Corrected Answers from Prep Exam 1

An older brother helps his younger brother to build a fort by giving his brother verbal explanations and suggestions as they go. The research who would use this as an illustration of his theory is: A. Piaget B. Patterson C. Vygotsky D. Erikson

Anser C -- Vygotsky This technique is what Vygotsky referred to as "scaffolding" and it is based on his idea that children receive support and teaching from their parents and other more experienced children.

Which of the following would most indicate malingering (i.e., an attempt to "fake bad") on the MMPI-2? A. high K score B. high F score C. low F score D. high L score

Answer -- High F score An elevated F score, particularly within the range of 80 to 99 suggests malingering ("faking bad"), exaggeration of difficulties, resistance to testing, or significant psychopathology. All of the other choices, i.e., high K, high L, and low F scores indicate the reverse, that is, an attempt to be viewed in an overly favorable light ("faking good").

According to Self Verification Theory, a person who believes that he dances poorly would prefer to be told by friends: A. "You are a pretty bad dancer" B. "You are not a bad dancer" C. "You should become a professional dancer" D. nothing about dancing

Answer A -- "You are a pretty bad dancer" Self Verification theory proposes that people need and seek confirmation of their self-concept, regardless of whether their self-concept is positive or negative. Thus, people prefer to be right rather than happy. According to this theory, a person who dances poorly would prefer to be told so (assuming the other's evaluation matches the person's self evaluation).

The drug most often abused by teenagers is: A. alcohol B. tobacco C. marijuana D. cocaine

Answer A -- Alcohol According to the latest survey completed by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (who keep statistics on these types of things) of teenagers aged 12-17, alcohol was their drug of preference. Asked about their drug use in the previous month, 21% had consumed at least one alcoholic drink, 18.2% had smoked cigarettes and 8.3% had used marijuana.

Premature termination would be most likely to occur when A. an African-American client has a Caucasian therapist B. an African-American client has an African-American therapist C. a Caucasian client has an Africa-American therapist D. a Caucasian client has a Caucasian therapist

Answer A -- An African-American client has a Caucasian therapist Research with African-American clients not eh relationship between therapist-client racial similarity and therapy effectiveness has yielded contradictory results and suggests that this relationship is mitigated by a variety of factors. A clearer relationship exists between similarity and premature termination, with the probability of premature dropout increasing when an African-American client works with a racially dissimilar therapist.

According to Janet Helms' (1995) White Racial Identity Development Model, the final stage of racial identity development is: A. autonomy B. disintegration C. reintegration D. immersion-emersion

Answer A -- Autonomy According to Helms, autonomy is the final stage of racial identity development. Autonomy is characterized by a non racist White identity based on a realistic understanding of the strengths and weaknesses of White culture. At this stage, Whites value and seek out cross-racial interactions.

According to social learning theory, job training would be most effective when using: A. behavioral modeling B. vestibule training C. reinforcement on a variable interval schedule D. reinforcers tailored to each employee's needs

Answer A -- Behavioral modeling According to Bandura's social learning theory (or theory of observational learning), it is possible to learn a given behavior merely by watching a model perform it. Behavioral practice and reinforcement, though they influence the probability that a behavior will be learned, are not absolutely necessary for the behavior to be imitated. Therefore, Choices C and D, which involve reinforcement procedures, can be eliminated. Vestibule training (B) involves a simulation of work conditions, although it does not necessarily involve modeling.

Behavioral assessments are useful for determining behavioral: A. contingencies B. consequences C. constraints D. interventions

Answer A -- Contingencies A behavioral assessment identifies "contingencies," which is a term for the antecedents of and consequences that maintain the behavior one is planning to alter. While a behavioral assessment may be undertaken to determine the best behavioral treatment, it may also be done for research purposes with no goal of offering treatment, or to see if a previous treatment was effective. Behavioral contingencies is more inclusive than consequences (response "B) or interventions (response "D"), and therefore the correct answer.

Which of the following is not true about members of self-directed work teams? A. each member of a self-directed team has unique, specialized works skills to contribute to the group product B. members plan the group's work processes and set the group's work goals C. members may be authorized to hire their own replacements D. members of self-directed work teams tend to be absent more than members of traditional work groups

Answer A -- Each member of a self-directed team has a unique, specialized work skills to contribute to the group product. Self-directed work teams are self-directed; i.e., they determine their own goals, plan their own work processes, and may even hire their own replacements. A distinguishing characteristic of self-directed work teams is that members are generalists (versus specialists), and each member has (or learns) or broad range of skills. A possible downside of self-directed work teams is that they are associated with higher absenteeism than more traditional work groups.

When undertaking token economies with seriously disturbed individuals in mental institutions, one of the major problems with the program's efficacy has to do with: A. generalization of behaviors B. choice of reinforcers C. exchange ratio D. reinforcement value

Answer A -- Generalization of behaviors Use of a token economy involves administering secondary reinforcers such as a token each time the person engages in a desired behavior, or taking a way a reinforcer when a person engages in undesired behavior. The tokens can then be exchanged for primary reinforcers such as food or desired activities. Token economies are commonly used in institutional settings. A problem with them is that behaviors learned often fail to generalize to the real world, since tokens are not available in the real world every time we do something right.

In old age, the best predictor of adaptation would be: A. health B. number of grandchildren C. marital status D. SES level

Answer A -- Health This is tough. All of the distractors mentioned predict good adaptation in our older age. But the best answer is good health, according to the research.

Overall, research on the compressed work week suggests that its effects are: A. increased job satisfaction, with no effect on job performance B. increased job performance, with no effect on job satisfaction C. decreased job performance, with no effect on satisfaction D. increased job performance and increased job satisfaction

Answer A -- Increased job satisfaction, with no effect on job performance. In the compressed work week (CWWW), the number of days worked is shortened but the work hours per day are lengthened. For example, the work week might be compressed into four days a week, ten hours a day. Research results regarding the effects fo the CWW are mixed, but most studies suggest that job satisfaction tends to increase, while job performance is not affected and (depending on the job) may even decrease. The CWW also tends to result in decreased absenteeism.

The difference between insanity and psychosis is that: A. insanity is a legal term and psychosis is a term used in mental health literature B. insanity is an outdated term and is no longer applied in legal cases, while psychosis is used both in mental health and legal literature C. insanity is legally a broader term, and subsumes the term psychosis D. insanity refers to disturbances in thought and emotion, while a psychotic disturbance, by definition, affects thought only

Answer A -- Insanity is a legal term and psychosis is a term used in mental health literature. Insanity is strictly a legal term; it usually means that a person is in such a mental state that he or she cannot distinguish between right or wrong. Psychosis, on the other hand, is a psychiatric term.

All of the following statements regarding item response theory are true, except: A. it cannot be applied in the attempt to develop culture-fair tests. B. it's a useful theory int he development of computer programs designed to create tests tailored to the individual's level of ability. C. one of its assumptions is that test items measure a "latent trait." D. it usually has little practice significance unless one is working with very large samples.

Answer A -- It cannot be applied in the attempt to develop culture-fair tests Item response theory is a highly technical mathematical approach to item analysis. Use of item analysis is based on a number of complex mathematical assumptions. One of these assumptions, known as invariance of item parameters, holds that the characteristics of items should be the same for all theoretically equivalent groups of subjects chosen from the same population. Thus, any culture-free test should demonstrate such invariance; i.e., a set of items shouldn't have a different set of characteristics for minority and non-minority subgroups. For this reason, item response theory has been applied to the development of culture-free tests, and choice A is not a true statement. The other choices are all true statements about item response theory, and therefore incorrect answers to this question. Consistent with choice B, item response theory is the theoretical basis of computer adaptive assessment, in which tests tailored to the examinee's ability level are computer generated. As stated by choice C, an assumption of item response theory is that items measure a latent trait, such as intelligence or general ability. And, finally, research supports the notion that the assumptions of item response theory only hold true for very large samples (choice D).

Traditional Western approaches to individual psychotherapy can best be described as: A. linear and reductionist B. non-linear and holistic C. relativistic and abstract D. elitist and futile

Answer A -- Linear and reductionistic. Traditional Western approaches to individual psychotherapy emphasize linear causal relationships and are reductionistic, that is, they tend to explain complex phenomena in terms of relatively simple principles. Non-linear, holistic, and relativistic are terms used to describe non-western and systems approaches.

A woman who was in a serious car accident 6 months ago sees a picture of a car in a newspaper and becomes anxious. This is an example of: A. mediated generalization B. higher-order conditioning C. classical conditioning D. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

Answer A -- Mediated Generalization The question describes an example of a phenomenon that you may have learned is called stimulus generalization. That is, the woman has been conditioned to respond with anxiety to cars and therefore exhibited the same response to a similar stimulus -- a picture of a car. This process is also sometimes referred to as mediated generalization. In this context, the term "mediated" means that the picture has never been paired with the original source of anxiety (i.e., the accident). Therefore, in order for the picture to cause anxiety, some cognitive mediation must be taking place.

