COMPREHENSIVE HESI

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The nursing instructor asks a nursing student to list the characteristics of the amniotic fluid. The student responds correctly by listing which as characteristics of amniotic fluid? Select all that apply. 1. Allows for fetal movement 2. Surrounds, cushions, and protects the fetus 3. Maintains the body temperature of the fetus 4. Can be used to measure fetal kidney function 5. Prevents large particles such as bacteria from passing to the fetus 6. Provides an exchange of nutrients and waste products between the mother and the fetus

1,2,3,4 Rationale: The amniotic fluid surrounds, cushions, and protects the fetus. It allows the fetus to move freely and maintains the body temperature of the fetus. In addition, the amniotic fluid contains urine from the fetus and can be used to assess fetal kidney function. The placenta prevents large particles such as bacteria from passing to the fetus and provides an exchange of nutrients and waste products between the mother and the fetus.

The nurse is assisting in performing an assessment on a client who suspects that she is pregnant and is checking the client for probable signs of pregnancy. Which are probable signs of pregnancy? Select all that apply. 1. Ballottement 2. Chadwick's sign 3. Uterine enlargement 4. Braxton Hicks contractions 5. Fetal heart rate detected by a nonelectronic device 6. Outline of fetus via radiography or ultrasonography

1,2,3,4 Rationale: The probable signs of pregnancy include uterine enlargement, Hegar's sign (compressibility and softening of the lower uterine segment that occurs at about week 6), Goodell's sign (softening of the cervix that occurs at the beginning of the second month), Chadwick's sign (violet coloration of the mucous membranes of the cervix, vagina, and vulva that occurs at about week 4), ballottement (rebounding of the fetus against the examiner's fingers on palpation), Braxton Hicks contractions, and a positive pregnancy test for the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin. Positive signs of pregnancy include fetal heart rate detected by electronic device (Doppler transducer) at 10 to 12 weeks and by nonelectronic device (fetoscope) at 20 weeks of gestation, active fetal movements palpable by the examiner, and an outline of the fetus by radiography or ultrasonography.

The nurse is conducting staff in-service training on von Willebrand's disease. Which should the nurse include as characteristics of von Willebrand's disease? Select all that apply. 1. Easy bruising occurs. 2. Gum bleeding occurs. 3. It is a hereditary bleeding disorder. 4. Treatment and care are similar to that for hemophilia. 5. It is characterized by extremely high creatinine levels. 6. The disorder causes platelets to adhere to damaged endothelium.

1,2,3,4,6 Rationale: von Willebrand's disease is a hereditary bleeding disorder characterized by a deficiency of or a defect in a protein termed von Willebrand factor. The disorder causes platelets to adhere to damaged endothelium. It is characterized by an increased tendency to bleed from mucous membranes. Assessment findings include epistaxis, gum bleeding, easy bruising, and excessive menstrual bleeding. An elevated creatinine level is not associated with this disorder.

A client rings the call bell and complains of pain at the site of an intravenous (IV) infusion. The nurse assesses the site and determines that phlebitis has developed. The nurse should take which actions in the care of this client? Select all that apply. 1. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 2. Remove the IV catheter at that site. 3. Apply warm moist packs to the site. 4. Start a new IV line in a proximal portion of the same vein. 5. Document the occurrence, actions taken, and the client's response.

1,2,3,5 Rationale: Phlebitis is an inflammation of the vein that can occur from mechanical or chemical (medication) trauma or from a local infection and can cause the development of a clot (thrombophlebitis). The nurse should remove the IV at the phlebitic site and apply warm moist compresses to the area to speed resolution of the inflammation. Because phlebitis has occurred, the nurse also notifies the HCP about the IV complication. The nurse should restart the IV in a vein other than the one that has developed phlebitis. Finally, the nurse documents the occurrence, actions taken, and the client's response.

The home care nurse is monitoring a pregnant client with gestational hypertension who is at risk for preeclampsia. At each home care visit, the nurse assesses the client for which classic signs of preeclampsia? Select all that apply. 1. Proteinuria 2. Hypertension 3. Low-grade fever 4. Generalized edema 5. Increased pulse rate 6. Increased respiratory rate

1,2,4 Rationale: The three classic signs of preeclampsia are hypertension, generalized edema, and proteinuria. A low-grade fever, increased pulse rate, or increased respiratory rate is not associated with preeclampsia.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a 10-year-old child suspected to have Hodgkin's disease. The nurse understands that which assessment findings are specifically characteristic of this disease? Select all that apply. 1. Abdominal pain 2. Fever and malaise 3. Anorexia and weight loss 4. Painful, enlarged inguinal lymph nodes 5. Painless, firm, and movable adenopathy in the cervical area

1,5 Rationale: Hodgkin's disease (a type of lymphoma) is a malignancy of the lymph nodes. Specific clinical manifestations associated with Hodgkin's disease include painless, firm, and movable adenopathy in the cervical and supraclavicular areas and abdominal pain as a result of enlarged retroperitoneal nodes. Hepatosplenomegaly also is noted. Although fever, malaise, anorexia, and weight loss are associated with Hodgkin's disease, these manifestations are seen in many disorders.

The nurse is reviewing a health care provider's prescriptions for a child with sickle cell anemia who was admitted to the hospital for the treatment of vaso-occlusive crisis. Which prescriptions documented in the child's record should the nurse question? Select all that apply. 1. Restrict fluid intake. 2. Position for comfort. 3. Avoid strain on painful joints. 4. Apply nasal oxygen at 2 L/minute. 5. Provide a high-calorie, high-protein diet. 6. Give meperidine (Demerol), 25 mg intravenously, every 4 hours for pain.

1,6 Rationale: Sickle cell anemia is one of a group of diseases termed hemoglobinopathies, in which hemoglobin A is partly or completely replaced by abnormal sickle hemoglobin S. It is caused by the inheritance of a gene for a structurally abnormal portion of the hemoglobin chain. Hemoglobin S is sensitive to changes in the oxygen content of the red blood cell; insufficient oxygen causes the cells to assume a sickle shape, and the cells become rigid and clumped together, obstructing capillary blood flow. Oral and intravenous fluids are an important part of treatment. Meperidine (Demerol) is not recommended for a child with sickle cell disease because of the risk for normeperidine-induced seizures. Normeperidine, a metabolite of meperidine, is a central nervous system stimulant that produces anxiety, tremors, myoclonus, and generalized seizures when it accumulates with repetitive dosing. The nurse would question the prescription for restricted fluids and meperidine for pain control. Positioning for comfort, avoiding strain on painful joints, oxygen, and a high-calorie and high-protein diet are also important parts of the treatment plan.

The nurse has received a prescription to transfuse a client with a unit of packed red blood cells. Before explaining the procedure to the client, the nurse should ask which initial question? 1. "Have you ever had a transfusion before?" 2. "Why do you think that you need the transfusion?" 3. "Have you ever gone into shock for any reason in the past?" 4. "Do you know the complications and risks of a transfusion?"

1. "Have you ever had a transfusion before?" Rationale: Asking the client about personal experience with transfusion therapy provides a good starting point for client teaching about this procedure. Questioning about previous history of shock and knowledge of complications and risks of transfusion are not helpful because they may elicit a fearful response from the client. Although determining whether the client knows the reason for the transfusion is important, it is not an appropriate statement in terms of eliciting information from the client regarding an understanding of the need for the transfusion.

The nurse is providing instructions to a pregnant client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection regarding care to the newborn after delivery. The client asks the nurse about the feeding options that are available. Which response should the nurse make to the client? 1. "You will need to bottle-feed your newborn." 2. "You will need to feed your newborn by nasogastric tube feeding." 3. "You will be able to breast-feed for 6 months and then will need to switch to bottle-feeding." 4. "You will be able to breast-feed for 9 months and then will need to switch to bottle-feeding."

1. "You will need to bottle-feed your newborn." Rationale: Perinatal transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can occur during the antepartum period, during labor and birth, or in the postpartum period if the mother is breast-feeding. Clients who have HIV are advised not to breast-feed. There is no physiological reason why the newborn needs to be fed by nasogastric tube.

The nurse should include which statement to a pregnant client found to have a gynecoid pelvis? 1. "Your type of pelvis has a narrow pubic arch." 2. "Your type of pelvis is the most favorable for labor and birth." 3. "Your type of pelvis is a wide pelvis, but has a short diameter." 4. "You will need a cesarean section because this type of pelvis is not favorable for a vaginal delivery."

1. "Your type of pelvis has a narrow pubic arch." Rationale: A gynecoid pelvis is a normal female pelvis and is the most favorable for successful labor and birth. An android pelvis (resembling a male pelvis) would be unfavorable for labor because of the narrow pelvic planes. An anthropoid pelvis has an outlet that is adequate, with a normal or moderately narrow pubic arch. A platypelloid pelvis (flat pelvis) has a wide transverse diameter, but the anteroposterior diameter is short, making the outlet inadequate.

A client involved in a motor vehicle crash presents to the emergency department with severe internal bleeding. The client is severely hypotensive and unresponsive. The nurse anticipates that which intravenous (IV) solution will most likely be prescribed to increase intravascular volume, replace immediate blood loss volume, and increase blood pressure? 1. 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's 2. 0.33% sodium chloride (⅓ normal saline) 3. 0.225% sodium chloride (¼ normal saline) 4. 0.45% sodium chloride (½ normal saline)

1. 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's Rationale: The goal of therapy with this client is to expand intravascular volume as quickly as possible. The 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's (hypertonic solution) would increase intravascular volume and immediately replace lost fluid volume until a transfusion could be administered, resulting in an increase in the client's blood pressure. The solutions in the remaining options would not be given to this client because they are hypotonic solutions and, instead of increasing intravascular space, the solutions would move into the cells via osmosis.

The nurse is performing rescue breathing on a 7-year-old child. The nurse delivers one breath per how many seconds to the child? 1. 6-8 2. 8-10 3. 10-12 4. 12-14

1. 6-8

A nonstress test is performed on a client who is pregnant, and the results of the test indicate nonreactive findings. The health care provider prescribes a contraction stress test, and the results are documented as negative. How should the nurse document this finding? 1. A normal test result 2. An abnormal test result 3. A high risk for fetal demise 4. The need for a cesarean delivery

1. A normal test result Rationale: Contraction stress test results may be interpreted as negative (normal), positive (abnormal), or equivocal. A negative test result indicates that no late decelerations occurred in the fetal heart rate, although the fetus was stressed by three contractions of at least 40 seconds' duration in a 10-minute period. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect interpretations.

