CompTIA Network+ N10-008

Where might you set the lease duration for a DHCP server that is servicing many clients in the network? a. The zone record b. Scope options c. The DHCP forwarder d. The relay agent

a.

Which IEEE 802.11 variant supports a maximum speed of 54 Mbps and uses the 2.4GHz band? a. 802.11a b. 802.11b c. 802.11g d. 802.11n

a.

Which agreement would need to be read carefully and signed by an end user in the sales department regarding the technology they were granted access to? a. AUP b. SLA c. PUA d. Vacation policy

a.

Which of the following are reported when packets are larger than 1500 bytes? a. encapsulation errors b. Giants c. Runts d. OIDs

a.

Which of the following are terms for a small entry area with two interlocking doors that prevents tailgating/piggybacking? (choose two) a. smart locker b. access control vestibule c. Mantrap d. Configuration wipe

a.

Which of the following can be a major issue for fiber-optic media? a. incorrect pin outs b. dirty optical media c. EMI d. dB loss

a.

Which of the following is a distance-vector routing protocol with a maximum usable hop count of 15? a. BGP b. EIGRP c. RIP d. OSPF

a.

Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm available in 128-bit, 192-bit, and 256-bit key versions? a. RSA b. 3DES c. AES d. TKIP

a.

Which of the following is not a common physical security prevention method? a. Motion detection b. Employee training c. Locking Racks d. Access control Vestibule

a.

Which of the following is not a network hardening best practice? a. Use SNMPv3 b. Disable unneeded services c. Implement role-based access d. Change to default passwords

a.

Which of the following is not a typical best practice in a password policy? a. Expire passwords regularly b. Use of uppercase and lowercase letters only in passwords c. Require password uniqueness d. Ban use of proper names in passwords

a.

Which of the following provides excellent search tools to leverage a large data-base of publicly known information security vulnerabilities and exposures? a. ACL b. AWS c. SHA-256 d. CVE

a.

What device can act as both a content cache and a URL filter and is typically configured in the client browser of an end-user system? a. Wireless LAN controller b. Media converter c. Proxy server d. IPS

b.

What do most public networks, including WiFi hotspots, use to require users to agree to some condition before they use the network or internet? a. PSKs b. Proper antenna placement c. Appropriate signal power levels d. Captive portalssw

b.

What is the IEEE standard for link aggregation? a. 802.1Q b. 802.3ad c. 802.1d d. 802.3af

b.

What is the name of the DHCP message that a client sends when it needs to obtain IP address information? This message is the first step in the four-way DHCP process. a. DHCP OFFER b. DHCP REQUEST c. DHCP DISCOVER d. DHCP ACK

b.

What is the term for unpredictable variation in delay in a modern network? a. Congestion b. Contention c. Jitter d. Serialization delay

b.

What name is given to a VLAN on an IEEE 802.1Q trunk whose frames are not tagged? a. Native VLAN b. Default VLAN c. Management VLAN d. VLAN 0

b.

What port and protocol are used by NTP? (choose two) a. TCP b. UDP c. 69 d. 443 e. 123

b.

What switch feature allows you to connect a network sniffer to a switch port and tells the switch to send a copy of frames seen on one port out the port to which your network sniffer is connected? a. Port interception b. Port duplexing c. Port mirroring d. Port redirect

b.

What type of "as a service" model features a powerful cloud environment targeted developers who need to test and deploy updates to their application? a. Iaas b. Saas c. Paas. d. Daas

b.

When you're using the 2.4GHz band for multiple access points in a WLAN in the United States, which nonoverlapping channels should you select? (choose two) a. 0 b. 1 c. 5 d. 5 e. 10 f. 11 g. 14

b.

Which layer of the three-tiered model is concerned with speed? a. Access/edge b. Distribution/aggregation c. Policy d. Core

b.

Which network infrastructure device primarily makes forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 MAC addresses? a. Router b. Switch c. Hub d. Multilayer switch

d.

Which of the following are applied to physical network assets to permit location monitoring for these devices? a. Badge readers b. Locking racks c. Asset tags d. ACLS

d.