The recurrence of hallucinations long after intoxication is most likely to result from the use of: A. mescaline B. PCP C. methamphetamine D. cocaine

Answer A -- Mescaline All of the drugs listed in this question can use hallucinations during intoxication. However, hallucinations, especially after discontinued use ("flashbacks") are most likely the result of a true hallucinogen. Of the drugs listed, only mescaline is clearly classified as a hallucinogen. PCP (phencyclidine) is sometimes classified as a hallucinogen; other times it's considered a stimulant or pain killer, and it is less likely to cause flashbacks. The DSM-IV-TR dx "Hallucinogen Persisting Perception Disorder" involves the reexperiencing of hallucinations following cessation of use of a hallucinogen. In contrast, "Substance-Induced Psychotic Disorder" can be caused by intoxication or withdrawal from many different substances but the sxs must occur within a month of intoxication or withdrawal and the person must not have insight that the hallucinations (or delusions) are substance induced.

A seizure that begins with uncontrollable twitching of a small part of the body and gradually spreads throughout one side or the entire body is referred to as: A. partial B. petit mal C. tonic-clonic D. generalized

Answer A -- Partial. Seizures are generally into two main types: "partial" or "focal," and generalized. Partial (focal) seizures typically begin with uncontrollable twitching of a small part of the body, for example, one finger, which may start to jerk, followed by jerking of the entire arm and then the rest of that she of the body, and may lead to jerking of the entire body. Although it can eventually affect the entire body, it is referred to as a "partial" seizure because of how it initially developed. This is sometimes called "partial seizure with secondary generalization." Partial seizures are further subdivided into "simple partial seizures," which have no alteration of consciousness, and "complex partial seizures," which do alter consciousness. The generalized type of seizures include the petit mal and tonic-clonic (grand mal) types. Petit mal (absence) seizures are characterized by minimal motor activity and a lack of awareness. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures begin as bilaterally symmetrical at onset and involve episodes of violent shaking, during which the person becomes blue and stiff.

National surveys comparing rural and urban areas rates of mental disorders indicate: A. prevalence rates are not statistically different B. prevalence rates are not significantly higher in rural areas for most mental disorders C. prevalence rates are significantly higher in urban areas for most mental disorders D. prevalence rates are not statistically different with some disorders more common in rural or urban areas

Answer A -- Prevalence rates are not statistically different While study to study reported rates of mental illness have varied somewhat, the most consistent finding is that there are few statistically significant differences in the rates of mental disorders in urban and rural areas. Epidemiological surveys...found no significant differences int eh prevalence of major types of mental illness.

A week before a controversial episode of a television sitcom is to be shown, a prominent Christian fundamentalist group calls for a sponsor boycott of the show and urges people not to watch it. The group's actions are highly publicized and the group's leader appears on a different talk show every day for the week before the show debuts to discuss the reasons why people shouldn't watch the show. The show's episode turns out to be the most watched episode in its history. This situation illustrates the phenomenon of: A. psychological reactance B. cognitive dissonance C. overjustification D. overcompensation

Answer A -- Psychological Reactance Psychological reactance refers to the phenomenon whereby pressure to behave in a particular way causes individuals to behave in the opposite manner. Reactance occurs when a person perceives that his or her freedom of choice or sense of control is being threatened by attempted influence. In this question, it's possible that many people watch the show due to psychological reactance. They feel that their freedom of choice is threatened by the fundamentalist group. and they react by doing the opposite of what the group wants them to do.

Which of the following is not a recommendation of APA's Guidelines for Providers of Service to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations? A. psychologists should downplay their own culture and emphasize the client's culture B. psychologists should help clients understand, maintain, and resolve their own sociocultural identification C. psychologists should seek to help determine whether a so-called "problem" stems from racism or bias in others so that clients don't inappropriately personalize problems D. psychologists should work to eliminate biases, prejudices, and discriminatory practices

Answer A -- Psychologists should downplay their own culture and emphasize the client's culture. Although these Guidelines do emphasize the need to consider, respect, and understand the client's cultural background, they don't advise psychologists to downplay their own backgrounds. The other choices are all paraphrases of statements contained in these Guidelines.

Wernicke's, Broca's and conduction aphasia share which of the following difficulties? A. repeating what is said B. word prosody C. reception D. expression

Answer A -- Repeating what is said Difficulty repeating words just spoken and recalling the name of familiar objects are characteristic of all three disorders. Conduction aphasia is due to damage to the nerve fibers that connect Broca's to Wernicke's area and the most typical result is difficulty repeating what one has heard. Wernicke's, or receptive aphasia, primarily affects comprehension which results in impairment in spoken and written language, including difficulty repeating what is said.

Latane called this a social disease. It occurred when high-level employees were assessed on a combined effort. It turned out they produced less than when they were working individually. It's called: A. social loafing B. group think C. social polarization D. social facilitation

Answer A -- Social Loafing Social loafing or Latane's "social disease" is the discovery that in regard to work, individual output declines when people are working together as a group. However, social loafing does not occur under all conditions. It is reduced or eliminated when participants believe that their individual contributions are identifiable or uniquely necessary for the group to success. (B) "groupthink" is the tendency for a group to make an irrational or impulsive decision in order to reach consensus. (C) "Group polarization" refers to the tendency of individuals who start with a similar view to end with a more extreme position after group discussion.

A therapist using Beck's cognitive approach to therapy would rely primarily on which of the following to induce desirable changes in a depressed client? A. Socratic questioning B. interpretation C. reflecting D. clarification and explanation

Answer A -- Socratic questioning Questioning is a very important strategy in Beck's cognitive therapy and, in fact, the majority of communications by the therapist take the form of questions designed to help the client consider particular issues, options, and so on.

The technique which allows a researcher to identify the underlying (latent) factors that relate to a set of measured variables and the nature of the causal relationships between those factors is: A. structural equation modeling (SEM) B. cluster analysis C. Q-technique factor analysis D. survival analysis

Answer A -- Structural Equation Modeling (SEM) Structural equation modeling is a multivariate technique used to evaluate the causal (predictive) influences or test causal hypotheses about the relationships among a set of factors. Cluster analysis (b.) is used to identify homogeneous subgroups in a heterogeneous collection of observations. Q-technique factor analysis (c.) determines how many types of people a sample of people represents. Survival analysis (d.) is sued to assess the length of time to the occurrence of a critical event.

An advantage of using a MANOVA over multiple one-way ANOVAs is that: A. the use of a MANOVA reduces the experiment-wise error rate. B. a MANOVA can be used when the study involves more than one dependent variable. C. a MANOVA is the more appropriate test when the researcher has an a priori hypotheses about the nature of the relationship between the independent and dependent variables. D. a MANOVA

Answer A -- The use of a MANOVA reduces the experiment-wise error rate. When a study involves two or more dependent variables, data can be analyzed with either multiple (one for each dependent variable) statistical tests (e.g., multiple one-way ANOVAs) or one MANOVA. An advantage of the latter technique is that it reduces the probability that at least one Type I error (incorrect rejection of the null hypothesis) will be made. This is because the fewer statistical tests one conducts, the less likely it is that a Type I error will occur. In an experiment that involves more than one comparison, the probability of at least one Type I error is referred to as the experiment-wise error rate.

A cross dresser who only gets aroused when wearing women's clothing would be diagnosed with: A. transvestic fetishism B. exhibitionism C. transvestism D. gender identity disorder

Answer A -- Transvestic fetishism According to DSM-IV, Transvestic Fetishism is diagnosed when a heterosexual male has recurrent intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors involving cross dressing. (B) Exhibitionism, involves the exposing of one's genitals to an unsuspecting stranger (C) Transvestism is not a DSM-IV term (D) Gender identity disorder includes a strong and persistent cross-gender identification with evidence of clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other ares of functioning.

Cognitive dissonance theory suggests that which of the following clients would be most likely to report benefitting form psychotherapy? A. a wealthy client who pays a very high fee B. a poor client who pays a very high fee c. a wealthy client who pays a very low fee d. a poor client who pays a very low fee

Answer B -- A poor client who pays a very high fee According to the theory of cognitive dissonance, a person is motivated to reduce the negative, aversive state that results when his or her cognitions conflict with each other. From the perspective of this theory, the poor client paying a very high fee would experience a state of dissonance. Therefore, this client, more than those in the other responses, would be motivated to believe that he or she is benefitting from therapy.

A MANOVA is used to statistically analyze data when: A. a study includes two or more independent variables B. a study includes two or more dependent variables C. there are more than two levels of a single independent variable D. a study includes at least one independent variable that is a between-groups variable and another independent variable that is within-subjects variable.