The nurse is reviewing the record of a client who has just been told that a pregnancy test is positive. The health care provider has documented the presence of Goodell's sign. This finding is most closely associated with which characteristic? 1. A softening of the cervix 2. The presence of fetal movement 3. The presence of human chorionic gonadotropin in the urine 4. A soft blowing sound that corresponds to the maternal pulse during auscultation of the uterus

1. A softening of the cervix Rationale: At the beginning of the second month of gestation, the cervix becomes softer as a result of increased vascularity and hyperplasia, which cause Goodell's sign. Cervical softening is noted by the examiner during pelvic examination. Goodell's sign does not indicate the presence of fetal movement. Human chorionic gonadotropin noted in maternal urine is a probable sign of pregnancy. A soft blowing sound that corresponds to the maternal pulse may be auscultated over the uterus and is caused by blood circulating through the placenta.

The nurse caring for a client with a pneumothorax and who has had a chest tube inserted notes continuous gentle bubbling in the suction control chamber. What action is most appropriate? 1. Do nothing, because this is an expected finding. 2. Check for an air leak because the bubbling should be intermittent. 3. Increase the suction pressure so that the bubbling becomes vigorous. 4. Immediately clamp the chest tube and notify the health care provider.

1. Do nothing, because this is an expected finding. Rationale: Continuous gentle bubbling should be noted in the suction control chamber. Bubbling should be continuous in the suction control chamber and not intermittent. Increasing the suction pressure only increases the rate of evaporation of water in the drainage system; in addition, increasing the suction can be harmful and is not done without a specific prescription to do so. Chest tubes should only be clamped to check for an air leak or when changing drainage devices (according to agency policy).

The mother of a 3-year-old child arrives at a clinic and tells the nurse that the child has been scratching the skin continuously and has developed a rash. The nurse assesses the child and suspects the presence of scabies. The nurse bases this suspicion on which finding noted on assessment of the child's skin? 1. Fine grayish red lines 2. Purple-colored lesions 3. Thick, honey-colored crusts 4. Clusters of fluid-filled vesicles

1. Fine grayish red lines Rationale: Scabies is a parasitic skin disorder caused by an infestation of Sarcoptes scabiei (itch mite). Scabies appears as burrows or fine, grayish red, threadlike lines. They may be difficult to see if they are obscured by excoriation and inflammation. Purple-colored lesions may indicate various disorders, including systemic conditions. Thick, honey-colored crusts are characteristic of impetigo or secondary infection in eczema. Clusters of fluid-filled vesicles are seen in herpesvirus infection.

The nurse is describing cardiovascular system changes that occur during pregnancy to a client and understands that which finding would be normal for a client in the second trimester? 1. Increase in pulse rate 2. Increase in blood pressure 3. Frequent bowel elimination 4. Decrease in red blood cell production

1. Increase in pulse rate Rationale: Between 14 and 20 weeks' gestation, the pulse rate increases about 10 to 15 beats/minute, which then persists to term. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect. During pregnancy, the blood pressure usually is the same as the prepregnancy level, but then gradually decreases up to about 20 weeks of gestation. During the second trimester, systolic and diastolic pressures decrease by about 5 to 10 mm Hg. Constipation may occur as a result of decreased gastrointestinal motility or pressure of the uterus. During pregnancy, there is an accelerated production of red blood cells.

The nurse analyzes the laboratory values of a child with leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the platelet count is 19,500 cells/mm3. On the basis of this laboratory result, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? 1. Initiate bleeding precautions. 2. Monitor closely for signs of infection. 3. Monitor the temperature every 4 hours. 4. Initiate protective isolation precautions.

1. Initiate bleeding precautions. Rationale: Leukemia is a malignant increase in the number of leukocytes, usually at an immature stage, in the bone marrow. It affects the bone marrow, causing anemia from decreased erythrocytes, infection from neutropenia, and bleeding from decreased platelet production (thrombocytopenia). If a child is severely thrombocytopenic and has a platelet count less than 20,000 cells/mm3, bleeding precautions need to be initiated because of the increased risk of bleeding or hemorrhage. Precautions include limiting activity that could result in head injury, using soft toothbrushes, checking urine and stools for blood, and administering stool softeners to prevent straining with constipation. In addition, suppositories, enemas, and rectal temperatures are avoided. Options 2, 3, and 4 are related to the prevention of infection rather than bleeding.

A female client seen in the ambulatory care clinic has a history of syphilis infection. The nurse assessing the client for reinfection would expect to observe a lesion on the labia that has which characteristic? 1. Is painless and indurated 2. Has a cauliflower-like appearance 3. Is erythematous and papular in appearance 4. Appears as one or more vesicles that then rupture

1. Is painless and indurated Rationale: The characteristic lesion of syphilis is painless and indurated. The lesion is referred to as a chancre. Genital warts are characterized by cauliflower-like growths or growths that are soft and fleshy. Scabies is characterized by erythematous, papular eruptions. Genital herpes is accompanied by the presence of one or more vesicles that then rupture and heal.

The nurse has performed a nonstress test on a pregnant client and is reviewing the fetal monitor strip. The nurse interprets the test as reactive. How should the nurse document this finding? 1. Normal 2. Abnormal 3. The need for further evaluation 4. That findings were difficult to interpret

1. Normal Rationale: A reactive nonstress test is a normal result. To be considered reactive, the baseline fetal heart rate must be within normal range (120 to 160 beats/minute) with good long-term variability. In addition, two or more fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 beats/minute must occur, each with a duration of at least 15 seconds, in a 20-minute interval.

The mother of a 4-year-old child tells the pediatric nurse that the child's abdomen seems to be swollen. During further assessment of subjective data, the mother tells the nurse that the child is eating well and that the activity level of the child is unchanged. The nurse, suspecting the possibility of Wilms' tumor, should avoid which during the physical assessment? 1. Palpating the abdomen for a mass 2. Assessing the urine for the presence of hematuria 3. Monitoring the temperature for the presence of fever 4. Monitoring the blood pressure for the presence of hypertension

1. Palpating the abdomen for a mass Rationale: Wilms' tumor is the most common intraabdominal and kidney tumor of childhood. If Wilms' tumor is suspected, the tumor mass should not be palpated by the nurse. Excessive manipulation can cause seeding of the tumor and spread of the cancerous cells. Hematuria, fever, and hypertension are clinical manifestations associated with Wilms' tumor.

The nurse notes that the site of a client's peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter is reddened, warm, painful, and slightly edematous proximal to the insertion point of the IV catheter. After taking appropriate steps to care for the client, the nurse should document in the medical record that the client experienced which condition? 1. Phlebitis of the vein 2. Infiltration of the IV line 3. Hypersensitivity to the IV solution 4. Allergic reaction to the IV catheter material

1. Phlebitis of the vein Rationale: Phlebitis at an IV site can be distinguished by client discomfort at the site and by redness, warmth, and swelling proximal to the catheter. If phlebitis occurs, the nurse should discontinue the IV line and insert a new IV line at a different site. Coolness at the site would be noted if the IV catheter was infiltrated. An allergic reaction produces a rash, redness, and itching. A major reaction, such as hypersensitivity, can cause dyspnea, a swollen tongue, and cyanosis

A client receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) begins to vomit. The client's blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg from a baseline of 125/78 mm Hg. The client's temperature is 100.8° F orally from a baseline of 99.2° F orally. The nurse determines that the client may be experiencing which complication of a blood transfusion? 1. Septicemia 2. Hyperkalemia 3. Circulatory overload 4. Delayed transfusion reaction

1. Septicemia Rationale: Septicemia occurs with the transfusion of blood contaminated with microorganisms. Signs include chills, fever, vomiting, diarrhea, hypotension, and the development of shock. Hyperkalemia causes weakness, paresthesias, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, and dysrhythmias. Circulatory overload causes cough, dyspnea, chest pain, wheezing, tachycardia, and hypertension. A delayed transfusion reaction can occur days to years after a transfusion. Signs include fever, mild jaundice, and a decreased hematocrit level.

The nurse is caring for a client immediately after removal of the endotracheal tube. The nurse should report which sign immediately if experienced by the client? 1. Stridor 2. Occasional pink-tinged sputum 3. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths/minute 4. A few basilar lung crackles on the right

1. Stridor Rationale: Following removal of the endotracheal tube the nurse monitors the client for respiratory distress. The nurse reports stridor to the health care provider (HCP) immediately. This is a high-pitched, coarse sound that is heard with the stethoscope over the trachea. Stridor indicates airway edema and places the client at risk for airway obstruction. Although the findings identified in the remaining options require monitoring, they do not require immediate notification of the health care provider.

A pregnant client asks the nurse about the types of exercises that are allowable during pregnancy. The nurse should tell that client that which exercise is safest? 1. Swimming 2. Scuba diving 3. Low-impact gymnastics 4. Bicycling with the legs in the air

1. Swimming Rationale: Non-weight-bearing exercises are preferable to weight-bearing exercises during pregnancy. Exercises to avoid are shoulder standing and bicycling with the legs in the air because the knee-chest position should be avoided. Competitive or high-risk sports such as scuba diving, water skiing, downhill skiing, horseback riding, basketball, volleyball, and gymnastics should be avoided. Non-weight-bearing exercises such as swimming are allowable.

A pregnant client tells the clinic nurse that she wants to know the gender of her baby as soon as it can be determined. The nurse understands that the client should be able to find out the gender at 12 weeks' gestation because of which factor? 1. The appearance of the fetal external genitalia 2. The beginning of differentiation in the fetal groin 3. The fetal testes are descended into the scrotal sac 4. The internal differences in males and females become apparent

1. The appearance of the fetal external genitalia Rationale: By the end of the twelfth week, the external genitalia of the fetus have developed to such a degree that the gender of the fetus can be determined visually. Differentiation of the external genitalia occurs at the end of the ninth week. Testes descend into the scrotal sac at the end of the thirty-eighth week. Internal differences in the male and female occur at the end of the seventh week.

The clinic nurse is reviewing the health care provider's prescription for a child who has been diagnosed with scabies. Lindane has been prescribed for the child. The nurse questions the prescription if which is noted in the child's record? 1. The child is 18 months old. 2. The child is being bottle-fed. 3. A sibling is using lindane for the treatment of scabies. 4. The child has a history of frequent respiratory infections.