Which of the following is an example of a social engineering attack? a. DDos attack b. DoS attack c. Piggybacking d. On-path attack

d.

Which of the following topologies offers the highest level of redundancy? A. Full mesh B. Hub and spoke C. Bus D. Partial mesh

A. Full mesh

Which approach to bandwidth usage consumes all the available frequencies on a medium to transmit data? A. Broadband B. Baseband C. Time-division multiplexing D. Simplex

B. Baseband

What fiber type would you use if the requirements to be met included an SMF media type, 1Gbps bandwidth capacity, and a distance limitation of 5km? A. 1000BASE-LX B. 1000BASE-SX C. 1000BASE-TX D. Thicknet

A. 1000BASE-LX

A client with IP address 172.16.18.5/18 belongs to what networks? A. 172.16.0.0/18 B. 172.16.64.0/18 C. 172.16.96.0/18 D. 172.16.128.0/18

A. 172.16.0.0/18

How many assignable IP addresses exist in the 172.16.1.10/27 network? A. 30 B. 32 C. 14 D. 64

A. 30

What is a common fiber-optic cable management component for terminating many connections? A. A fiber distribution panel B. An IDF C. A 110 block D. A plenum

A. A fiber distribution panel

Which of the following are dynamic approaches to assigning routable IP addresses to networked devices? (Choose two.) A. BOOTP B. APIPA C. Zeroconf D. DHCP

A. BOOTP & B. APIPA

What is the class of IP address 10.1.2.3/24? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D

A. Class A

Which of the following are advantages of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology as compared to a full-mesh WAN topology? (Choose two) A. Lower cost B. Optimal routes C. More scalable D. More redundancy

A. Lower Cost + C. More scalable

IP addresses reside at which layer of the OSI reference model? A. Network layer B. Session layer C. Data link layer D. Transport layer

A. Network Layer

When you are configuring PAT as part of your address translation configuration, what is the source IP address used for translation with a large potential number of inside hosts? a. The IP address on the physical outside interface b. the IP address on a loopback interface c. The IP address on the physical interface with the lowest interface identifier d. The IP address automatically assigned to the backplane on the device

A. The IP address on the physical outside interface

What is the range of well-known TCP and UDP ports? A. Below 2048 B. Below 1024 C. 16,384--32,768 D. Above 8192

B. Below 1024

Which of the following categories of UTP cabling are commonly used for 1000BASE-T networks? (Choose two.) A. Cat 5 B. Cat 5e C. Cat 6 D. Cat 6f

B. Cat 5e + C. Cat 6

What technology allows for the automatic assignment of the host portion of an IPv6 address? a. Dual stack b. EUI-64 c. Neighbor discovery d. Anycast

B. EUI-64

What is the binary representation of the decimal number 117? A. 10110101 B. 01110101 C. 10110110 D. 01101001

B. 01110101

How many WAN links are required to create a full mesh of connections between five remote sites? A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

B. 10

What is the speed of Fast Ethernet? A. 1Mbps B. 100Mbps C. 1 Gbps D. 10 Gbps

B. 100 Mbps

What port number is used by HTTPS? A. 80 B. 443 C. 69 D. 23

B. 443

What DSL variant has a distance limitation of 18,000 feet between a DSL modem and its DSLAM? A. HDSL B. ADSL C. SDSL D. VDSL

B. ADSL

What happens to data as it moves from the upper layers to the lower layers of the OSI model on a host system? A. The data moves from the physical layer to the application layer B. The data is encapsulated with a header at the beginning and a trailer at the end C. The header and trailer are stripped off through decapsulation D. The data is sent in groups of segments that require two acknowledgments

B. FTP

Which of the following is an advantage of a peer-to-peer network as compared with a client/server network? A. More scalable B. Less expensive C. Better performance D. Simplified administration

B. Less expensive

What setting ultimately controls the size of packets that are moving through the modern network? A. TTL B. MTU C. SSH D. CSMA/CD