Answer B -- A study includes two or more dependent variables A MANOVA (multivariate analysis of variance) is used to analyze the effects of one or more independent variables on two or more dependent variables that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale. A factorial ANOVA (a.) it used to analyze data when factorial design, which includes two or more independent variables, is used that the dependent variable is measured on an interval or ratio scale. A one-way ANOVA (c) is used when a study has one independent variable and more than two independent groups. The split-plot (mixed) ANOVA (d.) is the appropriate technique when at least one independent variable is a between-groups variable and another independent variable is a within-subjects variable.

The primary associated feature of the Somatoform Disorders is: A. panic attacks B. anxiety and depression C. addiction to analgesics or mild tranquilizers D. somatic delusions

Answer B -- Anxiety and Depression The Somatoform Disorders (such as Somatization Disorder, Conversion Disorder, Somatoform Pain Disorder, Hypochondriasis, and Body Dysmorphic Disorder) are characterized by physical sxs which have no known physical cause and are believed to be caused by psychological factors. The DSM identifies anxiety and depression as associated features of each of these disorders. You might have gone for addiction to analgesics or tranquilizers, since it seems to make sense. However, excessive use of analgesics (which are not addictive anyway) is identified as a possible associated feature of Somatoform Pain Disorder only.

Working Memory is an expansion of the WISC-III Freedom from Distractibility factor. It is comprised of which of following scales? A. coding, symbol search, digit span B. arithmetic and digit-span C. perceptual organization, comprehension, similarities D. digit-span, picture arrangement, coding

Answer B -- Arithmetic and digit-span The Working Memory scale is comprised of the WISC-III subtests of Arithmetic and Digit-Span and measures numerical ability, attention, and concentration.

Holland's approach to vocational guidance is based on the assumption that: A. interests motivate occupational choice B. behavior is a function of personality-environment congruence C. job satisfaction and performance are related to a match between aptitude and job requirements D. interests change in a predictable way over the course of the lifespan

Answer B -- Behavior is a function of personality-environment congruence Holland's six occupational themes represent both personality and environment types. According to Holland, job satisfaction, productivity, and other behaviors are affected by the congruence or fit between a person's personality and the nature of the work environment.

Journal reviewers who show strong bias against manuscripts that report results contrary to their theoretical perspective are demonstrating: A. self-serving bias B. confirmatory bias C. fundamental attribution bias D. self-verification theory

Answer B -- Confirmatory Bias "Confirmatory bias" or "confirmation bias" is the tendency to seek, interpret, and create information that verifies our existing beliefs. Self-serving bias (A) is the tendency to attribute one's successes to internal factors and one's failures to external factors. The fundamental attribution bias or error (C) refers to the tendency to overestimate dispositional (personality) factors and underestimate situational factors in explaining a person's behavior. Self-verification theory (D) proposes that people seek confirmation of their self-concept.

The best example of a secondary prevention program is: A. a rehabilitation program B. crisis intervention C. a community education program D. Head Start

Answer B -- Crisis intervention Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention for a problem in order to reduce its duration and keep it from getting worse. Crisis intervention, suicide hotlines, and screening tests are all examples of secondary prevention.

According to DSM-IV, patients who meet some but not all of the criteria for a particular diagnosis can still be assigned that dx. This reflects the fact that: A. DSM-IV relies on a dimensional rather than a categorical approach to dx. B. DSM-IV relies on a categorical rather than a dimensional approach to dx C. DSM-IV combines aspects of categorical and dimensional dx. D. DSM-IV's approach to diagnostic classification is not valid.

Answer B -- DSM-IV relies on a categorical rather than a dimensional approach to dx DSM-IV uses a categorical approach to dx. This means that mental disorders are divided into types based on criteria sets with defining features. An alternative to the categorical approach would be a dimensional approach, which would involve quantifying patients' sxs based on their severity. Some have suggested that the categorical approach is inappropriate for dx of mental disorders because it misleadingly suggests that the categories of disorders and individuals within the same category are homogeneous in all relevant ways. To provide some degree of compensation for these limitations, DSM-IV dxs often include a polythetic criteria set, which means that, for a dx to be made, a person may present with some but not all of the diagnostic criteria. In addition, DSM-IV reminds the clinician to include other information besides diagnoses in evaluation reports.

The best initial strategy for teaching complex motor skills that require speed and accuracy to be successfully performed is to: A. emphasize accuracy over speed B. emphasize speed over accuracy C. emphasize accuracy and speed equally D. emphasize an alteration between speed and accuracy

Answer B -- Emphasize speed over accuracy Research on speed and accuracy in learning complex motor skills suggests the best approach is to emphasize speed of performance initially although, to a certain degree, the optimal approach depends on the specific skill. Speed and accuracy in the learning of a complex motor skills.

According to Piaget, when a child accommodates new information by forming a new schema or modifying an existing one, this results in: A. decentration B. equilibration C. assimilation D. symbolic representation

Answer B -- Equilibration As defined by Piaget, equilibration is a state of cognitive balance. The need for balance is what motivates the individual to assimilate and accommodate new information.

The difference between professional ethics and professional values is best stated by which of the following? A. if a psychologist is ethical, there should be no difference between ethics and values B. ethics are standards for practice set by the profession, while values refer to judgments of right and wrong C. Ethics can be stated more specifically than values D. Values specifically define appropriate professional conduct, while ethics are a more general code of proper professional conduct

Answer B -- Ethics are standards for practice set by the profession, while values refer to judgments of right and wrong Response B distinguishes between ethics and values. Values are concerned with what is good and desirable and ethics refer to correct or appropriate practice. Values and ethics are related in that the latter are usually derived from the former; for example, privacy is a value that is reflected in the ethical standard requiring psychologists to obtain clients' informed consent before releasing information about therapy. Responses A and C are not necessarily true, and answer D is not true since values do not specifically define appropriate professional conduct.

The California Tarasoff Statute: A. Changed the Ethics Code in Canada and the United States B. Extended the duty to warn clause C. Was necessary as issues implicated by the Tarasoff case count for a majority of forensic cases D. Applies to everyone working in a public setting

Answer B -- Extended the duty to warn clause The California Tarasoff statute gives clinicians explicit guidance about when a duty to act arises and tells clinicians what actions fulfill their duty. The first Tarasoff decision established a "duty to warn," however, the case was reheard several years later and the Tarasoff II decision modified the duty to warn to a "duty to protect." Choice C contradicts the conclusion by Behnke, Preis and Bates in "The Essentials of California Mental Health Law" Norton and Company, 1998, pg 9 in which they state, "issues implicated by the Tarasoff case and its legal progeny account for a small percentage of forensic cases.

The most effective behavioral technique to reduce a school-aged child's temper tantrum is: A. modeling B. extinction C. positive reinforcement D. negative reinforcement

Answer B -- Extinction Extinction is the elimination or reduction in the frequency of a response achieve by the removal fo the reinforcement maintaining the response. The extinction of temper tantrums would entail ignoring the child's behavior or not reinforcing it with attention. This technique has been found to be effective for reducing temper tantrums. Positive (c.) and negative (d.) reinforcement are used to strengthen behaviors. Modeling (a.) is used to teach new behaviors.

The research has shown that, in the treatment of nicotine dependence, adding a behavioral intervention to nicotine replacement therapy: A. has little or no effect in terms of either short- or long-term abstinence B. has little additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but does improve long-term abstinence C. has some additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but doesn't improve long-term abstinence D. has a substantial effect on both short- and long-term abstinence

Answer B -- Has little additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but does improve long-term abstinence This question is difficult since the research on this issue has been inconsistent. However, there is evidence that a combined treatment (behavioral intervention plus nicotine replacement therapy) is best, especially in terms of long-term abstinence (abstinence for 6 months or more).

One of the most consistent findings of the research on client factors in the therapy process is that: A. more seriously disturbed clients have better outcomes in therapy B. higher levels of intelligence predict better therapy outcomes C. age is significantly related to therapy outcome D. men are more likely to seek therapy

Answer B -- Higher levels of intelligence predict better therapy outcomes One of the most consistent findings of the research on client factors is that higher levels of intelligence predict better therapy outcome. Answer A is incorrect because seriously disturbed individuals actually have poorer outcomes. In regard to answer C, age appears to be unrelated to therapy outcome and answer D would have to state that women are more likely to seek therapy to be correct.

A patient with right hemisphere damage is most likely to respond to jokes with which of the following reactions? A. indifference B. indifference of exaggerated jocularity C. frustration and irritation D. rage

Answer B -- Indifference or Exaggerated Jocularity The two hemispheres appear to have different functions in terms of emotions -- the left hemisphere governs positive emotions, while the right hemisphere governs negative ones. Consequently, damage to the right hemisphere can produce apathy or undue cheerfulness, which may be reflected in the individual's response to humor.