1. The child is 18 months old. Rationale: Lindane is a pediculicide product that may be prescribed to treat scabies. It is contraindicated for children younger than 2 years because they have more permeable skin, and high systemic absorption may occur, placing the children at risk for central nervous system toxicity and seizures. Lindane also is used with caution in children between the ages of 2 and 10 years. Siblings and other household members should be treated simultaneously. Options 2 and 4 are unrelated to the use of lindane. Lindane is not recommended for use by a breast-feeding woman because the medication is secreted into breast milk.

The nurse has obtained a unit of blood from the blood bank and has checked the blood bag properly with another nurse. Just before beginning the transfusion, the nurse should assess which priority item? 1. Vital signs 2. Skin color 3. Urine output 4. Latest hematocrit level

1. Vital signs Rationale: A change in vital signs during the transfusion from baseline may indicate that a transfusion reaction is occurring. This is why the nurse assesses vital signs before the procedure and again after the first 15 minutes. The other options do not identify assessments that are a priority just before beginning a transfusion.

The nurse is monitoring a 3-year-old child for signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) after a craniotomy. The nurse plans to monitor for which early sign or symptom of increased ICP? 1. Vomiting 2. Bulging anterior fontanel 3. Increasing head circumference 4. Complaints of a frontal headache

1. Vomiting Rationale: The brain, although well protected by the solid bony cranium, is highly susceptible to pressure that may accumulate within the enclosure. Volume and pressure must remain constant within the brain. A change in the size of the brain, such as occurs with edema or increased volume of intracranial blood or cerebrospinal fluid without a compensatory change, leads to an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP), which may be life-threatening. Vomiting, an early sign of increased ICP, can become excessive as pressure builds up and stimulates the medulla in the brainstem, which houses the vomiting center. Children with open fontanels (posterior fontanel closes at 2 to 3 months; anterior fontanel closes at 12 to 18 months) compensate for ICP changes by skull expansion and subsequent bulging fontanels. When the fontanels have closed, nausea, excessive vomiting, diplopia, and headaches become pronounced, with headaches becoming more prevalent in older children.

Which specific nursing interventions are implemented in the care of a child with leukemia who is at risk for infection? Select all that apply. 1. Maintain the child in a semiprivate room. 2. Reduce exposure to environmental organisms. 3. Use strict aseptic technique for all procedures. 4. Ensure that anyone entering the child's room wears a mask. 5. Apply firm pressure to a needle stick area for at least 10 minutes.

2,3,4 Rationale: Leukemia is a malignant increase in the number of leukocytes, usually at an immature stage, in the bone marrow. It affects the bone marrow, causing anemia from decreased erythrocytes, infection from neutropenia, and bleeding from decreased platelet production (thrombocytopenia). A common complication of treatment for leukemia is overwhelming infection secondary to neutropenia. Measures to prevent infection include the use of a private room, strict aseptic technique, restriction of visitors and health care personnel with active infection, strict hand-washing, ensuring that anyone entering the child's room wears a mask, and reducing exposure to environmental organisms by eliminating raw fruits and vegetables from the diet and fresh flowers from the child's room and by not leaving standing water in the child's room. Applying firm pressure to a needle stick area for at least 10 minutes is a measure to prevent bleeding.

A rubella titer result of a 1-day postpartum client is less than 1:8, and a rubella virus vaccine is prescribed to be administered before discharge. The nurse provides which information to the client about the vaccine? Select all that apply. 1. Breast-feeding needs to be stopped for 3 months. 2. Pregnancy needs to be avoided for 1 to 3 months. 3. The vaccine is administered by the subcutaneous route. 4. Exposure to immunosuppressed individuals needs to be avoided. 5. A hypersensitivity reaction can occur if the client has an allergy to eggs. 6. The area of the injection needs to be covered with a sterile gauze for 1 week.

2,3,4,5 Rationale: Rubella vaccine is administered to women who have not had rubella or women who are not serologically immune. The vaccine may be administered in the immediate postpartum period to prevent the possibility of contracting rubella in future pregnancies. The live attenuated rubella virus is not communicable in breast milk; breast-feeding does not need to be stopped. The client is counseled not to become pregnant for 1 to 3 months after immunization as specified by the health care provider because of a possible risk to a fetus from the live virus vaccine; the client must be using effective birth control at the time of the immunization. The client should avoid contact with immunosuppressed individuals because of their low immunity toward live viruses and because the virus is shed in the urine and other body fluids. The vaccine is administered by the subcutaneous route. A hypersensitivity reaction can occur if the client has an allergy to eggs because the vaccine is made from duck eggs. There is no useful or necessary reason for covering the area of the injection with a sterile gauze.

The nurse caring for a child who sustained a burn injury plans care based on which pediatric considerations associated with this injury? Select all that apply. 1. Scarring is less severe in a child than in an adult. 2. A delay in growth may occur after a burn injury. 3. An immature immune system presents an increased risk of infection for infants and young children. 4. The lower proportion of body fluid to mass in a child increases the risk of cardiovascular problems. 5. Fluid resuscitation is unnecessary unless the burned area is more than 25% of the total body surface area. 6. Infants and young children are at increased risk for protein and calorie deficiency because they have smaller muscle mass and less body fat than adults.

2,3,6 Rationale: Pediatric considerations in the care of a burn victim include the following: Scarring is more severe in a child than in an adult. A delay in growth may occur after a burn injury. An immature immune system presents an increased risk of infection for infants and young children. The higher proportion of body fluid to mass in a child increases the risk of cardiovascular problems. Burns involving more than 10% of total body surface area require some form of fluid resuscitation. Infants and young children are at increased risk for protein and calorie deficiencies because they have smaller muscle mass and less body fat than adults.

A pregnant client calls a clinic and tells the nurse that she is experiencing leg cramps that awaken her at night. What should the nurse tell the client to provide relief from the leg cramps? 1. "Bend your foot toward your body while flexing the knee when the cramps occur." 2. "Bend your foot toward your body while extending the knee when the cramps occur." 3. "Point your foot away from your body while flexing the knee when the cramps occur." 4. "Point your foot away from your body while extending the knee when the cramps occur."

2. "Bend your foot toward your body while extending the knee when the cramps occur." Rationale: Leg cramps occur when the pregnant client stretches her leg and plantar flexes her foot. Dorsiflexion of the foot while extending the knee stretches the affected muscle, prevents the muscle from contracting, and stops the cramping. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not measures that provide relief from leg cramps.

The nurse in a health care clinic is instructing a pregnant client how to perform "kick counts." Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instructions? 1. "I will record the number of movements or kicks." 2. "I need to lie flat on my back to perform the procedure." 3. "If I count fewer than 10 kicks in a 2-hour period I should count the kicks again over the next 2 hours." 4. "I should place my hands on the largest part of my abdomen and concentrate on the fetal movements to count the kicks."

2. "I need to lie flat on my back to perform the procedure." Rationale: The client should sit or lie quietly on her side to perform kick counts. Lying flat on the back is not necessary to perform this procedure, can cause discomfort, and presents a risk of vena cava (supine hypotensive) syndrome. The client is instructed to place her hands on the largest part of the abdomen and concentrate on the fetal movements. The client records the number of movements felt during a specified time period. The client needs to notify her health care provider if she feels fewer than 10 kicks over two, 2-hour intervals or as instructed by her HCP.

The nurse provides a list of instructions to a client being discharged to home with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The nurse determines that the client needs further instructions if the client made which statement? 1. "I need to wear a Medic-Alert tag or bracelet." 2. "I need to restrict my activity while this catheter is in place." 3. "I need to have a repair kit available in the home for use if needed." 4. "I need to keep the insertion site protected when in the shower or bath."

2. "I need to restrict my activity while this catheter is in place." Rationale: The client should be taught that only minor activity restrictions apply with this type of catheter. The client should protect the site during bathing and should carry or wear a Medic-Alert identification. The client should have a repair kit in the home for use as needed because the catheter is for long-term use.

The pediatric nurse specialist provides a teaching session to the nursing staff regarding osteosarcoma. Which statement by a member of the nursing staff indicates a need for information? 1. "The femur is the most common site of this sarcoma." 2. "The child does not experience pain at the primary tumor site." 3. "Limping, if a weight-bearing limb is affected, is a clinical manifestation." 4. "The symptoms of the disease in the early stage are almost always attributed to normal growing pains."

2. "The child does not experience pain at the primary tumor site." Rationale: Osteosarcoma is the most common bone cancer in children. Cancer usually is found in the metaphysis of long bones, especially in the lower extremities, with most tumors occurring in the femur. Osteosarcoma is manifested clinically by progressive, insidious, and intermittent pain at the tumor site. By the time these children receive medical attention, they may be in considerable pain from the tumor. Options 1, 3, and 4 are accurate regarding osteosarcoma.

A client has a prescription to receive a unit of packed red blood cells. The nurse should obtain which intravenous (IV) solution from the IV storage area to hang with the blood product at the client's bedside? 1. Lactated Ringer's 2. 0.9% sodium chloride 3. 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride 4. 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride

2. 0.9% sodium chloride Rationale: Sodium chloride 0.9% (normal saline) is a standard isotonic solution used to precede and follow infusion of blood products. Dextrose is not used because it could result in clumping and subsequent hemolysis of red blood cells. Lactated Ringer's is not the solution of choice with this procedure.

The nurse is making initial rounds at the beginning of the shift and notes that the parenteral nutrition (PN) bag of an assigned client is empty. Which solution readily available on the nursing unit should the nurse hang until another PN solution is mixed and delivered to the nursing unit? 1. 5% dextrose in water 2. 10% dextrose in water 3. 5% dextrose in Ringer's lactate 4. 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride

2. 10% dextrose in water Rationale: The client is at risk for hypoglycemia; therefore the solution containing the highest amount of glucose should be hung until the new PN solution becomes available. Because PN solutions contain high glucose concentrations, the 10% dextrose in water solution is the best of the choices presented. The solution selected should be one that minimizes the risk of hypoglycemia. The remaining options will not be as effective in minimizing the risk of hypoglycemia.

The nurse has just received a prescription to transfuse a unit of packed red blood cells for an assigned client. Approximately how long will the nurse need to stay with the client to ensure that a transfusion reaction is not occurring? 1. 5 minutes 2. 15 minutes 3. 30 minutes 4. 45 minutes

2. 15 minutes Rationale: The nurse must remain with the client for the first 15 minutes of a transfusion, which is usually when a transfusion reaction may occur. This enables the nurse to detect a reaction and intervene quickly. The nurse engages in safe nursing practice by obtaining coverage for the other assigned clients during this time. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect time frames.

