pneumonia
Blood had aff of the following functions except?
Hormone production
Discharge teaching by the nurse for the patient with a total laryngectomy includes...
How to use a mirror to suction the trach
3. Increase of blood flow to the skin or body part is called: _______.
Hyper-enemia
vomiting
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a state of severe __ early in pregnancy.
In sunburn, the redness of the skin results from
Hyperemia
What electrolyte imbalance would be seen with respiratory acidosis?
Hyperkalemia
potassium ions
Hyperkalemia is an abnormally high concentration of __ in the blood.
The chronic inflammation of the bronchi characteristic of COPD results in...
Hyperplasia of mucus-secreting cells and bronchial edema
62. Which of the following conditions is likely to produce the highest daily output of sodium in the urine?
Hypertension
What is cor pulmonale?
Hypertrophy of the right side of the heart resulting from pulmonary hypertension and is a late manifestation of chronic pulmonary heart disease.
What causes respiratory alkalosis?
Hyperventilation
46. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to suffocation?
Hypocalcaemia
The heart rate is increased by
Hypocalcemia
What electrolyte imbalance would be seen with respiratory alkalosis?
Hypokalemia and Hypocalcemia
What electrolyte imbalances are found in metabolic alkalosis?
Hypokalemia and hypocalcemia
You are working outside on a hot day, sweating profusely, and drinking large quantities of water. You may be subjecting yourself to
Hypotonic hydration.
What causes respiratory acidosis?
Hypoventilation
What is the most important step in managing allergic rhinitis?
Identifying and avoiding triggers of allergic reactions
hypertonic urine
If not for the countercurrent multiplier, the kidneys could not produce ___.
ectopic
If the blastocyst implants in the uterine tube instead of the uterus, the pregnancy is called
the renal pelvis
If we follow the ureter into the kidney, we find that the first structure to arise from it is
19. Salivary glands produce ___, which inhibits bacterial growth.
IgA
15. Most circulating antibodies and the only ones that cross the placenta are
IgG
most circulating antibodies, and the only ones that cross the placenta
IgG
21. The first time a person is exposed to an antigen, the plasma cells produce _____ upon later exposures they produce_____
IgG; IgM
7. The largest antibodies are in the ___ class.
IgM
Largest antibodies are in the __ class.
IgM
The first time you are exposed to a particular antigen, your plasma cells produce mainly ____ antibodies
IgM
Atrial Systole begins
Immediately after the P wave
IgD
Immunoglobulin. Less than 3%. Found only as a receptor on B cell membrane, Doesn't allow antigens to get into the body, Not secreted, stays attached to B cell
6;1
Implantation begins about __ days after ovulation and is completed in about __ week (s).
14 to 15 weeks
In amniocentesis, a sample of amniotic fluid is removed, and the fetal cells are analyzed,. Over 20 congenital conditions can be identified by this procedure. Amniocentesis is best done during what time frame of pregnancy?
What is the role of salicylates and asthma?
In asthma triad, wheezing develops <2 hours after ingestion
12 to 24
In order for an egg to survive, it must be fertilized within __ hours of ovulation.
part of the placenta; the embryo
In the blastocyst, the trophoblast will become __, and the embroblast will become __.
ductus venosus; ductus arteriosus
In the fetal circulation, the __ bypasses the liver, and the __ bypasses the lungs
progesterone
In the luteal phase, the ovaries secrete mainly ___, which stimulates glycogen synthesis and mucus secretion in the uterus.
Why shouldn't a patient with acute sinusitis take OTC antihistamines?
Increase mucus viscosity and can extend symptoms
You have all seen movies of people stranded in the ocean abroad lifeboats. The people are surrounded by water yet they cannot drink the seawater. The seawater would
Increase the blood osmolarity, and the tissues would become more dehydrated.
37. You measured your resting breathing frequency at 12 breaths per minute with a tidal volume of 500 mL per breath. You exercised by riding a bicycle and peddled as fast as you could for 20 minutes. You then stopped and measured your breathing frequency and tidal volume again. You would predict that your breathing frequency would _____ and your tidal volume would _____.
Increase; increase
An excess of carbon dioxide in the blood causes what type of respirations?
Increased rate and volume
46. In diabetes mellitus, acidosis can cause _____ depth and rate of breathing, which is called _____.
Increased; Kussmaul respiration
41. Aldosterone has which of the following effects?
Increases Na+ reabsorption and reduces K+ reabsorption
23. Complement C3a proteins stimulate mast cells and basophils to promote _____, and complement C3b proteins trigger stimulation of proteins called _____
Inflammation; Membrane attack complex
33 Many diuretic drugs, such as furosemide (Lasix), produce osmotic diuresis by
Inhibiting Na+ reabsorption.
Tunica mucosa:
Inner most layer; Epithelium attached to connective tissue, protects underlying tissues; Secretion and absorption
11. Water lost through the breath and cutaneous transpiration is called ____ water loss and averages about ____ mL/day.
Insensible; 700
65. An increase in blood glucose will stimulate the release of _____ and most of any excess glucose will be stored as _____.
Insulin; fat
5. Glycogenesis is stimulated by ______, and glycogenolysis is stimulated by _____.
Insulin; glucagon and EP
31. The arcuate arteries travel at the junction of the medulla and cortex and give rise to ______ arteries, which pass outward into the cortex.
Interlobular
Fine crackles are associated with what etiology?
Interstitial filling with fluid
The enterogastric reflex regulates the ___ phase of gastric activity.
Intestinal
Chylomicron Formation
Intestinal cells absorb (passive diffusion) lipids from micelles, resynthesize triglycerides, and package triglycerides, cholesterol and phospholipids into protein-coated chylomicrons
31. Lingual lipase and lysozymes are produced by ___ salivary glands.
Intrinsic
21. Vitamin B12 which is needed for red blood cell production, requires _____ for its absorption.
Intrinsic factor
45. Inhaled foreign objects tend to lodge more in the right bronchus because it.
Is wider and more vertical than the left.
What drug is used to treat TB?
Isoniazid for 6 months
Stomach:
J-shaped muscular organ that receives and mixes food with digestive juices, and propels food to small intestine
bilirubin
Jaundice is common in prenates, especially premature babies because of the buildup in the blood of
8. The concentration gradient is maintained in the renal medulla by _____ nephrons, which make up ____% of the nephrons.
Juxtamedullary; 15
12. Which of the following cations is most concentrated in the intracellular fluid?
K+
31. The volume of water in a cell is governed mainly by the amount of ___ in the cytoplasm.
K+
If a person is alkalotic do they want to keep or release O2?
Keep
3. When fats are incompletely oxidized, they yield ___, which may cause acidosis.
Ketones
albuminuria
Kidne damage can cause __, the excretion of protein in the urine.
4. You found a high level of albumin in the urine. This was most likely caused by
Kidney trauma or infection.
Where does the spinal cord end?
L1
The highest percentage of cholesterol is found in
LDL's
40. An individual who has atherosclerosis would have a high ____ ratio.
LDL: HDL
12. The highest percentage of cholesterol is found in
LDLs.
Chylomicrons are taken up by the _____ of a _____.
Lacteal; villus
26. Special lymphatic vessels that absorb dietary lipids that can't be absorbed into the capillaries.
Lacteals
30. The two major dietary disaccharides are _____, and ultimately all carbohydrate digestion generates _____.
Lactose and sucrose; glucose
•
Lamina propria, muscularis mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa (Lp+MmS=MeS)
According to the principle of __, blood near the middle of an artery flows faster than blood near its walls. Just as water flows faster in the middle of a river than it does near shore
Laminar flow
Natural killer (NK) cells
Large, granular, cytotoxic lymphocytes that circulate in the blood. NK cells are important in innate immunity to viruses and other intracellular pathogens and also kill certain tumor cells. They are the cytotoxic cells in antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC).
Location of the vocal cords
Larynx
2. Eicosanoids and bile salts are made from which of the following nutrients?
Lipids
34. Lactic acid formed in RBCs and in fast twitch muscle fibers leaves the cells, enters the bloodstream to the _____ and is oxidized to _____.
Liver; pyruvic acid
Adipose Capsule
Located between renal fascia and renal capsule
Layers of the stomach:
Longitudinal muscle, Circular muscle, and Oblique muscle
Tunica submucosa:
Loose connective tissue, houses blood an lymph vessels and nerves; Nourishment; Controls the actions of the tunica mucosa per the submucosa plexus
30. One of the major processes that transforms a spermatid into a spermatozoon is
Loss of excess cytoplasm.
What is the treatment for metabolic acidosis?
Lots of fluids Ex: 2L/hr, alkalotic IV solutions (monitored carefully), Mechanical ventilation
What is carpal pedal spasms?
Low calcium causes toes and fingers to curl up
What would you find with an assessment of a patient with viral pneumonia?
Low-grade fever, nonproductive cough, WBC count normal to low elevation, minimal changes evident on chest x-ray, less sever than bacterial pneumonia
Increased tactitle fremitus is associated with what etiology?
Lung consolidation with fluid or exudate
23. Which hormone stimulates the interstitial cells to secrete testosterone?
Luteinizing hormone
What are Peyer's patches, and where are they located?
Lymphatic follicles of the ileum
25. The function of an antigen-presenting cell depends on the presence of ___ on its plasma membrane. s
MHC protein
In order for a helper T cell to recognize an antigen, the antigen must be bound to
MHC protein
5. Cytotoxic T (Tc) cells respond to ____ proteins, while helper T (TH) cells respond to _____ proteins.
MHC-1; MHC-2
Cytotoxic T cells respond to __proteins, while helper T cells respond to __proteins.
MHC-1; MHC-II
Cytotoxic T (T0) cells responded to ____ proteins, while helper T (TH) cells respond to ___ proteins
MHC-I; MHC-II
The main antigen-presenting cells in the body are
Macrophages
Important Liver Functions:
Main role in digestion: Production of bile help in the digestion of lipids Metabolic activities: Synthesis, breakdown, or conversion of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins; Detoxification (eg. ammonia urea) Stores: Glycogen, vitamins A, D, B12, iron, and copper Filters the blood, removing damaged RBCs, foreign substances, toxins Secretes bile for digestion
These are "identification tags" that label every cell of your body as belonging to you.
Major histocompatability complex proteins.
36. Our need for all of the following except ___ is met partly by our own intestinal bacteria.
Manganese
Our need for all of the following except ___ is met partly by our own intestinal bacteria.
Manganese
57. The gastrocolic reflex triggers ___ in response to filling of the stomach.
Mass movements
What do you need to know about expectorants (Guaifenesin)?
May cause n/v, take with full glass of water, don't take with cough med if on an MAOI, don't take with phenylpropanolamine
35. The narrow air passages which cause turbulence are called ____ and are lined by ____.
Meatuses; ciliated pseudostratified columnar
Digestion:
Mechanical and chemical breakdown of food so that nutrients can be absorbed by cells Consists of the alimentary canal, leading from the mouth to the anus, and accessory organs whose secretions aid the process of digestion
Mouth:
Mechanical breakdown of food; begins chemical digestion of carbohydrates
52. The inspiratory and expiratory centers are located in the ____, while the apneustic and pneumotaxic centers are located in the _____.
Medulla oblongata; pons
10. Which of the following cells is far larger than all the others?
Megakaroblasts
19. Thrombopoietin causes which cells to differentiate?
Megakaryocytes
prostate gland(s)
Men only have one ___ but two of all of the rest of these.
7. Mitochondria are found in the ___ of a spermatozoon.
Midpiece
midpiece
Mitochondria are found in the __ of the spermatozoon.
Small Intestine:
Mixes food with bile and pancreatic juice. Final anzymatic breakdown of food molecules; main site of nutrient absorption
the ductus venosus
Most fetal blood bypasses the liver by way of a shunt called __
ductus arteriosus
Most fetal blood in the pulmonary trunk follows a shunt to the aorta called the __ instead of circulating through the lungs.
true
Most girls do not ovulate during the first year of menstration.
Gastric glands generally contain four types of cells:
Mucous cells, chief cell, Parietal cells, and Enderoendocribe cells (G cells)
causes regression of the parameonephric ducts
Mullerian-inhibiting factor __.
Esophagus
Muscular tube that leads to the stomach; Has esophageal sphincters; Powerful peristalsis!
An individual is feeling severe chest pain, which radiates to the neck, jaw, shoulder, and left arm. The individual is showing symptoms of
Myocardial infarction.
56. An increase in the blood plasma concentration of _____ may lead to water retention, hypertension, and edema.
Na+
Electrolytes
Na+, K+, Cl -, etc...
Most comfortable oxygen delivery device and causes the least restriction on activities
Nasal cannula
34. The _____ houses the pharyngeal tonsils and receives the auditory tubes, while the ____ houses the palatine and lingual tonsils.
Nasopharynx; oropharynx
The mother is Rh-, has Rh antibodies, and is carrying an Rh+ fetus. The movement of the Rh antibodies across the placenta causes ____ immunity. Rh- mothers should be given RhoGAM after every fetal event where the fetus is Rh+. Injecting the mother with RhoGAM causes ____ immunity.
Natural passive; artificial passive
Polymorphonuclear leukocytes are
Neurtrophils
50 The most common leukocyte is the ____, while the least common leukocyte is the ______.
Neutrophil; basophil
The most common leukocyte is the ____, while the least common leukocyte is the ______.
Neutrophil; basophil
28. ___________ employ a "respiratory burst" to produce bactericidal chemicals such as hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) and hypochlorite (HClO).
Neutrophils
Complement C3b protein coats bacteria and stimulates phagocytosis by ____ in a process called ____.
Neutrophils and macrophages; opsonization
Does Sodium help absorb this nutrient? If so, why? Fructose?
No, Facilitated diffusion
Does Sodium help absorb this nutrient? If so, why? Fats?
No, Passive diffusion
Peyer's patches
Nodes of lymphocytes to fight pathogens Looks like lil anthills
What mask do you give a patient with profound hypoxia?
Non rebreather mask
14. Penile cancer has been linked to human papilloma cancer. What other conditions is this cancer related to?
Non-retractable foreskins.
