CRD colloq 4

Which drugs are recommended for frequency control in case of atrial fibrillation or flutter without signs of heart failure? (select one or more) 1. Digoxin; 2. Propafenone; 3. Bisoprolol; 4. Procainamide; 5. Verapamil.

1,3,5

"Fusion beats" and "Capture beats" in wide QRS tachycardia are signs of: a. Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia; b. Supraventricular tachycardia with irregular conduction; c. Polymorphyc atrial tachycardia; d. Has no specific diagnostic value.

a

Catheter ablation as the first method of choice for atrial fibrillation patients after the European Society of Cardiology 2016 Guidelines are: a. Paroxysmal symptomatic atrial fibrillation; b. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation because of toxic; c. Persistent atrial fibrillation; d. This method is never the first choice.

a

During heart auscultation and pulse palpation the following symptoms can indicate atrial fibrillation: a. Pulse and heart absolute irregularity; b. Regular but very slow heartbeat; c. Two consecutive contractions, followed by a pause; d. Pulse wave drop in each third contraction; e. Explicit tachycardia with individual pulse wave drop.

a

ECG criteria for atrial extrasystoles is: a. QRS identical to sinus beat, but P wave morphology differs. Followed by compensatory pause. b. P wave identical to sinus beat, but QRS morphology differs. Followed by the compensatory pause. c. P wave and QRS differs from sinus beat. Followed by the compensatory pause. d. P wave and QRS differs from sinus beat. Not followed by compensatory pause.

a

First line out-of-hospital treatment of AVNRT paroxysm as recommended by 2019 European Heart Rate Association Guidelines is: a. Vagal manoeuvers; b. Horizontal positioning; c. Drinking small sips of water.

a

For acute restoration of sinus rhythm for hemodynamically unstable atrial fibrillation patients the method of choice (after the European Society of Cardiology Guidelines 2016) would be: a. Synchronized electrical cardioversion; b. Transesophageal electrostimulation of the heart; c. Long-term amiodarone intravenous infusion; d. Adenosine short-term injection.

a

How long does last Sustained ventricular tachycardia? a. > 30 seconds; b. > 45 seconds; c. > 1 minute; d. > 3 minutes.

a

In orthodromic supraventricular tachycardia impulses to ventricles: a. Are conducted via AV node and His-Purkinje system; b. Are conducted via accessory pathway; c. Are dependant on atrioventricular delay; d. Are dependant on accessory pathways' absolute refractary period.

a

Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia is described as follows, excluding: a. Frequency of P waves is the same as frequency of QRS complexes; b. Atrioventricular dissociation; c. Deviated electrical axis of the heart; d. Fusion beats; e. Same QRS complex polarity in all chest leads.

a

Most common feature observed in patients with Brugada syndrome is: a. Ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation; b. AV conduction disturbances; c. Disfunction of the right ventricle; d. Frequent ventricular premature beats.

a

Oral anticoagulants in patients with atrial fibrillation and flutter with relation to sinus rhythm restoration procedures must be applied: 1. if the duration of atrial fibrillation is longer than 48 hours; 2. if a patient has ≥ 2 CHA2DS2-VASc risk score points; 3. Only if electrical cardioversion is used; 4. At least 3 weeks prior and at least 4 weeks after sinus rhythm restoration; 5. If the patient has a high risk of atherosclerosis; 6. If the patient has a holosystolic murmur at the apex; Correct are: a. 1 + 4 b. 2 + 5 c. 1 + 2 + 5 d. 1 + 2 + 6 e. 3 + 4 f. 1 + 5 + 6

a

Procainamide is prefered choice of treatment over amiodarone in acute treatment of wide QRS tachycardia unknown origin: a. True. b. False. c. True for young patients. d. True for patients without structural heart defects.

a

Supraventricular tachycardia includes all tachyarrhythmias, except for: a. Ventricular arrhythmias and atrial fibrillation; b. Just entricular arrhythmias; c. Ventricular arrhytmias, atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter; d. The term is not used anymore.