The nurse is performing an assessment of a pregnant client who is at 28 weeks of gestation. The nurse measures the fundal height in centimeters and expects which finding? 1. 22 cm 2. 30 cm 3. 36 cm 4. 40 cm

2. 30 cm Rationale: During the second and third trimesters (weeks 18 to 30), fundal height in centimeters approximately equals the fetus' age in weeks ± 2 cm. At 16 weeks, the fundus can be located halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. At 20 to 22 weeks, the fundus is at the umbilicus. At 36 weeks, the fundus is at the xiphoid process.

The nurse is caring for a group of adult clients on an acute care medical-surgical nursing unit. The nurse understands that which client would be the least likely candidate for parenteral nutrition (PN)? 1. A 66-year-old client with extensive burns 2. A 42-year-old client who has had an open cholecystectomy 3. A 27-year-old client with severe exacerbation of Crohn's disease 4. A 35-year-old client with persistent nausea and vomiting from chemotherapy

2. A 42-year-old client who has had an open cholecystectomy Rationale: Parenteral nutrition is indicated in clients whose gastrointestinal tracts are not functional or must be rested, cannot take in a diet enterally for extended periods, or have increased metabolic need. Examples of these conditions include those clients with burns, exacerbation of Crohn's disease, and persistent nausea and vomiting due to chemotherapy. Other clients would be those who have had extensive surgery, have multiple fractures, are septic, or have advanced cancer or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. The client with the open cholecystectomy is not a candidate because this client would resume a regular diet within a few days following surgery.

The nursing student is presenting a clinical conference and discusses the cause of b-thalassemia. The nursing student informs the group that a child at greatest risk of developing this disorder is which one? 1. A child of Mexican descent 2. A child of Mediterranean descent 3. A child whose intake of iron is extremely poor 4. A breast-fed child of a mother with chronic anemia

2. A child of Mediterranean descent Rationale: b-Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the reduced production of one of the globin chains in the synthesis of hemoglobin (both parents must be carriers to produce a child with b-thalassemia major). This disorder is found primarily in individuals of Mediterranean descent. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

The nurse is instructing the parents of a child with iron deficiency anemia regarding the administration of a liquid oral iron supplement. Which instruction should the nurse tell the parents? 1. Administer the iron at mealtimes. 2. Administer the iron through a straw. 3. Mix the iron with cereal to administer. 4. Add the iron to formula for easy administration

2. Administer the iron through a straw. Rationale: In iron deficiency anemia, iron stores are depleted, resulting in a decreased supply of iron for the manufacture of hemoglobin in red blood cells. An oral iron supplement should be administered through a straw or medicine dropper placed at the back of the mouth because the iron stains the teeth. The parents should be instructed to brush or wipe the child's teeth or have the child brush the teeth after administration. Iron is administered between meals because absorption is decreased if there is food in the stomach. Iron requires an acid environment to facilitate its absorption in the duodenum. Iron is not added to formula or mixed with cereal or other food items.

A 10-year-old child with asthma is treated for acute exacerbation in the emergency department. The nurse caring for the child should monitor for which sign, knowing that it indicates a worsening of the condition? 1. Warm, dry skin 2. Decreased wheezing 3. Pulse rate of 90 beats/minute 4. Respirations of 18 breaths/minute

2. Decreased wheezing Rationale: Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disease of the airways. Decreased wheezing in a child with asthma may be interpreted incorrectly as a positive sign when it may actually signal an inability to move air. A "silent chest" is an ominous sign during an asthma episode. With treatment, increased wheezing actually may signal that the child's condition is improving. Warm, dry skin indicates an improvement in the child's condition because the child is normally diaphoretic during exacerbation. The normal pulse rate in a 10-year-old is 70 to 110 beats/minute. The normal respiratory rate in a 10-year-old is 16 to 20 breaths/minute.

While changing the tapes on a tracheostomy tube, the client coughs and the tube is dislodged. Which is the initial nursing action? . Call the health care provider to reinsert the tube. 2. Grasp the retention sutures to spread the opening. 3. Call the respiratory therapy department to reinsert the tracheotomy. 4. Cover the tracheostomy site with a sterile dressing to prevent infection.

2. Grasp the retention sutures to spread the opening. Rationale: If the tube is dislodged accidentally, the initial nursing action is to grasp the retention sutures and spread the opening. If agency policy permits, the nurse then attempts immediately to replace the tube. Calling ancillary services or the HCP will delay treatment in this emergency situation. Covering the tracheostomy site will block the airway.

The nurse is monitoring a child with burns during treatment for burn shock. The nurse understands that which assessment provides the most accurate guide to determine the adequacy of fluid resuscitation? 1. Skin turgor 2. Neurological assessment 3. Level of edema at burn site 4. Quality of peripheral pulses

2. Neurological assessment Rationale: Sensorium is an accurate guide to determine the adequacy of fluid resuscitation. The burn injury itself does not affect the sensorium, so the child should be alert and oriented. Any alteration in sensorium should be evaluated further. A neurological assessment would determine the level of sensorium in the child. Options 1, 3, and 4 would not provide an accurate assessment of the adequacy of fluid resuscitation.

A client has been discharged to home on parenteral nutrition (PN). With each visit, the home care nurse should assess which parameter most closely in monitoring this therapy? 1. Pulse and weight 2. Temperature and weight 3. Pulse and blood pressure 4. Temperature and blood pressure

2. Temperature and weight

A child is brought to the emergency department after being accidentally struck in the lower back region with a baseball bat. When gathering assessment data, the nurse discovers that the child has hemophilia. The nurse should immediately assess for which data? 1. The respiratory rate 2. The urine for hematuria 3. For signs of slurred speech 4. For complaints of headache

2. The urine for hematuria Rationale: Because the kidneys are located in the flank region of the body, trauma to the back area can cause hematuria, particularly in a child with hemophilia. The nurse would be most concerned about the child's airway and respiratory rate if the child sustained an injury to the neck region. Slurred speech and headache are associated with head trauma.

A client is brought to the emergency department having experienced blood loss related to an arterial laceration. Fresh-frozen plasma is prescribed and transfused to replace fluid and blood loss. The nurse understands that which is the rationale for transfusing fresh-frozen plasma to this client? 1. To treat the loss of platelets 2. To promote rapid volume expansion 3. Because a transfusion must be done slowly 4. Because it will increase the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels

2. To promote rapid volume expansion Rationale: Fresh-frozen plasma is often used for volume expansion as a result of fluid and blood loss. It does not contain platelets, so it is not used to treat any type of low platelet count disorder. It is rich in clotting factors and can be thawed quickly and transfused quickly. It will not specifically increase the hemoglobin and hematocrit level.

The nurse is providing instructions to a client in the first trimester of pregnancy regarding measures to assist in reducing breast tenderness. Which instruction should the nurse provide? 1. Avoid wearing a bra. 2. Wash the breasts with warm water and keep them dry. 3. Wear tight-fitting blouses or dresses to provide support. 4. Wash the nipples and areolar area daily with soap, and massage the breasts with lotion.

2. Wash the breasts with warm water and keep them dry. Rationale: The pregnant client should be instructed to wash the breasts with warm water and keep them dry. The client should be instructed to avoid using soap on the nipples and areolar area to prevent the drying of tissues. Wearing a supportive bra with wide adjustable straps can decrease breast tenderness. Tight-fitting blouses or dresses cause discomfort. The client is instructed to wear soft-textured clothing to decrease nipple tenderness and to use breast pads inside the bra to prevent leakage through the clothing if colostrum is a problem.

The nurse is assessing the functioning of a chest tube drainage system in a client who has just returned from the recovery room following a thoracotomy with wedge resection. Which are the expected assessment findings? Select all that apply. 1. Excessive bubbling in the water seal chamber 2. Vigorous bubbling in the suction control chamber 3. Drainage system maintained below the client's chest 4. 50 mL of drainage in the drainage collection chamber 5. Occlusive dressing in place over the chest tube insertion site 6. Fluctuation of water in the tube in the water seal chamber during inhalation and exhalation

3,4,5,6 Rationale: The bubbling of water in the water seal chamber indicates air drainage from the client and usually is seen when intrathoracic pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure, and may occur during exhalation, coughing, or sneezing. Excessive bubbling in the water seal chamber may indicate an air leak, an unexpected finding. Fluctuation of water in the tube in the water seal chamber during inhalation and exhalation is expected. An absence of fluctuation may indicate that the chest tube is obstructed or that the lung has reexpanded and that no more air is leaking into the pleural space. Gentle (not vigorous) bubbling should be noted in the suction control chamber. A total of 50 mL of drainage is not excessive in a client returning to the nursing unit from the recovery room. Drainage that is more than 70 to 100 mL/hour is considered excessive and requires health care provider notification. The chest tube insertion site is covered with an occlusive (airtight) dressing to prevent air from entering the pleural space. Positioning the drainage system below the client's chest allows gravity to drain the pleural space.

The nurse is conducting a prenatal class on the female reproductive system. When a client in the class asks why the fertilized ovum stays in the fallopian tube for 3 days, what is the nurse's best response? 1. "It promotes the fertilized ovum's chances of survival." 2. "It promotes the fertilized ovum's exposure to estrogen and progesterone." 3. "It promotes the fertilized ovum's normal implantation in the top portion of the uterus." 4. "It promotes the fertilized ovum's exposure to luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone."

3. "It promotes the fertilized ovum's normal implantation in the top portion of the uterus." Rationale: The tubal isthmus remains contracted until 3 days after conception to allow the fertilized ovum to develop within the tube. This initial growth of the fertilized ovum promotes its normal implantation in the fundal portion of the uterine corpus. Estrogen is a hormone produced by the ovarian follicles, corpus luteum, adrenal cortex, and placenta during pregnancy. Progesterone is a hormone secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary, adrenal glands, and placenta during pregnancy. Luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone are excreted by the anterior pituitary gland. The survival of the fertilized ovum does not depend on it staying in the fallopian tube for 3 days.

The school nurse has provided an instructional session about impetigo to parents of the children attending the school. Which statement, if made by a parent, indicates a need for further instruction? 1. "It is extremely contagious." 2. "It is most common in humid weather." 3. "Lesions most often are located on the arms and chest." 4. "It might show up in an area of broken skin, such as an insect bite."

3. "Lesions most often are located on the arms and chest." Rationale: Impetigo is a contagious bacterial infection of the skin caused by b-hemolytic streptococci or staphylococci, or both. Impetigo is most common during hot, humid summer months. Impetigo may begin in an area of broken skin, such as an insect bite or atopic dermatitis. Impetigo is extremely contagious. Lesions usually are located around the mouth and nose, but may be present on the hands and extremities.