What is typically the first symptom of TB?
Nonproductive cough early in the morning
Oxygen delivery device that provides highest oxygen concentrations
Nonrebreathing mask
6. Uric acid is formed by the catabolism of _____, while creatinine is formed by the catabolism of _____.
Nucleic acids; creatine phosphate
An emergency room patient has been in an automobile accident. He is unconscious and his medical history is unknown, but he is found to have blood type B+. He needs blood, and only the following types are available. Which would be the safest to administer?
O
An ER patient has been in an automobile accident. He is unconscious and his medical history is unkonwn, but he is found to have blood type B+. He needs blood and the only following types are available. Which would be safest to administer?
O -
Carbon Monoxide (CO) is a colorless, odorless gas that occurs in cigarette smoke, engine exhaust, and fumes form furnaces and space heaters. Carbon monoxide competes with ____ for the same binding site located on the
O ; iron in heme
The universal donor is type
O, Rh negative
54. The universal donor of RBCs, but not necessarily plasma, is O, Rh-Negative
O, Rh-Negative
* Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colorless, odorless gas that occurs in cigarette smoke, engine exhaust, and fumes from furnaces and space heaters. Carbon monoxide competes with _____ for the same binding site located on the _____.
O2; iron in heme
60. Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colorless, odorless gas that occurs in cigarette smoke, engine exhaust, and fumes from furnaces and space heaters. Carbon monoxide competes with ____ for the same binding site located on the _____.
O2; iron in heme
Infant suckling releases
OT and milk ejection
Diarrhea
Often due to infections/irritants; leads to malabsorption or increased motility
Schwann cells are functionally simliar to _____.
Oligodendrocytes
One mechanism of antibody action is ____, which makes bacteria easier to phagocytize.
Opsonization
Tunica Serosa:
Outermost layer; Visceral peritoneum, protects underlying tissues, secretes serous fluid for movement
Renal Cortex
Outermost region of the kidney, contains renal corpuscles
2. Persons with androgen-insensitivity syndrome have all of the following except
Ovaries, vagina and uterus.
LH
Ovulation is triggered by:
Which oxygen delivery system do you not use humidity with?
OxyMiser
What does PO2 stand for?
Oxygen dissolved in the blood
64. Carbon monoxide binds 210 times as tightly as _____ to the _____ of hemoglobin.
Oxygen; iron on heme
63. Hemoglobin bound to at least one molecule of O2 is called _____; hemoglobin bound to no O2 is called _____, and hemoglobin bound to CO2 is called _____.
Oxyhemoglobin; deoxyhemoglobin; carbaminohemoglobin
26. Which of the following has the strongest stimulatory effect on pulmonary ventilation?
PCO2 of the blood
24. The ______________ tonsils are the largest, and their surgical removal (tonsillectomy) used to be one of the most common surgical procedures performed in children.
Palatine
Pancreatic juice enzymes include:
Pancreatic amylase: digests carbs Pancreatic lipase: digests lipids Trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase: digests proteins Nucleases: digests nucleic acids
10. Trace urine from the collecting duct of the nephron to the ureter.
Papillary duct → minor calyx → major calyx → renal pelvis
The _____ pleura lines the lungs
Parietal
Stridor is associated with what etiology?
Partial obstruction of trachea or larynx
Oxygen delivery device that has a reservoir bag that conserves O2
Partial rebreathing mask
What type of oxygen delivery device should be used with a patient who hyperventilates?
Partial-rebreather to retain some CO2
giving birth
Parturition is the process of__.
What should the patient with asthma use for self-assessment of asthma status?
Peak flow meter (Daily)
A Chemical digestion consists of the conversion of proteins into peptides by
Pepsin
Esophagus:
Peristalsis pushes food down to stomach
27. Starting in the abdominal cavity and progressing dorsally, you would have to cut through the ___, in this order, to expose the kidney.
Peritoneum, renal fascia, adipose capsule, and renal capsule
What is the hallmark of Bronchiectasis?
Persistent or recurrent cough with production of large amounts of purulent sputum, which may exceed 500 ml/day
9. Which of the following correctly traces the route of air flow in the respiratory tract?
Pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchiole
24. Particles stuck in mucus are moved out of the bronchioles, bronchi, and trachea to the _____ by _____.
Pharynx; movement of cilia
Innervates the diaphragm
Phrenic nerve
66. When a clot is no longer needed, fibrin is dissolved by
Plasmin
52. ____ are formed elements of the blood that are not and never were true cells.
Platelets
Pleural friction rub is associated with what etiology?
Pleurisy
Specialized cells called__ produce all the formed elements.
Pluritpotential stem cells
28. Special cells called _____ wrap _____ around the glomeruli to form negatively charged filtration slits.
Podocytes; pedicles
44. Which of the following could result from an overly zealous program of exercise?
Polycythemia
14. Antibody molecules consist of anywhere from 4-20+ _______ chains, depending on which class of antibody is considered.
Polypeptide
Some tumors of the adrenal cortex secrete excess aldosterone and may cause paralysis........
Posassium;decreased
39. Some tumors of the adrenal cortex secrete excess aldosterone and may cause paralysis. You would expect decreased levels of ____ causing ____ levels of nervous system activity.
Potassium; decreased
HCG
Pregnancy tests are based on the detection of ___ in the urine.
What is the role of B-adrenergic blocking agents and asthma?
Prevents bronchial dilation and triggers asthma
Hepatocytes:
Produce bile; drains into bile ducts and used for digestion of fats
Pancreas:
Produces and secretes pancreatic juice, containing digestive enzymes and bicarbonate ions into small intestine
Liver:
Produces bile, which emulsifies fat
The pathophysiologic mechanism of cystic fibrosis leading to obstructive lung disease is
Production of abnormally thick, copious secretions from mucous glands
What is chronic bronchitis?
Productive cough for 3 months out of the year for 2 consecutive years
Thrombopoietin is a hormone produced by the liver and kidneys that stimulates ___ to be committed to form ____
Proerythroblasts; hemocytoblasts
1. In a woman who is neither pregnant nor nursing, milk secretion is inhibited by
Prolactin-inhibiting factor
In planning care for the patient with bronchietasis, the nurse includes measures that will ...
Promote drainage and removal of mucus
45. Contractions of the female reproductive tract may be stimulated by ___ in the semen.
Prostaglandins
39. Men have only one ___ but have two of all the rest of these.
Prostate gland.
The most common nutrient in the blood is ____; the most common electrolyte is ____ ; and the most nitrogenous waste is _____.
Protein; Na; urea
The coronary artery receives blood from the ____, and the coronary sinus empties blood into the _____.
Pulmonary Vein; right atrium
The health care provider orders a pulmonary angiogram for a patient admitted with dyspnea and hemoptysis. The nurse recognizes that this test is most commonly used to diagnose
Pulmonary embolism
What is the number one respiratory complication of cancer?
Pulmonary embolism
In the cardiovascular system the ____ circut carries blood to and from the lungs, which is served by the ____ side of the heart.
Pulmonary; right
Which one of the following parts of the conduction system directly stimulates the ventricles
Purjinje fibers
Order:
Pyloric sphincter → Duodenum → Pancreatic duct → Hepatopancreatic sphincter
Isovolumetric contraction occurs during the ___ of the electrocardiogram.
R wave
Hepatic "plates"
Radially arranged Blood filtered as it flows from portal vein and hepatic artery toward central vein in center Nutrients, toxins, bile pigments, drugs, bacteria & debris filtered
50. When the renal tubules secrete hydrogen ions into the tubular fluid, they ___ at the same time.
Reabsorb sodium
When the renal tubules secrete hydrogen ions into the tubular fluid, they ___ at the same time
Reabsorb sodium
Renal Pelvis
Recieves urine from the major calyces
The nursing assessment of a patient with bronchiectasis is most likely to reveal a hx of
Recurrent lower resp tract infections
In an adult blood cell formation occurs in the
Redbone marrow and lymphoid tissues
Spongy Urethra
Region of male urethra that passes through penis
Prostatic Urethra
Region of male urethra that passes through the prostate gland
Membranous Urethra
Region of male urethra that passes through urogenital diapragm
Renal Medulla
Region of the kidney deep to the cortex; contains collecting duct
Rectum:
Regulates the elimination of feces
Pyloric sphincter:
Regulates the entrance of chime into the duodenum of the small intestine
If a person is acidotic do they want to keep or release O2?
Release
Regulation of secretion:
Release controlled by cholecystokinin (CCK) in response to chime CCK is released by cells of small intestine wall; targets gallbladder to release bile
Blood Flow Through the Kidneys
Renal Aretey---> Segmental Arteries-------> Interlobar Arteries --------> Arcuate Arteries -------> Interlobular Arteries---------> Afferent Arteriole------> Glomerular Capillaries------> Efferent Arterioles -------> Peritubular Capillaries-------> Interlobular Veins------> Arcuate Veins-----> Interlobar Veins----> Renal Vein
46. __________ is more likely to cause anemia than any of the other factors below.
Renal disease
19. The first step leading to angiotensin II production is the secretion of ___ by the kidneys.
Renin
surfactant
Respiratory distress syndrom results from a deficiency of pulmonary __ in the lungs of a premature infant.
9. The physiological buffer system that works the fastest is the _____ system, and the physiological buffer system that buffers the greatest quantity of acid or base is the _____ system.
Respiratory; urinary
17. An excess of this vitamin can cause anorexia, hair loss, and birth defects.
Retinol (A)
After a patient is discharged from having pneumonia, what should he/she report to the MD if it reappears?
Return of fever, worsening respiratory status
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) contains the enzyme ____ that stimulates host cells to produce DNA from Viral ____.
Reverse transcriptive; RNA
Second pregnancy baby ends up with erytho. problems the mother has to be-
Rh- and baby Rh+
47. Which of the following would provide the lowest quantity of minerals for a given weight of food?
Rice and white flour
Pancreatic juice made by acinar cells
Rich in enzymes that digests proteins, fats, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids Pancreatic juice aids in the digestion of macromolecules in chyme Pancreatic juice drains into pancreatic duct Empties into small intestine via hepatopancreatic sphincter
65. Half of the penis, called its ___, is internal and normally cannot be seen.
Root
27. All of the following except ___ contribute to the large surface area available for nutrient absorption in the small intestine.
Rugae
B. Saliva contains:
Salivary amylase Lingual lipase Mucus Lysozyme IgA Electrolytes
Accessory Organs:
Salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas
16. Meiosis II is the process by which _____ become _____.
Secondary spermatocytes; spermatids
Duct cells
Secrete bicarbonate component of pancreatic juice Serves to neutralize acid chime in the duodendum
Enteroendocrine cells (G cells)
Secrete hormones such as histamine and gastrin
Salivary glands:
Secrete saliva which contains enzymes that initiate breakdown of carbohydrates
Salivary Glands:
Secrete saliva, a hypotonic liquid which has mucus and enzyme components; used for chemical digestion of CHO
Acinar cells
Secrete the enzyme component of pancreatic juice Makes pancreatic juice Release enzymes in response to CCK
Parietal cells
Secretes HCl Also secrete intrinsic factor, necessary for vitamin B12 absorption in the small intestine
Stomach:
Secretes acids and enzymes. Mixes food with secretions to begin enzymatic digestion of proteins
Chief cell
Secretes zymogens like pepsin (protein digestion), gastric lipase (lipid digestion) Both are not activated til the small intestine
Inhibit the Stomach:
Secretin, CCK, and Sympathetic stimulation
13. CYTOTOXIC T-cells are the only T lymphocytes that directly attack and kill other cells. List one of the ways
Secretion of Perforin (protein)
Loop of Henle
Section of renal tubule that descends into medulla
63. In a vascular spasm, the injured smooth muscles vasoconstrict and platelets release ______, which is a chemical vasoconstrictor.
Serotonin
When platelets degranulate, they release a vasoconstrictor called ______, which aids in hemostasis.
Serotonin
Contact digestion
Several enzymes act on or inside epithelial cells; Surface area of the monomer must be touching the epithelium of the small intestine; a. Disaccharidases (maltase, sucrase, lactase): Convert disaccharides to monosaccharides b. Proteases: Converts proteins into amino acids
Albuterol - Proventil, Ventolin
Short acting beta 2 agonist
In teaching the patient with COPD about the need for physical exercise, the nurse informs the patient that
Shortness of breath is expected during exercise but should return to baseline within 5 min after
The endocardium is lined by a ___ epithelium called the ___.
Simple Squamos; Endothelium
Oxygen delivery device that is sued to give oxygen quickly for short time
Simple face mask
Not controlled by ANS
Skeletal Muscle
How's is the stomach impacted by secretin?
Slow it down; Inhibits the stomach
Acetylcholine binds to musacarinic receptors on the SA node and causing a K+ leak. This will cause the heart to
Slow its rate of contraction
1. The bronchioles have walls with _____ that are contracted by stimulation of the ____ nervous system.
Smooth muscle; parasympathetic.
63. The internal urethral sphincter is made up of _____ muscle and contracts in response to _____ stimulation.
Smooth; sympathetic
In a myleniated neuron carrying an action potential the next node of Ranvier will be stimulated by
Sodium ions down the fiber to the next adajcent node
SGLT, an active transport pup of the small intestine, can only absorb glucose by simultaneously transporting
Sodium.
Renal Sinus
Space within kidney that is adjacent to renal medulla, contains calyces and renal pelvis
17. After about 120 days and 700 miles, red blood cells become fragile due to the deterioration of the peripheral protein called ____. The cell fragments are phagocytized by _____ in the spleen and liver.
Spectrin; macrophages
true
Sperm heads are embedded in the sustentacular cells until the spermatozoa are mature.
36. At what stage does a developing sperm cell begin to grow a tail?
Spermatid
53. Which of the following represents the correct order in the process of spermatogenesis?
Spermatogonium → primary spermatocyte → secondary spermatocyte → spermatids → spermatozoa
seminiferous tubules
Spermatozoa are produced in minute ducts called__.