a

The definition of ventricular tachycardia is: a. Three and more ectopic ventricular beats at a frequency of 100 bpm; b. Five and more ectopic ventricular beats at a frequency of 100 bpm; c. Three and more ectopic ventricular beats at a frequency of 120 bpm; d. Ten ectopic ventricular beats; e. QRS complex tachycardia, which is longer than 30 sec.

a

The most common chronic diseases that are found for patients with atrial fibrillation (after the 2016 European Society of Cardiology Guidelines) are: a. Arterial hypertension, ischemic heart disease, dyslipidemia, chronic heart failure; b. Arterial hypertension, valvular diseases, chronic lung diseases, chronic kidney diseases; c. Ischemic heart disease, diabetes, chronic heart failure, chronic lung disease; d. Arterial hypertension, chronic heart failure, diabetes, chronic kidney disease.

a

The recommended INR range for warfarin therapy in atrial fibrillation is: a. 2-3 b. 1.5-3 c. 2-4 d. 1.5-4

a

Typical ventricular (and pulse) rate in AU of 2:1 is: a. 150 bpm b. 250 bpm c. 300 bpm d. 90 bpm

a

Typical ventricular (and pulse) rate in Atrial flutter of 2:1 is: a. 150 bpm b. 250 bpm c. 300 bpm d. 90 bpm

a

What arrhythmia does belong to Macroreentrant atrial tachycardia according to a definition by 2019 European Heart Rate Association Guidelines : a. Atrial flutter; b. Monofocal atrial tachycardia. c. Any atrial tachycardia originating above AV node. Any atrial tachycardia using accessory pathways.

a

What is the first line treatment of sinus tachycardia in absence of primary cause: a. Ivabradine. b. Beta blockers. c. Verapamil. d. Adenosine.

a

Which anti-arrhythmic drug has the most side effects? a. Amiodarone b. Procainamide c. Lidocaine d. Propafenone e. Verapamil

a

Which antiarrhythmic drug has the longest action time? a. p/o Amiodarone; b. p/o Ivabradine; c. p/o Sotalol; d. p/o Propafenone; e. p/o Verapamil.

a

Which drug is indicated as the first choice in case of acute second-degree atrioventricular block? 1. Atropine 2. Dobutamine 3. Verapamil 4. Norepinephrine 5. Dopamine a. Only 1 is correct b. Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct c. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct d. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

a

Which is the first choice drug for the acute treatment of narrow QRS tachycardia? a. Adenosine; b. Digoxin; c. Propranolol; d. Amiodarone; e. Lidocaine.

a

Which of the following drug combinations has the most potent QT interval prolongation effect? a. Erythromycin, ketoconazole, tricyclic antidepressants; b. Perondopril, azithromycin, bisoprolol; c. Tricyclic antidepressants, sotalol, lercanidipine; d. Ranolazine, fluconazole, clopidogrel.

a

Which of types of Brugada syndrome has risk of sudden cardiac death? a. 1st type; b. 2nd type; c. 3rd type.

a

Typical ECG signs of Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome: (select one or more) a. QRS more than 120 ms; b. PQ interval less than 120 ms; c. Delta wave; d. ST segment elevation at the inferior leads

a,b,c

For the restauration of sinus rhythm for hemodynamically stable atrial fibrillation patient without any structural heart disease the method of choice (after the European Society of Cardiology 2016 Guidelines) is (more than one answer might be correct): a. Synchronized electrical cardioversion; b. Transesophageal electrostimulation of the heart; c. Long-term amiodarone intravenous infusion; d. Propafenone or vernakalant short administration intravenously.

a,d

Which of the following patients can undergo cardioversion without prior anticoagulation? (select one or more) a. Atrial fibrillation less than 48 hours b. Atrial fibrillation less than 72 hours c. Atrial fibrillation less than 96 hours d. Atrial fibrillation less than 7 hours

a,d

Atrial fibrillation that lasts longer than 7 days, including episodes that are terminated by cardioversion, either with drugs or by direct current cardioversions, after 7 days or more. In the 2016 European Society of Cardiology Guidelines it is defined: a. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation; b. Persistent atrial fibrillation; c. Long-standing persistent AF; d. Permanent AF.