A 6-year-old child has just been diagnosed with localized Hodgkin's disease, and chemotherapy is planned to begin immediately. The mother of the child asks the nurse why radiation therapy was not prescribed as a part of the treatment. What is the nurse's best response? 1. "It's very costly, and chemotherapy works just as well." 2. "I'm not sure. I'll discuss it with the health care provider." 3. "Sometimes age has to do with the decision for radiation therapy." 4. "The health care provider would prefer that you discuss treatment options with the oncologist."

3. "Sometimes age has to do with the decision for radiation therapy." Rationale: Radiation therapy is usually delayed until a child is 8 years old, whenever possible, to prevent retardation of bone growth and soft tissue development. Options 1, 2, and 4 are inappropriate responses to the mother and place the mother's question on hold.

A health care provider has prescribed transvaginal ultrasonography for a client in the first trimester of pregnancy and the client asks the nurse about the procedure. How should the nurse respond to the client? 1. "The procedure takes about 2 hours." 2. "It will be necessary to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water before the examination." 3. "The probe that will be inserted into the vagina will be covered with a disposable cover and coated with a gel." 4. "Gel is spread over the abdomen, and a round disk transducer will be moved over the abdomen to obtain the picture."

3. "The probe that will be inserted into the vagina will be covered with a disposable cover and coated with a gel." Rationale: Transvaginal ultrasonography allows clear visibility of the uterus, gestational sac, embryo, and deep pelvic structures, such as the ovaries and fallopian tubes. The client is placed in a lithotomy position and a transvaginal probe, encased in a disposable cover and coated with a gel that provides lubrication and promotes conductivity, is inserted into the vagina. The client may feel more comfortable if she is allowed to insert the probe. The procedure takes about 10 to 15 minutes. Options 2 and 4 identify components of abdominal ultrasound.

The nursing student is preparing to teach a prenatal class about fetal circulation. Which statement should be included in the teaching plan? 1. "One artery carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus." 2. "Two arteries carry oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus." 3. "Two arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products away from the fetus to the placenta." 4. "Two veins carry blood that is high in carbon dioxide and other waste products away from the fetus to the placenta."

3. "Two arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products away from the fetus to the placenta." Rationale: Blood pumped by the embryo's heart leaves the embryo through two umbilical arteries. When oxygenated, the blood is returned by one umbilical vein. Arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus, and the umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood and provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a client seen in the clinic. The nurse determines that the urine specific gravity is normal if which value is noted on the laboratory results? 1. 1.004 2. 1.012 3. 1.019 4. 1.036

3. 1.019 Rationale: The normal range for urine specific gravity is between 1.016 and 1.022. Options 1 and 2 represent low values. Option 4 reflects an elevated value.

The nurse is performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an infant. When performing chest compressions, the nurse compresses at least how many times? 1. 60 times per minute 2. 80 times per minute 3. 100 times per minute 4. 160 times per minute

3. 100 times per minute

The nurse in a maternity unit is reviewing the clients' records. Which client would the nurse identify as being at the most risk for developing disseminated intravascular coagulation? 1. A primigravida with mild preeclampsia 2. A primigravida who delivered a 10-lb infant 3 hours ago 3. A gravida II who has just been diagnosed with dead fetus syndrome 4. A gravida IV who delivered 8 hours ago and has lost 500 mL of blood

3. A gravida II who has just been diagnosed with dead fetus syndrome Rationale: In a pregnant client, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition in which the clotting cascade is activated, resulting in the formation of clots in the microcirculation. Dead fetus syndrome is considered a risk factor for DIC. Severe preeclampsia is considered a risk factor for DIC; a mild case is not. Delivering a large newborn is not considered a risk factor for DIC. Hemorrhage is a risk factor for DIC; however, a loss of 500 mL is not considered hemorrhage.

The nurse has just received a unit of packed red blood cells from the blood bank for transfusion to an assigned client. The nurse is careful to select tubing especially made for blood products, knowing that this tubing is manufactured with which item? 1. An air vent 2. Tinted tubing 3. An in-line filter 4. A microdrip chamber

3. An in-line filter Rationale: The tubing used for blood administration has an in-line filter. The filter helps ensure that any particles larger than the size of the filter are caught in the filter and are not infused into the client. Tinted tubing is incorrect because blood does not need to be protected from light. The tubing should be macrodrip, not microdrip, to allow blood to flow freely through the drip chamber. An air vent is unnecessary because the blood bag is not made of glass.

The nurse is providing instructions to a pregnant client who is scheduled for an amniocentesis. What instruction should the nurse provide? 1. Strict bed rest is required after the procedure. 2. Hospitalization is necessary for 24 hours after the procedure. 3. An informed consent needs to be signed before the procedure. 4. A fever is expected after the procedure because of the trauma to the abdomen.

3. An informed consent needs to be signed before the procedure. Rationale: Because amniocentesis is an invasive procedure, informed consent needs to be obtained before the procedure. After the procedure, the client is instructed to rest, but may resume light activity after the cramping subsides. The client is instructed to keep the puncture site clean and to report any complications, such as chills, fever, bleeding, leakage of fluid at the needle insertion site, decreased fetal movement, uterine contractions, or cramping. Amniocentesis is an outpatient procedure and may be done in a health care provider's private office or in a special prenatal testing unit. Hospitalization is not necessary after the procedure.

The nurse is caring for a child with a diagnosis of hemophilia, and hemarthrosis is suspected because the child is complaining of pain in the joints. Which measure should the nurse expect to be prescribed for the child? 1. Range-of-motion exercises to the affected joint 2. Application of a heating pad to the affected joint 3. Application of a bivalved cast for joint immobilization 4. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for the pain

3. Application of a bivalved cast for joint immobilization Rationale: In an acute period, immobilization of the joint would be prescribed. Range-of-motion exercise during the acute period can increase the bleeding and would be avoided at this time. Heat will increase blood flow to the area, so it would promote increased bleeding to the area. NSAIDs can prolong bleeding time and would not be prescribed for the child.

A nursing student is assigned to care for a client in labor. The nursing instructor asks the student to describe fetal circulation, specifically the ductus venosus. Which statement is correct regarding the ductus venosus? 1. Connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta 2. Is an opening between the right and left atria 3. Connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava 4. Connects the umbilical artery to the inferior vena cava

3. Connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava Rationale: The ductus venosus connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava. The foramen ovale is a temporary opening between the right and left atria. The ductus arteriosus joins the aorta and the pulmonary artery.

Packed red blood cells have been prescribed for a client with low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. The nurse takes the client's temperature before hanging the blood transfusion and records 100.6° F orally. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Begin the transfusion as prescribed. 2. Administer an antihistamine and begin the transfusion. 3. Delay hanging the blood and notify the health care provider (HCP). 4. Administer two tablets of acetaminophen (Tylenol) and begin the transfusion.

3. Delay hanging the blood and notify the health care provider (HCP). Rationale: If the client has a temperature higher than 100° F, the unit of blood should not be hung until the HCP is notified and has the opportunity to give further prescriptions. The HCP likely will prescribe that the blood be administered regardless of the temperature, but the decision is not within the nurse's scope of practice to make. The nurse needs an HCP's prescription to administer medications to the client.

The mother of a 6-year-old child who has type 1 diabetes mellitus calls a clinic nurse and tells the nurse that the child has been sick. The mother reports that she checked the child's urine and it was positive for ketones. The nurse should instruct the mother to take which action? 1. Hold the next dose of insulin. 2. Come to the clinic immediately. 3. Encourage the child to drink liquids. 4. Administer an additional dose of regular insulin.

3. Encourage the child to drink liquids. Rationale: When the child is sick, the mother should test for urinary ketones with each voiding. If ketones are present, liquids are essential to aid in clearing the ketones. The child should be encouraged to drink liquids. Bringing the child to the clinic immediately is unnecessary. Insulin doses should not be adjusted or changed.

The nurse is monitoring the status of a client's fat emulsion (lipid) infusion and notes that the infusion is 1 hour behind. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Adjust the infusion rate to catch up over the next hour. 2. Increase the infusion rate to catch up over the next 2 hours. 3. Ensure that the fat emulsion infusion rate is infusing at the prescribed rate. 4. Adjust the infusion rate to run wide open until the solution is back on time.

3. Ensure that the fat emulsion infusion rate is infusing at the prescribed rate. Rationale: The nurse should not increase the rate of a fat emulsion to make up the difference if the infusion timing falls behind. Doing so could place the client at risk for fat overload. In addition, increasing the rate suddenly can cause fluid overload. The same principle (not increasing the rate) applies to PN or any intravenous (IV) infusion. Therefore the remaining options are incorrect.

A pregnant client tells the nurse that she has been craving "unusual foods." The nurse gathers additional assessment data and discovers that the client has been ingesting daily amounts of white clay dirt from her backyard. Laboratory studies are performed and the nurse determines that which finding indicates a physiological consequence of the client's practice? 1. Hematocrit 38% 2. Glucose 86 mg/dL 3. Hemoglobin 9.1 g/dL 4. White blood cell count 12,400 cells/mm3

3. Hemoglobin 9.1 g/dL Rationale: Pica practices often lead to iron deficiency anemia, resulting in a decreased hemoglobin level. The laboratory values in options 1, 2, and 4 are normal for the pregnant client.

The nurse is making initial rounds on the nursing unit to assess the condition of assigned clients. The nurse notes that a client's intravenous (IV) site is cool, pale, and swollen, and the solution is not infusing. The nurse concludes that which complication has occurred? 1. Infection 2. Phlebitis 3. Infiltration 4. Thrombosis

3. Infiltration Rationale: An infiltrated IV is one that has dislodged from the vein and is lying in subcutaneous tissue. Pallor, coolness, and swelling are the results of IV fluid being deposited in the subcutaneous tissue. When the pressure in the tissues exceeds the pressure in the tubing, the flow of the IV solution will stop. The corrective action is to remove the catheter and start a new IV line at another site. Infection, phlebitis, and thrombosis are likely to be accompanied by warmth at the site, not coolness.

A pregnant client is seen for a regular prenatal visit and tells the nurse that she is experiencing irregular contractions. The nurse determines that she is experiencing Braxton Hicks contractions. On the basis of this finding, which nursing action is most appropriate? 1. Contact the health care provider. 2. Instruct the client to maintain bed rest for the remainder of the pregnancy. 3. Inform the client that these contractions are common and may occur throughout the pregnancy. 4. Call the maternity unit and inform them that the client will be admitted in a prelabor condition.