. You are getting really concerned about taking in enough fluids. You decided to double your fluid intake from two to four liters per day. Your blood volume would _____ and your urine volume would _____.
Stay the same; increase
You are getting really concerned about taking in enough fluids. You decide to double your fluid intake from two to four liters per day. Your blood volume would ___ and your urine volume would ____.
Stay the same; increase
cryptochidism
Sterility may result from uncorrected __, or undescended testes.
Gallbladder:
Store bile and introduce it into the small intestine
What are some S&S of partial airway obstruction?
Stridor, use of accessory muscles, retractions, wheezing, restlessness, tachycardia, cyanosis (late)
The _____ commonly measures about 75 ml
Stroke Volume
Renal Capsule
Structure composed of glomerulus and glomerular capsule
Alimentary Canal Structure of the wall:
Structure of wall similar throughout, vary according to specific function of that area The myenteric and submucosal nerve plexuses make up the entire nervous system, which regulates gastric motility and secretions
Glomerular Capsule
Structure that surrounds glomerulus and collects filtrate
Cane sugar is digested by
Sucrase
What is the role of beer and wine and asthma?
Sulfites are in beer and wine which are common triggers for asthma
Keeps the alveoli from collapsing
Surfactant
38. In response to dehydration, the thirst center in the hypothalamus sends ____ signals to the salivary glands to ____ saliva production.
Sympathetic; decrease
In response to dehydration, the thirst center in the hypothalamus sends ____ signals to the salivary glands to the ____ saliva production.
Sympathetic; decrease
55. The postabsorptive state is regulated mainly by the ____ nervous system and the hormone _____.
Sympathetic; glucagon
16. The kidneys are located at levels _____ vertebrae, and the _____ kidney is more inferior because of the space occupied by the liver above it.
T12 to L3; right
What are the S&S of respiratory acidosis?
Tachycardia, decreased breath sounds, slow resp rate, pulse ox low, drowsy to comatose, hypoventilation,
What are the S&S of metabolic alkalosis?
Tachycardia, hypovolemic (possibly), shallow breathing, lethargy to coma,
What do you need to know about short acting beta2 agonists?
Tachycardia, use prior to using inhaled corticosteroids, avoid caffeine
What are the S&S of metabolic acidosis?
Tachycardic, large urine output, hypotension, Kussmaul respiration, lethargic, sleepy, vomiting, diarrhea, hyperkalemia
A primary nursing responsibility after obtaining a blood specimen for ABGs is
Taking the specimen immediately to the lab in an iced container
the Y chromosome
Testis-determining factor is found in or on __.
27. Which of the following is an androgen?
Testosterone
28. Which of the following hormones directly stimulates the development of male secondary sex characteristics?
Testosterone
juxtaglomular
The __ apparatus monitors the composition and concentration of the tubular fluid and adjusts the glomular filtration rate.
afferent arteriole; efferent arteriole
The __ feeds into the glomerulus and the ___ drains the glomerulus.
true
The amount of water lost by way of the respiratory system is greater in cold weather than in hot weather.
the vasa recta
The blood vessels of the renal medulla that run alongside that nephron loops are __.
systentacular sertoli
The blood- testis barrier is formed by tight junctions between the __ cells of the testis.
4. Which of these is the site of contact digestion?
The brush border of the small intestine
a primary spermatocyte
The cell in spermatogenesis that undergoes meosis I is __.
lymphadenopathy
The collective term for all lymph node diseases
cervix
The constricted part of the uterus that protrudes into the vagina is called the __.
Alderstone receptors are found on cells of
The distal convoluted tubule
the placenta
The embryonic membranes include all of the following except
fructose
The energy for sperm motility comes from __.
ectoderm
The epidermis, nervous system, pituitary, internal and internal ear are derived from the __.
endoderm
The epithelia of the digestive tract, respiratory tract, urinary bladder, and accessory reproductive and digestive system glands are derived from __.
meconium
The fetal colon accumulates thick, tarry feces called
lanugo
The fine hair on the body of a 5-month-old fetus is
renin
The first step leading to angiotensin II production is the secretion of __ by the kidneys.
the prepuce
The foreskin of the penis is called __.
the sperm
The genetic sex of a child is determined by __.
125
The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is about __ mL/min.
the pampiform plexus
The heat exchanger that prevents afferent blood from overheating the testes is__.
Gastric Secretions Regulated by:
The hormone gastrin - increases gastric motility and stimulates secretions Food entering small intestine - decreases gastric mobility bc the SI needs time to process i. Cholecystokinin (CCK) and Secretin released from small intestine ii. Decrease gastric mobility/secretions; Inhibit stomach productivity
thirst center
The hypothalamus has a nucleus callsed the __ that stimulates water intake and inhibits salivation.
IgG; IgA
The immune reponses of a neonate are weak. However, the mother supplies __ through the placenta and __ through the colostrum.
nitric acid
The inability to produce __ would result in impotence.
3. _______ protects the lungs from damage by over-inflation.
The inflation reflex
What produces androgens?
The interstitial (Leydig) cells outside the seminiferous tubules produce androgens.
t12 to L3; right
The kidneys are located at levels __ vertebrae, and the __ kidney is more inferior because of the space occupied by the liver above it.
stimulates the formation of angiontensin I, which ultimately increases blood pressure
The kidneys secrete the enzyme renin, which____.
erythropoietin
The kidneys secrete the hormone___, which stimulates RBC production.
intracellular fluid
The liquid contained within the cells is called ---.
37 The cells of the distal convoluted tubule that come in contact with the afferent arteriole are
The macula densa.
true
The male scrotum is homologous to the female labia majora.
efferent lymphatic vessels
The medullary sinuses drain into one or two effernt lymphatic vessels which are wider and fewer in number than afferent vessels. They contain valves that open away from the cneter of the lymph node to convey lymph, antiodies secreted by plasma cells, and activated T cells OUT of the node
blastocyst
The morula lies free in the uterine cavity fcor four to five days, At about 100 cells, the zona pellucida disintegrates and releases the conceptus. The stage is now called the
urea
The most abundant nitrogenous waste of the blood is
6 weeks
The neonatal period of life is considered to extend to an age of
54. You were following a molecule of glucose from the artery outside the tooth to an odontoblast in the dentin.
The pathway glucose would take is apical foramen > root canal > pulp cavity
10. What will be the result if the number of Na+-K+ pumps in the distal convoluted tubule is increased?
The potassium concentration of the urine will rise.
true
The proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs about the same amount of water regardless of the body's state of hydration.
What is the crura?
The proximal end surrounded by the ischocavernousus muscle; anchors penis to the pubic arch.
penicillin is removed from the blood by tubular secretion
The rate of renal clearance of penicillin is greater that the glomerular filtration rate. This suggests that __.
ovulation
The release of an egg from the ovary is called __.
24. If we follow the ureter into the kidney, we find that the first structure to arise from it is
The renal pelvis.
umbilical vein
The round ligament of the adult liver is a remnant of the __ of the fetus.
corpus luteum
The second half of the menstral cycle is regulated largely by
42. Fibrinogen, a clotting protein, is found not only in the blood but also in the secretion of
The seminal vesicles.
senescence of the sebaceous glands
The skin and hair become drier in old age because of
Gastric Actions
The stomach does very little absorption; Absorbs small amounts of water, salts, alcohol, and lipid-soluble drugs Mixing and emptying actions: After a meal, mixing actions turn the food into a creamy paste called chyme; The rate at which the stomach empties depends on the fluidity of the chyme and the type of food
the fundus
The superior curvature of the uterus is called
false
The testes and ovaries are collectively called the gametes.
35. The testes receive a poor oxygen supply mainly because
The testicular artery has a very low blood pressure.
sodium, potassium, and chloride ions but not water
The thick segment of the ascending limb of the nephron loop is permeable to __.
the glomerular filtration rate
The total amount of fluid entering the capsular spaces of all nephrons in a given time is called
the urinary bladder
The trigone is a triangular region of__.
human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG); chorion
The trophoblast secretes __ and develops into a membrane called the __.
Absorption:
The uptake of nutrient molecules into the epithelial cells of the digestive tract and then into the blood and lymph
The cardioinhibitory center communicates with the heart by way of
The vagus nerves.
true
The visceral layer of the glomular capsule is composed of podocytes.
Gastric rugae
The wrinkles on the lumen of the stomach
false
The yolk sac is a vestigial structure with no known function in humans.
greater vestibular
The__ glands of the female are homologus to the bulbourethral glands of the male.
sacral micturition
The__ reflex involuntarily empties the bladder unless one consciously suppresses urination.
afferent arteriole
There is one __ for each nephron.
Why do COPDers need anticoagulants?
They are polycythemic (too many RBC) to compensate for the lack of O2 bonding
Lymphatics
This is the system of drainage vessels that collect interstitial fluid and returns it to the bloodstream. (AKA- Lymphatic Vessels)
59. An individual has an impacted tooth.
This tooth is most likely the third molar-Wisdom tooth
distal convoluted tubule-DCT
This tubule has a simple cuboidal epithelium nearly devoid of microvilli.
What shapes and supports the chest wall?
Thoracic cage
65. Most strokes and heart attacks are caused by clots in unbroken vessels. This condition is called _____ and pieces may break loose of the vessel wall and travel in the bloodstream a a(n) ____.
Thrombosis / embolus
How is K+ to be given?
Through a pump, NEVER PUSH, only 40mEg/8hr should be given on the floor
4. The vocal cords are anchored in the ____ cartilage and are controlled by movement of _____ cartilage(s).
Thyroid; arytenoid and corniculate
the efferent tubules
To get from the testis to the epididymis, sperm must pass through ___.
Swallowing Process:
Tongue compresses food against palate to form a bolus Bolus passes into pharynx. Misdirection of bolus is prevented by tongue blocking oral cavity, soft plate blocking nasal cavity, and epiglottis blocking larynx Upper esophageal sphincter constricts and bolus passes downward. Peristalsis drives bolus down esophagus. Esophagus constricts above bolus and dilates and shortens below it. Lower esophageal sphincter relaxes to admit bolus to stomach
papillary duct- minor calyx- major calyx- renal pelvis
Trace urine from the collecting duct of the nephron to the ureter.
What separates the larynx and the bronchi?
Trachea
Oxygen delivery device that may cause aspiration of condensed fluid
Trachostomy collar
45. Which of the following correctly matches an iron-binding protein to its site of action?
Transferrin-bloodstream
55 The ___ pressure is the gas pressure between the parietal and visceral pleurae minus the gas pressure in the alveoli. y
Transpulmonar
Oxygen delivery device that is invasive placement of a catheter into the trachea
Transtracheal catheter
What is the role of Histamin (H2) blocking agents and asthma?
Treats GERD, an asthma trigger
Warm and moisturize inhaled air
Turbinates
1. A gram of fat has about ___ the calories of a gram of starch.
Twice
monozygotic; dizygotic
Twins produced when a single egg is fertilized are called __ twins, and twins produced from two eggs that are ovulated are called __ twins.
Tunica muscularis externa:
Two layers of smooth muscle, circular and longitudinal; propel food Myenteric plexus is between the inner circular layer and outer longitudinal layer
Urethral Openings
Two openings in posterior urinary bladder wall
14. The left lung has _____ lobes and the right lung has _____ lobes to make room for the _____.
Two; three; heart
Who would suffer from metabolic acidosis?
Type 1 diabetics with a poor diet in the last 24 hours, Chron's, Ulcerative collitis, people who use laxatives too much
epididymis
Until ejaculation, most sperm are stored in the __.
the epididymis
Until ejaculation, sperm are stored mainly in ___.
7. The collecting duct reabsorbs not only water but also ___, thus contributing to the osmotic gradient of the renal medulla.
Urea
The collecting duct reabsorbs not only water also ___, thus contributing to the osmotic gradient of the renal meduall
Urea
Papillary Ducts
Urine Flowing through this structure drains into a minor calyx
Major calyces
Urine flowing through this structure drains into the renal pelvis
glomerulus
Urine formation begins with the filtration of fluid from a spheroid capillary bed called the ___.
false
Urine is always hypertonic to the blood plasma.
ureter
Urine is conveyed from the kidney to the bladder by a tube called the ___.
Urethra
Urine is excreted through this opening
glucose
Urine normally contains all of the following except ?
usually develop benign prostatic hyperplasia
Urine retention is a greater problem for elderly men that for elderly women because men
Nephron
Urine-forming structure of the kidney
3. Which of the following is/are female secondary sex organ(s)?
Uterus
Which of the following is not a form of nonspecific resistance?
Vaccination
Cephalic Phase:
Vagus nerve stimulate gastric secretion even before food is swallowed; i.e. the though, smell of food
The cardioinhibitory center communicates with the heart by way of the
Vagus nerves
How is the supraglottic swallow done?
Valsalva maneuver, put food in mouth, chew swallow, cough after swallowing to remove food from the top of the vocal cords
39. To help expel abdominopelvic contents during urination, defecation, or childbirth, we often take a deep breath, hold it, and then contract the abdominal muscles. This is called the
Valsalva maneuver.
If the chordae Tendineae of an animal's heart were cut, the most likely effect would be?
Valvular prolapse
11. The capillary bed associated with nephron loop in the juxtamedullary nephron is the
Vasa recta.
48. Which of the following would reduce the glomerular filtration rate?
Vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole
27. Which one of the following is an unsaturated fat?
Vegetable oil
Which oxygen delivery system is prescribed by concentration, not by flow rate?
Venturi Mask
Oxygen delivery device that is the safest system to use in patient with COPD
Venturi mask
Renal Hilus
Vertical fissure in concave surface of kidney through which blood vessels and ureters pass
afferent lymphatic vessels
Vessels that bring lymph draining from connective tissue into a lymph node en route to the blood.
29. Which of the following is most important in keeping food out of the trachea?
Vestibular folds
30. The dilated chamber inside the ala nasi of the external protruding nose is called the _____ and is lined by _____ epithelium. The ala nasi can be seen below.
Vestibule; stratified squamous
Membrane lining the chest cavity
Viscera
61. The amount of air that can be exhaled with maximum effort after maximum inspiration is called ______, and the amount of air left that cannot be exhaled is called ______.