b

Common ventricular tachycardia causes are all, except: a. Coronary heart disease; b. Primary arterial hypertension; c. Cardiomyopathies; d. Inherited channelopathies; e. Overdose of glycosides.

b

ECG shows ventricular premature beats, which occurs regularly after two sinus node generated complexes. This is a pattern of: a. Bigeminy; b. Trigeminy; c. Quadrigimeny.

b

First line treatment of wide QRS tachycardia in unstable patients: a. Verapamil 10 mg intravenous infusion over 5 minutes; b. Synchronised electric cardioversion; c. Consider amiodarone 5mg for 1 kg patients body weight in 30 minutes; d. Adenosine intravenously.

b

First-line treatment of AVNRT paroxysm for stable patients in hospital setting as recommended by 2019 European Heart Rate Association Guidelines is: a. Adenosine; b. Vagal manoeuvers; c. Verapamil; d. Beta-blockers.

b

HATCH score describe the atrial fibrillation: a. Duration; b. Likelihood of relapse; c. The intensity of fibrosis in the left atrium; d. It is not connected with cardiology.

b

How long time after the restoring of sinus rhythm is recommended to use oral anticoagulants in patients with atrial fibrillation and CHA2DS2-Vasc < 2 points a. One week b. Four weeks at least c. 2 month d. 6 month at least e. 1 year

b

In which cases atrial fibrillation patient will have rhythmic heart rate? a. The definition of AF states that it is not possible; b. Frederick syndrome; c. If the patient has WPW syndrome and had catheter ablation of accessory pathway.

b

Man (50 years old) without complaints. ECG shows irregular 70 ms. wide QRS complexes with frequency of 140 -150 bpm, no P wave. What IS NOT recommended strategy for frequency control? a. Digoxin; b. Cardioversion; c. Verapamil.

b

Oral anticoagulation therapy to prevent thromboembolism is recommended for all male AF patients with CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 or more: a. False; b. True; c. Only for patients over 65 years old; d. Only if patients has diabetes, chronic coronary syndrome.

b

Risk of ventricular arrhythmias and sudden cardiac death in a patient with WPW phenomenon in case of atrial fibrillation paroxysm as per the 2019 European Heart Rate Association Guidelines: a. Does not differ from mean risk in atrial fibrillation patients; b. Significantly higher; c. Is dependant on comorbidities; d. Lower than the mean risk in atrial fibrillation patients.

b

Short QT syndrome (SQTS) is definitely diagnosed if QTc: a. <360 ms; b. <340 ms; c. <350 ms.

b

State contraindications for temporary pacing for the patient with acute myocardial infarction and 3rd degree AV block with Morgagni-Adams-Stokes episodes, in whom other treatment options have failed: a. Age of 85 or above; b. There are no contraindications; c. Systolic blood pressure below 70 mmHg; d. Recent lidocaine use; e. Frequent ventricular fibrillation episodes.

b

The following are characteristic for WPW, except a. Additional pathway; b. P-Q duration more than 200 ms; c. Prolongation of QRS duration; d. Delta wave at the beginning of QRS; e. Episodes of the paroxysmal tachycardia.