Dementia due to Head Trauma: A. is usually progressive in cases of moderate to severe trauma. B. is usually progressive only in cases of repeated head trauma C. unlike other forms of Dementia, does not usually involve disturbances in executive functions. D. unlike other forms of Dementia, is associated with more deficits in executive functions than with memory impairment.

Answer B -- Is usually progressive only in cases of repeated head trauma. As described in DSM-IV, Dementia due to Head Trauma is usually non progressive when it is the result of a single head trauma. If it is progressive, this usually indicates a superimposed condition (e.g., hydrocephalus).

A man is able to achieve erections during sleep, but, has difficulty achieving or maintaining erections during sexual activities. The most appropriate diagnosis would be: A. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder B. Male Erectile Disorder C. Sexual Aversion Disorder D. Sexual Dysfunction Not Otherwise Specified

Answer B -- Male Erectile Disorder Male Erectile Disorder is characterized by a persistent or recurrent inability to attain or maintain an erection until completion of sexual activity. This best fits the description in this question. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder (A) is diagnosed when a person has persistently deficient or absent sexual fantasies and desire for sexual activity. Since the question did not indicate that the man in this question lacked sexual desire, we should not assume that to be the case. Although, if a lack of desire was also present, both diagnoses would be given. There also is no evidence of extreme aversion to, or avoidance of, all genital contact with a sexual partner -- which eliminates Sexual Aversion Disorder (C). And Sexual Dysfunctions NOS (D) is reserved for sexual dysfunctions that do not meet the criteria for any specific sexual dysfunction.

Severe maternal malnutrition during the third trimester is correlated with a number of intellectual, social, and motor deficits in children. Which of the following statements regarding the physiological correlates of these deficits is most true? A. maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is most likely to result in incomplete development of the autonomic nervous system. B. maternal malnutrition in the third trimester seems to have its most negative impact on the developing brain. C. maternal malnutrition int he third trimester is most likely to cause physical disabilities that prevent the child from developing at a normal rate. D. maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is not likely to have a significant physiological effect on the developing fetus; observed deficits in these children are probably due to social and environmental causes.

Answer B -- Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester seems to have its most negative impact on the developing brain. Severe prenatal malnutrition is likely to have differential effects, depending on when in pregnancy it occurs. In the 1st trimester, it can result in congenital malformations and spontaneous abortion. In the 3rd trimester (as well as in the first 3-6 months after birth), it is most likely to have a negative effect on the central nervous system -- specifically, the brain. Studies have suggested that these children often have an abnormally low number of brain cells and brain weight. The specific behavioral consequences may include apathy, unresponsiveness to environmental stimulation, irritability, an abnormally high-pitched cry, intellectual deficits, and lags in motor development.

Which of the following is one of the first signs of AIDS-related dementia? A. loss of abstract thinking functions B. mild memory loss for recent events C. seizures D. apathy

Answer B -- Mild memory loss for recent events AIDS dementia complex occurs in about 2/3 of all AIDS patients. Usually, one of the first cognitive signs of dementia (both in AIDS and non-AIDS patients) is a loss of concentration and a mild memory loss, especially for recent events.

Which of the following is most associated with unusual perceptual experiences? A. generalized anxiety disorder B. panic disorder C. adjustment disorder D. dysthymic disorder

Answer B -- Panic Disorder Panic attacks are characterized by at least four of ten symptoms. These may include derealization or depersonalization, which are types of perceptual disturbances.

A pianist comes to your office for therapy after having sustained a head injury in a recent car accident. He has lost sensation in the fingers of his left hand and feels he "must be going crazy" because this is such a strange occurrence. Before you pull out the DSM-IV, you refer him to a neurologist because you suspect the head injury may have caused damage to the: A. precentral gyrus B. postcentral gyrus C. lateral fissure D. central sulcus

Answer B -- Postcentral Gyrus You are a very informed psychologist who knows that loss of sensation due to brain injury is likely to involve somatosensory cortex. You are also aware that the somatosensory cortex is located on the postcentral gyrus in the parietal lobe, not the precentral gyrus (answer A). You also know that the lateral fissure (answer c) separates the temporal lobe from the overlying frontal and parietal loves and that the central sulcus (answer D) divides the frontal and parietal lobes.

When helping his younger sister with her homework, an older brother "thinks aloud" while solving problems and gives his sister suggestions and support. This is best described as: A. mentoring B. scaffolding C. social facilitation D. social referencing

Answer B -- Scaffolding The older brother is using techniques associated with "scaffolding," which was originally described by Vygotsky and refers to the temporary support that parents, teachers, and more experienced children give to a child to help him/her do a task or acquire a skill.

A psychologist is consulted by the parents of a child who was referred by a pediatrician for evaluation. During the interview with the parents, they report the girl suffered a severe head injury which they haven't told the pediatrician about. Assuming appropriate consents have been obtained, the psychologist: A. should have the parents report this to the pediatrician B. should report this to the pediatrician C. should not report this until the parents tell the pediatrician first D. should keep this information to herself.

Answer B -- Should report this to the pediatrician. The question looks like one on confidentiality, and, indeed, there are some aspects of confidentiality embedded here. But, more than that, it's about professional relationships. You're told in the item stem that all consents have been obtained, so the confidentiality issue was already addressed. The question then is, "What should the psychologist do?" Since we're all here to help the patient, the most appropriate thing to do is to let the pediatrician know about your findings. You would call (probably call rather than write since calling is quicker) the pediatrician and report your findings. It was the pediatrician who made the referral in the first place, and you have the parents' consent.

The part of the brain that is compromised in Parkinson's Disease is the: A. basal ganglia B. substantia nigra C. hypothalamus D. frontal lobe

Answer B -- Substania Nigra The substantial migration is a group of neurons that is part of the extrapyramidal motor system. Parkinson's disease, which is characterized by tremors and other disorders of voluntary movement, is cause by degeneration of substantia nigra neurons. When substantia nigra neurons degenerate, the amount of dopamine they provide to neurons in the basal ganglia (also part of the extrapyramidal motor system) is reduced. In other words, basal ganglia neurons are also involved in Parkinson's disease -- the disease occurs when they get a lower than normal quality of dopamine. Thus, if substantia nigra were not a choice, the basal ganglia would be the best answer. Note, however, that, unlike substantia nigra neurons, basal ganglia neurons remain intact in Parkinson's disease.

A therapist working from the perspective of Minuchin's school of thought would examine a family system in terms of: A. multigenerational transmission processes B. subsystems and boundaries C. fusion and differentiation D. communication style

Answer B -- Subsystems and boundaries Salvador Minuchin's Structural Family Therapy is based on and extends general family systems theory. The goal is to restructure maladaptive family structures, including family subsystems and boundaries.

When looking at an item characteristic curve (ICC), which of the following provides information about how well the item discriminates between high and low achievers? A. the Y-intercept B. the slope of the curve C. the position of the curve (left versus right) D. the position of the curve (top versus bottom)

Answer B -- The slope of the curve An item response curve provides one to three pieces of information about a test item -- its difficulty (answer C), its ability to discriminate between high and low scorers (answer B); and the probability of answering the item correctly just by guessing (answer A).

Which of the following is most true of Type I Schizophrenia as described by Timothy Crow? A. There will be a poor prognosis B. The symptoms are due to a neurotransmitter abnormality C. A majority of symptoms will begin in adolescence D. It will not respond to most antipsychotic medications

Answer B -- The symptoms are due to a neurotransmitter abnormality Timothy Crow distinguishes between two types (I and II) of Schizophrenia. Type I includes symptoms of delusions or hallucinations, inappropriate affect, and disorganized thinking. It is also thought to more likely be due to neurotransmitter irregularities. Type II symptoms are described by the other three choices, and is also considered to be more likely due to brain structure abnormalities.

Typically, the onset of the SSRIs antidepressant effect begins within a few: A. months B. weeks C. days D. hours

Answer B -- Weeks Current clinical practice indicates that at least 2 to 3 weeks of continuous SSRI use are necessary for the antidepressant effects to manifest in patients. The results of a meta-analysis of 47 double-blind, placebo-controlled trials conducted between 1981-2000, found most of the antidepressant effects occurred during the first 2 weeks. Reviews of the studies, found only 13 cohorts from 8 studies showed a pattern where there was an increased antidepressant effect from weeks 3 to 6 compared with weeks 1 to 3. Additionally, research on the time course of improvement for seven different types of antidepressants, compared to placebo, indicates almost no differences between treatment modalities and found mean values around day 12-14 for improvement and day 18-20 for response.

An intervention targeting Bronfenbrenner's microsystem will focus on: A. family members B. family members and/or classmates C. school and church D. parents' work and friends

Answer B -- family members and/or classmates Bronfenbrenner's ecological model distinguishes between four interacting environmental levels that range from the most proximal to the most global. The microsystem is the individual's immediate environment and includes parents, siblings, caregivers, classmates, and teachers.

