Conceptual Physics Final Exam Study Guide

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1) A mosquito flying at 3 m/s that encounters a breeze blowing at 3 m/s in the opposite direction has a speed of A) 0 m/s. B) 3 m/s. C) 4 m/s. D) 6 m/s.

A

101) A 5000-kg freight car moving at 2 m/s collides with a 10,000-kg freight car at rest. They couple upon collision and move away at A) 2 m/s. B) 1 m/s. C) 2/3 m/s. D) 1/3 m/s.

A

104) If you place a pipe over the end of a wrench when trying to rotate a stubborn bolt, effectively making the wrench handle twice as long, you'll multiply the torque by A) two. B) four. C) eight.

A

114) The rotational inertia of your leg is greater when your leg is A) straight. B) bent. C) same either way

A

117) A ring and a disk both at rest roll down a hill together. Which rolls slower? A) ring B) disk C) depends on the masses D) both roll at the same speed E) need more information

A

124) Pascal's Principle is related to: A) Constant Pressure B) Constant Force C) Constant Area

A

131) Which will remain the same for two identical books, one lying flat and the other standing on an end? A) weight B) pressure C) both weight and pressure D) neither weight or pressure

A

136) A scale from which a rock is suspended reads 5 N when the rock is out of water and 3 N when the rock is submerged. Buoyant force on the rock is A) 2 N. B) 3 N. C) 4 N. D) 5 N.

A

146) Which one of the following would probably not be used as a temperature sensitive property in the construction of a thermometer? A) the change in mass of a solid B) the change in volume of a liquid C) the change in length of a metal rod D) the change in electrical resistance of a wire E) the change in pressure of a gas at constant volume

A

19) A ball is thrown at an angle above the horizontal from the top of a cliff and feels no air resistance. A runner at the base of the cliff moves horizontally so that she is always under the ball. In this runner's reference frame, the path of the ball is a straight line rather than a parabola. A) True B) False

A

196) Which of the following is fundamentally different from the others? A) sound waves B) X-rays C) gamma rays D) light waves E) radio waves

A

198) Which of these electromagnetic waves have the longest wavelength? A) radio waves B) infrared waves C) X-rays D) ultraviolet waves

A

234) A hydrogen atom is excited to the n = 6 level. Its decay to the n = 2 level is detected in a photographic plate. What is the wavelength of the detected emission? A) 410 nm B) 93.8 nm C) 1090 nm D) 93.1 nm

A

235) A hydrogen atom is excited to the n = 10 level. Its decay to the n = 4 level is detected in a photographic plate. What is the frequency of the light photographed? A) 1.73 × 1014 Hz B) 1740 Hz C) 1740 nm D) 1.46 × 10-9 km

A

236) A hydrogen atom is in its n = 2 excited state when its electron absorbs 9.5 eV in an interaction with a photon. What is the energy of the resulting free electron? A) 5.1 eV B) 6.6 eV C) 6.9 eV D) 7.6 eV

A

237) Find the energy of the photon emitted when an electron drops from the n = 20 state to the n = 7 state in a hydrogen atom. A) 0.244 eV B) 0.263 eV C) 0.283 eV D) 0.302 eV

A

32) A projectile is fired into the air at an angle of 50° above ground level and hits a target downrange. It will also hit the target if fired at an angle of A) 40°. B) 45°. C) 55°. D) 60°. E) none of the above

A

34) A projectile is fired into the air at an angle of 50° above ground level and hits a target downrange. It will also hit the target if fired at an angle of A) 40°. B) 45°. C) 55°. D) 60°. E) none of the above

A

37) Complete the following statement: An inertial reference frame is one in which A) Newton's first law of motion is valid. B) the inertias of objects within the frame are zero. C) the frame is accelerating. D) the acceleration due to gravity is greater than zero m/s2 E) Newton's second law of motion is not valid.

A

98) A softer landing occurs when an falling object bounces from a surface A) in a extended time. B) quickly. C) either of these D) neither of these

A

10) The direction of the resultant of a vertical 40-N force at right angles to a horizontal 30-N force is A) 45 degrees B) greater than 45 degrees C) Less than 45 degrees

B

112) An object will be stable if A. its center of gravity is below its highest point. B. its center of gravity lies over its base of support. C. its center of gravity lies outside its base of support. D. the height of its center of gravity is less than 1/2 its total height.

B

116) A coin and a ring roll down an incline at the same time. The one to first reach the bottom is the A) ring. B) coin. C) both reach the bottom at the same time

B

135) What is the weight of water displaced by a 100-ton floating ship? A) less than 100 tons B) 100 tons C) more than 100 tons D) 100 cubic meters E) depends on the ship's shape

B

158) The time to complete one full cycle, or one oscillation, is called frequency f. A) True B) False

B

174) Electrons flow in a wire when there is A) an imbalance of charges in the wire. B) a potential difference across its ends. C) a difference in potential energy across its ends. D) none of the above

B

177) If two copper wires of the same length have different thickness, then the thicker wire has A) more resistance. B) less resistance. C) both the same

B

18) You can launch a projectile with a fixed initial speed but at any angle above the horizontal, and it feels no air resistance. The time for it to return to the ground does not depend on the angle at which you launch it. A) True B) False

B

185) If you thrust a magnet into a closed loop of wire, the loop will A) rotate. B) have a current in it. C) nothing will happen

B

186) A device that transforms electrical energy to mechanical energy is a A) generator. B) motor. C) transformer. D) magnet. E) none of the above

B

190) The voltage across the input terminals of a transformer is 120 V. The primary has 50 loops and the secondary has 25 loops. The voltage the transformer delivers is A) 30 V. B) 60 V. C) 120 V. D) 240 V.

B

192) The force exerted on an electron moving in a magnetic field is maximum when the electron moves parallel to the magnetic field. A) True B) False

B

8) A pair of 10-N vectors at right angles to each other has a resultant of about A) 10 N. B) 14 N. C) 20 N.