b

The most effective agents for acute treatment of AV node re-entry tachycardia paroxysm are: 1. Digoxin IV 2. Verapamil IV 3. Propafenone PO 4. Adenosine 5. Procainamide a. Only 1 and 3 b. Only 2 and 4 c. Only 3 and 5 d. Only 1 and 5 e. Only 2 and 3

b

The most effective drugs for pharmacological cardioversion of atrial fibrillation are : 1. Digoxin IV 2. Verapamil IV 3. Propafenone PO 4. Sotalol 5. Vernakalant a. 1 + 2 b. 3 + 5 c. 2 + 4 d. 4 + 5

b

The risk of thrombembolism is high: a. only after electrical cardioversion b. after any type of cardioversion c. remains high only 7 days after cardioversion

b

What are the two main mechanism of cardiac tachyarrhythmias: 1. Weak depolarization 2. Re-entry phenomenon. 3. Decreased automatism. 4. After depolarization (triger activity) a. Only 1 and 3 are correct b. Only 2 and 4 are correct c. Only 2 and 3 are correct d. Only 3 and 4 are correct

b

What arrhythmia does induce the most pronounced hemodynamic disorders? a. Complete atrioventricular block; b. Ventricular flutter; c. Atrial fibrillations; d. Atrial flutter.

b

What is the elimination site of dabigatran: a. Mainly liver b. Mainly kidney c. Kidney and liver in similar proportion

b

What is the sign of orthodromic conduction during supraventricular tachycardia for WPW patient?: a. The heart rate more than 140 beat per min; b. The normal duration of the QRS complex; c. Wide QRS complex; d. Persistent atrioventricular block 2:1; e. No complaints during paroxysm free time.

b

Which are the first line treatment of atrial fibrillation paroxysm in stable patients with WPW syndrome? a. Verapamil; b. Ibutilide or procainamide; c. Amiodarone; d. Beta-blockers and digoxin.

b

Which of tachycardias mentioned uses accessory pathway? a. AVNRT - Atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia; b. AVRT - Atrioventricular re-entry (reciprocal) tachycardia; c. AT - atrial tachycardia; d. MRAT - macro re-entry atrial tachycardia.

b

Which of the following atrioventricular conduction disorders presents with irregular heart rate? a. 1st degree AV block; b. 2nd degree AV block; c. 3rd degree AV block.

b

Which of the following statements is correct? a. If myocardial infarction patient in acute phase develops ventricular tachycardia, he should receive ICD before discharge from the hospital; b. ICD implantation for primary prevention is indicated in patients with EF <35% on optimal medical treatment; c. All Brugada syndrome patients should have ICD implantation; d. Catheter ablation must be performed in all arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy patients.

b

Which risk score is used for assessment of the thromboembolism risk in patients with atrial flutter? a. CHADS2 risk score; b. CHA2 DS2 - VASc risc score; c. ATRIA risc score; d. sPESI risc score.

b

Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities could cause ventricular tachycardia? (select one or more) a. Hyperkalemia; b. Hypokalemia; c. Hyponatremia; d. Hypomagnesemia; e. Hypercalcemia.

b,d

Atrial fibrillation lasts longer than 1 year but is decided to use rhythm-control strategy. In the European Society of Cardiology Guidelines 2016 it is defined: a. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation; b. Persistent atrial fibrillation; c. Long-standing persistent AF; d. Permanent AF.

c

Brugada and Josephson signs in wide QRS tachycardia are used to diagnose: a. Accessory pathways in the interventricular septum; b. Full or partial conduction delay in AV node; c. Ventricular tachycardia; d. Intermittent functional full left bundle branch block.

c

Male, 65 years, has arterial hypertension, had STEMI, has type 2 diabetes, atrial fibrillation. Calculate his CHA2DS2-VASc score. a. 2; b. 3; c. 4; d. 5.

c

Only Varfarin from the all oral anticoagulants can be used inpatients with: a. Chronic kidney failure II - III stage; b. Acute thyrotoxicosis; c. Any mechanical prosthetic heart valve; d. Any type of prosthetic valve; e. Mitral mechanical valve.

c

Rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxabans are: a. Direct IIa factor inhibitors; b. Direct XIa factor inhibitors; c. Direct Xa factor inhibitors; d. Direct VIIa factor inhibitors.