To determine whether or not the doctrine of comparable worth is lived up to in an organization, one would rely on: A. the perception of employees B. a job description C. a job evaluation D. a task analysis

Answer C -- A job evaluation The doctrine of comparable worth states that workers (in particular, men and women) should get equal pay for performing jobs that have equivalent worth. A job evaluation is a method of determining the worth or value of jobs in an organization. Thus, it is the best answer to this question, because it would be a way of comparing the value of different jobs. Note that many critics believe that current methods of job evaluation contain inherent gender biases. Statistics clearly show that women earn less than men, and some believe that one reason for this is that job evaluation methods undervalue the work that women perform.

Alzheimer's is related to an under production of: A. serotonin B. GABA c. acetylcholine D. glutamate

Answer C -- Acetylcholine Acetylcholine plays a role in learning and memory. Loss of acetylcholine receptors in the cortex and hippocampus occur in Alzheimer's disease.

The purpose of rotation in factor analysis is to facilitate interpretation of the factors. Rotation: A. alters the factor loadings for each variable but not the eigenvalue for each factor B. alters the eigenvalue for each factor but not the factor loadings for the variables C. alters the factor loadings for each variable and the eigenvalue for each factor D. does not alter the eigenvalue for each factor nor the factor loadings for the variables

Answer C -- Alters the factor loadings for each variable and the eigenvalue for each factor. In factor analysis, rotating the factor changes the factor loadings for the variables and eigenvalue for each factor although the total of the eigenvalues remains the same.

According to the central limit theorem, A. as sample size increases, the shape of a sample distribution becomes more normal. B. as the size of a sampling distribution of means increases, its distribution becomes more normal. C. as sample size increases, the shape of a sampling distribution means becomes more normal. D. as sampling size increases, the shape of a sampling distribution of means approximates the shape of the population distribution.

Answer C -- As sample size increases, the shape of a sampling distribution of means becomes more normal. According to the central limit theorem, the shape of a sampling distribution of means approaches normality as sample size increases. The central limit theorem is covered in the Advanced Statistics section of your materials, and you should study it after you have a reasonably solid grasp of the material presented in the rest of the section.

The sxs of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder can be alleviated through cognitive-behavioral treatments and medication interventions that reduce activity in the: A. reticular activating system B. inferior colliculus C. caudate nucleus D. locus coeruleus

Answer C -- Caudate Nucleus The caudate nucleus appears to be overactive in people diagnosed with OCD. L.R. Baxter reports that both behavioral interventions and drug therapy affect metabolic rate in the caudate nucleus (Caudate glucose metabolic rate changes with both drug and behavior therapy for OCD). The reticular activating system (answer a), which you should remember by now, is involved in attention and arousal. The inferior colliculus (answer B), controls auditory reflexes, and the locus coeruleus (answer D) may be associated with Depression and Panic Disorder.

Patterson's coercive family interactive model would predict: A. parents who "bribe" their children to act appropriately will meet with limited success B. hostile aggressive children change a parent's disciplinary technique C. children initially learn aggressive behavior at school and then this generalizes D. children often learn aggressive behavior at school and then this generalizes

Answer C -- Children initially learn aggressive behavior at school and then this generalizes. Patterson's model attributes aggressiveness in children to certain parent-child interactions. According to this model, children initially learn aggressive behavior from their parents who model aggression through their use of harsh discipline and ignore or reinforce their child's aggressiveness. In addition, these actions become increasingly coercive and eventually generalize to school.

According to Margaret Mahler, individuation involves: A. developing relationships with significant others B. developing an interest in the outside world C. coming to recognize the existence of self and others D. coming to recognize that Mother does not cease to exist when she disappears from sight.

Answer C -- Coming to recognize the existence of self and others According to Mahler, a child must separate and individuate so that he or she can move from being part of a mother-child unit to being a member of the family. Separation occurs when the child disengages and differentiates front eh mother, while individuation occurs when the child develops an inner representation of the mother, an ability to test reality, a sense of time, and an awareness of the existence of others as distinct from him or herself. In other words, when the child individuates, he or she moves away from symbiosis with the mother and toward the recognition and experience of his or her individual existence.

According to Horn and Cattell (1966): A. crystallized and fluid intelligence become more integrated in later adulthood B. crystallized and fluid intelligence are uncorrelated C. crystallized intelligence develops through the use of fluid intelligence D. fluid (but not crystallized) intelligence depends on exposure to particular cultural and educational experiences

Answer C -- Crystallized intelligence develops through the use of fluid intelligence Cattell and Horn distinguish between fluid and crystallized intelligence. The former is independent of specific instruction and is relatively culture free, while the latter depends on exposure to education and is affected by cultural experiences. Cattell and Horn believed that these two aspects of intelligence are highly correlated and that crystalized intelligence develops through the use of fluid intelligence.

Meta-analyses on gender differences in leadership have found that female leaders are: A. more effective than male leaders overall B. less effective than male leaders overall C. equally effective as male leaders overall D. more effective than male leaders in first-level management positions, but males are more effective in middle management

Answer C -- Equally effective as male leaders overall. Eagly and colleagues conducted a series of meta-analyses on the effects of gender on leadership. They found that overall, male and female leaders are equally effective. However, certain gender differences in leadership were found to exist. For example, female leaders were more effective when the leadership role was defined as "feminine" and males were more effective when the role was defined as "masculine." Contrary to D, males were found to be more effective in first-level management positions and females were more effective in middle management positions. One interpretation of this finding is that lower-level management requires more technical skills, whereas middle-level management requires more human relations skills.

The theory that proposes convergent and divergent thinking as dimensions of intelligence is associated with: A. Galton B. Thurstone C. Guilford D. Cattell

Answer C -- Guilford J.P. Guilford identified 120 elements using factor analysis that he proposed in sum comprise intelligence. Convergent thinking is the ability to group or analyze divergent ideas usually leading to a unifying concept or single solution. Divergent thinking is the ability to generate creative, new ideas or to elaborate or branch off from traditional approaches, such as in brainstorming or "thinking out of the box." Galton (a.) postulated that intelligence is an inherited treated distributed normally across the population. Thurstone (b.) applied his method of factor analysis to intelligence leading to his proposed theory of Primary Mental Abilities (that individuals possess varying degrees of sub-components of intelligence). Cattell's (d.) theory distinguished between fluid and crystallized intelligence.

Consuming foods containing tyramine while taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (antidepressant) would most likely result in: A. depression B. hypotension C. hypertension D. no adverse reactions

Answer C -- Hypertension Eating foods containing tyramine while taking MAOIs is likely to cause a hypertensive crisis, that is, a severe rise in blood pressure. The person may also experience headache, diaphoresis (perspiration), and palpitations. On rare occasions the combination has caused cardiac failure and cerebral hemorrhage. Some of the goods that must be avoided while taking MAOIs include: beer and wine, aged cheese, beef or chicken liver, orange pulp, pickled or smoked meats, packaged soups, and yeast vitamin supplements.

Walking through a dark park at night, you hear footsteps behind you. You think it may be a mugger so your breathing deepens and heart beats faster, at the same time you experience fear. This is an example of which theory? A. Cannon-Bard B. James-Lange C. Lazarus D. Schachter-Singer

Answer C -- Lazarus In contrast to the other three theories, Lazarus' theory proposes that a thought must precede any emotion or physiological arousal. Cannon-Bard (a.) states physiological and emotional arousal are experienced at the same time. According to the other two, an event causes physiological arousal first, then interpretation (b.) or reasoning (d.) and finally the experience of emotion. A fifth theory of emotion, facial feedback, argues that changes in facial muscles cue the brain and provide the basis of emotion.

The term "group polarization" refers to the tendency of groups to make decisions that are: A. more risky than those that might be made by individual members. B. more conservative than those that might be made by individual members. C. more risky or more conservative than those that might be made by individual members. D. more illogical than those that might be made by individual members.

Answer C -- More risky or more conservative than those that might be made by individual members. A group's decisions tend to be more extreme (in one direction or the other) than those that would be made by individuals in the group acting alone. This phenomenon is referred to as group polarization. One explanation for group polarization that group members are more willing to support extreme decisions because, as group members, they won't have to take as much personal responsibility for their decisions as they would if they were acting alone.