B. MTU

Which type of cable might be required for installation in a drop ceiling that is used as an open-air return duct? A. Riser B. Plenum C. Multimode D. Twinaxial

B. Plenum

Which of the following is the eight-pin connector found in most ethernet networks? A. RJ11 B. RJ45 C. DB-9 D. ST

B. RJ45

Which technology allows enterprises to leverage a combination of transport services such as MPLS, 5G, LTE, or broadband to securely connect users to applications? A. mGRE B. SD-WAN C. Smartjack D. Demarcation

B. SD-WAN

What are the two major categories of fiber-optic media? (Choose two.) A. Straight-through B. Single-mode C. Un shielded D. Multi mode

B. Single-mode + D. Multi mode

Which standards were developed to define industry-standard pinouts and color coding for twisted-pair cabling? (Choose two) A. CWDM B. TIA/EIA-568A C. DWDM D. TIA/EIA-568B

B. TIA/RIA-568A + D. TIA/EIA568B

Your company has been assigned the 192.168.30.0/24 network for use at one of its sites. You need to use a subnet mask that will accommodate seven subnets while simultaneously accommodating the maximum number of hosts per subnet. What subnet mask should you use? A. /24 B. /26 C. /27 D. /28

C. /27

What is the prefix notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.240? A. /20 B. /24 C. /28 D. /29

C. /28

How can the following IPv6 address be condensed? 2009:0123:4040:0000:0000:000:000A:100B a. 2009::123:404:A:100B b. 2009::123:404:A:1B c. 2009:123:4040::A:100B d. 2009:0123:4040::0::000A:100B

C. 2009:123:4040::A:100B

What Ethernet UTP cable was the first standard cable to carry data at speeds of 1Gbps? A. Cat 4 B. Cat 5 C. Cat 5e D. Cat 6

C. Cat 5e

What type of connector is often used for cable TV (including cable modem) connections? A. Krone B. BLX C. F-type D. UPC

C. F-type

A network formed by interconnecting a PC to a digital camera via a USB cable is considered what type of network? A. WAN B. CAN C. PAN D. MAN

C. PANWhich

Which type of network is based on network cilents sharing resources with one another? A. Client/server B. Client/peer C. Peer-to-peer D. Peer-to-server

C. Peer-to-peer

Which of the following physical LAN topologies requires the most cabling? A. Bus B. Ring C. Star D. WLAN

C. Star

What value is decremented by one for each router hop on the network? A. Count B. Type C. TTL D. Dead timer

C. TTL

Windowing is provided at what layer of the OSI reference model? A. Data link layer B. Network layer C. Transport layer D. Physical layer

C. Transport Layer

Which of the following is a connectionless transport layer protocol? A. IP B. TCP C.UDP D. SIP

C. UDP

What type of site provides a nearly identical level of service to the organization's main site, with virtually no downtime? a. Warm b. Cold c. Hot d. Remote

a.

What is decimal equivalent of the binary number 10110100? A. 114 B. 190 C. 172 D. 180

D. 180

Which layer of the OSI reference model contains the MAC and LLC sublayers? A. Network Layer B. Transport Layer C. Physical Layer D. Data Link Layer

D. Data Link Layer

Which layer of the OSI reference model is responsible for ensuring that frames do not exceed the maximum transmission unit (MTU) of the physical media? A. Network layer B. Transport layer C. Physical layer D. Data link layer

D. Data link layer

What kind of network do many cable companies use to service their cable modems with both fiber-optic and coaxial cabling? A. Head-end B. DOCSIS C. Composite D. HFC

D. HFC

Which of these components is used to make virtualization possible in the server environment by permitting multiple systems to use the underlying hardware of the house system? A. vNIC B. vSwitch C. SD-WAN D. Hypervisor

D. Hypervisor

A company has various locations in a city interconnected using Metro Ethernet connections. This is an example of what type of network? A. WAN B. CAN C. PAN D. MAN

D. MAN

What type of IPv4 address is 239.1.2.3? A. Unicast B. Experimental C. Private use only D. Multicast

D. Multicast

What network type would help facilitate communications when large video or audio files need to be hosted and transferred through the network? A. WLAN B. CAN C. PAN D. SAN

D. SAN

Windowing is a technology that applies to which transport layer protocol? A. UDP B. FTP C. ICMP D. TCP

D. TCP

What QoS tool seeks to smooth out bandwidth utilization by buffering excess packets? a. Traffic policing b. Traffic shaping c. Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) d. Integrated Services(IntServ)

a.