Vital capacity; residual volume.
34. A deficiency of _____________ can cause pernicious anemia.
Vitamin B12
true
Voluntary control over urination employs the external urinary sphincter.
External Urethral Sphincter
Voluntary skeletal muscle in urogenital diaphragm that allows passage of urine to exterior
Who would get metabolic alkalosis?
Vomiting, NG sucitoning
What is the best exercise for a COPDer?
Walking
metabolic water
Water that is chemically sythesized by the body is called a-- to distinguish it from ingested water.
9. Pectin is a _____ fiber found in oats, beans, peas, carrots, brown rice, and fruits. This fiber reduces blood _____.
Water-soluble; cholestrol and LDL
9. The thin segment of the descending limb of the nephron loop is very permeable to ____, while the thick segment of the ascending nephron loop actively transports ____ into the ECF.
Water; Na+, K+, 2 Cl-
41. Of the macronutrients we consume, _____ is required in the largest daily quantity and _____ is required in the least daily quantity.
Water; protein
What are the S&S of asthma?
Wheezing, cough, dyspnea, and chest tightness after exposure to a precipitating factor or trigger. Expiration may be prolonged.
it consists of about 16 to 32 cells
When a developing individual arrives in the uterus
production of the larger gamete
When all sexually reproducing species of animals are considered, the one characteristic that most defines a female is __.
What is the buffy coat? White blood cells and platelets
When blood is removed for a test- whole blood is spun in a centrifuge. The buffy coat is a layer of White blood cells between plasma 55% of whole blood, and Erythrocytes 45% of whole blood WBC buffy coat less than 1% of whole blood.
collecting duct
Which is these is not part of a nephron?
albumin
Which molecule would you expect to have the most difficulty crossing the glomerular filtration membrane?
testosterone
Which of the following is an androgen?
the amnion
Which of the following is closest to the fetus?
uterus
Which of the following is/are female secondary sex organ(s)?
vasoconstricion of the afferent arteriole
Which of the following would reduce the glomerular filtration rate?
endometrial necrosis
Which of these is a consequence of the ischemic phase of the uterine cycle?
the mons pubis
Which of these is not included in the female vestibule?
zygote, cleavage, morula, trophoblast, embryo, fetus
Which of these lists the stages of prenatal development in the correct order?
zygote
Which one of the below is a diploid (2n)?
nephon loop
Which term can be described as a countercurrent multiplier?
beard
Which term can be described as a male secondary sex characteristic?
teratogen
Which term can be described as any agent that causes anatomical birth defects?
polyureia
Which term can be described as excessive urine output?
podocyte foot process
Which term can be described as having spaces called glomerular filtration slits between them?
mesonephrenic duct
Which term can be described as the Embryonic precursor of the male reproductive tract?
water of oxidation 200mL/day
Which term can be described as the average production of metabolic water?
sensible water loss = 1500 mL/day
Which term can be described as the average urine output?
phosphate buffer system
Which term can be described as the buffer in the renal tubules that supplements the action of bicarbonate ions?
bicarbonate buffer system
Which term can be described as the buffers most responsible for stabilizing the pH of the blood?
spermatic cord
Which term can be described as the cord that guides the descending testes into the fetal scrotum?
detrusor muscle
Which term can be described as the muscularis of the urinary bladder?
capacitation
Which term can be described as the process by which spermatozoa become capable of fertilizing and egg?
alkalosis
Which term can be described as the result for an excess of bicarbonate ions?
Turner Syndrome
Which term can be described as the results from an XO condition in the zygote?
uterine tube
Which term can be described as the site of fertilization?
progeria
Which term can be described as the syndrome in which senescence is greatly accelerated?
specific gravity
Which term can be described as the weight of urine per milliliter relative to the weight of distilled water per milliliter?
anterior pituitary
Which term can be describes as the source of prolactin and lutinizing hormones?
blastomere
Which term describes the cells produced by cleavage of the zygote?
29. The buffy coat does not contain erythrocytes.
White blood cell layer after whole blood is spun in a centrifuge. True the buffy coat does not contain Erythrocytes.
Gastric glands
Within the mucosa of the stomach open up as gastric pits
Over 80% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number ___?
X
Does Sodium help absorb this nutrient? If so, why? Glucose?
Yes, Co-Transport
Does Sodium help absorb this nutrient? If so, why? Amino Acids?
Yes, Co-transport
Does Sodium help absorb this nutrient? If so, why? Galactose?
Yes, Co-transport
kidney trauma or infection
You found a high level of albumin in the urine. This was most likely caused by___.
A 36-year-old patient asks the nurse whether an influenza vaccine is necessary every year. The best response by the nurse is
You should get the live, attenuated flu vaccine that is inhaled nasally every year
Inhibin
__ Is a hormone secreted by the ovary that selectively suppresses FSH secretion.
aldosterone
__ is a hormone that regulates sodium reabsorption by the distal convoluted tubule.
ADH antidiurethic hormone
__ is a hormone that regulates water permeability of the collecting duct.
azotemia
__ is the accumulation of nitrogenous wastes in the blood.
tubular secretion
___ is a process in which the renal tubules remove wastes from the blood and add them to the tubular fluid.
16. At a normal pH, the extracellular fluid has about
a 20:1 ratio of bicarbonate ions to carbonic acid.
pharyngeal tonsil
a collection of lymphatic tissue in the throat behind the uvula (on the posterior wall and roof of the nasopharynx)
65. The sense of thirst is satiated by all of the following mechanisms, but the one with the longest-lasting effect is
a drop in blood osmolarity
The sense of thirst is satiated by all of the following mechanisms, but the one with the longest lasting effect is
a drop in blood osmolarity
zygote
a fertilized egg is called a/an __ when the chromosomes of both parents have mingled to form a diploid set.
tunica albuginea
a fibrous capsule surrounding the testes
lingual tonsils,
a mass of lymphoid tissue, which covers the base of the tongue posterior to the oral cavity proper
29. The cell in spermatogenesis that undergoes meiosis I is
a primary spermatocyte.
Zymogen:
a proenzyme that is activated once a piece of it is cleaved
Your blood is type AB, Rh positive and you are willing to give blood. In spite of a national shortage of blood, you were turned away by your local blood bank. The reason for being turned away is that your blood is
a rare type and can only be given AB, Rh positive recipients.
The scrotum
a sac of skin and superficial fascia; hangs outsid the abdominopelvic cavity; contains paired testes; is 3 degrees lower that core body temp. (temp. necessary for sperm production.)
31. Which of the following is not a spermatic duct?
a seminiferous tubule
An individual has a white blood cell count of 25,000 cells/MicroL. You could assume that the individual may have
a severe infection
Lymph
a thin coagulable fluid (similar to plasma but) containing white blood cells (lymphocytes) and chyle
Villi
a. Fingerlike extention b. Increase surface area (10x), help in mixing actions c. Each villus has a core of connective tissue containing blood vessels and a lymphatic capillary called a lacteal
The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the ___.
absolute refractory period
Absorptive cells:
absorb & transport nutrients to blood & lymph vessels (lymph vessel = lacteal)
Large Intestine:
absorbs water and electrolytes to form feces
61. The liver performs all of the following functions except
absorption of digested nutrients.
Prostate
accessory gland of the male reproductive system; encircles part of the urethra inferior to the bladder; secretes a milky , slightly acid fluid
seminal vesicles
accessory gland of the male reproductive system; produces viscous alkaline seminal fluid; is 70% of volume of semen; joins the vas deferens to form the ejaculatory duct
ducts, glands, and external genitalia
accessory reproductive organs
53. Pepsin is an enzyme which is most effective in the very _____ environment of the _____.
acidic; stomach
20. If a person's urine has an unusually high concentration of ammonium chloride, we would suspect that the person has
acidosis.
hypersecretion of GH can cause gigntism if it begins in childhood, but is more likely to cause ____ if it begins in adulthood.
acromegaly
16. Antibodies work in a similar fashion; they bind to pathogens and expose sites to
activate the complement system
Lingual lipase
activated in stomach; not activated till low pH; Breaks down lipids
63. H+-K+ ATPase is an
active transport pump which is essential for the secretion of stomach acid
43. Sodium ions enter the epithelial cells from the glomerular filtrate by symport and antiport, yet the concentration of Na+ in the cytoplasm remains low. This can be explained because Na+ is
actively transported by the Na+-K+ pump into the extracellular fluid.44. H+, Cl-, K+, Na+, Ca2+.
endocrine gland most inferior
adrenal
The endocrine gland most affected by stress is
adrenal cortex
Which of the following endocrine glands is located most inferiorly?
adrenal gland
This is the outer tunic in the oral cavity, pharynx, most of the esophagus, and the rectum. It is composed of a fibrous connective tissue layer called the
adventitia
Blood pressure in the glomerulus is unusually high compared to other capillaries because the diameter of the ___ is greater than that of the ___.
afferent arteriole; efferent arteriole
Pressure in the arteries that opposes the opening of the semilunar valves is called
afterload
Mucus
aids swallowing
bulbourethral glands
aka- Cowper's Glands; pea-sized glands inferior to the prostate; prior to ejaculation, produce a thick, clear mucus; lubricates the glans penis; neutralizes traces of acidic urine in the urethra
The rennin-angiotensin mechanism serves to increase blood pressure by causing the secretion of which hormone?
aldosterone
18. Most of the wall of an alveolus consists of _____. Cells that wander the lumens of the alveoli and surrounding connective tissue are called _____. Squamous (type I)
alveolar cells; alveolar macrophages
51. lymphocytes
an agranulocytic leukocyte that normally makes up a quarter of the white blood cell count but increases in the presence of infection
Cisterna Chyli
an enlarged pouch on the thoracic duct that serves as a storage area for lymph moving toward its point of entry into the venous system
4. People who have lost a lot of blood often feel intensely thirsty. This is because
angiotensin II is produced and stimulates the thirst center
People who have lost a lot of blood often feel intensely thirsty. This is because
angiotensin II is produced and stimulates the thirst center
The left coronary artery divides into the
anterior interventricular and circumflex arteries
The left coronary artery divides into the
anterior interventricular and circumflex arteries.
What is the target organ of corticotrophin-releasing hormone?
anterior pituitary
Which artery if blocked could explain sensor deficits for Washintong's lower extremeities-
anterior spinal artery
IgA
antibody found in blood and secretions, made more than any other isotype, most abundunt in the tears, sweat, saliva and mucosa.
Neurons called osmoreceptors trigger secretion of
antidiuertic hormone
Passes through hypothalsmus-hypoplyseal tract
antiduieretic hormone
Capping and antigen endocytosis are early steps in the action of
antigen-presenting cells.
30. Lymphocytes similar to T-cells but called ___ recognize and destroy tumors in a nonspecific fashion without requiring prior exposure to tumor
antigens natural killer cells
16. Thrombin formation is inhibited by
antithrombin and heparin
Thrombin formation is inhibited by
antithrombin and heparin
Baroreceptors are located in
aorta and carotid sinuses
You were following a molecule of glucose from the artery outside the tooth to an odontoblast in the dentin. The pathway glucose would take is.
apical foramen; root canal; pulp cavity
The interlobular artery penetrates each renal column and gives off the ___ artery that runs at the boundary between the cortex and medulla.
arcuate
tonsils
are patches of lymphatic tissue located at the entrance to the pharynx, where they guard against ingested and inhaled pathogens.
Lymph nodes
are the most numerous lymphatic organs, numbering about 450 in a typical young adult. They serve two functions: to cleanse the lymph and to act as a site of T and B cell activation. A lymph node is an elongated or bean-shaped structure, usually less than 3 cm long, often with an indentation called the hilum on one side (
60. Aquaporins
are water channels in the collecting duct.
germinal centers
area of the lymph nodes within secondary follicles and an area where B cells proliferate, undergo somatic hypermutation and die, causing the node to swell during infection where B cells multiply and differentiate into plasma cells.
An anatomical arrangement that reduces the risk for myocardial infarctions is
arterial anastomoses in the coronary circulation.
An anatomical arrangement that reduces the risk for myocardial infarctions is
arterial anatosomoses in the coronary circulation.
_____ connect one gyrus to another withitn the same cerebral hemisphere
association tracts
The most abundant cell in the nervous system is the ____.
astroycyte
In the action potential of a myocardial cell, the Ca2+ gates close
at the end of the voltage plateau
2. The antigen-binding sites of an antibody molecule are found
at the tips of the variable regions
The antigen-binding sites of antibody molecule are found.
at the tips of the variable regions.
Summation occurs in the _ of a neuron.
axon hillock
Because of the ___,very little albumin escapes from the blood during the glomerular filtration.
basement membrane of the glomerulus.
Salivary amylase
begin starch digestion; first enzyme used in chemical digestion
19 These are "identification tags" that label every cell of your body as
belonging to you
12. Most CO2 is transported in the blood as
bicarbonate ions.
If a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by an electrode placed about midpoint along the length of the axon__.
bidirectionally
The pathway of bile from the bile canaliculus to the gallbladder is
bile ductule; hepatic duct; common hepatic duct; cystic duct
Of the following components of bile, only has/have a digestive function
bile salts
62. The color of bile is due to _____; the color of feces is due to____; the color of urine is due to _____; and the color of jaundice is due to _____. -
bilirubin; urochrome; urobilinogen; bilirubin
The color of bile is due to ___; the color of feces is due to ____; the color of urine is due to____; and the color of jaundice is due to _____.
biliverdin; urobilinogen;urochrome; bilirubin
A base is any chemical that
binds H+
58. A base is any chemical that
binds H+.