B

100) A 5000-kg freight car collides with a 10,000-kg freight car at rest. They couple upon collision and move at 2 m/s. What was the initial speed of the 5000-kg car? A) 4 m/s B) 5 m/s C) 6 m/s D) 8 m/s

C

103) A ball that gains speed as it rolls down a hill experiences a A) net torque. B) net force. C) both of these D) neither of these

C

110) An 100-kg man balances the boy on a teeter-totter as shown. What is the approximate mass of the boy? A) 5 kg B) 15 kg C) 25 kg D) 35 kg E) 45 kg

C

120) You can safely stand on the overhanging end of a heavy plank that rests on a table. How much overhang depends on your mass and the mass of the plank. If you can stand on the end of a plank that overhangs the edge of the supporting table 1/5 its total length, how massive is the plank compared to your mass? A) 1/3 B) the same C) 2/3 D) 1 and 1/3 times

C

121) As you crawl toward the edge of a large freely-rotating horizontal turntable in a carnival funhouse, the angular momentum of you and the turntable A) decreases. B) increases. C) remains the same, but the revolutions per minute decrease. D) decreases in direct proportion to your decrease in revolutions per minute.

C

122) A barge loaded with lumber and iron ore floats in a lock by a dam (a closed pool of water like a big swimming pool). If some of the cargo is thrown overboard, the level of water in the lock will A) rise. B) drop. C) stay the same. D) rise, provided it is lumber that is thrown overboard. E) rise, provided it is iron ore that is thrown overboard.

C

138) A 5-N block of wood is difficult to fully submerge in a pool of mercury because the buoyant force on the block when submerged is A) less than 5 N. B) 5 N. C) much more than 5 N.

C

151) Which temperature scales have equal sized degrees? A) Fahrenheit and Celsius B) Fahrenheit and Kelvin C) Celsius and Kelvin D) none of the above

C

204) Consider light energy that is momentarily absorbed in glass and then re-emitted. Compared to the absorbed light, the frequency of the re-emitted light is A) considerably less. B) slightly less. C) the same. D) slightly more. E) considerably more.

C

59) A weightless astronaut in an orbiting satellite is A) shielded from Earth's gravitational field. B) beyond the pull of gravity. C) like the satellite, pulled by Earth's gravitation. D) none of the above

C

75) Which one of the following statements concerning the principle of the conservation of mechanical energy is true? a. Mechanical energy is always conserved in situations where the kinetic energy is constant. b. Mechanical energy is always conserved in situations where the gravitational potential energy is constant. c. Mechanical energy is always conserved in situations where external non-conservative forces do no work. d. Mechanical energy is always conserved in situations where external conservative forces do no work. e. Mechanical energy is always conserved in situations where the gravitational potential energy is zero joules.

C

105) A ball gains speed while rolling down a hill due mainly to A) its rotational inertia. B) its angular acceleration. C) a balanced torque. D) an unbalanced torque.

D

108) A 3.0-kg ball and a 1.0-kg ball are placed at opposite ends of a massless beam so that the system is in equilibrium as shown. Note: The drawing is not drawn to scale. What is the value of the ratio of the lengths, b/a? A) 2.0 B) 2.5 C) 3.0 D) 4.0 E) 5.0

D

125) Archimedes Principle is related to: A) Density of a fluid B) Buoyant force C) Weight of the fluid displaced by an object inside a fluid D) All answers are correct

D

147) Which one of the following statements is the best explanation for the fact that metal pipes that carry water often burst during cold winter months? A) Water contracts upon freezing while the metal expands at lower temperatures. B) The metal contracts to a greater extent than the water. C) The interior of the pipe contracts less than the outside of the pipe. D) Water expands upon freezing while the metal contracts at lower temperatures. E) Both the metal and the water expand, but the water expands to a greater extent.

D

149) Which of the following cases (if any) requires the lowest amount of heat? In each case the material is the same. A) 1.5 kg of the material is to be heated by 7.0 C. B) 3.0 kg of the material is to be heated by 3.5 C. C) 0.50 kg of the material is to be heated by 31 C. D) 0.75 kg of the material is to be heated by 10C.

D

164) What is the intensity level in decibels of a sound whose intensity is 10-7 W/m2? a. 20 dB b. 30 dB c. 40 dB d. 50dB

D

171) Sound waves cannot travel in A) air. B) water. C) steel. D) a vacuum.

D

2) When you walk at an average speed of 4 m/s, in 5 s you'll cover a distance of A) 2 m. B) 10 m. C) 15 m. D) 20 m.

D

27) Twelve seconds after starting from rest, a freely-falling cantelope has a speed of A) 9.8 m/s. B) 49 m/s. C) 100 m/s. D) more than 100 m/s.

D

31) A projectile is launched from ground level at 15° above the horizontal and lands downrange. What other projection angle for the same speed would produce the same down-range distance? A) 30° B) 45° C) 50° D) 75° E) 90°

D

54) Two-point masses m and M are separated by a distance d. If the separation d remains fixed and the masses are increased to the values 3m and 3M respectively, how does the gravitational force between them change? A) The force will be one-third as great. B) The force will be one-ninth as great. C) The force will be three times as great. D) The force will be nine times as great. E) It is impossible to determine without knowing the numerical values of m, M, and d.

D

95) A car traveling along the highway brakes to a stop over a certain distance. More braking force is required if the car has A) more mass. B) more momentum. C) less stopping distance. D) all of the above E) none of the above

D

141) Absolute zero on the Celsius temperature scale is -273.15 °C. What is absolute zero on the Fahrenheit temperature scale? A) -331.67 °F B) -363.67 °F C) -395.67 °F D) -427.67 °F E) -459.67 °F

E

150) Which one of the following temperatures is approximately equal to the typical temperature of a classroom? A) 0 K B) 0 °C C) 100 °C D) 100 K E) 293 K

E

218) The ground state is the highest energy level in an atom

False

217) Electron orbits in the electron cloud are restricted to very specific radii and energies.

True

220) Each type of atom has different set of energy levels.

True

221) Each transition from one energy level to another corresponds to a photon with unique energy, frequency, and wavelength.

True

152) Which temperature scale has the smallest sized degrees? A) Fahrenheit B) Celsius C) Kelvin D) none of the above

A

156) Place a 1-kilogram block of iron at 40°C into 1 kilogram of water at 20°C and the final temperature of the two becomes A) less than 30°C. B) at or about 30°C. C) more than 30°C.