What are the main categories of SNMP message types? (choose three) a. Get b. Put c. Set d. Trap

a.

What syslog level is used for informational messages? a. 0 b. 8 c. 7 d. 6

a.

What type of attack often seeks payment in bitcoin or other cryptocurrency? a. Malware b. DDoS c. Ransomware d. DNS poisioning

a.

BGP is an example of a technology found in what layer/plane of operation in a modern network? a. Management b. Control c. Data d. Policy

a.

If a WLAN does not need a user to give credentials to associate with a wireless AP and access the WLAN, what type of authentication is in use? A WEP B SSID C Open D IV

a.

As you monitor a key area of your network, you discover that the average latency spans a wide range. You are seeing some periods of 50 ms and others of 300 ms. What is the term for this type of variation in delay? a. CRC b. DSCP c. WRED d. Jitter

a.

Which of the following statements are true regarding VLANs? (choose two) a. a VLAN has a single broadcast domain b. For traffic to pass between two VLANs, that traffic must be routed c. Because of a switch's MAC address table, traffic does not need to be routed to pass between two VLANs d. a VLAN has a single collision domain

a.

what mode of NIC redundancy has only one NIC active at a time? a. Publisher-subscriber b. Client-server c. Active-passive d. Active-subscriber

a.

which of the following terms are directly related to the weakening or loss of a signal as it travels farther down the network media? (choose two) a. attenuation b. throughput c. OTDR d. interference e. decibel (dB) loss

a.

What kind of media is used by 100GBASE-SR10 Ethernet? a. UTP b. MMF c. STP d. SMF

a. & b.

Which incoming email protocols are encrypted and secure because they use SSL/TLS sessions? (choose two) a. POP3 over SSL b. IMAPS c. SMTP d. POP

a. & b.

A router operating at Layer 3 primarily makes its forwarding decisions based on what address? a. Destination MAC address b. Source IP address c. Source MAC address d. Destination IP address

a. & c.

What port and protocol are used to HTTPS? (choose two) a. TCP b. UDP c. 443 d. 123 e. 8080 d. 80

a. & c.

which two of the following are common techniques used when disposing of assets in an enterprise environment? (choose two) a. factory reset b. baselining c. configuration backup d. configuration wipe

a. & c.

What type of cable must be used for PoE with network devices? a. Cta 5e or greater b. Cat 3 or greater c. Cat 5 or greater d. cat 4 or greater

a. & c. & d.

Which Syslog level is the most severe? a. Informational b. Critical c. Errors d. Warnings

a. & c. & d.

which of the following comprise a simplified troubleshooting flow? (choose three) a. problem resolution b. problem monitoring c. problem diagnosis d. problem report

a. & d.

Which of the following are the most common sources of radio frequency interference (RFI) in a wireless network? (choose three) a. gaming consoles b. fax machines c. microwave ovens b. baby monitors e. bluetooth

a. & e.

What can IPv6 networks use to assign IP addresses? a. SLAAC b. CIDR c. Port address translation d. Classless inter-domain routing notation

a. SLAAC

A WLAN formed directly between wireless clients (without the use of a wireless AP) is referred to as what type of WLAN? a. enterprise mode b. IBSS c. Personal mode d. BSS

b.

How can you fix a duplex mismatch? a. Enable auto negotiation b. Change the link state to go up c. Adjust the protocol and packet byte counts d. reduce the humidity level

b.

How is connectivity for the Cisco ACI spine and leaf model implemented? a. Each spine device connects to every other device b. Each leaf device connects to each spine device c. Each spine device connects to every other spine device. d. Each leaf device must connect to each other leaf device

b.