The cardiovascular system refers to all of the below except one. The area that is not part of the cardiovascular system is the
blood
The highest pressure that moves substances into capillary is—
blood colloid osmotic pressure
autoregulation regulates
bloodflow through individuals
Washington has lost all sensory modalities in dermatomes T7 and below on both sides of the body. Injury found in-
both the left and right hemispheres of the spinal cord at T6
56. All of the following play a role in thermoregulation of the testes except the
bulbocavernosus muscle
Thyroid follicles store and secrete thyroid hormone, while C cells secrete ____.
calcionin
Parathyroid hormone is antagonized by
calcitonin
These drugs have an effect on reducing the blood pressure of a hypertensive patient
calcium channel blockers, diuretics, beta blockers, ACE inhibitors
Fast rising phase of the SA node action potential is due to
calcium influx
All of the following events occur when the nerve signal reaches a synaptic node is-
calcium ions enter the synaptic cleft
All of the following events occur when a nerve signal reaaches a synaptic knob. The one that occurs first is ____.
calcium ions enter the synaptic knob.
44. SGLT an active transport pump of the small intestine, can only absorb glucose by simultaneously transporting sodium
can only absorb glucose by simultaneously transporting sodium
Velocity of bloodflow is slowest in-
capillaries because total cross-section area is greatest.
Veins are called ____ vessels because they hold a large amount of blood supply.
caraptiance
38. The bonding of CO2 to hemoglobin produces.
carbaminohemoglobin.
the recommended daily allowance is higher for ____ than for any of these other nutrients.
carbohydrates
39. In humans, NE stimulates the appetite for
carbohydrates.
44. Hydrogen ions in the blood plasma are neutralized by the formation of
carbonic acid and water.
35. Dextrinase
carries out the final stages in the digestion of polysaccharides
Ganglia consist of ___.
cell bodies of neurons in the PNS
64. The human body contains carbohydrates in all of the following forms and places except
cellulose in the cell walls.
The human body contains carbohydrates in all of the following forms and places except
cellulose in the cell walls.
The ___ helps to coordinate and smooth skeletal muscle movements
cerebellum
7. The posterior limit of the nasal cavity is/are the
choanae
2. Which one of the following is absorbed without being digested?
cholesterol
You were getting ready to go cross country skiing in the snow. Before you leave it would be best to drink
cider
21. You were getting ready to go cross country skiing in the snow. Before you leave it would be best to drink
cider.
Plicae circularis
circular folds that increase surface area (3x); enhances mixing effect bc spirals and moves the chime down
66. Of all the NADH contributing energy to ATP synthesis, most is produced by the
citric acid cycle.
lymphatic nodules
clusters of lymphatic tissue; composed of white blood cells that are embedded within the walls of the large intestine; also known as Peyer's patches
Vascular spasms enhance
coagulation
Which of these is not part of a nephron?
collecting duct.
Thoracic Duct
collects lymph from the left side of the head and neck, the upper left quadrant of the trunk, the left arm, and the entire lower portion of the trunk and both legs; empties into the left subclavian vein
Right Lymphatic Duct
collects lymph from the right side of the head and neck, the upper right quadrant of the body, and the right arm; empties into the right subclavian vein
22. HCO3- in the tubular fluid is
combined with H+ and then forms H2O and CO2.
29. Pathogens are prevented from spreading from an infected area by the
complement system
5. hepatic triad
consists of a bile ductule and branches of the hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein
semen
contains a mixture of sperm and accessory gland secretions
contents of semen
contains nutrients (fructose), protects and activates sperm, and facilitates their movement
head of the epididymis
contains the efferent ductules
Why arterioles are known as resistance vessels because-
contraction and relaxation can change diameter
4. The loss of body heat by conduction can be enhanced by.
convection
the loss of body heat by conduction can be enhanced by
convection
Collecting Vessels
convergence of the lymphatic capillaries, same 3 tunics as veins, possess more valves than veins (one way)
The function of enterokinase is to
convert trypsinogen to trypsin
urethra
conveys both urine and semen @ different times
Divide right and left cerebral hemisphere
corpus callosum
43. The erectile tissue of the penis that passes along the ventral side of the penis and encloses the penile urethra is the
corpus spongiosum.
Signals that control your handwriting travel down the spinal cord in the ___ tract
corticospinal
If not for the countercurrent multiplier, the kidneys
could not produce hypertonic urine.
The __ system is characterized by long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers
craniosacral
Which of the following blood components is not a protein
creatinine
14. The quickest physiological mechanism for achieving moderate heat loss is
cutaneous vasodilation
vasectomy
cutting and ligating the ductus deferens, which is a nearly 100% effective form of birth control
Complement fixation enables foreign cells to be destroyed by
cytolysis
The catabolism reaction that breaks down glucose to pyruvic acid takes place in the
cytoplasm
35. The catabolism reaction that breaks down glucose to pyruvic acid takes place in the
cytoplasm.
A heart rate of 45 bpm and an absence of P waves from the electrocardiogram would suggest
damage to SA node
prostaglandins in semen
decrease the viscosity of mucous in the cervix; stimulates peristalsis in the uterus
48. An individual is suffering from the following symptoms: muscle weakness, depressed reflexes, and irregular electrical activity of the heart. This individual most likely has
decreased K+ (hypokalemia).
An individual is suffering the following symptoms: Muscle weakness, depressed reflexes....
decreased K+ hypokalemia
Which one of the following would not stimulate the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone?
decreased Na+
21. The excitement phase of sexual response is characterized by all of the following events except
decreased blood pressure.
The excitement phase is characterized by all of the following events except
decreased blood pressure.
Cardiac muscle deprived of blood
decreased oxygen delivery
49. Dilation of ____ causes the lacunae to fill with blood and the penis becomes erect
deep artery.
32. living parts of a tooth
dentin and cementum
The two living parts of a tooth are the
dentin and cementum
15. tooth consists of consists of a hard, yellowish tissue called ____, which is covered by a hard layer of calcium phosphate crystals called _____.
dentin; enamel
Most of a tooth consists of a hard, yellowish tissue called _____, which is covered by a hard layer of calcium phosphate crystals called _____.
dentin; enamel
tunica vaginalis
derived by the peritoneum
The cutaneous regions innervated by specific spinal nerves are each called ___
dermatones
27. Complement fixation enables foreign cells to be
destroyed by Cytolysis
People who stand for long periods have pressure buildup, particularly in the superficial vessels, which may result in varicose veins. Varicose veins are caused by
destruction of valves in the wall of a vein
Constant region
determines mechanism of action
role of sex hormones
development and function of the reproductive organs sexual behavior and drives growth and development and many other organs and tissues
leukocytes adhere to endothelium, which is called marination and then squeeze through spaces between endothelium cells into interstitial fluid, which is called ____.
diapedesis
Mike who is right handed just suffered a cerebrovascular accident involving middle cerebral artery-
difficulty speaking
28. The liver performs all of the following functions except secretion of
digestive enzymes, or absorption of digested nutirents
MALT is lymphatic regulates
digestive mucosa
Pancreatic amylase:
digests carbs (starch)
Pancreatic lipase:
digests lipids
Trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase:
digests proteins
Sensory deficits for John
discriminative touch on right side of body
In hemostasis, Thromboplastin
dissolves the clot after the tissue has healed.
septa
divide the testis into 250-300 lobules, each contains seminiferous tubules (site of sperm production)
Cardiac muscle metabolism is different from skeletal muscle metabolism because cardiac muscle
does not rely on anerobic respiration
21. You are sitting at the computer doing quite normal breathing, or eupnoea. The nuclei responsible for the eupnoea is the
dorsal respiratory group (DRG).
You are following the signals ffrom a sensory neuron with synapse with a motor neuron whats the route?
dorsal root- synapse dorsal horn- synapse ventral horn- ventral root- spinal nerve
You are following the signals from a sensory neuron to the spinal cord where it synapses with motor neuron that leaves the spinal cord and synapses on a skeletal muscle
dorsal root→ dorsal horn→ ventral horn→ ventral root→ spinal nerve
In__, target cells reduce the number of receptors for a hormone in response to long-term overstimulation.
down-regulation
51. Vasectomy, a procedure for surgical sterilization of the male, entails removal of part of the
ductus deferens.
An individual has mitral valve prolapse, which generates a gurgling sound called a heart murmur. The murmur would be associated with the ___ heart sound and occurs when the ___.
dupp; ventricles relax
53. Gasping, labored breathing or "craving for air" is called
dyspnea.
20. Most of the water entering the digestive tract
each day comes from gastrointestinal secretions
47. The primary purpose of the erectile tissues of the respiratory tract is to allow
each nasal fossa to be periodically rehumidified
43. Blockage of the lymphatic vessels draining a region of the body is most likely to cause
edema.
37. The excitement phase of the male sexual response is stimulated by
efferent parasympathetic signals from the sacral region of the spinal cord.
64. The orgasm-emission phase of the male sexual response is stimulated by
efferent sympathetic signals from the lumbar region of the spinal cord.
Falling phase of action potential
efflux of Na
8. Secretions from the seminal vesicles empty into the
ejaculatory duct.
Expiration is normally a passive process resulting from the __of the thoracic cage.
elasticity
48. Heat exhaustion results from extreme ____ loss in the sweat
electrolyte
cremaster muscles
elevate the scrotum
10. The peristaltic propulsion of sperm along the ductus deferens is called
emission.
11. Lecithin a phospholipid, prepares fat for enzymatic digestion by breaking it up into
emulsification droplets
In the action potential of a myocardial cell, the Ca2+ gates close
end of the voltage plateua
The blood brain barrier consists of tight junctions in the ____.
endothelium
Tunica externa contains
endothelium; innermost tunic
Stage of exhaustion in the stress response occurs after months of stress, and the body's homeostatic conditions deteriorate rapidly when
energy demands are met primarily by protein metabolism
Parasitic infection caused by
enosoniflie
Which of the following enzymes does not digest any nutrients?
enteorkinase
nonmotile sperm
enter the duct of the epididymis-slowly pass through and become motile
All of the following are enzumes except
enterokinase
Which of these is not a component of the pancreatic juice?
enterokinase
Suppose 1 molecule of hormone x activated 10G proteins, each G protein activated 10 adenylate cyclase molecules, each adenylate cyclase made 1000cAMP molecules, and each cAMP activated 1000 enzyme molecules. This would be the result of
enzyme amplification
You are looking at differential WBC counts for two patients. One patient has a parasitic infection while the other has a viral infection. The patient with the parasitic infection would have a high__ differential count, while the patient with a viral infection would have a high __ differential count.
eosinophil; monocyte
parts of the male duct system
epidiymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra
51. Squamous cell carcinoma is a form of lung cancer that begins in the
epithelium of the bronchi.
24. In a state of nitrogen balance nitrogen intake and output are
equal
25. The formed elements in the blood that have one nucleus are the ______, while the formed elements that have no nucleus are the _____.
erythrocytes and platelets
The kidneys secrete the hormone ____, which stimulates RBC production.
erythropoietin
__ is secreted in response to hypoxia and produces a negative feedback loop that raises the oxygen concentration of the blood.
erythropoietin
The most common cause of hupoatremia is
excess water intake
33. The most common cause of hyponatremia is
excess water intake.
ductus deferens
expands to form the ampulla and then joins the duct of the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct and propels sperm from the epididymis to the urethra
15. The bicarbonate buffer system would not work very well in the human body if not for the action of the respiratory system, which
expels CO2 produced by the buffer system.
Heat exhaustion results from
extreme electrolyte loss in the sweat.
All atmospheric gases are equally soluble in the blood and tissue fluid
false
Anaphylactic shock is characterized by dangerously high blood pressure
false
Axonal transport is the mechanism for transmitting action potentials along an axon.
false
Depolarization moves the membrane potential farther away from 0 mVolts.
false
Messages for fine control of the limbs travel down the gracile fasciculus.
false
Myelin sheaths work by allowing more Na and K ion channels to open during depolarization
false
Norepinephrines always stimulates its target cells whereas acetylcholine always inhibits them.
false
histamine, strong vasodilator, also dilated the bronchioles and promotes free breathing.
false
10. All of the following people could be expected to exhibit positive nitrogen balance except a person dying in a
famine
33. lacteals absorb
fat
54. During periods of fasting, fat is said to have a protein-sparing effect because the body does not oxidize its proteins unless it has consumed its
fat reserves.
One of the functions associated with the limibic system is-
feelings of peace, fear, or anger
estrogen and progesterone
female steroid sex hormones
Which of these is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?
fever
2. A blood clot is comprised of blood cells, platelets and a sticky protein called:
fibrin
Pathogens are prevented from spreading from an infected area by.
fibrin
Pathogens are preventing from spreading from an infected area by-
fibrin
These plasma proteins are made in the liver and form a major component of blood clots
fibrinogen
36. Platelets and endothelial cells secrete a mitotic stimulant called platelet derived growth factor (PDGF). PDGF stimulates the mitosis of
fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells
Platelets and endo thelial cells secrete a mitotic stimulant called platelet-derived growth factor (PGDF) PGDF stimulates the mitosis of
fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells.
Flow of Lymph
flows upward through the body traveling from the extremities (feet and hands) and upward through the body toward the neck. As it travels through the body, lymph passes through lymph nodes where it is filtered. At the base of the neck, the lymph enters the subclavian veins and once again becomes plasma in the bloodstream.
contents of the viscous alkaline seminal fluid
fructose, ascorbic acid, coagulating enzyme (vesiculase) and prostiglandins
15. The energy for sperm motility comes from
fructose.
43. The pathway of bile from the bile canaliculus to the
gallbladder bile ductile > hepatic duct > common hepatic duct > cystic duct (Billy hates combing ducks)
Which one of these plasma proteins is not made in the liver
gamma (γ) globulin
49. All of the following glands secrete only mucus except
gastric glands
Most of the water entering the digestive tract each day comes from
gastrointestinal secretions
Antibodies belong to a class of plasma proteins called
globulins
TBG, Transcortin, Transferrin, and Ceruloplasmin are all examples of.
globulins.
22. Insulin has all of the following effects in the absorptive state except that it does not stimulate
gluconeogenesis
8. The conversion of amino acids to glucose is called
gluconeogenesis.