A

16) You walk from your house to the store 1.0 km in 25 minutes, and then you spent 10 minutes in the store. In your way back home, you stop after 15 minutes walking in your friend house, which is located at 0.76 km from the store. Your average velocity was: A) 0.08 m/s B) 0.25 m/s C) 0.32 m/s D) 0.58 m/s

A

160) The total mechanical energy at any point of the trajectory under SHM is equal to 𝐸 = 1/2 * 𝑘𝑥𝐴2 A) True B) False

A

161) Crests of an ocean wave pass a pier every 12.0 s. If the waves are moving at 5.6 m/s, what is the wavelength of the ocean waves? A. 67 m B. 34 m C. 77 m D. 57 m

A

165) The siren of an ambulance wails at 1395 Hz when the ambulance is stationary. What frequency will you hear after this ambulance passes you while traveling at 33.60 m/s? The speed of sound under the prevailing conditions is 343 m/s. a- 1271 Hz b- 1547 Hz c- 1325 Hz d- 1465 Hz

A

166) The frequency of a certain wave is 10 hertz and its period is A) 0.1 second. B) 10 seconds. C) 100 seconds. D) none of the above

A

169) An object that completes 10 vibrations in 20 seconds has a frequency of A) 0.5 hertz. B) 2 hertz. C) 200 hertz.

A

17) You throw a 5.0 kg stone from the top of a cliff with an initial vertical velocity of 8.0 m/s downward and an initial horizontal velocity of 7.0 m/s away from the cliff, and it feels no air resistance. After the stone is in the air but free of your hand, its acceleration remains constant at 9.8 m/s2 downward but its speed changes. A) True B) False

A

173) A 340-hertz sound wave travels at 340 m/s in air with a wavelength of A) 1 m. B) 10 m. C) 100 m. D) 1000 m.

A

175) Which statement is correct? A) charge flows in a circuit B) voltage flows in a circuit C) resistance flows in a circuit D) all of the above

A

180) The equivalent (combined) resistance of 1-ohm, 2-ohm, and 3-ohm in parallel is about A) 0.06 ohm. B) 1 ohm. C) 1.8 ohms. D) 6 ohms. E) 9 ohms.

A

183) The force on an electron moving in a magnetic field will be least when its direction is the same as the magnetic field direction. A) True B) False

A

184) Which pole of a compass needle points to a south pole of a magnet? A) north pole B) south pole

A

187) A device that transforms mechanical energy into electrical energy is a A) generator. B) motor. C) transformer. D) magnet. E) none of the above

A

188) The current produced by a common generator is ac. A) True B) False

A

189) A transformer actually transforms A) voltage. B) magnetic field lines. C) generators into motors.

A

200) Compared to ultraviolet waves, the frequency of infrared waves is A) lower. B) the same. C) higher.

A

206) Materials generally become warmer when light is A) absorbed by them. B) reflected by them. C) transmitted by them. D) all of the above E) none of the above

A

208) The process of removing an electron from a stable nucleus is known as a. ionization. b. Doppler broadening. c. collisional broadening. d. a red shift. e. quantum mechanics.

A

214) The number of ____ in the nucleus determines what element the nucleus is. a. protons b. electrons c. neutrons

A

228) When two lamps are connected in series to a battery, the electrical resistance that the battery senses is A) more than the resistance of either lamp. B) less than the resistance of either lamp. C) none of these

A

232) Compared to a single lamp connected to a battery, two lamps connected in parallel to the same battery will carry A) more current. B) less current. C) the same current.

A

35) What is the main difference between the mass and the weight of an object? A)Mass is the amount of matter in an object, weight is the gravitational force that acts on an object. B)Weight is the amount of matter in an object, mass is the gravitational force that acts on an object C)You weight is the same no matter where you are, the mass depend of the gravitational force D)Weight and mass are the same

A

41) If your automobile runs out of fuel while driving, the engine stops. You don't come to an abrupt stop due to A) inertia. B) gravity. C) resistance. D) the principle of continuation.

A

42) Two students engaged in a tug-of-war each pull a rope in opposite directions with a force of 400 N. The net force on the rope is A) zero and rope tension is 400 N. B) zero and rope tension is 800 N. C) 400 N and rope tension is 800 N. D) 400 N and rope tension is also 400 N.

A

61) A lunar month is about 28 days. If the Moon were closer to Earth than it is now, the lunar month would be A) less than 28 days. B) about 28 days. C) more than 28 days. D) need more information

A

68) Complete the following statement: If positive work is done on a moving object, a. the velocity of the object will increase. b. the velocity of the object will decrease. c. the kinetic energy of the object will decrease. d. the velocity of the object will not change. e. the direction of the acceleration of the object will be opposite to its displacement.

A

76) Complete the following statement: In an isolated system, the total mechanical energy remains constant if a. all exerted forces are conservative. b. all exerted forces are nonconservative. c. the work done by nonconservative forces is positive. d. the work done by nonconservative forces is negative. e. an object returns to its starting position.

A

78) Complete the following statement: In situations involving non-conservative external forces, the work done by these forces a. is always negative. b. is always equal to zero. c. is always positive. d. can be either positive or negative. e. usually cannot be determined.

A

85) A 480 kg car moving at 14.4 m/s hits from behind another car moving at 13.3 m/s in the same direction. If the second car has a mass of 570 kg and a new speed of 17.9 m/s, what is the velocity of the first car after the collision? A) 8.94 m/s B) 10.5 m/s C) 19.9 m/s D) - 8.94 m/s

A

91) The speed of a 4-kg ball with a momentum of 12 kg m/s is A) 3 m/s. B) 4 m/s. C) 12 m/s. D) 48 m/s.

A

92) A large heavy truck and a small baby carriage roll down a hill. Neglecting friction, at the bottom of the hill, the baby carriage will likely have A) less momentum. B) about the same momentum. C) more momentum.

A

102) A torque acting on an object tends to produce A) equilibrium. B) rotation. C) linear motion. D) velocity. E) a center of gravity.

B

107) Which one of the following statements concerning the moment of inertia I is false? A) I may be expressed in units of kg m2 . B) I depends on the angular acceleration of the object as it rotates. C) I depends on the location of the rotation axis relative to the particles that make up the object. D) I depends on the orientation of the rotation axis relative to the particles that make up the object. E) Of the particles that make up an object, the particle with the smallest mass may contribute the greatest amount to I.