If two devices simultaneously transmit data on an Ethernet network and a collision occurs, what does each station do in an attempt to resend the data and avoid another collision? a. Each device compares the other device's priority value (determined by IP address) with its own, and the device with the highest priority value transmits first. b. each device waits for a clear-to-send(CTS) signal from the switch. c. each device randomly picks a priority value, and the device with the highest value transmits first. d. each device sets a random back-off timer, and a device attempts retransmission after the timer expires.

b.

In a switch that has 12 ports, how many collision domains does the switch have? a. None b. 1 c. 2 d. 12

b.

In order to measure high availability (HA), you need to know the average amount of time that passes between hardware component failures. What is this called? a. MTTR b. RPO c. RTO d. MTBF

b.

In topology running STP, every network segment has a single _______ port, which is the port on that segment that is closest to the root bridge in terms of cost. a. root b. designated c. nondesignated d. nonroot

b.

SNMP used a series of objects to collect information about a managed device. What is the name of the structure, similar to a database, that contains these objects? a. RIB b. MIB c. Syslog d. Baseline

b.

The RSVP protocol is associated with which overall approach to QoS in a modern network? a. DiffServ b. IntServ c. FIFO d. Best effort

b.

What aspect of modern cybersecurity focuses on ensuring that data has not been manipulated in transit? a. Intergrity b. Confidentialty c. Authentication d. Availability

b.

What convergence technology seeks to unify the SAN and the LAN? A. Fibre Channel b. IB c. iSCSI d. FCoE

b.

Which layer of the three-tiered model is most likely to feature large amounts of security and load balancing and is also often responsible for setting policy? a. Access/edge b. Distribution/aggregation c. Workstation d. Core

b.

Which metric provides the best idea of how a wireless network is actually performing? a. throughput b. speed c. relative jitter d. availability

b.

Which network assurance tool would most likely feature the use of a collector? a. NetFlow b. SNMP c. nmap d. traceroute

b.

Which of the following are popular options when it comes to ensuring security of cloud-based data in transit? (choose two) a. Public internet b. VPN c. Direct private connection d. RDP

b.

Which of the following does IEEE 802.11n use to achieve high throughput using multiple antennas for transmission and reception? a. MIMO b. DSSS c. FHSS d. LACP

b.

Which of the following is a VoIP signaling protocol used to set up, maintain, and tear down VoIP phone calls? a. MX b. RJ-45 c. SIP d. IMAP

b.

Which of the following is a device that is meant to attract security attacks? a. SIEM b. Next Generation Firewall c. IPS d. Honeypot

b.

Which security technique uses wireless technologies to create an invisible boundary around some point? a. WPA3 b. LTE c. War driving d. Geofencing

b.

You are discussing a legally binding document that organizations might require of both their own employees and anyone else who comes into contact with confidential information. What is this document called? a. NA b. DLP c. SOP d. MOU

b.

You are using a network firewall in your enterprise infrastructure. This firewall requires you to define which connections are permitted outbound. Once you do so, the appropriate and expected return data flows are dynamically allowed through the firewall. What firewall characteristic does this scenario describe? a. Stateless b. Stateful c. Deterministic d. Zone-based

b.

You have a link between two network interfaces (devices) that is operating inefficiently. What would most likely be the cause of this problem? a. Incorrect pinout b. bad ports c. duplex mismatch d. failed NIC

b.

You have created written instructions that detail organizational procedures to be followed what an employee leaves that organization or is terminated. What type of document is this? a. Data loss prevention policy b. Service-level agreement c. Onboarding procedures d. Offboarding procedures

b.

You need to connect two older switches that do not have auto-MDIX ports. What should you use? a. Console cable b. Crossover cable c. PoE cable d. Loopback adapter

b.

You need to establish an authenticated and encrypted connection between a client and a host system. What should you use? a. Telnet b. SSH c. LDAP d. LDAPS

b.

what might you want to investigate if you can reach a web server by using its IP address but not its name? a. NTP b. DHCP c. DNS d. ARP

b.