Recent research indicates the most effective treatment for antisocial behavior in juvenile offenders is: A. behavioral reinforcement B. structured family intervention with parental training C. multi-systemic therapy D. victims family therapy

Answer C -- Multi-Systemic Therapy Multisystemic Therapy (MST), targeting chronic, violent, or substance abusing juvenile offenders at high risk of out-of-home placement, is consistent with social-ecological models of behavior and findings from causal modeling studies of delinquency and drug use. The approach views individuals as being nested within a complex network of interconnected systems that encompass individual, family, and extra familial (peer, school, neighborhood) factors. MST is a goal-oriented, intensive family- and community-based treatment that addresses the multiple determinants and factors in each youth's social network that are contributing to his or her antisocial behavior. It is provided using home-based model of services delivery with a typical treatment duration of approximately 4 months. Intervention strategies include strategic family therapy, structural family therapy, behavioral parent training, and cognitive behavior therapies. MST interventions typically aim to improve caregiver discipline practices, enhance family affective relations, decrease youth association with deviant peers, increase youth association with prosocial peers, improve youth school or vocational performance, engage youth in prosocial recreational outlets, and develop an indigenous support network of extended family, neighbors, and friends to help caregivers achieve and maintain such changes. MST has demonstrated long-term reductions in criminal activity, drug-related arrests, violent offenses, and incarceration. Controlled studies also showed that MST outcomes were similar for youths across the adolescent age range (i.e., 12-17 years), for males and females, and for African-American vs. white youths and families.

Use of which of the following strategies is most likely to increase a person's level of chronic pain? A. biofeedback B. active coping C. passive coping D. cognitive-behavioral therapy

Answer C -- Passive coping. Several studies have found that passive coping strategies (e.g., depending on others, restricting social activities, use of medication for immediate pain relief) result in an increase in subjective pain among chronic pain patients. Conversely, helping patients reduce the frequency of passive coping strategies is believed to result in decreased pain. Active coping strategies (e.g., staying busy or active, distracting attention from the pain), as well as biofeedback and cognitive-behavioral therapy, have most often been found to decrease pain.

Children with Generalized Anxiety Disorder most frequently worry about: A. being away from home or close relatives B. being embarrassed in public C. performance in school or sporting events D. having an illness

Answer C -- Performance in school or sporting events According to DSM-IV-TR, children and adolescents with Generalized Anxiety Disorder frequently worry about their performance or competence at school and in sporting events. They may also worry about catastrophic events like earthquakes or nuclear war. Choice A is more characteristic of Separation Anxiety Disorder. Choice B indicates Social Phobia. And Choice D is characteristic of Hypochondriasis.

As an organizational psychologist, Dr. Jobb will recommend frame-of-reference training in order to: A. improve the accuracy of selection decisions B. enhance communication among team members C. reduce rater biases on performance appraisals D. improve leadership effectiveness

Answer C -- Reduce rater biases on performance appraisals This is one of those concepts that you either know or you don't know, so it wouldn't be worth a lot of time trying to figure out the right answer. Now you know: Frame-of-reference training is used to improve rater accuracy by teaching raters to focus on the various characteristics and requirements that contribute to good job performance.

When you look up to a persona, are influenced by that person, identify with that person and hold them in high regard, that person has: A. Expert power B. Coercive power C. Referent power D. Reward power

Answer C -- Referent power Referent power is based on a person'a attraction to or desire to be like the holder of power. "A" Expert power is based on the belief that the power holder has special knowledge or expertise. "B" Coercive power results from the holder's ability to punish others. And finally, "D" reward power, results from the holder's ability to reward others.

One of the criteria for the diagnosis of autism is: A. Difficulty with phonemes B. Difficulty with morphemes C. Reversal of pronouns D. Reversal of sentences

Answer C -- Reversal of pronouns People with autism rarely speak (about half don't speak at all) and when they do, speech usually involves abnormalities such as echolalia and reversal of pronouns, for example, saying "you" instead of "I."

In an experiment, a psychologist establishes a conditioned startle response to a flashing red light by pairing presentation of the light with a loud noise that naturally elicits a startle reaction. Subsequently, the red light is simultaneously presented with a strong odor just before the loud noise. After many of these conditioning trials, which of the following is likely to occur when the strong odor is presented alone? A. The strong odor will produce a startle response that is even stronger than the response produced by the red light due to sensitization of the subject. B. The strong odor will produce a very weak or no startle response due to habituation. C. The strong odor will not produce a startle response because blocking will have occurred. D. The strong odor may or may not produce a startle response depending on the original strength of the subject's response to the loud noise.

Answer C -- The strong odor will not produce a startle response because blocking will have occurred. Blocking occurs when a CS is presented simultaneously with a second stimulus just before the US. Although it would seem that the second stimulus should acquire the properties of a CS from this procedure, that's not what happens. Instead, the second stimulus does not produce a conditioned response. This is referred to as blocking.

A whisper being audible in a library reading room, but not in a busy cafeteria is explained by: A. the all-or-nothing principle B. the "law of effect" C. Weber's law D. the "law of proximity"

Answer C -- Weber's law. Weber's law is one of the psychophysical laws that explains the relationship between physical stimuli and their psychological effects. According to Weber, the "just noticeable difference" in the stimulus is proportional to the magnitude of the original stimulus, explaining why a whisper can be heard in a quiet room but not in a noisy one.

Which of the following is an example of assimilation? A. arranging flowers in a vase B. changing your clothes to please your spouse C. calling the daises and ferns in a vase "posies" D. putting on a coat in the winter

Answer C -- calling the daisies and ferns in a vase "posies." Assimilation is when a child incorporates new information in terms of his or her existing schema.

The parents of a child with Mental Retardation are most likely to say that, during infancy, one of the earliest signs that something "was wrong" was: A. the child's failure to cuddle B. the child's lack of eye contact C. the child's lack of interest in the environment D. the persistence of primitive reflexes

Answer C -- the child's lack of interest in the environment. Answers A and B are more characteristic of Autistic Disorder, and answer D is more likely in cerebral palsy or other serious motor disorder. Lack of age-appropriate interest in the environment is one of the earliest signs of retardation.

If someone achieves a score of 30 on a standardized test with a standard error of measurement of 5 points, what is the approximate probability that the person's true score is between 20 and 40? A. 2/3 B. 4/5 C. 9/10 D. 19/20

Answer D -- 19/20 The range given in the question encompasses the obtained score plus and minus two standard errors of measurement. That is, the standard error of measurement is 5, and the range is 10 points (2 X 5) below the obtained score to 10 points above the obtained score. One things you should memorize is that there is about a 95% probability that a person's true score lies within two standard errors of measurement of the obtained score. But even if you knew that, you might have had trouble with this question, since the choices are given as fractions, not percentages. To answer it correctly, you needed to figure out that 19/20 is the fractional equivalent of 95%.

The factor loading for Test A and Factor II is .80 in a factor matrix. This means that: A. only 80% of variability in Test A is accounted for by the factor analysis B. Only 64% of variability in Test A is accounted for by the factor analysis C. 80% of variability in Test A is accounted for by Factor II D. 64% of variability in Test A is accounted for by Factor II

Answer D -- 64% of variability in Test A is accounted for by Factor II The correlation coefficient for a test and an identified factor is referred to as a factor loading. To obtain a measure of shared variability, the factor loading is squared. This example, the factor loading is .80, meaning that 64% (.80 squared) of variability int he test is accounted for by the factor. The other identified factor(s) probably also account for some variability in Test A, which is why (b.) is not the best answer.

From the perspective of psychoanalytic theory, mania represents: A. a biological illness that psychoanalysis can do nothing about B. acting-out of libidinous impulses C. regression to an infantile state D. a defense against depression

Answer D -- A defense against depression According to classical psychoanalytic theory, mania occurs as a defense against depression, due to an inability of the person to tolerate or admit to being depressed.

Research by Sue and his colleagues suggests that which of the following clients is most likely to return for a second session of psychotherapy? A. an African American client B. a Latino American client C. an Anglo American client D. an Asian American client

Answer D -- An Asian American client Studies on therapy dropout rates have produced inconsistent results. This question is asking about a particular study, however, which found that African Americans have the highest dropout rates, while Asian Americans have the lowest dropout rates.

A primary reinforcer is the same as: A. a conditioner reinforcer B. the first reinforcer used C. pseudoconditioning D. an unconditional reinforcer

Answer D -- An unconditional reinforcer A primary reinforcer is the same as an unconditional reinforcer. These are items that acquire their reinforcing value without special training. Food and water are examples of primary reinforcers.

Children's memory for early events: A. cannot be recalled by most after age 3 B. is limited and constant C. change after age 2 D. changes as it develops over time

Answer D -- Changes as it develops over time. Recent research has found that babies memories are not last, rather they are updated continually as learning progresses. Their ability to recall is influenced by the same factors and conditions that impact recall in older children and adults. These include: the nature of the events; the number of times they experience them; and the availability of cues or reminders. Children from ages one to three are all capable of both immediate and long-term recall of specific events in their lives. Infants tests at two, four, and six months can recall details about hidden object, their location, and size. The failure in retrieving memories from the first year of life (a.) refers to the phenomenon of infantile amnesia. Infantile amnesia has been theorized to be the result of a lack of schematic organization of experience, a different in way of encoding in early childhood, and more recently, the importance of language development. Studies on memory and language development suggest that memories are made initially as the result of the child talking about them with someone else. As the ability to reason develops, the memory securing conversations are carried out within the child him/herself.