B

11) While a car travels around a circular track at a constant speed, its A) acceleration is zero. B) acceleration is constant C) acceleration increases D) acceleration decreases

B

111) An 80-kg man balances the boy on a teeter-totter as shown. What, approximately, is the magnitude of the downward force exerted on the fulcrum? A) zero newtons B) 1225 N C) 1000 N D) 122.5N E) 100N

B

119) You can safely stand on the overhanging end of a heavy plank that rests on a table. How much overhang depends on your mass and the plank's mass. If you can stand on the end of a plank that overhangs the edge of the supporting table 1/4 its total length, how massive is the plank compared to your mass? A) 1/2 B) the same C) twice D) 4 times

B

127) If the hydrostatic pressure at a certain depth in the ocean is 2 atm, the hydrostatic pressure will be 4 atm if you go twice as deep. A) True B) False

B

128) A long vertical metal cylinder is filled with oil. If a piston pushes on the top of this cylinder and increases the pressure there by 6,000 Pa, the pressure at the bottom will increase considerably more due to the weight of the oil. A) True B) False

B

129) According to Pascal's principle, if you increase the pressure enough so that the force at one end of an oil-filled tube increases by 10 N, the force will increase at all points in the tube by 10 N. A) True B) False

B

13) If an object moves with constant acceleration, its velocity must A) be constant also. B) change by the same amount each second. C) change by varying amounts depending on its speed. D) always decrease.

B

130) The concept of pressure involves both A) force and volume. B) force and area. C) area and volume.

B

132) When you stand with only one of your feet on a weighing scale, the scale reading is A) half. B) the same as with both feet. C) doubled. D) none of the above

B

133) Water pressure on a submerged object is greatest against its A) top. B) bottom. C) sides. D) same against all surfaces E) none of the above

B

134) A dam is thicker at the bottom than at the top mainly because A) water is denser at deeper levels. B) water pressure increases with depth. C) surface tension exists only on the surface of liquids. D) it looks better.

B

137) Buoyant force is greater on a submerged A) 1-kg block of lead. B) 1-kg block of aluminum. C) is the same on each

B

139) When a large floating ice cube with unfrozen water inside melts, the water level in its container A) goes down. B) remains unchanged. C) goes up.

B

140) To multiply an applied force while using a simple hydraulic lift, your force should be applied to the A) large-diameter piston. B) small-diameter piston. C) relative piston sizes don't matter.

B

143) If you wanted to know how much the temperature of a particular piece of material would rise when a known amount of heat was added to it, which of the following would be most helpful to know? A) initial temperature B) specific heat C) density D) coefficient of linear expansion E) thermal conductivit

B

153) A temperature difference of 10 Celsius degrees is also equal to a temperature difference of 10 on the A) Fahrenheit scale. B) Kelvin scale. C) both, Fahrenheit and Kelvin D) neither, Fahrenheit or Kelvin

B

155) Pour a liter of water at 40°C into a liter of water at 20°C and the final temperature of the two becomes A) less than 30°C. B) at or about 30°C. C) more than 30°C.

B

157) If we double only the spring constant of a vibrating ideal mass-and-spring system, the mechanical energy of the system A) increases by a factor of . B) increases by a factor of 2. C) increases by a factor of 3. D) increases by a factor of 4. E) does not change.

B

159) When the restoring force is indirectly proportional to the displacement from equilibrium, the resulting motion is called simple harmonic motion. A) True B) False

B

162) If a wave has a wavelength of 25.4 cm and a frequency of 1.63 kHz, its speed is closest to: a. 0.414 m/s b. 414 m/s c. 41,400 m/s

B

163) If a wave has a speed of 362 m/s and a period of 4.17 ms, its wavelength is closest to: a. 1510 m b. 1.51 m c. 86.8 m d. 86, 800 m

B

167) A 60-vibration-per-second wave travels 30 meters in 1 second. Its frequency is A) 30 hertz and it travels at 60 m/s. B) 60 hertz and it travels at 30 m/s. C) 1800 hertz and it travels at 2 m/s. D) none of the above

B

168) If you double the frequency of a vibrating object, its period A) doubles. B) halves. C) is quartered.

B

170) The approximate range of human hearing is A) 10 hertz to 10,000 hertz. B) 20 hertz to 20,000 hertz. C) 40 hertz to 40,000 hertz. D) none of the above

B

195) Electromagnetic waves consist of A) compressions and rarefactions of electromagnetic pulses. B) oscillating electric and magnetic fields. C) particles of light energy. D) high-frequency sound waves.

B

202) Compared to its average speed in air, the average speed of a beam of light in glass is A) more. B) less. C) the same.

B

203) Glass is transparent to A) infrared light. B) visible light. C) ultraviolet light. D) all of the above

B

21) A football is kicked at an angle with respect to the horizontal. Which one of the following statements best describes the acceleration of the football during this event if air resistance is neglected? A) The acceleration is zero m/s2 at all times. B) The acceleration is 9.8 m/s2 at all times. C) The acceleration is zero m/s2 when the football has reached the highest point in its trajectory. D) The acceleration is positive as the football rises, and it is negative as the football falls. E) The acceleration starts at 9.8 m/s2 and drops to some constant lower value as the ball approaches the ground.

B

210) The lowest energy level in an atom is a. the absolute zero temperature. b. the ground state. c. the ionization level. d. responsible for Doppler shifts. e. the energy level from which the Paschen series of hydrogen originates.

B

222) The resistance of a filament that carries 2 A when a 10-V potential difference across it is A) 2 ohms. B) 5 ohms. C) 10 ohms. D) 20 ohms.

B

224) Current that is typically 60 hertz is A) direct current. B) alternating current. C) either of these D) neither of these

B

225) In units of measurement, power in watts is equal to A) amperes x ohms. B) amperes x volts. C) amperes/second. D) volts/second. E) none of the above

B

227) A 60-W light bulb connected to a 120-V source draws a current of A) 0.25 A. B) 0.5 A. C) 2.0 A. D) 4.0 A. E) more than 4 A.