Blood brain barrier is most permeable to which of the following chemicals
glucose, water, oxygen, alcohol and caffeine
45. Urine normally contains all of the following except
glucose.
urine normally contains all of the following except
glucose.
which of these is least characteristic of postabsorptive state?
glycogenesis
49. The ABO blood group is determined by ______ in the plasma membrane of RBCs.
glycolipids
11 The first hormone to trigger the changes of puberty is
gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
Sensory information about discrimanatory touch to lower limbs___.
gracile fasciullus tracts, decussate or corss over in the medulla oblongata
Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and monocytes are all derived from
granulocyte-macrophage colony-forming units.
The extension of the peritoneum that loosely covers the small intestine like an apron is the _____, while the extension of the peritoneum that anchors much of the large intestine is the _____.
greater omentum; mesocolon
IgF secrete in response to
growth hormone
Somatotrophs produce
growth hormone
Insulinlike growth factors are secreted in response to
growth hormones
62. Gingivitis is a(n) ___ and is the leading cause of ___ in adults.
gum inflammation; tooth loss
Gingivitis is a(n) ___ and is leading cause of ___ in adults.
gum inflammation; tooth loss
In an autopsy a pathologist found an area of brain tissue with very high concentrations of microglia. That area of the brain most likely
had been damaged by infection, trauma, or stroke.
The pancreas
has the exocrine function of secreting pancreatic juice which aids digestion
To determine when the patient with a trach tube can effectively swallow, the nurse deflates the cuff and...
has the patient drink a small amount of blue-colored water, observing for coughing and colored secretions
Pancreatic Ducts:
have acinar and duct cells
62. The genetic sex of a child is determined by t
he sperm.
Which of the following cells are destroyed by the AIDS virus.
helper T Cells
These cells recognize an AG-MCHP complex, secrete interleukins, attract macrophages, and stimulate Tand B cell mitosis and matuation.
helper T Cells.
Which of the following cells are destroyed by the AIDS virus?
helper T cells
37. Thromboprotein is a hormone produced by the liver and kidneys that stimulates ____ to be committed to form ____.
hemocytoblasts; megakaryoblasts
Destory red blood cells is
hemolytic
Any form of anemia that results from an excessive rate of erythrocyte destruction is classified as
hemolytic anemia
Which of the following agents opposes coagulation?
heparin
Basophils aidin the mobility and action of leukocytes by releasing an anticoagulant called _____ and a vasodialator called _____.
heparin; histamine
glucose and amino acids are absorbed into the ____ and fats are absorbed into the ____.
hepatic portal system; lymphatic system
Which one of the following vessels would have the highest concentration of glucose?
hepatic portal vein
1. The release of bile into the duodenum is controlled by the
hepatopancreatic sphincter
52. An individual has the following symptoms: multiple fractures of bones and multiple bouts with renal calculi (kidney stones) over just a few years. The individual showed an imbalance in one of the blood plasma electrolytes. You would expect the individual to have
high Ca2+ (hypercalcemia).
Which of these is least likely to result from severe chronic anemia?
high blood pressure
Blood has all of the following functions expect
hormon production
58. Blood has all of the following functions except
hormone production
22. The formed elements most directly responsible for
humoral immunity are B lymphocyte
Histamine, bradykinin, and leukotrienes all stimulate.
huperemia
59. The limiting pH is a value below which
hydrogen ions cannot be secreted into the tubular fluid.
Neutrophils produce respiratory burst, which destroys more bacteria that can be destroyed by phagocytosis. Respiratory burst from the formulation of superoxide anion that reacts with H+ to from _____.
hydrogen peroxide
Atrial natriuretic factor is secreted in response to?
hypertension
25. Atrial natriuretic factor is secreted in response to
hypertension.
49. Atrial natriuretic factor is secreted in response to
hypertension.
19. A deficiency of potassium ions in the blood is called
hypokalemia.
What stimulates the release of cortisol?
hypothalamus releases CRH to ACTH to the adrenal glands
In response to stress, the adrenal cortex releases cortisol . what stimulates the release of cortisol?
hypothalamus releases CRH to the anterior pituitary, which releases ACTH
32. High levels of testosterone will inhibit the
hypothalamus.
33. Glucostats are cells located in the
hypothalamus.
36. You are working outside on a hot day, sweating profusely, and drinking large quantities of water. You may be subjecting yourself to
hypotonic hydration.
2. Hemorrhaging, vomiting, and diarrhea can all result in
hypovolemia.
43. An increased erythropoietin (EPO) output by the kidneys would lead to all of the following except increased
hypoxemia.
8. Carbon monoxide poisoning causes
hypoxemic hypoxia.
Caron monoxide poisoning is
hypoxia
Epo is secrete in response to
hypoxia
John had an accident that destroyed his entire left cerebrum. Motor deficits in-
hyprreflexis on right side of body
The first time you are exposed to a particular antigen, your plasma cells produce mainly ____ antibodies.
igM
Atrial systole begins
immediately after the P wave.
lymphatic (lymphoid) organs
important for deployment of lymphocytes, specific white blood cells that are the key functionaries or "soldiers" made up of: Bone marrow, thymus, lymph nodes and vessels, and spleen
64. Chylomicrons are produced
in the epithelial cells of the small intestine, as lipids are absorbed
10. Peyer's patches located
in the lymphatic follicles of the ileum **
20. Sterility refers to the
inability to fertilize an egg.
medullary ischemic reflex results in-
increasd circulation to brain
You have all seen movies of people stranded in the ocean aboard lifeboats. The people are surrounded by water and yet they cannot drink the seawater. The seawater would -
increase the blood osmolarity, and the tissue would become more dehydrated.
Hypocalcemia will cause the heart rate to _____ and hyperkalemia wiill cause the heart rate to ___.
increase; decrease
63. Acidosis causes depressed central nervous system activity including confusion, disorientation, and coma. This is because the excess H+ causes
increased K+ (hyperkalemia).
14. Edema is least likely to result from
increased blood osmolarity.
Medullary ischemic reflex results in
increased circulation to the brain
17. The Valsalva maneuver
increases pressure in the abdominal cavity
42. Antidiuretic hormone
increases water reabsorption but not sodium reabsorption.
Antidiuretic hormone
increases water reabsorption, but not sodium reabsorption
Hypercapria has the effect of
increasing the heart rate
21. The total WBC count is normally 5,000 to 10,000 WBC/uL. A count below this range is called_______________. Leukopenia A count above 10,000 WBC/uL, called_______________, usually indicates infection, allergy, or other diseases but can also occur in response to dehydration or emotional disturbances. Danger because too many immature WBC therefore do not know how to attack foreign objects.
indicative of an infection, or inflammation going on in the body. (Leukopenia below) Leukocytosis
In an autopsy pathologist fina an area of brain tissue with a high concentration of microglei. That section of the brain was most likely effected by-
infection, trauma or storke
lymphadenitis
inflammation of lymph nodes
Compliment C3A proteins stimulate mast cells and basophils to promote ______, and complement C3b proteins trigger stimulation of proteins called _____.
inflammation; membrane attack complex
IgA
inhibit bacterial growth
5. Viagra prolongs erection by
inhibiting degradation of cGMP.
A neurotransmitter, such a glycine, attaches to a ligand receptors and causes hyperpolarization. This neurotransmitter would most likely cause-
inhibitoryy local potential
57. In hemostasis, thromboplastin dissolves the clot after
initiates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation
50. Cytochromes and iron-sulfur centers are found in the
inner mitochondrial membrane
Which of these is not a component of the pancreatic juice?
insulin
Which of the following correctly traces the four conditions from cause of effect?
insulin hyposecretion→ accelerated fat catabolism→ ketonuria→ dieresis
noninsulin dependent diabetes results when
insulin is secreted but target cells lack receptors for it
What produces antiviral proteins?
interfueron
23 The majority of water in your body is in the
intracellular fluid (ICF).
25. To excrete one liter of sweat, the majority of water will come from the
intracellular fluid.
T3 anD T4 are ___ anions.
iodine
thymus
is a member of the endocrine, lymphatic, and immune systems. It houses developing lymphocytes and secretes hormones that regulate their later activity
Bicuspid valve opens with pressure in the left ventricle, it closes when the pressure
is greater
spleen
is the body's largest lymphatic organ, measuring up to 12 cm long and weighing up to 160 g. It is located in the left hypochondriac region, just inferior to the diaphragm and posterolateral to the stomach. It is protected by ribs 10 through 12.
Because the human heart is myogenic
it will beat even if all nerves to it are severed.
39. If all the molecules of hemoglobin contained in RBCs were free in the plasma,
it would significantly increase blood osmolarity
55. The afferent and efferent arterioles come in contact with the DCT just outside the glomerular capsule. This complex is called the
juxtaglomerular apparatus.
The afferent and efferent arteiroles come in contact with the DCT just outside the glomerular capsule. This complex is called the
juxtaglomerular apparatus.
The afferent and efferent arterioles come in contact with the DCT just outside the glomerular capsule. This complex is called the.
juxtaglomerular cells
Erythropoiesis is stimulated by a hormone that is secreted by
kidneys
Lysozyme
kills bacteria
26. Vitamins A, D, E, and K are absorbed into
lacteals
6. Next to water, the most abundant substance in cow's milk is
lactose
Next to water, the most abundant substance in cow's milk is
lactose
NK Cells
large granular lymphocytes; attack foreign cells, normal cells infected with viruses, and cancer cells.
In mitral stenosis, one of the most common forms of valvular heart disease, when the ventricle contract blood will leak back into the
left atrium
The mitral, or bicuspid valve, opens when the pressure in the left ventricle is _____; and the mitral valve closes when the pressure in the left ventricle is ____.
less than the pressure in the left atrium; greater than the pressure in the left atrium.
Blood moves into the aorta when the pressure in the aorta is ____ causing the aortic valve to ___.
less than the pressure in the left ventricle; open
A deficiency of circulating leukocyte is called-
leucopenia
13. An individual has a white blood cell count of 25,000 cells/μL you could assume that the individual may have
leukocythemia or a severe infection
15. A deficiency of circulating leukocytes is called
leukopenia
In type II diabetes, a problem with which type of metabolism is responsible for all of the following symptoms: ketonuria, ketoacidosis, deep gasping breaths, polyuria, and polydipsia.
lipid metabolism
Eicosanoids and bile salts are made from which of the following nutrients?
lipids
Special lymphatic vessels called lacteals absorb dietary __that cannot be absorbed into the capillaries.
lipids
special lymphatic vessels valled lacteals absorb dietary ____ that cannot be absorted into capillaries.
lipids
51. The synthesis and storage of triglycerides is called .
lipogenesis
The synthesis and storage of triglycerides is called
lipogenesis
Bacteria, destroying macrophages are found in sinusoids of
liver
Inguinal lymph nodes
located in the groin (inguinal) area of the lower abdomen; one of the three major group exceptions
Cervical lymph nodes
located in the neck; drain the head and neck
palatine tonsils
located on the left and right sides of the throat in the area that is visible through the mouth
Peyer patches
located on the walls of the ileum; work with the immune system to protect against the entry of pathogens through the digestive system
Axillary lymph nodes
located under the arms in the armpits; one of the three major group exceptions
testes
located within the scrotum; produce sperm
Popliteal lymph nodes
lymph nodes in the back of the knee and receive lymph from the leg proper
Thoracic lymph nodes
lymph nodes in the thoracic cavity, in the mediastinum, and receive lymph from the mediastinum, lungs, and airway
B lymphocytes (B cells)
lymphocyte that arises and matures in the red bone marrow in adults and is found primarily in the spleen, lymph nodes, red bone marrow, and Peyer's patches of the intestines and which secretes antibodies
T lymphocytes (T cells)
lymphocyte that matures in the thymus and acts directly against endogenous antigens in cell-mediated immune responses
1.The white blood cells that are important in producing antibodies are the:
lymphocytes
The main antigen-presenting cells in the body are
macrophages
These are "identification tags" that label every cell of your body as belonging to you.
major histocompatibility complex proteins
40. The paranasal sinus closest to the upper teeth is the .
maxillary sinus
The narrow air passages which cause turbulence are called__ and are lined by __.
meatuses; ciliated pseudostratified columnar
44. The hilum of the lung is on its
mediastinal surface.
68. Anticoagulation
medicine that prevents or retards the clotting of blood- Heprain
The cardiac center, which modifies the heart rate, is located in
medulla oblongata
Throbopoeitin causes a hemocytoblasts to form a ____.
megakaryoblasts
IgE
membrane protein on basophils and mast cells allergy reactions
duct of the epididymis
microvilli (sterocilia) absorb testicular fluid and pass nutrients to stored sperm
8. Women may retain water at certain times of the month because estrogen
mimics aldosterone.
Tissue macrophages develop from
monocytes
Ventral root carries____ while dorsal root carries ____.
motor; sensory
Alimentary Canal consists of:
mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine
Peristalsis:
movement of the Alimentary Canal
Goblet cells:
mucus
19. Most of the carbohydrates in the body are found as
muscle glycogen
Most carbohydrates in the body are found as
muscle glycogen
7. tunica mucosa contains smooth muscle called the ____, which is stimulated by the ____ plexus.
muscularis mucosae; submucosal
The tunica mucosa contains smooth muscle called the _____, which is stimulated by the ____ plexus.
muscularis mucosae; submucosal
Salutatroy conduction is made possible by___.
myelin sheath
White rami carry ___ neurons, while gray rami carry ____ neurons.
myelinated preganglionic; unmyelinated preganglionic
5. Which of the following cells is in a different lineage than the rest?
myeloblast
autoregulation hypothesis links blood flow to stretch of vasculor smooth muscle
myogenic hypothesis of autoregulation
28. Vibrissae are
nasal guard hairs
Lymphocytes similar to T-Cells, but called __, recognize and destroy tumors in a nonspecific fashion, without requiring prior exposure to tumor antigens.
natural killer cells
A substance that reduces the heart rate is said to exert
negative chronotropic effect
Alkalinity of semen
neutralizes the acid in the male urethra and the female vagina; antibiotic chemicals destroy certain bacteria;clotting factors coagulate just after ejaculation, then fibrinolysin; only 2-5 ml of semen are ejaculated
Bacterial infection is especially likely to elevate the ____ count.
neutrophil
18. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes are:
neutrophils
These highly mobile WBC's spend most of their lives wandering in the connective tissues killing bacteria by phagocytes and respiratory bursts.
neutrophils
Complement C3b protein coats bacteria and stimulates phgocytosis by ___ in a process called ____.
neutrophils and macrophages; opsonization
In the hemoglobin molecule, the ferrous ion is bound to
nigrogen atoms
In the state of nitrogen balance
nitrogen intake and output are equal
Potentially damaging stimulu that result in pain are selectively detected by____.
nociceptors
The tongue has a ___ epithelium and the site of the taste buds called ___.
nonkeratinized stratified squamos; papillae
24. The surface of the tongue is covered with ____ stratified squamous epithelium and has bumps called ______ site of taste buds.
nonkeratinized; lingual papillae
An excitatory local potential reaches the trigger zone at the axon hillock and causes a depolarization to -60 millivolts. The trigger zone will most likely -
not open voltage-regulated gates and not fire an action potential.