You are a psychologist in private practice and, due to a heavy case load, you decide to work with another psychologist. The second psychologist will see many of the clients and share office space with you. You agree to give this psychologist 50% of all fees received. This arrangement is: A. unethical, because the ethical standards prohibit fees for referrals B. unethical, because it threatens the best interests of the clients C. unethical, because the clients will be misled about their fees D. ethical

Answer D -- Ethical There is nothing inherently unethical about this arrangement, and it is not barred by APA's ethical standards. The standards do prohibit payment for referrals that are based not he referral itself and not based on services rendered. However, both psychologists in this case will apparently be rendering services, so the arrangement appears acceptable.

You are an organizational process consultant hired by a hospital. Several nurses tell you they feel they're being overworked and underpaid. In this case, your most likely intervention would be to: A. explain the nurses' concerns to the hospital administrators B. conduct a job analysis to determine how much the nurses deserve to be paid and present your results to the hospital administrators C. act with the best interests of the hospital's patients in mind D. help the nurses organize regular meetings with the physicians and administrator to discuss their concerns

Answer D -- Help the nurses organize regular meetings with the physicians and administrator to discuss their concerns A process consultant, rather than merely correcting problems for his or her client, focuses on an organization's underlying processes, with the goal of making changes in processes so that individuals within the organization can solve their own problems. Thus, choice D is the best answer, as it is the only one which offers a way in which the nurses and administrators can work together to solve the problem of dissatisfaction with work conditions. By comparison, choices A and B would have the consultant diagnose and "fix" the problem; these interventions would be consistent with medical rather than the process model of consultation.

Stimulus A is paired with stimulus B. Stimulus B is then paired with stimulus C until stimulus C elicits the same response that was elicited by stimulus A. This is an example of: A. chaining B. shaping C. secondary reinforcement D. higher-order conditioning

Answer D -- Higher-order Conditioning Higher-order conditioning is a classical conditioning procedure in which two stimuli (CS and US) are paired until the conditioned stimulus (CS) produces the conditioned response (CR) and then the CS (which is now referred to as a US) is paired with another CS to elicit the same response. All of the other choices in this question are operant conditioning terms. Operant conditioning involves behaviors and the consequences that follow, rather than the pairing of stimuli. Chaining (A) is the operant procedure that enables complex behaviors to develop through reinforcement of a sequence of simple behaviors. That is, Behavior A is followed by a reinforcer, which serves as a discriminative stimulus for Behavior B, which is followed by a reinforcer, and so on. Shaping (B) involves reinforcing successive approximations of a desired behavior.

The major threat to internal validity of a time-series quasi-experiment would be: A. maturation B. selection C. regression D. history

Answer D -- History To get this correct (except if you got it correct by chance), you'd need to know what a time-series design is. Basically, you take a number of measurements over time to get a longitudinal baseline trend, then somewhere alone the line you introduce your experimental manipulation. If, following the manipulation, you see the trend change, you can infer that your intervention caused the change. But a major threat to the internal validity of this design is a historical event which could co-occur with your experimental manipulation. You'd have no control over these events and hey could be a rival explanation for changes in your measurements.

The basic assumption of Howard Gardner's theory of intelligence is reflected best in which of the following statements: A. intelligence is best defined in terms of the ability to deal with abstract concepts B. intelligence assessment requires the use of simple quantified measures such as paper-and-pencil tests C. in assessing intelligence, learning to be an efficient processor of information is more important than genetic factors D. in assessing intelligence, the society in which a person lives evaluates how intelligent a person is thought to be

Answer D -- In assessing intelligence, the society in which a person lives evaluates how intelligent a person is thought to be. Howard Gardner initially defined intelligence as an ability to solve real-life problems, to generate new problems, and to create something meaningful or offer a service that is valued within a person's culture or local community. He developed the theory of multiple intelligences which currently lists eight intelligences: linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical intelligence, body-kinesthetic, spatial, interpersonal, intrapersonal, interpersonal and naturalist.

A Hypomanic Episode would most likely result in: A. decreased productivity, decreased efficiency, and decreased creativity B. decreased productivity, decreased efficiency, and increased creativity C. increased productivity, decreased efficiency, and decreased creativity D. increased productivity, increased efficiency, and increased creativity

Answer D -- Increased productivity, increased efficiency, and increased creativity According to DSM-IV-TR, a Hypomanic Episode is characterized by a period of persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood that lasts at least 4 days and is accompanied by three or more symptoms including: inflated self-esteem or grandiosity; decreased need for sleep; talkativeness; racing thoughts; distractibility; excessive involvement in high-risk pleasurable activities; and increase in goal-directed activity. The symptoms are not severe enough to cause marked impairment in functioning and there are no psychotic features. During a Hypomanic Episode many individuals exhibit increased productivity, efficiency, and creativity.

According to the theory underlying Gestalt therapy, introjection involves: A. viewing other people's emotions as one's own B. failing to develop a healthy "social interest" C. blaming oneself for the problems of others D. interpreting the values of the larger society as one's own

Answer D -- Interpreting the values of the larger society as one's own Introjection involves absorbing the values or behaviors of others, including the larger society, without really understanding or assimilating those values or behaviors. Introjection represents a disturbance in the boundary between self and others -- the person does or believes things that are not reflective of a self that is clearly distinct from others in the environment. Choice A is incorrect because it is primarily values, not emotions, that are absorbed from the environment in Gestalt therapy's view of introjection.

Which of the following would be used to determine the probability that examinees of different ability levels are able to answer a particular test item correctly? A. criterion-related validity coefficient B. item discrimination index C. item difficulty index D. item characteristic curve

Answer D -- Item characteristic curve Item characteristic curves (ICCs), which are associated with item response theory, are graphs that depict individual test items in terms of the percentage of individuals in different ability groups who answered the item correctly. For example, an ICC for an individual test item might show that 80% of people in the highest ability group, 40% of people in the middle ability group, and 5% of people in the lowest ability group answered the item correctly. Although costly to derive, ICCs provide much information about individual test items, including their difficulty, discriminability, and probably that the item will be guessed correctly.

Decisions made by a group are typically better than those made individually when: A. the group is highly cohesive B. the group leader is directive C. the task requires a high degree of creativity D. members of the group have complementary skills

Answer D -- Members of the group have complementary skills. One of the major obstacles to good group decision-making is groupthink. Groupthink is an intensive tendency to seek agreement among members of the group, which prevents full consideration of alternative decisions, to the point where the decisions reached may become irrational. Some fo the factors which contribute to groupthink include: high group cohesiveness, homogenous backgrounds and values, and a strong, directive leader. A group consisting of members with complementary skills is not homogenous, and would be less likely to succumb to groupthink. Contrary to Choice C, tasks which require a high degree of creativity tend to be performed better by individuals than groups.

If a job selection test has lower validity for Hispanics as compared to White or African Americans, you could say that ethnicity is acting as a: A. confounding variable B. criterion contaminator C. discriminant variable D. moderator variable

Answer D -- Moderator Variable A moderator variable is any variable with moderates, or influences, the relationship between two other variables. If the validity of a job selection test is different for different ethnic groups (i.e. there is differential validity), then ethnicity would be considered a moderator variable since it is influencing the relationship between the test (predictor) and actual job performance (the criterion). A confounding variable (A) is a variable in a research study which is not of interest to the researcher, but which exerts a systematic effect on the DV. Criterion contamination (B) is the artificial inflation of validity which can occur when raters subjectively score ratees on a criterion measure after they have been informed how the ratees scored on the predictor.

The cortex is the least developed part of the brain at birth. Subsequent development is due primarily to: A. the growth of new neurons B. the growth of new neurons and glial cells C. increases in the size of existing neurons D. myelination of existing neurons

Answer D -- Nearly all of the neurons are present at birth, and continued development of the brain following birth is due primarily to an increased number of dendrites and myelination of the existing neurons.

If you want to keep a borderline patient involved with group therapy, what would be the best technique? A. you have them consult with a psychiatrist for a medicine evaluation B. you help the patient with the defense mechanism of splitting C. you invite a client with a histrionic personality disorder to join the group D. offer individual therapy in addition to group therapy

Answer D -- Offer individual therapy in addition to group therapy Marsha Linehan (1993) has been achieving success with borderline patents with her use of dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) which involves a combination of groups skills training and individual outpatient therapy. This combination has been successful at decreasing premature dropout rates in group therapy, as well as reducing suicide attempts and inpatient hospitalization rates.