What routing protocol characteristic indicates the believability of the routing protocol (compared to other routing protocols)? a. Weight b. Metric c. Administrative distance d. SPF algorithm

b. & c.

Which cloud characteristic refers to the ability to dynamically scale resources as needed during times of great demand as well as in times of low demand? a. Scalability b. Elasticity c. On-demand d. Centralized

b. & c.

Which of the following is a client/server authentication protocol that supports mutual authentication between a client and a server and hands out tickets that are used instead of a username and password combination? a. TACACS+ b. RADIUS c. Kerberos d. LDAP

b. & c.

which networking troubleshooting methodology step would include establishing a new theory or escalating if the theory is not confirmed? a. step 1: identify the problem b. step 4: establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects c. step 2: establish a theory of probable cause d. step 3: test the theory to determine the cause

b. & c.

You are tasked with locating a backup facility for your organization to use in the vent of a disaster. You have a slim budget, and the facility needs to include electricity, bathrooms, and space. Which type of recovery site suits your requirements? a. Hot site b. Cold site c. Warm site d. Cloud site

b. & c. & d.

What is the port and protocol used by syslog? (choose two) a. TCP b. UDP c. 148 d. 240

b. & d.

What type of antenna, used in wireless APs and wireless routers in SOHO locations, radiates power equally in all directions? a. Unidirectional b. Yagi c. Parabolic d. Omnidirectional

b. & d. & f.

What value in DNS dictates how long a DNS server or client might cache DNS name resolution information? a. Hop count b. Increment duration c. Backoff timer d. TTL

b. & e.

What specifically does NAT allow to be translated into internet-routable IP addresses? a. Virtual IP addresses b. RFC 1918 private IP addresses c. APIPA addresses d. Variable-length subnet masks

b. RFC 1918 private IP adresses

what protocol is considered the de facto standard when it comes to secure access to remote systems for management purposes? a. Telnet b. SSH c. IPSec d. IMAP

b. SSH

An incident response policy often ends with which phase? a. Prepare b. Contain c. Review d. Eradicate

c.

If a network has "five nines" of availability, what is its maximum downtime per year? a. 30 seconds b. 5 minutes c. 12 minutes d. 26 minutes

c.

In what type of attack does the attacker compromise multiple systems and then instruct those compromised systems, called zombies, to simultaneously flood a target system with traffic? a. DoS attack b. TCP SYN flood attack c. Buffer overflow d. DDos attack

c.

In what type of attack does the attacker try all possible password combinations until a match is made? a. dictionary attack b. MAC spoofing c. IP spoofing d. Brute-force attack

c.

What is the maximum amount of power a switch is allowed to provide per port, according to the IEEE 802.3af standard? a. 7.7W b. 15.4W c. 26.4W d. 32.4W

c.

What is the network address and subnet mask of a default route? a. 255.255.255.255/32 b. 0.0.0.0/32 c. 255.255.255.255/0 d. 0.0.0.0/0

c.

What networking device often uses signatures to help protect a network from known malicious attacks> a. wireless LAN controller b. Media converter c. Proxy server d. IPS

c.

What performance optimization technology involves a network appliance that can receive a copy of content stored elsewhere (for example, a video presentation located on a server at a corporate headquarters) and serves that content to local clients, thus reducing the bandwidth burden on an IP WAN? a. Content engine b. Load balancer c. LACP d. CARP

c.

What protocol do ping and traceroute use in their operations? a. IPSec b. DNS c. ICMP d. DHCP

c.

What protocol makes 802.1X possible? a. SSH b. Telnet c. SNMPv3 d. EAP

c.

What should you follow closely when installing new network equipment? a. YouTube videos b. Certified training courses c. Installation and maintenance guides d. IETF guidelines

c.

What technology do WiFi devices use to decide when they gain access to the wireless media? a. SPF b. CSMA/CA c. RSTP d. DUAL

c.