Cell bodies in neurons in the CNS-
nuclei
Abdominal lymph nodes
occur in posterior abdoinopelvic wall. monitor lymph from the uniary and reproductive systems.
60. The ileocecal valves
open in response to food in the stomach
compement C3b protein coats bacteria and stimulates phatocytes by neutrophils and macrophages in a process called
opsonization
The collecting ducts of the kidney have intercalated cells which can
override the limiting pH and secrete more H+ into the urine
uterus is target of___.
oxytocin
The largest tonsils, which are the ones most commonly removed in a tonsillectomy are the ____ tonsils.
palatine
Trace urine from the collecting duct of the nephron to the ureter.
papillary duct-minor calyx-major calyx- renal pelvis
Transected spinal cord between T1 and L1
paraplegia
Calcium metabolism is regulated by
parathyroid glands
In the gastric pits, ____ cells secrete HCl and intrinsic factor and _____ cells secrete pepsinogen
parietal; cheif
The heart is enclosed in a double-walled sac called the pericardium. The outer wall is called the _____ pericardium and consists of
parietal; fibrous and serous layers.
The heart is encloused in a double-walled sac called the pericardium. The outer wall is called the _____ pericardium and consists of
parietal; fibrous and serous layers.
14. Mumps are most often caused by a viral infection of the
parotid
location of the ductus deferens
passes through the inguinal canal
The internal ridges in the atria are called ____, while the internal ridges in the ventricles are called ____.
pectinate muscles; trabeculae carneae
29. The rate of renal clearance of penicillin is greater than the glomerular filtration rate. This suggests that
penicillin is removed from the blood by tubular secretion
What is the male copulatory organ?
penis
Cytotoxic T Cells can destroy cancer cells by means of a secretion called
perforin
When lymphocytes called natural killer (NK) cells are "on the lookout" for abnormal cells such as cancerous cells or cells infected with viruses, the NK cells release ______, which makes holes in the cell membranes of abnormal cells.
perforins
48. The parasympathetic division cause all of the following events except
peristalsis of the ductus deferens.
Inflammation of the greater or lesser omentum, mesentery, or mesocolon is called
peritonitis
Red blood cells have two peripheral proteins, spectrin and actin, that-
permits RBCs to squeeze through capillaries
Hepatic sinusoids lined with Kupffer cells
phagocytic cells responsible for cleaning up debris, bacteria, and old erythrocytes
The pH of the intracellular fluid is buffered mainly by
phosphates
B lymphocytes transfom into
plasma cells
38. The glomerular filtrate most resembles
plasma.
__are formed elements of the blood that are not and never were true cells.
platelets
42. Transpulmonary pressure is greater than zero during expiration and in .
pneumothorax
Transpulmonary pressure is greater than zero during expiration and in -
pneumothorax
Which of the following could result from an overly zealous program of exercise?
polycythemia
The brain stem consists of the ____.
pons, medulla, and midbrain
tonsillar crypts
portion of tonsils that trap and destroy bacteria and particulate matter.
31. The basal metabolic rate should be measured when a person is in the
postabsorptive state.
Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as playing piano but not have paralysis must suggest damage to
pre motor cortex
Blood flow equals
pressure divided b resistance
Janet Jackson has a left cerebrovascular accident. Right limbs are injured and unable to button shirt. unable to localize or passive flexion. Lesion-
primary motor cortex and primary somatosensory cortex
gonads
primary sex organs
gametes
produce sex cells
33. When all sexually reproducing species of animals are considered, the one characteristic that most defines a female is
production of the larger gamete.
The adrenal cortex secretes all of the following hormones except
progesterone
spinocerebellar tracts carry ___ inputs to the ___.
proprioceptic; cerebellum
Deficits from Taylor would be in all but-
proprioception
Prostate fluid
prostate fluid contains citrate, enzymes, and prostate-specific antigen; plays a role in the activation of sperm; enters the prostatic urethra during ejaculation
17. The three regions of the male urethra are the
prostatic, membranous, and penile.
mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue
protects upper respiratory and digestive tracts against attacks of foreign matter entering those cavities
43. High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) have the highest proportion of
protein to lipid.
27. The pH of the intracellular fluid is buffered mainly by
protein.
61. The most common nutrient in the blood is ____; the most common electrolyte is ____; and the most common nitrogenous waste is _____.
protein; Na+; urea
48. pancreatic juice contains enzymes that digest starch,
proteins, fats, nucleic acids.
Pepsin digests ___ to ___.
proteins; peptides
In the cardiovascular system, the __ circuit carries blood to and from the lungs, which is served by the __side of the heart.
pulmonary; right
The sodium-potassium pump __
pumps three sodium ions outside the cell and two potassium ions inside.
15. At a comfortable room temperature, the body loses the most heat by
radiation
At a comfortable room temperature, the body looses the most heat by
radiation
47. Increasing the K+ concentration of the extracellular fluid (ECF) will
raise cell membrane potentials and make cells more excitable.
Increading the K+ concentration of the ECF will
raise cell membrane potentials and make cells more excitable.
54. The collecting ducts of the kidney have intercalated cells which can
reabsorb K+ from the urine.
Variable region
recognizes specific antigenic determinant Same for B cell and all daughter cells Gives antibody uniqueness
The viscosity of blood is due more to ___ than any other factor.
red blood cells
During its_____, a neuron responds only to stimuli stronger than a normal threshold stimulus.
relative refractory period
Antibodies work in a similar fashion; they bind to pathogens and expose sites to activate
release of interleukins
25. When the triglycerides have been removed from a chylomicron, the empty chylomicron remnant is
removed from the blood and degraded by the liver.
3. The glomerular capsule and glomerulus make up
renal corpuscle
angiotensigen converted to antgiotensin
renin
50. A low glomerular filtration rate (GFR) will cause the juxtaglomerular cells to release _____, which will _____.
renin; increase blood pressure
55. You are trying to hold your breath as long as you can, but after about two minutes you have to breathe. At this point you are in
respiratory acidosis
6. A lung disease that interferes with pulmonary gas exchange can be expected to lead to
respiratory acidosis
You are trying to hold your breath as long as you can, but after about two minutes you have to breathe, at this point you are in
respiratory acidosis
alung disease that interferes with pulmonary gas exchange can be expected to lead to
respiratory acidosis
Quiescent period is-
resting cardiac cycle of 0.4 seconds
The charge difference across the plasma membrane in muscles and nerve cells is called the __and measures about __ millivolts.
resting potential; -70
The brain area that regulates activites that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ____.
reticular formation
The lymphatic system helps maintain fluid balance by
returning fluid from the interstitial compartment to the blood stream.
5. The lymphatic system helps maintain fluid balance by
returning fluid from the interstitial compartment to the bloodstream.
A neural circuit in which a single impule is transmitted over and over is a ____.
reverberating circuit
The human immunodeficiency virus contains the enzyme __that stimulates host cells that produce DNA from viral __.
reverse transcriptive; RNA
All of the following enzymes digest proteins except
ribonuclease.
which of the following would provide the lowest quantity of minerals for a given weight of food?
rice and white flour
Blockage for Taylor would be in the-
right anterior cerebral artery
Taylor complains of hyperreflexia in the left lower extremity and a decrease in all sensory modalities in the left lower extemity. lesion occurs in-
right medial cortex of the frontal and parietal lobe
During isovolumetric contraction, the pressure in the ventricle
rises rapidly
During isovolumetric contraction, the pressure in the ventricles
rises rapidly.
diffuse lymphatic tissue
scattered reticular tissue elements and associated lymphocytes; found in about every organ but especially in mucous membrane lining the respiratory and digestive tracts
47. Glucose gets from the tubular fluid into the cytoplasm of the proximal convoluted tubule cells by means of
secondary active transport.
57. The kidneys do not
secrete hormones that stimulate thirst.
androgens
secrete male steroid sex hormones
Endocrine cells:
secretin and cholecystokinin (CCK)
All of the following are enzymes except
secretin.
accessory glands of the male reproductive system
seminal vesicles, prostate, and bulbourethral glands; these secretions are emptied into ducts during ejaculation
where are sperm conveyed through?
seminiferous tubules, tubulus rectus, rete testis, efferent ductules, epididymis
Prozax is an antidepressant that blocks the synapsing reuptake of ____.
serotonin
When platelets degranulate, they release a vasoconstrictor called ___, which aids in hemostasis.
serotonin
58. The enterogastric reflex
serves to inhibit gastric motility when there is chyme in the small intestine
WBC count is 25,000 cells assume individual has
severe infection
Lowering man's heartbeat to 75 beats per minute results in
shock because cardiac output would have plummeted
To prepare the patient for a thoracentesis, the nurse positions the patient
sitting upright with the elbows on an over-the-bed table
What is the most important factor aiding venous return?
skeletal muscle pumps
38. The cremaster muscle is a
skeletal muscle that draws the testes closer to the body to keep them warm.
The thick segment of ascending limb of the nephron loop is peremeable to
sodium potassium and chloride ions but not water.
62. The thick segment of the ascending limb of the nephron loop is permeable to
sodium, potassium, and chloride ions but not water.
16. glucose can be absorbed from the chime
solvent drag
Nerve fibers that innervate the skin and skeletal muscle
somatic
After about 120 days and 700 miles , red blood cells become fragile due to the deterioration of the peripheral protein called __. The cell fragment are phagocytized by __ in the sleen and liver.
spectrin; macrophages
how are sperm delivered?
sperm are delivered to the exterior through a system of ducts- epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra
52. In the process of spermiogenesis _____ become _____.
spermatids; spermatozoa.
41. Semen contains all of the following secretions except
spermatogonia.
18. The final cellular transformation in the production of spermatozoa is called
spermiogenesis.
After determined location of lesion in Washinton, ____ tract, and still intact the ___spinal region.
spinothalamic; cervical
These sympathetic nerves pass through ganglia without synapsing.
splanchnic
22. The _____ is especially involved in breaking up old erythrocytes and disposing of the cellular remains.
spleen
The __ is especially involved in breaking up old erythrocytes and disposing of the cellular remains.
spleen
13. A major structural component of plasma membranes and myelin that is also the precursor of
steroid hormones, bile acids, and vitamin D is Cholesterol
The kidneys secrete the enzyme renin, which
stimulates the formation of angiotensin 1, which ultimately increases blood pressure.
The kidneys secrete the enzyme renin
stimulates the formation of angiotensin I, which ultimately increases blood pressure.
Adrenal gland is effected by___.
stress
Increase venous return-increase ____-increase active cross bridges- increase force of contraction- increase_____
stretch, stroke volume
EDV-ESV
stroke volume
The ___ commonly measures about 75 mL.
stroke volume
The amount of blood (mL) coming from one ventricle in one heartbeat is called
stroke volume
18. The ____ ____ converge to form the Right lymphatic and thoracic ducts which drain into the subclavian veins. These ducts drain into the______ Lymphatic Trunks;
subclavian veins
lymphatic trunks converge to form right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct, these drain into
subclavian veins
immunoglobulin
substance produced by the body that inactivates or destroys another substance that is introduced into the body; antibody
gamma globulins
substances containing antibodies; they provide passive immunity in some people against certain infectious diseases
Neutrophils produce a respiratory burst, which destroys more bacteria than can be destroyed by phagocytosis. A respiratory burst results from the formation of a __that reacts with H+ to form __.
superoxide anion; hydrogen peroxide
13. Surface tension at the surface of the water and air in alveoli resists inspiration. To decrease this surface tension, the great (type II) alveolar cells release
surfactant.
the testes
surrounded by 2 tunics: tunica vaginalis tunica albuginea
60. The germinal epithelium of the testis consists of germ cells and
sustentacular cells.
The postabsorptive state is regulated mainly by the ____ nervous system and the hormone ____.
sympathetic; glucagon
Your ___ division will stimulate an increase in heart rate increase BP and reduce the blood flow to your skin and digestive tract, and your ___ system will enable you to.
sympathetic; somatic system
Sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, it can do all of the following but
synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in same trunk ganglion
thymus secretes hormones thymopoetin which regulate ____.
t lymphoctyes
53. blood formation
takes place in the red bone marrow.
Motor tracts involved in reflex movements of the head in response to auditory stimuli
tectospinal tract
Cerebral cortex concerned with hearing-
temporal lobe
In _____, several EPSPs occuring in quick succession depolarize a neuron to threshold.
temporal summation
43. The smallest passageways in the lung to have ciliated epithelia are .
terminal bronchioles
what are the primary human gonads?
testes and ovaries
Most of the following hormones bind to receptors at the cell surface except__ that binds to receptors in the cytoplasm.
testosterone
Almost all sensory signals pass through the ____ on the way to the cerebrum.
thalamus
Almost all sensory signals passes through _ on the way to the cerebrum
thalamus
Second order neurons synapse
thalamus
Microvilli
the "brush border,"; On the surface of every epithelial cell Increase surface area 20x...so Pilcae circularis (3x) x Villi (10x) x Microvilli (20x) = 600x total
Influence of blood vessels diameter is significant because resistant is inversely propotional to-
the 4th power of the vessel radius
The conduction of electrical signals is fastest in-
the Purkinje fibers
The conduction of electrical signals is fastest in
the Purkinje fibers.