3. Inform the client that these contractions are common and may occur throughout the pregnancy. Rationale: Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, painless contractions that may occur intermittently throughout pregnancy. Because Braxton Hicks contractions may occur and are normal in some pregnant women during pregnancy, options 1, 2, and 4 are unnecessary and inappropriate actions.

A 10-year-old child with hemophilia A has slipped on the ice and bumped his knee. The nurse should prepare to administer which prescription? 1. Injection of factor X 2. Intravenous infusion of iron 3. Intravenous infusion of factor VIII 4. Intramuscular injection of iron using the Z-track method

3. Intravenous infusion of factor VIII Rationale: Hemophilia refers to a group of bleeding disorders resulting from a deficiency of specific coagulation proteins. The primary treatment is replacement of the missing clotting factor; additional medications, such as agents to relieve pain, may be prescribed depending on the source of bleeding from the disorder. A child with hemophilia A is at risk for joint bleeding after a fall. Factor VIII would be prescribed intravenously to replace the missing clotting factor and minimize the bleeding. Factor X and iron are not used to treat children with hemophilia A.

Which explanation should the nurse provide to the prenatal client about the purpose of the placenta? 1. It cushions and protects the baby. 2. It maintains the temperature of the baby. 3. It is the way the baby gets food and oxygen. 4. It prevents all antibodies and viruses from passing to the baby.

3. It is the way the baby gets food and oxygen. Rationale: The placenta provides an exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between the mother and the fetus. The amniotic fluid surrounds, cushions, and protects the fetus and maintains the body temperature of the fetus. Nutrients, drugs, antibodies, and viruses can pass through the placenta

The nurse witnesses a neighbor's husband sustain a fall from the roof of his house. The nurse rushes to the victim and determines the need to open the airway. The nurse opens the airway in this victim by using which method? 1. Flexed position 2. Head tilt-chin lift 3. Jaw thrust maneuver 4. Modified head tilt-chin lift

3. Jaw thrust maneuver Rationale: If a neck injury is suspected, the jaw thrust maneuver is used to open the airway. The head tilt-chin lift maneuver produces hyperextension of the neck and could cause complications if a neck injury is present. A flexed position is an inappropriate position for opening the airway.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a child with aplastic anemia and notes that the white blood cell (WBC) count is 2000 cells/mm3 and the platelet count is 150,000 cells/mm3. Which intervention should the nurse incorporate into the plan of care? 1. Avoid unnecessary injections. 2. Encourage quiet play activities. 3. Maintain strict neutropenic precautions. 4. Encourage the child to use a soft toothbrush.

3. Maintain strict neutropenic precautions. Rationale: The normal WBC count ranges from 4500 to 11,000 cells/mm3, and the normal platelet count ranges from 150,000 to 400,000 cells/mm3. Strict neutropenic procedures would be required if the WBC count were low to protect the child from infection. Precautionary measures to prevent bleeding should be taken when a child has a low platelet count. These include no injections, no rectal temperatures, use of a soft toothbrush, and abstinence from contact sports or activities that could cause an injury.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who is at 38 weeks' gestation and notes that the fetal heart rate is 174 beats/minute. On the basis of this finding, what is the priority nursing action? 1. Document the finding. 2. Check the mother's heart rate. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 4. Tell the client that the fetal heart rate is normal.

3. Notify the health care provider (HCP). Rationale: The fetal heart rate (FHR) depends on gestational age and ranges from 160 to 170 beats/minute in the first trimester, but slows with fetal growth to 110 to 160 beats/minute near or at term. At or near term, if the FHR is less than 110 beats/minute or more than 160 beats/minute with the uterus at rest, the fetus may be in distress. Because the FHR is increased from the reference range, the nurse should notify the HCP. Options 2 and 4 are inappropriate actions based on the information in the question. Although the nurse documents the findings, based on the information in the question, the HCP needs to be notified.

A client has just undergone insertion of a central venous catheter at the bedside. The nurse would be sure to check which results before initiating the flow rate of the client's intravenous (IV) solution at 100 mL/hour? 1. Serum osmolality 2. Serum electrolyte levels 3. Portable chest x-ray film 4. Intake and output record

3. Portable chest x-ray film Rationale: Before beginning administration of IV solution, the nurse should assess whether the chest radiograph reveals that the central catheter is in the proper place. This is necessary to prevent infusion of IV fluid into pulmonary or subcutaneous tissues. The other options represent items that are useful for the nurse to be aware of in the general care of this client, but they do not relate to this procedure.

The nurse on the day shift walks into a client's room and finds the client unresponsive. The client is not breathing and does not have a pulse, and the nurse immediately calls out for help. Which is the next nursing action? 1. Open the airway. 2. Give the client oxygen. 3. Start chest compressions. 4. Ventilate with a mouth-to-mask device

3. Start chest compressions. Rationale: The next nursing action would be to start chest compressions. Chest compressions are used to keep blood moving through the body and to the vital areas, such as the brain. After 2 minutes of compressions the rescuer opens the victim's airway.

The nurse is collecting data on a 12-month-old child with iron deficiency anemia. Which finding should the nurse expect to note in this child? 1. Cyanosis 2. Bradycardia 3. Tachycardia 4. Hyperactivity

3. Tachycardia Rationale: Clinical manifestations of iron deficiency anemia will vary with the degree of anemia but usually include extreme pallor with a porcelain-like skin, tachycardia, lethargy, and irritability.

The nurse is providing instructions regarding treatment of hemorrhoids to a client who is in the second trimester of pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? 1. "I should avoid straining during bowel movements." 2. "I can gently replace the hemorrhoids into the rectum." 3. "I can apply ice packs to the hemorrhoids to reduce the swelling." 4. "I should apply heat packs to the hemorrhoids to help the hemorrhoids shrink."

4. "I should apply heat packs to the hemorrhoids to help the hemorrhoids shrink." Rationale: Measures that provide relief from hemorrhoids include avoiding constipation and straining during bowel movements; applying ice packs to reduce the hemorrhoidal swelling; gently replacing the hemorrhoids into the rectum; using stool softeners, ointments, or sprays as prescribed; and assuming certain positions to relieve pressure on the hemorrhoids. Heat packs increase the blood flow to the area and worsen the discomfort from hemorrhoids.

The clinic nurse is providing instructions to a pregnant client regarding measures that assist in alleviating heartburn. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions? 1. "I should avoid between-meal snacks." 2. "I should lie down for an hour after eating." 3. "I should use spices for cooking rather than using salt." 4. "I should avoid eating foods that produce gas and fatty foods."

4. "I should avoid eating foods that produce gas and fatty foods." Rationale: Lying down is likely to lead to reflux of stomach contents, especially immediately after a meal. The client should be instructed to avoid spices, along with salt, because spices trigger heartburn. Salt produces edema. The client should be encouraged to eat between-meal snacks and should be instructed that to control heartburn, eating smaller, more frequent portions is preferred over eating three large meals. The client also should limit or avoid gas-producing and fatty foods.

The nurse has instructed a pregnant client in measures to prevent varicose veins during pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instructions? 1. "I should wear panty hose." 2. "I should wear support hose." 3. "I should wear flat nonslip shoes that have good support." 4. "I should wear knee-high hose, but I should not leave them on longer than 8 hours."

4. "I should wear knee-high hose, but I should not leave them on longer than 8 hours." Rationale: Varicose veins often develop in the lower extremities during pregnancy. Any constrictive clothing, such as knee-high hose, impedes venous return from the lower legs and places the client at risk for developing varicosities. The client should be encouraged to wear support hose or panty hose. Flat nonslip shoes with proper support are important to assist the pregnant woman to maintain proper posture and balance and to minimize falls.

A pregnant client asks the nurse in the clinic when she will be able to begin to feel the fetus move. The nurse responds by telling the mother that fetal movements will be noted between which weeks of gestation? 1. 6 and 8 2. 8 and 10 3. 10 and 12 4. 14 and 18

4. 14 and 18 Rationale: Quickening is fetal movement that is felt by the mother. In the multiparous woman this may occur as early as the fourteenth to sixteenth weeks. The nulliparous woman may not notice these sensations until the eighteenth week or later. Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect time frames because quickening does not occur this early during pregnancy.

The nurse is providing instructions to a pregnant client with genital herpes about the measures that are needed to protect the fetus. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client? 1. Total abstinence from sexual intercourse is necessary during the entire pregnancy. 2. Sitz baths need to be taken every 4 hours while awake if vaginal lesions are present. 3. Daily administration of acyclovir (Zovirax) is necessary during the entire pregnancy. 4. A cesarean section will be necessary if vaginal lesions are present at the time of labor.

4. A cesarean section will be necessary if vaginal lesions are present at the time of labor. Rationale: For women with active lesions, either recurrent or primary at the time of labor, delivery should be by cesarean section to prevent the fetus from being in contact with the genital herpes. The safety of acyclovir has not been established during pregnancy, and it should be used only when a life-threatening infection is present. Clients should be advised to abstain from sexual contact while the lesions are present. If this is an initial infection, clients should continue to abstain until they become culture-negative because prolonged viral shedding may occur in such cases. Keeping the genital area clean and dry promotes healing.

A topical corticosteroid is prescribed by a health care provider for a child with atopic dermatitis (eczema). Which instruction should the nurse give the parent about applying the cream? 1. Apply the cream over the entire body. 2. Apply a thick layer of cream to affected areas only. 3. Avoid cleansing the area before application of the cream. 4. Apply a thin layer of cream and rub it into the area thoroughly.

4. Apply a thin layer of cream and rub it into the area thoroughly. Rationale: Atopic dermatitis is a superficial inflammatory process involving primarily the epidermis. A topical corticosteroid may be prescribed and should be applied sparingly (thin layer) and rubbed into the area thoroughly. The affected area should be cleaned gently before application. A topical corticosteroid should not be applied over extensive areas. Systemic absorption is more likely to occur with extensive application.

Permethrin (Elimite) is prescribed for a child with a diagnosis of scabies. The nurse should give which instruction to the parents regarding the use of this treatment? 1. Apply the lotion to areas of the rash only. 2. Apply the lotion and leave it on for 6 hours. 3. Avoid putting clothes on the child over the lotion. 4. Apply the lotion to cool, dry skin at least 30 minutes after bathing

4. Apply the lotion to cool, dry skin at least 30 minutes after bathing Rationale: Permethrin is massaged thoroughly and gently into all skin surfaces (not just the areas that have the rash) from the head to the soles of the feet. Care should be taken to avoid contact with the eyes. The lotion should not be applied until at least 30 minutes after bathing and should be applied only to cool, dry skin. The lotion should be kept on for 8 to 14 hours, and then the child should be given a bath. The child should be clothed during the 8 to 14 hours of treatment contact time.