B

229) When two lamps are connected in parallel to a battery, the electrical resistance that the battery senses is A) more than the resistance of either lamp. B) less than the resistance of either lamp. C) none of these

B

23) What is the acceleration of projectile when it reaches its maximum height? A) zero m/s2 B) 9.8 m/s2, downward C) 4.9 m/s2, downward D) less than 9.8 m/s2 and non-zero. E) Its magnitude is 9.8 m/s2; and its direction is changing.

B

231) Compared to a single lamp connected to a battery, two identical lamps connected in series to the same battery will carry A) more current. B) less current. C) the same current.

B

233) Two spectral lines in a spectrum have frequencies of 2.0 x 1014 Hz and 4.6 x 1014 Hz. A higher-frequency line in the same spectrum likely has a frequency of A) 2.6 x 1014 Hz. B) 6.6 x 1014 Hz. C) 13.2 x 1014 Hz.

B

240) When an electron de-excites from the third quantum level to the second, and then to the ground state, two photons are emitted. The sum of the emitted frequencies equals the frequency of the single photon that would be emitted if de-excitation were from the third to A) the second level. B) the ground state. C) any other level.

B

28) An apple falls from a tree and hits the ground 5 meters below with a speed of about A) 4.89 m/s. B) 9.89 m/s. C) 19.6 m/s. D) 49.0 m/s.

B

3) The main difference between a scalar and a vector quantity is: A) Magnitude B) Direction C) Unit

B

30) If a freely falling object were equipped with a speedometer, its speed reading would increase each second by about A) 4.9 m/s. B) 9.8 m/s. C) 19.6 m/s. D) a variable amount. E) depends on its initial speed

B

36) Which one of the following terms is used to indicate the natural tendency of an object to remain at rest or in motion at a constant speed along a straight line? A) velocity B) inertia C) acceleration D) equilibrium E) force

B

43) Nellie pulls on a 10-kg wagon with a constant horizontal force of 30 N. If there are no other horizontal forces, what is the wagon's acceleration? A) 0.3 m/s2 B) 3.0 m/s2 C) 10 m/s2 D) 30 m/s2 E) 300 m/s2

B

45) According to the universal law of gravitation, the force due to gravity is A) directly proportional to the square of the distance between objects. B) inversely proportional to the square of the distance between objects. C) directly proportional to the distance between objects. D) inversely proportional to the distance between objects. E) not dependent on the distance between objects.

B

46) Two point masses m and M are separated by a distance d. If the distance between the masses is increased to 3d, how does the gravitational force between them change? A) The force will be one-third as great. B) The force will be one-ninth as great. C) The force will be three times as great. D) The force will be nine times as great. E) It is impossible to determine without knowing the numerical values of m, M, and d.

B

48) According to the Newton's second Law, if you double the force acting on an object of mass m, then it acceleration will A) not change at all. B) increase by a factor of 2. C) decrease by a factor of 2. D) increase by a factor of 4. E) decrease by a factor of 4.

B

5) The magnitude of the resultant of two vectors must be greater than or equal to the magnitude of each of these vectors. A) True B) False

B

51) Two-point masses m and M are separated by a distance d. If the distance between the masses is increased to 3d, how does the gravitational force between them change? A) The force will be one-third as great. B) The force will be one-ninth as great. C) The force will be three times as great. D) The force will be nine times as great. E) It is impossible to determine without knowing the numerical values of m, M, and d.

B

55) Satellites in orbit are accelerated toward Earth, so they must be getting closer and closer to our planet. A) True B) False

B

58) An astronaut at Earth's surface has a mass of 50 kg and a weight of 490 N. If she were floating freely inside a space habitat in remote space, she would have A) no weight and less mass. B) no weight and the same mass. C) more weight and no mass. D) none of the above

B

62) Minimal orbit speed about Earth is about 8 km/s, and about Jupiter is A) less than 8 km/s. B) more than 8 km/s. C) about 8 km/s.

B

67) Force F1 acts on a particle and does work W1. Force F2 acts simultaneously on the particle and does work W2. The speed of the particle does not change. Which one of the following must be true? A) W1 is zero and W2 is positive B) W1 = -W2 C) W1 is positive and W2 is zero D) W1 is positive and W2 is positive

B

71) Two identical golf carts move at different speeds. The faster cart has twice the speed and therefore has A) twice the kinetic energy. B) four times the kinetic energy. C) eight times the kinetic energy.

B

74) In which one of the following systems is there a decrease in gravitational potential energy? A) a boy stretches a horizontal spring B) a girl jumps down from a bed C) a crate rests at the bottom of an inclined plane D) a car ascends a steep hill E) water is forced upward through a pipe

B

79) The power due to a force depends on which of the following parameters? A) the magnitude of the force and the displacement of the object B) the magnitude of the force and the velocity of the object C) the mass of the object and the velocity of the object D) the work done on the object and its displacement E) the mass of the object and the displacement of the object

B

94) It is correct to say that impulse is equal to A) momentum. B) a corresponding change in momentum. C) force multiplied by the distance it acts. D) velocity multiplied by time.

B

96) The average braking force of a 1000-kg car moving at 10 m/s braking to a stop in 5 s is A) 1000 N. B) 2000 N. C) 3000 N. D) 4000 N. E) 5000 N.

B

97) A karate chop is more effective if one's hand A) follows through upon impact. B) bounces upon impact. C) extends the time upon impact.

B

113) What does the scale read? A. 500 N B. 1000 N C. 2000 N D. 4000 N

C

115) The rotational inertia of a pencil is greatest about an axis A) along its length, where the lead is. B) about its midpoint, like a propeller. C) about its end, like a pendulum.

C

123) A wooden block contains some nails so that its density is exactly equal to that of water. If it is placed in a tank of water and released from rest when it is completely submerged, it will A) rise to the surface. B) sink to the bottom. C) remain where it is released.

C

14) You walk from your house to the store 1.0 km in 25 minutes, and then you spent 10 minutes in the store. In your way back home, you stop after 15 minutes walking in your friend house, which is located at 0.76 km from the store. Your displacement was: A) 760 m B) 1000 m C) 240 m D) 1760 m

C

142) Three thermometers are in the same water bath. After thermal equilibrium is established, it is found that the Celsius thermometer reads 0 °C, the Fahrenheit thermometer reads 12 °F, and the Kelvin thermometer reads 273 K. Which one of the following statements is the most reasonable conclusion? A) The Kelvin thermometer is incorrect. B) The Celsius thermometer is incorrect. C) The Fahrenheit thermometer is incorrect. D) All three thermometers are incorrect. E) The three thermometers are at different temperatures.