17. Testis-determining factor is found in or on
the Y chromosome.
Baroreceoptors are located in
the aorta and carotid sinuses
9. The forcible expulsion of semen in ejaculation results from spasmodic contractions of
the bulbocavernosus muscle.
3. An erectile tissue present in the penis but absent in
the clitoris is the corpus spongiosum
4. Antibodies work in a similar fashion; they bind to pathogens and expose sites to activate
the complement system
Antibodies work in a similar fashion; they bind to pathogens and expose sites to activate
the complement system.
juxtamedullary; 15
the concentration gradient is maintained in the renal medulla by __ nephrons, which make up __ % of the nephrons
What is the prepuce or forskin?
the cuff of loose skin covering the glans penis
The electrical synchrony of the ventricular myocardium results from
the desmosomes of the intercalated discs.
57. Aldosterone receptors are found on cells of
the distal convoluted tubule.
To get from the testis to the epididymis, sperm must pass through
the efferent ductules.
One way of stating the Frank-Starling law of the heart is that stroke volume is proportional to
the end-diastolic volume
At the end of ventricular contraction, the amount of blood remaining in the ventricle is
the end-systolic volume.
The stage of exhaustion in the stress response occurs after months of stress, and the body's homeostatic conditions deteriorate rapidly when
the energy demands are met primarily by protein metabolism
erection
the enlargement and stiffening of the penis from the engorgement of erectile tissue with blood; initiated by sexual stimuli including- touch and mechanical stimulation of the penis; erotic sights, sounds and smells; and can be induced or inhibited by emotions or higher mental activity
what happens to the epididymis during ejaculation
the epididymis contracts expelling sperm into the ductus deferens
55. Until ejaculation, sperm are stored mainly in
the epididymis.
Chylomicrons are produced in
the epithelial cells of the small intestine, as lipids are absorbed
What is an erection?
the erectile tissue fills with blood causing the penis to enlarge and become rigid
What are the the external genitalia of the male?
the external genitalia of the male are the scrotum and the penis
Lymphatic Capillaries
the first of the lymphatic vessels which are microscopic and penetrate nearly every tissue of the body. They are closed at one end; it consists of a sac of endothelial cells that loosely overlap each other like shingles and are tethered to surrounding tissue by protein filaments that prevent the sac from collapsing
All of the following glands secrete only mucus, except
the gastric glands.
20. The total amount of fluid entering the capsular spaces of all the nephrons in a given time is called
the glomerular filtration rate.
19. The lower respiratory tract begins at
the glottis.
The electrocardiogram exhibits a nodal rythm
the heart is beating at a slow rate set by the AV node.
40. The lacunae of the corpora cavernosa receive blood directly from
the helicine arteries.
The release of bile into the duodenum is controlled by
the hepatopancreatic sphincter
16. The difference between the amount of air you normally inhale with each breath and the amount you can inhale with maximum effort is
the inspiratory reserve volume.
Lymphatic System
the interconnected system of spaces and vessels between body tissues and organs by which lymph circulates throughout the body
18. Immediately after the arcuate artery, blood flows into
the interlobular arteries
Immediately after the arcuate artery, blood flows into
the interlobular arteries.
Erythropoiesis is stimulated by a hormone that is secreted by
the kidneys
Which of the following vessels are in the coronary sulcus?
the marginal artery and circumflex artery.
2. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves carry signals from the peripheral chemoreceptors to
the medulla oblongata
The cardiac center, which modifies the hear rate, is located in
the medulla oblongata
The small intestine is suspended from the dorsal body wall by
the mesentery
Churning:
the only mechanical digestion in the stomach
46. The heat exchanger that prevents afferent blood from overheating the testes is
the pampiniform plexus.
A simple squamos epithelium is found in
the parietal layer of the glomerular capsule and thing sedment of the nephron loop.
What does the penis consist of?
the penis consists of the root and shaft that ends in the glans penis, prepuce, or foreskin, and the crura
What is the makeup of the penis?
the penis is composed of the spongy urethra and 3 cylindrical bodies of erectile tissue (it is a spongy network of connective tissue and smooth muscle with vascular spaces)
38. The tooth is anchored to alveolar bone by
the periodontal ligament
58. The penis of a male embryo develops from
the phallus.
The three regions of the male urethra are
the porstatic, membranous, and penile
3. When the hypothalamic osmoreceptors detect a rise in blood osmolarity
the posterior pituitary releases ADH.
What will be the result if the number of Na+-K+ pumps in the distal convoluted tubule is increased?
the potassium concentration of the urine will rise.
13. The foreskin of the penis is called
the prepuce.
parenchyma
the primary tissue of higher plants composed of thin-walled cells that remain capable of cell division even when mature
Leukopoiesis is
the production of white blood cells.
34. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by
the proximal convoluted tubule.
The coronary arteries arise from
the proximal end of the aorta.
Blood normally leaves the right ventricle through
the pulmonary semilunar valve.
The average resting cardiac cycle takes about 0.8 seconds, including 0.1 sec for atrial systole, 0.3 sec for ventricular systole, and 0.4 sec for
the quiescent period
33. Myeloid hemopoiesis in adults happens in
the red bone marrow
35. The kidney is connected to the parietal peritoneum by
the renal fascia.
50. Most of the semen consists of the secretion from
the seminal vesicles.
What encloses nerver fibers, blood vessels, and lymphatics that supply the testes?
the spermatic cord
Nerve fibers firing 300 times per second at time A and 500 times per second it means that
the stimulus was stronger at time B
The layer of uterine mucosa that is shed in menstruation is called
the stratum functionalis
The amount of blood (ml) coming from one ventricle in one heart beat is called
the stroke volume
the scrotum
the temp is kept constant by 2 sets of muscles; smooth muscle that wrinkles scrotal skin is the dartal muscle
T Cells become immunocompetent during their stay in
the thymus
T cells become immunocompentent during their stay in
the thymus
53. In diabetes mellitus, glycosuria occurs because the concentration of glucose in the glomerular filtrate exceeds
the transport maximum of the proximal tubule.
22. The smooth muscle layer in the wall of the scrotum is called
the tunica dartos.
64. The trigone is a triangular region of
the urinary bladder.
61. Because of the carbonic anhydrase on the brush borders of the kidney tubules,
the urine is normally free of bicarbonate ions.
Because of the carbonic anhydrase on the brush borders of the kidney tubules,
the urine is normally free of bicarbonate ions.
The blood vessels of the renal medulla that run alongside the nephron loops are
the vasa efferentia.
5. The blood vessels of the renal medulla that run alongside the nephron loops are
the vasa recta
The blood vessels of the renal medulla that run along side the nephron loops are.
the vasa recta.
37. Proteins are important for all of the following physiological roles except
thermal insulation.
An individual has an impacted tooth. This tooth is most likely the.
third molar.
The paravertebral ganglia are connected via spinal nerves in which region?
thoracic
12. tunica muscularis externa of the stomach contains
three layers of smooth muscle
23. The enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin is
thrombin
Enzyme that converts fibrongin to fibrin
thrombin
9. When a clot is no longer needed, it is dissolved by
thromboplastin
6. To get from the testis to the epididymis, sperm must pass
through the efferent ductules.
T cells become immunocompetnt during their stay in the-
thymus
This lymphatic organ is very large in the fetus. It begins to shrink after the age of 14 and is replaced almost entirely by fibrous and fatty tissue in the elderly.
thymus
When the ventricles contract, the papillary muscles also contract, which
tightens the chordae tendinae preventing the AV valves from prolapsing.
When the ventricles contract, the papillary muscles also contract, which
tightens the chordae tendineae preventing the AV valvue from prolapsing
efferent; a smaller
tje glomerulus has the highest blood hydrostatic pressure of any capillary bed in the body because it is drained by the __ arteriole, which has __ diameter that the arteriole feeding the glomerulus.
Propranolol, block B1 and B2 receptors. This popular drug is used-
to lower blood pressure by decreasing the heart rate.
19. The most important role of meiosis in sexual reproduction is
to prevent the chromosome number from doubling in each generation.
65. The falciform ligament attaches the liver
to the abdominal wall
45. The fluid that forms the cerebrospinal, synovial, peritoneal, pleural, and pericardial fluids as well as vitreous and aqueous humors, bile, and fluids of the digestive, urinary, and respiratory tracts are part of the
transcellular fluid.
17. Before a B lymphocyte can secrete antibodies it must
transform into Plasma cells
Erythrocytes transport oxygen and serve to
transport carbon dioxide (Co2)
Thyroxine binding globulin is-
transport protein in the blood plasma
Nerve signals___.
travel faster in large myelinated fibers.
You are following the pathway of blood from the superior vena cava to the aorta. What is the correct order of valves through which the blood will pass?
tricuspid, pulmonary, bicuspid, aotic
Action potientials are self-propagated
true
Complement proteins, unlike antibodies, can lyse a foreign cell.
true
Left side of heart pumps across a greater reesistance
true
Muscarinic receptors are a type of cholinergic receptors.
true
Natural killer cells are lymphocytes that do depend on recognition of a specific foreign antigen.
true
Nociceptors receptors adapt most slowly
true
One role of macrophages is to "present" antigens so that helper T cells can recognize them.
true
Pain arising from the viscera that is perceived as somatic in origin is called referred pain.
true
The autonomic nervous system does not innervate any skeletal muscle fibers
true
The hypothalamus is part of the diencephalon
true
The vasomotor tone of the blood vessels is an effect of continual stimulation by sympathetic neurons.
true
In the resting state, there is a larger K ion flux out of the cell than Na ion flux into the cell
true.
Layers of the Alimentary Canal Wall:
tunica mucosa, tunica submucosa, tunica muscularis, tunica serosa
4. The saclike extension of the peritoneum that covers the anterior and lateral surface of the testes is called
tunica vaginalis.
This tissue layer consists of a thick layer of loose connective tissue containing blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, a nerve plexus, and in some places, glands that secrete lubricating mucus into the lumen.
tunich submucosa
a gram of fat has about ____ the calories of a gram of starch.
twice
12. A type B spermatogonium gives rise to
two secondary spermatocytes.
27. Pulmonary surfactant is produced by
type II alveolar cells
Spastic paralysis suggest involvement of the___
upper motor neurons
23. the most abundant nitrogenous waste of the blood is
urea.
32. The most significant product of the ornithine cycle is
urea.
26. Hypospadias is a birth defect that results from
urethral opening on the side of the penis.
Factors that aid in venous return conctain everything except
urniary output
This structure closes off the nasopharynx when you swallow.
uvula
The cardioinhibitory center communicates with the heart by way of
vagus nerve
This parasympathetic nerve adjusts the heart rate
vagus nerve
To help expel abdominopelvic contents during urination, defecation, or childbirth, we often take a deep breath, hold it, and then contract the abdominal muscles. This is called the
valsalva meneuver
Anaphylactic shock can be caused by a hypersensitive allergic reaction, which individuals can have to such things as a bee sting or to penicillin. These individuals have massive release of histamine, which causes __ of blood vessles and __in arterials blood pressure.
vascodilation; decrease
Type of circulatory shock
vascular due to extreme vasodilation
Valves are found in
veins and lymphatic vessels
Motor neurons of the somatic motor nervous system have their nerve cell bodies, or somas, in the
ventral horn
Blood flows passively through atria an open AV valvue intor ventricles
ventricules filling
Nerve fibers that stimulate skeletal muscle for the foot have the somas in the
vetral horn
You stand up quickly and the arterial pressure in the carotid artery drops. Receptors in the wall of the carotid artery are sensitive to stretching of the wall, which is caused by changes in blood pressure. The signals from these receptors are carried to the CNS by neurons in the __division.
visceral system
Able to trace picture of bike but not recognize the bike.
visual association area
Which of the following is most important in keeping food out of the trachea
vocal folds
When a neuron is depolarized to threshold,
voltage regulated Na+ gates open.
embryo
when the three primary germ layers have formed, an individual is at a stage of development called the __
white pulp
which consists of lymphocytes and macrophages aggregated like sleeves along small branches of the splenic artery.
red pulp
which consists of sinuses gorged with concentrated erythrocytes;
Inhaled foreign objects tend to lodge more in the right bronchus because it
wider and more ventrical than the left
the heart rate tends to be higher in
women than in men
36. Pepsin is produced from a
zymogen called Pepsinogen
What is the genetic risk factor for COPD?
α1-Antitrypsin deficiency
63. Which of the following is a ketone body?
β-hydroxybutyric acid
48. types of anemia
• Iron-deficiency anemia. This is the most common type of anemia. It occurs when your body can't make enough hemoglobin. This type of anemia is especially common among women of childbearing age. Menstruation and pregnancy increase a woman's need for iron (pregnancy in fact doubles it), and this lack of iron leads to anemia. • Pernicious anemia. This is also called Vitamin B-12 anemia. Pernicious anemia is caused by your intestines' inability to absorb enough Vitamin B-12, a vitamin your body requires to make red blood cells. A diet lacking in B-12 and other important vitamins and minerals can also lead to anemia. • Aplastic anemia. Aplastic anemia is when your body cannot make enough red blood cells. This type of anemia can be caused by the destruction of bone marrow by factors outside of your body, such as exposure to chemical agents, medical treatments or physical factors. Arsenic, X-rays, and chemotherapy are all examples of this type of exposure. Sometimes, the cause of aplastic anemia is unknown, although autoimmune disease is believed to be a cause as well. • Sickle Cell anemia. This is a hereditary condition that is characterized by red blood cells taking on a crescent (sickle) shape. These abnormal sickle cells break down faster than normal red blood cells, resulting in a chronic shortage of red blood cells in your body. This type of anemia is more common in people of African, Arabic and Mediterranean descent. • Trauma related anemia. This occurs when your body loses a large amount of red blood cells at one time, such as when you are injured in a car accident. The anemia is caused by the body's inability to transfer oxygen or nutrients to its organs without the red blood cells. Once the cause of the loss of red blood cells is found and stopped, treatment can begin.