4. Apply the lotion to cool, dry skin at least 30 minutes after bathing. Rationale: Permethrin is massaged thoroughly and gently into all skin surfaces (not just the areas that have the rash) from the head to the soles of the feet. Care should be taken to avoid contact with the eyes. The lotion should not be applied until at least 30 minutes after bathing and should be applied only to cool, dry skin. The lotion should be kept on for 8 to 14 hours, and then the child should be given a bath. The child should be clothed during the 8 to 14 hours of treatment contact time.

A client arrives at the emergency department with a nosebleed. On assessment, the nurse determines that the nosebleed began suddenly and for no apparent reason. What is the initial nursing action? 1. Insert nasal packing. 2. Prepare a nasal balloon for insertion. 3. Place the client in a semi-Fowler's position, and apply ice packs to the nose. 4. Ask the client to sit down and lean forward, and apply pressure to the nose for 5 to 10 minutes.

4. Ask the client to sit down and lean forward, and apply pressure to the nose for 5 to 10 minutes. Rationale: The initial nursing action for a client with a nosebleed is to have him or her sit down, ask the client to lean forward, and apply pressure to the nose for 5 to 10 minutes. Ice or cool compresses may also be applied to the nose and face. Placing the client in semi-Fowler's position would cause swallowing of blood. Inserting nasal packing and preparing a nasal balloon are not appropriate initial interventions. A nasal packing or nasal balloon may be used if conservative measures fail.

The nurse is inserting an intravenous line into a client's vein. After the initial stick, the nurse would continue to advance the catheter in which situation? 1. The catheter advances easily. 2. The vein is distended under the needle. 3. The client does not complain of discomfort. 4. Blood return shows in the backflash chamber of the catheter.

4. Blood return shows in the backflash chamber of the catheter. Rationale: The IV catheter has entered the lumen of the vein successfully when blood backflash shows in the IV catheter. The vein should have been distended by the tourniquet before the vein was cannulated. Client discomfort varies with the client, the site, and the nurse's insertion technique and is not a reliable measure of catheter placement. The nurse should not advance the catheter until placement in the vein is verified by blood return.

A client with severe blood loss resulting from multiple trauma requires rapid transfusion of several units of blood. The nurse asks another health team member to obtain which device for use during the transfusion procedure to help reduce the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias? 1. Infusion pump 2. Pulse oximeter 3. Cardiac monitor 4. Blood-warming device

4. Blood-warming device Rationale: If several units of blood are to be administered, a blood warmer should be used. Rapid transfusion of cool blood places the client at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. To prevent this, the nurse warms the blood with a blood-warming device. Pulse oximetry and cardiac monitoring equipment are useful for the early assessment of complications but do not reduce the occurrence of cardiac dysrhythmias. Electronic infusion devices are not helpful in this case because the infusion must be rapid, and infusion devices generally are used to control the flow rate. In addition, not all infusion devices are made to handle blood or blood products.

A health care provider prescribes an intravenous (IV) solution of 5% dextrose and half-normal saline (0.45%) with 40 mEq of potassium chloride for a child with hypotonic dehydration. The nurse performs which priority assessment before administering this IV prescription? 1. Obtains a weight 2. Takes the temperature 3. Takes the blood pressure 4. Checks the amount of urine output

4. Checks the amount of urine output Rationale: In hypotonic dehydration, electrolyte loss exceeds water loss. The priority assessment before administering potassium chloride intravenously would be to assess the status of the urine output. Potassium chloride should never be administered in the presence of oliguria or anuria. If the urine output is less than 1 to 2 mL/kg/hour, potassium chloride should not be administered. Although options 1, 2, and 3 are appropriate assessments for a child with dehydration, these assessments are not related specifically to the IV administration of potassium chloride.

A client with the recent diagnosis of myocardial infarction and impaired renal function is recuperating on the step-down cardiac unit. The client's blood pressure has been borderline low and intravenous (IV) fluids have been infusing at 100 mL/hour via a central line catheter in the right internal jugular for approximately 24 hours to increase renal output and maintain the blood pressure. Upon entering the client's room, the nurse notes that the client is breathing rapidly and is coughing. The nurse determines that the client is most likely experiencing which complication of IV therapy? 1. Hematoma 2. Air embolism 3. Systemic infection 4. Circulatory overload

4. Circulatory overload Rationale: Circulatory (fluid) overload is a complication of intravenous therapy. Signs include rapid breathing, dyspnea, a moist cough, and crackles. When circulatory overload is present, the client's blood pressure also increases. Hematoma is characterized by ecchymosis, swelling, and leakage at the IV insertion site, as well as hard and painful lumps at the site. Air embolism is characterized by tachycardia, dyspnea, hypotension, cyanosis, and decreased level of consciousness. Systemic infection is characterized by chills, fever, malaise, headache, nausea, vomiting, backache, and tachycardia.

A client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) in the home setting has a weight gain of 5 lb in 1 week. The nurse should next assess the client for the presence of which condition? 1. Thirst 2. Polyuria 3. Decreased blood pressure 4. Crackles on auscultation of the lungs

4. Crackles on auscultation of the lungs Rationale: Optimal weight gain when the client is receiving PN is 1 to 2 lb/week. The client who has a weight gain of 5 lb/week while receiving PN is likely to have fluid retention. This can result in hypervolemia. Signs of hypervolemia include increased blood pressure, crackles on lung auscultation, a bounding pulse, jugular vein distention, headache, and weight gain more than desired. Thirst and polyuria are associated with hyperglycemia. A decreased blood pressure is likely to be noted in deficient fluid volume.

A client has received a transfusion of platelets. The nurse evaluates that the client is benefiting most from this therapy if the client exhibits which finding? 1. Increased hematocrit level 2. Increased hemoglobin level 3. Decline of elevated temperature to normal 4. Decreased oozing of blood from puncture sites and gums

4. Decreased oozing of blood from puncture sites and gums Rationale: Platelets are necessary for proper blood clotting. The client with insufficient platelets may exhibit frank bleeding or oozing of blood from puncture sites, wounds, and mucous membranes. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels would occur when the client has received a transfusion of red blood cells. An elevated temperature would decline to normal after infusion of granulocytes if those cells were instrumental in fighting infection in the body.

A child with b-thalassemia is receiving long-term blood transfusion therapy for the treatment of the disorder. Chelation therapy is prescribed as a result of too much iron from the transfusions. Which medication should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed? 1. Fragmin 2. Meropenem (Merrem) 3. Metoprolol (Toprol-XL) 4. Deferoxamine (Desferal)

4. Deferoxamine (Desferal) Rationale: b-Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the reduced production of one of the globin chains in the synthesis of hemoglobin (both parents must be carriers to produce a child with b-thalassemia major). The major complication of long-term transfusion therapy is hemosiderosis. To prevent organ damage from too much iron, chelation therapy with either Exjade or deferoxamine (Desferal) may be prescribed. Deferoxamine is classified as an antidote for acute iron toxicity. Fragmin is an anticoagulant used as prophylaxis for postoperative deep vein thrombosis. Meropenem is an antibiotic. Metoprolol is a b-blocker used to treat hypertension.

A 12-year-old child with newly diagnosed thalassemia is brought to the clinic exhibiting delayed sexual maturation, fatigue, anorexia, pallor, and complaints of headache. She seems listless and small for her age and has frontal bossing. What should the nurse expect to note on review of the results of the laboratory tests? 1. Macrocytosis and hyperchromia 2. Excessive red blood cell production 3. Excessive mature erythrocyte proliferation 4. Deficient production of functional hemoglobin

4. Deficient production of functional hemoglobin Rationale: Defective hemoglobin is produced as a result of genetically deficient beta-polypeptide. This hemoglobin is unstable, disintegrates, and damages the erythrocytes. Rapid destruction of the red cells stimulates rapid production of immature red cells, and the net gain is less than optimally functioning red cells. Iron from the red blood cell destruction is stored in the tissues, causing multiple problems. In thalassemia, immature erythrocytes proliferate, not mature ones. This is a progressive anemia. The nurse also would note microcytosis and hypochromia.

The nurse understands that which is a correct guideline for adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) for a health care provider (HCP)? 1. One breath should be given for every five compressions. 2. Two breaths should be given for every 15 compressions. 3. Initially, two quick breaths should be given as rapidly as possible. 4. Each rescue breath should be given over 1 second and should produce a visible chest rise.

4. Each rescue breath should be given over 1 second and should produce a visible chest rise. Rationale: In adult CPR, each rescue breath should be given over 1 second and should produce a visible chest rise. Excessive ventilation (too many breaths per minute or breaths that are too large or forceful) may be harmful and should not be performed. HCPs should employ a 30:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio for the adult victim.

A school-age child with type 1 diabetes mellitus has soccer practice three afternoons a week. The school nurse provides instructions regarding how to prevent hypoglycemia during practice. Which should the school nurse tell the child to do? 1. Eat twice the amount normally eaten at lunchtime. 2. Take half the amount of prescribed insulin on practice days. 3. Take the prescribed insulin at noontime rather than in the morning. 4. Eat a small box of raisins or drink a cup of orange juice before soccer practice.

4. Eat a small box of raisins or drink a cup of orange juice before soccer practice. Rationale: Hypoglycemia is a blood glucose level less than 70 mg/dL and results from too much insulin, not enough food, or excessive activity. An extra snack of 15 to 30 g of carbohydrates eaten before activities such as soccer practice would prevent hypoglycemia. A small box of raisins or a cup of orange juice provides 15 to 30 g of carbohydrates. The child or parents should not be instructed to adjust the amount or time of insulin administration. Meal amounts should not be doubled.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a pregnant client with a diagnosis of severe preeclampsia. The nurse reviews the assessment findings and determines that which finding is most closely associated with a complication of this diagnosis? 1. Enlargement of the breasts 2. Complaints of feeling hot when the room is cool 3. Periods of fetal movement followed by quiet periods 4. Evidence of bleeding, such as in the gums, petechiae, and purpura

4. Evidence of bleeding, such as in the gums, petechiae, and purpura Rationale: Severe preeclampsia can trigger disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) because of the widespread damage to vascular integrity. Bleeding is an early sign of DIC and should be reported to the health care provider if noted on assessment. Options 1, 2, and 3 are normal occurrences in the last trimester of pregnancy.