A psychologist receives a request for information about treatment for a patient from the patient's insurance carrier. The request for a treatment report includes the appropriate signed authorization from the patient. The psychologist should: A. not provide information because this still is an unsettled issue B. provide only the dates of service and the dx C. refuse the request unless the patient himself or herself asks that it be sent D. provide the information requested

Answer D -- Provide the information requested This ethics question will have some of you stumped unless you deal with these types of clinical situations regularly. In practice, clinicians often get requests for information, especially with insurance companies using managed-care organizations to approve visits. Similar authorizations are necessary when information is released form a hospital, from a clinic, and so froth. The confidentiality of information belongs to the patient. IT is up to him or her to waive that confidentiality, as we assume he or she has done by signing the release. In addition, such authorizations should specify the type and extent of information that the patient authorizes to be released, for what purposes, and to whom.

Clomipramine and fluoxetine alleviate the symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder by affecting levels of: A. epinephrine B. norepinephrine C. dopamine D. serotonin

Answer D -- Serotonin If you're unsure about the correct answer to a question about neurotransmitters, serotonin is usually a good guess since it's involved in so many functions and activities. And, in fact, in OCD, the usefulness of the antidepressant drugs is believed to be due to their ability to increase serotonin activity.

The tendency to rate all using the low end of the rating scale is referred to as: A. floor effect B. contrast effect C. central tendency bias D. severity error

Answer D -- Severity Error Another term for the strictness bias or error is severity error. This rater bias refers to the tendency of raters to rate all rates using the low end of the rating scale. A rater rating all individuals using the middle range of a rating scale is exhibiting the central tendency bias (c.). If the ratings of one individual is affected by the ratings given to another, then the rater bias is a contrast effect (b). A floor effect is not a rater bias. Characteristic of a measuring instrument, floor effect refers to the inability to distinguish between individuals who have low levels of what is being measured.

In most species of animals the differences between males and females in body size and shape is referred to as: A. androgyny B. sexual bifurcation C. gender dichotomy D. sexual dimorphism

Answer D -- Sexual Dimorphism The term "sexual dimorphism" may be new to you, but now you know that it refers to any consistent differences between males and females in size or shape. Sexual dimorphism enables animals to readily identify males and females of their species which serves to facilitate mating.

Thinning refers to the process of: A. switching from a fixed interval to a fixed ratio schedule B. switching from a variable interval to a variable ratio schedule C. switching from an intermittent to a continuous schedule D. switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule

Answer D -- Switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule Continuous schedules or reinforcing every response, are associated with quick learning, satiation and extinction. The process of thinning, or switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule, is used to increase the resistance to extinction once a behavior is established.

A 16-year-old girl tells her therapist that she wants to kill herself and that she's been thinking of using her mother's prescription pain pills to overdose. The therapist then tells her that he will have to tell her parents about her suicide risk. The girl becomes enraged and says that she would not have disclosed the information if she knew that the therapist would tell her parents. The therapist should: A. agree not to tell the parents if the girl agrees to a no-harm contract B. agree not to tell the parents, but tell them without the girl's knowledge C. tell the parents and refer the girl to another therapist because she will probably not be able to trust the therapist again D. tell the parents and apologize to the girl for having to do so

Answer D -- Tell the parents and apologize to the girl for having to do so. According to both ethics and law, a psychologist may disclose confidential information without the client's consent to protect the client from harm. This applies to minors and adults alike. In this case, it would most likely be appropriate to inform the girl's parents about her suicide risk. The reasons for this should be explained to the girl and the therapist should apologize for the breach of confidentiality. Given the apparent level of risk involve, it would probably not be sufficient to rely on a no-harm contract (A). It would certainly be inappropriate and counter therapeutic to lie to the client (B). And it may not be necessary to refer the client (C). If handled empathically, it is likely that the girl will come to understand the therapist's reasons for disclosing to the parents and may come to appreciate that her safety was his overriding concern.

A culturally-encapsulated therapist: A. exhibits a bias that involves interpreting all of the presenting problems of minority clients as the direct result of cultural factors B. has had little or no contact with members of minority groups and exhibits a lack of interest in working with these individuals in therapy C. attempts to overcome his or her cultural biases by adopting a "culture-blind" perspective that may or may not be appropriate D. tends to accept cultural stereotypes about members of minority groups without question and is unaware of his or her cultural biases

Answer D -- Tends to accept cultural stereotypes about members of minority groups without question and is unaware of his or her cultural biases. The notion of cultural encapsulation was originally described by Wrenn in 1962. A primary characteristic of a culturally-encapsulated counselor is an acceptance (usually unconscious) of traditional cultural stereotypes.

In the context of expectancy theory, valence refers to: A. the willingness of a worker to exert effort B. the strength of the worker's needs C. the desirability of the job itself D. the desirability of the consequences of performance

Answer D -- The desirability of the consequences of performance. Expectancy theory predicts that motivation is related to 3 phenomena: beliefs about the relationship between effort and performance; beliefs about the relationship between performance and outcomes; and the desirability of those outcomes. The latter is referred to as valence.

A multivariate analysis of variance would be used to analyze collected data when: A. the researcher wants to analyze the effects of an extraneous variable B. the researcher wants to remove the effects of an extraneous variable C. the study includes two or more independent variables D. the study includes two or more dependent variables

Answer D -- The study includes two or more dependent variables The multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) is a type of ANOVA used when two or more dependent variables are included in a study. Rather than using separate ANOVAs to evaluate the effects of each of the dependent variables, a researcher could use the MANOVA when all the dependent variables are measured on a ratio or interval scale. This also helps to control the experiment-wise error rate.

Curriculum-based assessment is: A. a form of norm-referenced assessment designed to compare the performance of students to other students who are receiving the same type of instruction. B. used to evaluate a curriculum in order to identify how it should be improved or changed. C. used to compare the curriculum at an educational institution to that of other institutions with similar students and goals. D. used to evaluation student performance in light of the current curriculum and identify possible modifications in instructional style.

Answer D -- Use to evaluate student performance in light of the current curriculum and identify possible modifications in instructional style. Curriculum-based assessment provides information about a student in the context of the existing curriculum. The results of such an assessment not only indicate the student's performance level -- they also provide feedback about the instruction itself, so that necessary changes can be made to better fit the student's ability and current knowledge. In contrast to choice A, curriculum-based assessment is criterion-referenced, since it involves evaluating the students' performance in light of an external standard (the curriculum). Norm-referenced assessment would involve evaluating a student's performance by way of a comparison to other students. In contrast to choice B, the assessment is not designed to bring about changes in the curriculum itself -- rather, its purpose is to help identify progress in terms of the existing curriculum and any change in instruction (e.g., pace, sequencing of topics) that would aid the student's progress in completing the curriculum.

The Solomon four group design is: A. a quasi-experimental design B. used to analyze the difference scores among four different treatment groups C. used to reduce practice effects D. used to evaluate the effects of pretesting

Answer D -- Used to evaluate the effects of pretesting. The Solomon four group design is a true experimental design used to evaluate the effects of pretesting, since some groups are pretested and others are not.

Children with a history of bilateral otitis media score lowest on which of the following WISC subtests? A. freedom from distractibility B. perceptual organization C. processing speed D. verbal comprehension

Answer D -- Verbal comprehension Bilateral otitis media means inflammation of the left and right middle ear. Middle east infections in early childhood especially severe infections, have been associated with the development of Learning Disorders later in childhood. As you might expect, hearing loss in children most often affects verbal comprehension. IN a study of children 8-to-10 years-old who had a history of otitis media between birth and 3 1/2 years of age, but have since been free of the disease, reading level was found to be more than a year below grade level and scores on the Verbal Comprehension factor for the WISC-R were significantly lower than controls.

You see a substance abuser who has been referred to therapy as a condition of probation. The man tells you that he is seeking therapy only to avoid jail time and that he does not think he needs therapy. Regarding informed consent in this situation, which of the following statements is true? A. you don't have to get informed consent because the judge ordered treatment B. you don't have to obtain informed consent because convicted criminals don't have the right to refuse treatment C. you don't have to obtain informed consent because there's no way that consent can truly be informed in this situation D. you cannot treat the patient unless you obtain his informed consent

Answer D -- You cannot treat the patient unless you obtain his informed consent. In working with court-referred patients, psychologists must obtain informed consent from the patients before proceeding. This may seem ridiculous, since many court-referred clients face serious consequences if they don't comply with the court's recommendations to seek therapy. However, in court-referred cases, the clients could, theoretically at least, decline treatment and choose jail time or other consequences instead. By contrast, in court-ordered evaluation or treatment, there is no need to get informed consent because the client is mandated by law to participate. However, in such cases. psychologists have other obligations, such as informing the client of the limits to confidentiality.

The best predictor of treatment outcome among adult substance abusers is: A. age B. ethnicity C. history of criminal behavior D. severity of substance abuse problems

Answer: D -- Severity of Substance Abuse Problems Most studies have found found that the best predictors of treatment outcomes for substance abusers are psychiatric severity and problem severity. Other predictive factors include motivation and coping skills at baseline.