C

144) Three thermometers are placed in a closed, insulated box and are allowed to reach thermal equilibrium. One is calibrated in Fahrenheit degrees, one in Celsius degrees, and one in Kelvins. The Celsius thermometer reads -40 °C and the Kelvin thermometer reads 233 K. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true? A) The Kelvin thermometer should read -233 K. B) The Kelvin thermometer should read -313 K. C) The Fahrenheit thermometer must read -40 °F. D) If water were found within the box, it must be in the liquid state. E) If the temperature of the contents is increased by 10 C°, the reading on the Kelvin thermometer should increase by 273 K.

C

145) Which of the following cases (if any) requires the greatest amount of heat? In each case the material is the same. A) 1.5 kg of the material is to be heated by 7.0 C. B) 3.0 kg of the material is to be heated by 3.5 C. C) 0.50 kg of the material is to be heated by 31 C. D) 0.75 kg of the material is to be heated by 10C.

C

148) Heat is added to a substance, but its temperature does not rise. Which one of the following statements provides the best explanation for this observation? A) The substance must be a gas. B) The substance must be a non-perfect solid. C) The substance undergoes a change of phase. D) The substance has unusual thermal properties. E) The substance must be cooler than its environment.

C

15) You walk from your house to the store 1.0 km in 25 minutes, and then you spent 10 minutes in the store. In your way back home, you stop after 15 minutes walking in your friend house, which is located at 0.76 km from the store. Your average speed was: A) 0.73 m/s B) 0.68 m/s C) 0.59 m/s D) 0.33 m/s

C

154) When 10 grams of hot water cool by 1°C, the amount of heat given off is A) 41.9 calories. B) 41.9 Calories. C) 41.9 joules. D) more than 41.9 joules.

C

172) The speed of sound depends on A) its frequency. B) its amplitude. C) the medium in which it travels.

C

176) The current produced by voltage in a circuit is impeded by A) electric barriers. B) closed switches. C) electric resistance. D) none of the above

C

178) Ohm's law tells us that the amount of current produced in a circuit is A) directly proportional to voltage. B) inversely proportional to resistance. C) both of these D) neither of these

C

179) The equivalent (combined) resistance of 1-ohm, 2-ohm, and 3-ohm in series is about A) 1 ohm B) 1.8 ohms. C) 6 ohms. D) 9 ohms.

C

181) If a steady magnetic field exerts a force on a moving charge, that force is directed A) opposite the motion. B) in the direction of the motion. C) at right angles to the direction of the motion.

C

182) The force on an electron moving in a magnetic field will be the largest when its direction is A) the same as the magnetic field direction. B) exactly opposite to the magnetic field direction. C) perpendicular to the magnetic field direction.

C

194) Surrounding every moving electron is A) a magnetic field. B) an electric field C) a magnetic and electric field

C

197) Which of these electromagnetic waves have the shortest wavelength? A) radio waves B) infrared waves C) X-rays D) ultraviolet waves

C

199) Compared to ultraviolet waves, the wavelength of infrared waves is A) shorter. B) the same. C) longer.

C

20) Ball 1 is thrown into the air and it follows the trajectory for projectile motion shown in the drawing. At the instant that ball 1 is at the top of its trajectory, ball 2 is dropped from rest from the same height. Which ball reaches the ground first? a. Ball 1 reaches the ground first, since it is moving at the top of the trajectory, while ball 2 is dropped from rest. b. Ball 2 reaches the ground first, because it has the shorter distance to travel. c. Both balls reach the ground at the same time. d. There is not enough information to tell which ball reaches the ground first.

C

201) What is the wavelength of a 1-hertz electromagnetic wave? A) less than 1 m B) 1 m C) more than 1 m

C

205) Metals are shiny because A) they reflect 100% of incident light. B) they are poor absorbers of light. C) their electrons vibrate to the oscillations of any incident light.

C

211) A neutral atom always contains a. the same number of protons as it does neutrons. b. the same number of electrons as it does neutrons. c. the same number of protons as it does electrons. d. twice as many protons as it does neutrons. e. twice as many neutrons as it does protons.

C

216) The diagram represents energy levels in a hydrogen atom. The labeled transitions (A through E) represent an electron moving between energy levels. Which labeled transition represents an electron that emit a photon with 10.2 eV of energy? A) E B) A C) C D) D E) B

C

223) The current in two identical light bulbs connected in series is 0.25 A. The voltage across both bulbs is 110 V. The resistance of a single light bulb is A) 22 ohms. B) 44 ohms. C) 220 ohms. D) 440 ohms. E) none of the above

C

29) If a stone falls to the bottom of a mineshaft in 6 seconds, then the depth of the shaft is about A) 58.8 m. B) 29.4 m. C) 176.4 m. D) more than 200 m.

C

40) Whirl a rock at the end of a string and it follows a circular path. If the string breaks, the tendency of the rock is to A) follow a circular path. B) slow down. C) follow a straight-line path. D) stop.

C

44) A force of 1 N accelerates 1-kg box at the rate of 1 m/s2. The acceleration of a 2-kg box by a net force of 2 N is A) half as much. B) twice as much. C) the same. D) none of the above

C

47) The force of gravity is an inverse square law. This means that, if you double the distance between two large masses, the gravitational force between them A) also doubles. B) strengthens by a factor of 4. C) weakens by a factor of 4. D) weakens by a factor of 2. E) is unaffected.

C

50) When a baseball player bats a ball with a force of 1000 N, the reaction force that the ball exerts against the bat is A) less than 1000 N. B) more than 1000 N. C) 1000 N. D) need more information

C

53) The force of gravity is an inverse square law. This means that, if you double the distance between two large masses, the gravitational force between them A) also doubles. B) strengthens by a factor of 4. C) weakens by a factor of 4. D) weakens by a factor of 2. E) is unaffected.