The clinic nurse instructs parents of a child with sickle cell anemia about the precipitating factors related to sickle cell crisis. Which, if identified by the parents as a precipitating factor, indicates the need for further instructions? 1. Stress 2. Trauma 3. Infection 4. Fluid overload

4. Fluid overload Rationale: Sickle cell crises are acute exacerbations of the disease, which vary considerably in severity and frequency; these include vaso-occlusive crisis, splenic sequestration, hyperhemolytic crisis, and aplastic crisis. Sickle cell crisis may be precipitated by infection, dehydration, hypoxia, trauma, or physical or emotional stress. The mother of a child with sickle cell disease should encourage fluid intake of 1½ to 2 times the daily requirement to prevent dehydration.

The health care provider (HCP) is assessing the client for the presence of ballottement. To make this determination, the HCP should take which action? 1. Auscultate for fetal heart sounds. 2. Assess the cervix for compressibility. 3. Palpate the abdomen for fetal movement. 4. Initiate a gentle upward tap on the cervix.

4. Initiate a gentle upward tap on the cervix. Rationale: Ballottement is a technique of palpating a floating structure by bouncing it gently and feeling it rebound. In the technique used to palpate the fetus, the examiner places a finger in the vagina and taps gently upward, causing the fetus to rise. The fetus then sinks, and the examiner feels a gentle tap on the finger. Options 1, 2, and 3 are not assessment techniques to check for ballottement. Option 2 is related to Hegar's sign. Options 1 and 3 are a part of fetal assessment.

The nurse analyzes the laboratory results of a child with hemophilia. The nurse understands that which result will most likely be abnormal in this child? 1. Platelet count 2. Hematocrit level 3. Hemoglobin level 4. Partial thromboplastin time

4. Partial thromboplastin time Rationale: Hemophilia refers to a group of bleeding disorders resulting from a deficiency of specific coagulation proteins. Results of tests that measure platelet function are normal; results of tests that measure clotting factor function may be abnormal. Abnormal laboratory results in hemophilia indicate a prolonged partial thromboplastin time. The platelet count, hemoglobin level, and hematocrit level are normal in hemophilia.

The nurse is assisting a health care provider with the removal of a chest tube. The nurse should instruct the client to take which action? 1. Exhale slowly. 2. Stay very still. 3. Inhale and exhale quickly. 4. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.

4. Perform the Valsalva maneuver. Rationale: When the chest tube is removed, the client is asked to perform the Valsalva maneuver (take a deep breath, exhale, and bear down). The tube is quickly withdrawn, and an airtight dressing is taped in place. An alternative instruction is to ask the client to take a deep breath and hold the breath while the tube is removed.

The nursing instructor asks a nursing student to describe the procedure for performing abdominal thrusts on an unconscious pregnant woman at 32 weeks' gestation. The student describes a component of the procedure correctly if the student states that he will take which action? 1. Place his hands on the pelvis to perform the thrusts. 2. Perform abdominal thrusts until the object is dislodged. 3. Perform left lateral abdominal thrusts until the object is dislodged. 4. Place a rolled blanket under the right abdominal flank and hip area.

4. Place a rolled blanket under the right abdominal flank and hip area. Rationale: If an unconscious woman in an advanced gestational stage of pregnancy has a foreign body airway obstruction, the woman is placed on her back. A wedge, such as a pillow or rolled blanket, is placed under the right abdominal flank and hip to displace the uterus to the left side of the abdomen. This prevents supine hypotension that can occur if the gravid uterus rests on the vena cava. The rescuer then attempts ventilations; if ventilation is unsuccessful, the rescuer positions the hands as for chest compressions and delivers firm chest thrusts to remove the obstruction. Placing the hands on the pelvis or abdomen and performing left lateral abdominal thrusts are ineffective and could be harmful.

Laboratory studies are performed for a child suspected to have iron deficiency anemia. The nurse reviews the laboratory results, knowing that which result indicates this type of anemia? 1. Elevated hemoglobin level 2. Decreased reticulocyte count 3. Elevated red blood cell count 4. Red blood cells that are microcytic and hypochromic

4. Red blood cells that are microcytic and hypochromic Rationale: In iron deficiency anemia, iron stores are depleted, resulting in a decreased supply of iron for the manufacture of hemoglobin in red blood cells. The results of a complete blood cell count in children with iron deficiency anemia show decreased hemoglobin levels and microcytic and hypochromic red blood cells. The red blood cell count is decreased. The reticulocyte count is usually normal or slightly elevated.

The nurse on the pediatric unit is caring for a child with hemophilia who has been in a motor vehicle crash. Which assessment finding, if noted in the child, indicates the need for follow-up? 1. The child maintains affected joints in an immobilized position and denies pain at this time. 2. The child's urine is noted to be clear and light yellow and is negative for red blood cells (RBCs). 3. The child maintains bruised joints in an elevated position; the bruises noted are beginning to turn yellow. 4. The child is drowsy and difficult to arouse; previously the child was able to respond to questions effectively.

4. The child is drowsy and difficult to arouse; previously the child was able to respond to questions effectively. Rationale: When caring for a child with hemophilia who has sustained injuries, the nurse should monitor for signs of internal bleeding. One sign of internal bleeding is change in level of consciousness, which could indicate intracranial hemorrhage. Additional signs of bleeding include pain, tenderness, and bruising of the affected area and hematuria. Denial of pain of affected joints, clear and light yellow urine that is negative for RBCs, and bruises that are beginning to turn yellow are not signs of internal or external bleeding.

The home care nurse visits a pregnant client who has a diagnosis of mild preeclampsia. Which assessment finding indicates a worsening of the preeclampsia and the need to notify the health care provider? 1. Urinary output has increased. 2. Dependent edema has resolved. 3. Blood pressure reading is at the prenatal baseline. 4. The client complains of a headache and blurred vision.

4. The client complains of a headache and blurred vision. Rationale: If the client complains of a headache and blurred vision, the HCP should be notified because these are signs of worsening preeclampsia. Options 1, 2, and 3 are normal signs.

The nurse is administering care to a client immediately after nephrectomy and renal transplantation. The nurse administers intravenous fluids as prescribed, knowing that the hourly rate is usually calculated on the basis of which guideline? 1. A strict hourly rate of 100 mL 2. A strict hourly rate of 150 mL 3. One half of the previous hour's urine output 4. The number of milliliters in the previous hour's urine output

4. The number of milliliters in the previous hour's urine output Rationale: Intravenous fluids are managed very carefully after nephrectomy and renal transplantation. Fluids are usually given according to a formula that takes into account the previous hour's urine output. The desired urine output is generally high; therefore options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect.

A diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease is suspected in a 12-year-old child seen in a clinic. Several diagnostic studies are performed to determine the presence of this disease. Which diagnostic test result will confirm the diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease? 1. Elevated vanillylmandelic acid urinary levels 2. The presence of blast cells in the bone marrow 3. The presence of Epstein-Barr virus in the blood 4. The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in the lymph nodes

4. The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in the lymph nodes Rationale: Hodgkin's disease (a type of lymphoma) is a malignancy of the lymph nodes. The presence of giant, multinucleated cells (Reed-Sternberg cells) is the classic characteristic of this disease. Elevated levels of vanillylmandelic acid in the urine may be found in children with neuroblastoma. The presence of blast cells in the bone marrow indicates leukemia. Epstein-Barr virus is associated with infectious mononucleosis.

The nurse attempts to relieve an airway obstruction in a 3-year-old conscious child. The nurse performs the abdominal thrust maneuver correctly by standing behind the child, placing her arms under the child's axillae and around the child, and positioning her hands to deliver the thrusts between which areas? 1. Groin and the abdomen 2. Umbilicus and the groin 3. Lower abdomen and the chest 4. Umbilicus and the xiphoid process

4. Umbilicus and the xiphoid process Rationale: To perform abdominal thrusts on a child, the rescuer stands behind the victim and places the arms directly under the victim's axillae and around the victim. The rescuer places the thumb side of one fist against the victim's abdomen in the midline, slightly above the umbilicus and well below the tip of the xiphoid process. The rescuer grasps the fist with the other hand and delivers up to five thrusts. One must take care not to touch the xiphoid process or the lower margins of the rib cage because force applied to these structures may damage internal organs.

A client is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN). The nurse monitors the client for complications of the therapy and should assess the client for which manifestations of hyperglycemia? 1. Fever, weak pulse, and thirst 2. Nausea, vomiting, and oliguria 3. Sweating, chills, and abdominal pain 4. Weakness, thirst, and increased urine output

4. Weakness, thirst, and increased urine output

The nurse, listening to the morning report, learns that an assigned client received a unit of granulocytes the previous evening. The nurse makes a note to assess the results of which daily serum laboratory studies to assess the effectiveness of the transfusion? 1. Hematocrit level 2. Erythrocyte count 3. Hemoglobin level 4. White blood cell count

4. White blood cell count Rationale: The client who has neutropenia may receive a transfusion of granulocytes, or white blood cells. These clients often have severe infections and are unresponsive to antibiotic therapy. The nurse notes the results of follow-up white blood cell counts and differential to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy. The nurse also continues to monitor the client for signs and symptoms of infection. Erythrocyte count and hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are determined after transfusion of packed red blood cells.

The school nurse is conducting pediculosis capitis (head lice) assessments. Which finding indicates a child has a "positive" head check? 1. Maculopapular lesions behind the ears 2. Lesions in the scalp that extend to the hairline or neck 3. White flaky particles throughout the entire scalp region 4. White sacs attached to the hair shafts in the occipital area

4. White sacs attached to the hair shafts in the occipital area Rationale: Pediculosis capitis is an infestation of the hair and scalp with lice. The nits are visible and attached firmly to the hair shaft near the scalp. The occiput is an area in which nits can be seen. Maculopapular lesions behind the ears or lesions that extend to the hairline or neck are indicative of an infectious process, not pediculosis. White flaky particles are indicative of dandruff.

A child is scheduled to receive immunizations. The child's mother reports to the nurse that the child has been receiving long-term immunosuppressive therapy. The nurse prepares the scheduled immunizations knowing that which vaccine is contraindicated? 1. Hepatitis B 2. MMR (measles-mumps-rubella) 3. Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type b) 4. DTaP (diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis)

Rationale: Known altered immunodeficiency from long-term immunosuppressive therapy is a contraindication to MMR immunization because a live vaccine is given. The vaccines identified in options 1, 3, and 4 are not live vaccines and can be administered.

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