What type of backup solution is a point-in-time, read-only copy of data?b a. Differential b. Incremental c. Snapshot d. Virtual

c.

What type of cloud deployment model features many customers consuming resources from a single provider? a. Public b. Private c. Community d. Hybrid

c.

When extending the range for 2.4GHz WLAN, you can use nonoverlapping channels for adjacent coverage calls. However, there should be some overlap in coverage between those cells (using nonoverlapping channels) to prevent a connection from dropping as a user roams from one coverage cell to another. What percentage of coverage overlap is recommended for these adjacent cells? a. 5% to 10% b. 10% to 15% c. 15% to 20% d. 20% to 25%

c.

Which of the following are distance-vector routing protocol features that can prevent routing loops? (choose two) a. reverse path forwarding (RPF) check b. Split horizon c. Poison reverse d. Rendezvous point

c.

Which of the following is not a common physical security detection method or tool? a. camera b. asset tag c. tamper detection d. biometrics

c.

Which of the following is not an area typically targeted by a data loss prevention policy? a. Cloud level b. Network level c. Client level d. Storage level

c.

Which of the following provides with real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware and can log security data and generate reports for compliance purposes? a. SIEM system b. Screened subnet c. VRF instance d. Defense in depth

c.

Which of the following routing protocols is an EGP? a. BGP b. EIGRP c. RIP d. OSPF

c.

Which of the following statements are true regarding backups? (select three) a. The difference between incremental and differential backups is that a differential backup includes all data that has changed since the last incremental backup. b. A differential backup includes all data that has changed since the last full backup c. An incremental is incomplete for full recovery without a full backup and all incremental backups since the last full backup d. A full backup is the safest and most comprehensive way to ensure data availability, but it can be time-consuming and costly.

c.

Which term refers to your company's data being stored on shared physical servers in the public cloud infrastructure? a. Infrastructure as code b. Multitenancy c. Automation d. Orchestration

c.

to what subnet dpes a host with the IP address 172.15.155.10/18 belong? a. 172.16.0.0/18 b. 172.16.96.0/18 c. 172.16.128.0/18 d. 172.16.154.0/18

c.

what step is most likely to follow the "create an action plan" step in a structured troubleshooting methodology? a. verify problem resolution b. test the hypothesis c. define the problem d. hypothesize the possible cause

c.

which types of cables would you install to meet most building codes today and prevent fires and poisonous gases from spreading? (choose two) a. UTP rated b. rollover rated c. plenum rated d. riser rated

c.

Which of the following is a value measuring the power of a wireless signal? a. RSSI b. SSID c. RFI d. CSMA/CA

c. & d.

Identify two differences between an Ethernet bridge and an Ethernet switch. (Choose two) a. Switches use ASICs to make forwarding decisions, whereas bridges make their forwarding decisions in software b. Bridges typically operate faster than switches c. Switches usually have higher port densities than bridges d. Bridges can base their forwarding decisions on logical network layer addresses

d.

If a PC on an Ethernet network attempts to communicate with a host on a different subnet, what destination IP address and destination MAC address will be placed in the packet/frame header sent by the PC? a. destination ip: ip address of the default gateway. destination mac: mac address of the default gateway b. destination ip: ip address of the remote host. destination mac: mac address of the default gateway c. destination ip:ip address of the remote host. destination mac: mac address of the remote host d. destination ip: ip address of the remote host. destination mac: mac address of the local pc

d.

In a router that has 12 ports, how many broadcast domains does the router have? a. None b. 1 c. 2 d. 12

d.

WEP's RC4 approach to encryption uses a 24-bit string of characters added to transmitted data, such that the same plain-text data frame will never appear as the same WEP-encrypted data frame. What is this string of characters called? a. initialization vector b. Chips c. Orthogonal descriptor d. Session key

d.

What capability of routing protocols allows them to help you use the band-width that you might have available in a multipathing design? a. ECMP b. Distance Vector c. Link state d. Dual stack

d.

What device hardening technique might be found in a row of stores in a shopping mall to ensure that the different stores are segmented from each other? a. Default VLAN b. DHCP snooping c. Private VLAN d. Dynamic ARP inspection

d.