C

56) A satellite orbits the Earth in uniform circular motion. What is the direction of centripetal acceleration of the satellite? A) Because the centripetal acceleration is a scalar quantity, it doesn't have a direction. B) The centripetal acceleration vector points radially outward from the Earth. C) The centripetal acceleration vector points radially inward toward the Earth. D) The centripetal acceleration vector points in the direction of the satellite's velocity. E) The centripetal acceleration vector points in the direction opposite that of the satellite's velocity.

C

57) The Moon does not crash into Earth because A) Earth's gravitational field is relatively weak at the Moon. B) gravitational pull of other planets keeps the Moon up. C) Moon has a sufficient tangential speed. D) Moon has less mass than Earth. E) none of the above

C

6) The direction of the resultant of a vertical 50-N force at right angles to a horizontal 80-N force is A) 45 degrees B) greater than 45 degrees C) Less than 45 degrees

C

60) A lunar month is about 28 days. If the Moon were farther from Earth than it is now, the lunar month would be A) less than 28 days. B) about 28 days. C) more than 28 days. D) need more information

C

64) A weightless astronaut in an orbiting satellite is A) shielded from Earth's gravitational field. B) beyond the pull of gravity. C) like the satellite, pulled by Earth's gravitation. D) none of the above

C

65) Escape speed from Earth is A) 8 km/s. B) 9 km/s. C) 11.2 km/s. D) 63 km/s.

C

70) Both a 50-kg sack is lifted 2 meters from the ground and a 25-kg sack is lifted 4 meters in the same time. The power expended in raising the 50-kg sack is A) twice as much as the 25-kg sack. B) half as much as the 25-kg sack. C) the same. D) need more information

C

73) Which task requires more work? A) lifting the 50-kg sack 2 meters B) lifting the 25-kg sack 4 meters C) both require the same D) need more information

C

9) The resultant of a 40-N force at right angles to a 30-N force is A) 30 N. B) 40 N. C) 50 N. D) 60 N.

C

90) Which has the greater momentum when moving? A) a container ship B) a bullet C) either of these depending on speed

C

93) A motorcycle of mass 100 kilograms slowly rolls off the edge of a cliff and falls for three seconds before reaching the bottom of a gully. Its momentum upon hitting the ground is A) 1,000 kg m/s. B) 2,000 kg m/s. C) 3,000 kg m/s. D) 4,000 kg m/s. E) 9,000 kg m/.

C

99) A 1-kg glider and a 2-kg glider both slide toward each other at 1 m/s on an air track. They collide and stick. The combined mass moves at A) 0 m/s. B) 1/2 m/s. C) 1/3 m/s. D) 1/6 m/s. E) 1.5 m/s.

C

106) A string is wrapped around a pulley of radius 0.05 m and moment of inertia 0.2 kg m2 . If the string is pulled with a force F r , the resulting angular acceleration of the pulley is 2 rad/s2 . Determine the magnitude of the force F r . A) 0.2 N B) 2 N C) 0.8 N D) 8 N

D

109) A meter stick is pivoted at the 0.50-m line. A 3.0-kg object is hung from the 0.15-m line. Where should a 5.0-kg object be hung to achieve equilibrium (the meter stick oriented horizontal and motionless)? A) 0.06-m line B) 0.24-m line C) 0.56-m line D) 0.71-m line E) A 5.0-kg object cannot be placed anywhere on the meter stick to result in equilibrium in this system.

D

118) A 1-kg rock is suspended from the tip of a horizontal meterstick at the 0-cm mark so that the meterstick barely balances like a seesaw when its fulcrum is at the 25-cm mark. From this information, the mass of the meterstick is A) 1/4 kg. B) 1/2 kg. C) 3/4 kg. D) 1 kg. E) none of the above

D

12) Which of the following statements about velocity is not true? A) Average velocity is the displacement of an object divided by the time interval B) Velocity is a vector quantity C) It measures how fast and in what direction the particle is moving D) Velocity is always a positive quantity

D

126) The volume flow rate does not depend of: A) Volume flowing per unit of time B) Cross section area C) Velocity of fluid D) Mass of the fluid

D

191) The voltage across the input terminals of a transformer is 120 V. The primary has 25 loops and the secondary has 50 loops. The voltage the transformer delivers is A) 30 V. B) 60 V. C) 120 V. D) 240 V.

D

193) The source of all magnetism is A) tiny pieces of iron. B) tiny domains of aligned atoms. C) ferromagnetic materials. D) moving electric charge.

D

207) The neutral hydrogen atom consists of a. one proton and one neutron. b. one proton. c. one proton, one neutron, and one electron. d. one proton and one electron. e. an isotope and an ion.

D

209) An atom that is excited a. is also ionized. b. is an isotope. c. has had its electron moved to the lowest energy level. d. can emit a photon when the electron moves to a lower energy level. e. can emit a photon when the electron moves to a higher energy level.

D

213) If you move an electron in an atom from a low energy level to a higher energy level within the atom, we say that the atom is a. in the ground state. b. ionized. c. dissociated. d. in an excited state. e. neutralized.

D

22) A baseball is hit upward and travels along a parabolic arc before it strikes the ground. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true? A) The acceleration of the ball decreases as the ball moves upward. B) The velocity of the ball is zero m/s when the ball is at the highest point in the arc. C) The acceleration of the ball is zero m/s2 when the ball is at the highest point in the arc. D) The x-component of the velocity of the ball is the same throughout the ball's flight. E) The velocity of the ball is a maximum when the ball is at the highest point in the arc.

D

230) When a pair of identical lamps are connected in parallel A) voltage across each is the same. B) current in each is the same. C) power dissipated in each is the same. D) all of the above

D

33) A projectile is launched from ground level at 15° above the horizontal and lands downrange. What other projection angle for the same speed would produce the same down-range distance? A) 30° B) 45° C) 50° D) 75° E) 90°

D

39) If gravity between the Sun and Earth suddenly vanished, Earth would continue moving in A) a curved path. B) an outward spiral path. C) an inward spiral path. D) a straight-line path.

D

4) Which one of the following statements concerning vectors and scalars is false? A) In calculations, the vector components of a vector may be used in place of the vector itself. B) It is possible to use vector components that are not perpendicular. C) A scalar component may be either positive or negative. D) A vector that is zero may have components other than zero. E) Two vectors are equal only if they have the same magnitude and direction.