What is often the last stage of a system life used in a network? a. Phase-out b. Disposal c. Support d. Development

d.

What is the distance limitation of a 1000BASE-T Ethernet network? a. 100m b. 185m c. 500m d. 2km

d.

What microsoft windows application enables you to view a variety of log types, including application, security, and system logs? a. Event viewer b. Performance Monitor c. Microsoft Management Console d. Control Panel

d.

What of IoT technology is specialized for monitoring sensor data and is owned by Garmin? a. Z-wave b. ANT+ c. Bluetooth d. RFID

d.

What protocol is used to request a MAC address that corresponds to a known IPv4 address on the local network? a.IGMP b. TTL c. ICMP d. ARP

d.

What security approach involves creating multiple accounts for your own access to the network and to its devices? a. 802.1x b. Least privilege c. Network access control d. SIEM

d.

What security protocol is used in 802.1X to securely transport the credentials used in an exchange? a. IPsec b. EAP c. SSH d. HTTPS

d.

What type of DNS message is often used to perform reverse lookups? a. PTR b. SRV c. TXT d. MX

d.

What type of cable testing device permits a network device to communicate with itself in order to test its ability to send and receive traffic? a. cable tester b. loopback plug c. cable crimper d. fusion splicer e. tone generator

d.

Which IEEE 802.1X component checks the credentials of a device wanting to gain access to a network? a. Supplicant b. Authentication server c. Access point d. Authenicator

d.

Which SNMPv3 security level is the equivalent of SNMPv2c? a. noAuthNoPriv b. authPriv c. authNoPriv d. noAuthPriv

d.

Which component of NTP is a measure of how far the NTP client is from the server? a. Administrative distance b. Stratum c. MED d. Metric

d.

Which of the following is an example of an east-west traffic flow in a modern datacenter? a. A client requesting email from a datacenter SaaS email solution b. A container requesting services provided by another container in the solution c. A client uploading large numbers of archive files for storage d. The downloading of a large number of archive files from a SAN

d.

Which of the following is often the first step in a structured troubleshooting methodology? a. hypothesize the probable cause b. create an action plan c. create a postmortem report d. define the problem

d.

Which of the following means that if you have not been explicitly granted access, then access is denied? a. Implicit deny b. Explicit deny c. Allow d. BPDU

d.

Which of the following would best help you ensure that all areas of control an compliance don't end up in the hands of a single individual? a. Role-based access control b. Zero trust c. Posture assessment d. Separation of duties

d.

Which standard developed by the WiFi Alliance implements the requirements of IEEE802.11i? a. TKIP b. MIC c. WEP d. WPA2

d.

Which type of attack exploits the native VLAN of 802.1Q? a. Evil twin b. Tailgating c. Deauthentication d. VLAN hopping

d.

You go to the store and put your bank card into an ATM and enter your PIN. Which of the following factors of multifactor authentication have you exhibited? (choose two) a. Something you are b. Something you have c. something you know d. Something you are

d.

Your primary concern when hardening your network is the fact that you are vulnerable to several DoS attacks that involve your IGP and EGP protocols. What hardening technique addresses this challenge most directly? a. Control Plane policing b. Geofencing c. SNMP d. Dynamic ARP inspection

d.

you have verified full system functionality and implemented preventive measures. what should you do next? a. question the obvious and duplicate the problem b. create a differential backup plan c. document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned d. gather information and create a baseline

d.

You are interested in dynamically assigning the IP address information in your IPv4-based network in infrastructure. What protocol can you use to accomplish this? a. DNS b. TFTP c. FTP d. DHCP

d. DHCP

What global hierarchical system is used to resolve names to IP addresses? a. TFTP b. DHCP c. NTP d. DNS

d. DNS

What capability supported by most router and switch manufacturers allows you to create many virtual interfaces out of a single physical interface? a. Shorthand notation b. Router advertisement c. Tunneling d. Subinterface

d. subinterface