D

49) Two point masses m and M are separated by a distance d. If the separation d remains fixed and the masses are increased to the values 3m and 3M respectively, how does the gravitational force between them change? A) The force will be one-third as great. B) The force will be one-ninth as great. C) The force will be three times as great. D) The force will be nine times as great. E) It is impossible to determine without knowing the numerical values of m, M, and d.

D

52) Two-point masses m and M are separated by a distance d. If the distance between the masses is decreases by 1/2 d, how does the gravitational force between them change? A) The force will be one-half as great. B) The force will be one-four as great. C) The force will be two times as great. D) The force will be four times as great. E) It is impossible to determine without knowing the numerical values of m, M, and d.

D

63) The period of an Earth satellite depends on the satellite's A) mass. B) volume C) weight on Earth. D) radial distance from Earth.

D

66) Two forces F1 and F2 act on a particle. As a result the speed of the particle increases. Which one of the following is NOT possible? A) The work done by F1 is positive, and the work done by F2 is zero. B) The work done by F1 is zero, and the work done by F2 is positive. C) The work done by each force is positive. D) The work done by each force is negative. E) The work done by F1 is positive, and the work done by F2 is negative

D

69) In which one of the following circumstances does the force do positive work on the object? A) The direction of the force is perpendicular to the object's displacement. B) The direction of the force is in the opposite direction to the object's displacement. C) No matter the direction of the force, positive work will be done if there is a displacement of the object. D) The direction of the force is in the same direction as the object's displacement. E) The object's displacement is zero meters as the force is applied.

D

7) When a pair of 10-N forces act on a box of candy, the net force on the box is A) zero. B) about 14 N. C) 20 N. D) Any of the above depending on the directions of forces.

D

72) A bicycle that travels four as fast as another when braking to a stop will skid A) twice as far. B) four times as far. C) eight times as far D) sixteen times as far. E) depends on the mass of the bike

D

80) You are investigating the safety of a playground slide. You are interested in finding out what the maximum speed will be of children sliding on it when the conditions make it very slippery (assume frictionless). The height of the slide is 2.5 m. What is that maximum speed of a child if she starts from rest at the top? A) 1.9 m/s B) 2.5 m/s C) 4.9 m/s D) 7.0 m/s E) 9.8 m/s

D

82) Which one of the following is characteristic of an inelastic collision? A) Total mass is not conserved. B) Total energy is not conserved. C) Linear momentum is not conserved. D) Kinetic energy is not conserved. E) The change in momentum is less than the total impulse.

D

83) Complete the following statement: Momentum will be conserved in a two-body collision only if A) both bodies come to rest. B) the collision is perfectly elastic. C) the kinetic energy of the system is conserved. D) the net external force acting on the two-body system is zero. E) the internal forces of the two body system cancel in action-reaction pairs.

D

212) Atoms that have the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons are called a. ions. b. molecules c. atomic pairs. d. nuclear pairs. e. isotopes.

E

215) The diagram represents energy levels in a hydrogen atom. The labeled transitions (A through E) represent an electron moving between energy levels. Which labeled transition represents an electron that absorbs a photon with 10.2 eV of energy? A) E B) A C) C D) D E) B

E

226) The electric power supplied to a lamp that carries 2 A at 120 V is A) 1/6 watts. B) 2 watts. C) 60 watts. D) 20 watts. E) 240 watts.

E

24) A projectile fired from a gun has initial horizontal and vertical components of velocity equal to 30 m/s and 40 m/s, respectively. What is the magnitude of the projectile's velocity just before it strikes the ground? A) zero m/s B) 9.8 m/s C) 30 m/s D) 40 m/s E) 50 m/s

E

25) A tennis ball is thrown upward at an angle from point A. It follows a parabolic trajectory and hits the ground at point D. At the instant shown, the ball is at point B. Point C represents the highest position of the ball above the ground. While in flight, how do the x and y components of the velocity vector of the ball compare at the points A and D? A) The velocity components are non-zero at A and are zero m/s at D. B) The velocity components are the same in magnitude and direction at both points. C) The velocity components have the same magnitudes at both points, but their directions are reversed. D) The velocity components have the same magnitudes at both points, but the directions of the x components are reversed. E) The velocity components have the same magnitudes at both points, but the directions of the y components are reversed.

E

26) A tennis ball is thrown upward at an angle from point A. It follows a parabolic trajectory and hits the ground at point D. At the instant shown, the ball is at point B. Point C represents the highest position of the ball above the ground. At which point is the velocity vector changing most rapidly with time? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) It is changing at the same rate at all four points.

E

77) Complete the following statement: The total mechanical energy of a system remains unchanged if a. the external forces acting on the system are nonconservative. b. the external forces acting on the system are conservative. c. the kinetic energy is constant. d. the potential energy is constant. e. there are no external forces acting on the system.

E

81) Complete the following statement: A collision is elastic if A) the final velocities are zero. B) the objects stick together. C) the final kinetic energy is zero. D) the final momentum is zero. E) the total kinetic energy is conserved.

E

84) Two objects of equal mass traveling toward each other with equal speeds undergo a head on collision. Which one of the following statements concerning their velocities after the collision is necessarily true? A) They will exchange velocities. B) Their velocities will be reduced. C) Their velocities will be unchanged. D) Their velocities will be zero. E) Their velocities may be zero.

E

86) In a collision between a small car and a large truck, the car and the truck undergo the same change in their velocities.

False

88) When a moving object hits a stationary object and causes it to move, some of the moving object's kinetic energy is transformed into momentum in the object that was at rest.

False

89) If a force acts perpendicular to an object's direction of motion, that force cannot change the object's kinetic energy or momentum.

False

238) All stationary states of the hydrogen atom for which n = 4 have the same energy.

True

239) According to the Bohr model of the atom, an electron can only jump from a high to a low energy state if it emits a photon whose energy is the same as the energy difference between those two states.

True

38) You are in a train traveling on a horizontal track and notice that a piece of luggage starts to slide toward the front of the train. From this observation, you can conclude that this train is not an inertial reference frame because it is slowing down.

True

87) Kinetic energy is conserved only in perfectly elastic collisions, but momentum is conserved in all collisions.

True


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