c

The atrial contraction frequency in 1 minute for typical atrial flutter is: a. 150 - 200 b. 127 - 240 c. 250 - 350 d. 360 - 400 e. Above 400

c

The most effective drugs to reduce tachysystolic atrial fibrillation are : 1. Digoxin 2. Verapamil 3. Bisoprolol 4. Propafenone PO 5. Procainamide a. 3 + 4 + 5 b. 1 + 3 + 5 c. 1 + 2 + 3 d. 4 + 5

c

The most effective method of sinus rhythm restoration in a patient with atrial fibrillation is: a. Amiodarone intravenous up to 1800mg / 24h; b. Amiodarone with a perfusor up to 2400mg / 24h; c. Electrical cardioversion; d. Propafenone intravenous;

c

The most important indications for permanent pacing in a patient with atrioventricular conduction disorders are all of the following, except: a. 2nd degree AV block with symptomatic bradycardia; b. Asymptomatic 2nd degree Mobitz II AV block; c. Asymptomatic 2nd degree Mobitz I AV block; d. 3rd degree AV block with symptomatic bradycardia.

c

The risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation is assessed by: a. Symptoms; b. Left atrium size; c. CHA2DS2-VASc risk score; d. HAS-BLED risk score.

c

Torsades de pointes is: a. Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia, which occurs in case of prolonged QT interval; b. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, which occurs in case of atrial fibrillation; c. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, which occurs in case of prolonged QT interval; d. Atrial fibrillation with accessory pathway.

c

What ir recommended for patient with chronic sinus bradycardia (36-38 beats per minute) with clinical symptoms as fatigue, dizziness: a. Atropine; b. Theophylline; c. Pacemaker implantation; d. Epinephrine; e. None of the above.

c

What is the first line long term therapy of atrial flutter: a. Verapamil or diltiazem; b. Propafenone or flecainide; c. Catheter ablation; d. Amiodaron.

c

What is the first-line treatment of atrial flutter in acute setting in the stable patient when rhythm control is decided (recommended by the 2019 European Heart Rate Association Guidelines): a. Verapamil or diltiazem intravenously; b. Consider amiodarone 600 mg in 120 min intravenously; c. Synchronised electrical cardioversion; d. Ibutillide intravenously.

c

Which QTc is considered to be prolonged? a. >500 msec; b. >450 msec; c. >480 msec; d. >520 msec.

c

Which arrhythmia is not affected by the administration of adenosine a. Atrial fibrillation; b. Narrow complex tachycardia; c. Ventricular tachycardia; d. Atrial flutter.

c

Which of the following IS NOT a common cause of ventricular tachycardia: a. Myocardial infarction; b. Right ventricular arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy; c. Permanent atrial fibrillation; d. Dilated cardiomyopathy.

c

Which of the listed drugs is indicated for paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia in patients with acute myocardial infarction? a. Digoxin; b. Adenosine; c. Amiodarone; d. Propafenone; e. Verapamil.

c

Atrial fibrillation appeares in a patient with WPW syndrome on ECG, but without previous paroxysmal tachycardia. What is your treatment strategy? a. Add Amiodarone; b. Increase Statin doses; c. Increase ACE inhibitor doses; d. Perform catheter ablation of additional conduction path.

d

Female, 85 years old after STEMI, chronic symptomatic heart failure, cerebral stroke in anamnesis, chronic lung disease, metabolic syndrome, chronic kidney disease, diabetes type 2, arterial hypertension, atrial fibrillation. Calculate her CHA2DS2-VASc score. a. 5; b. 6; c. 8; d. 9.

d

First line long term prophylaxis of AVNRT recurrence as recommended by 2019 European Heart Rate Association Guidelines, is: a. Verapamil. b. Sotalol. c. Beta blockers. d. Catheter ablation.

d

First-line long term treatment of recurrent or persistent atrial tachycardia as recommended by 2019 European Heart Rate Association Guidelines, is: a. Beta-blockers. b. Amiodarone c. Sotalol d.Catheter ablation

d

Indirect oral anticoagulant warfarin takes effect on all the coagulation factors except: a. Factor X; b. Factor II; c. Factor VII; d. Garnet factor; e. Factor IX.

d

Male, 64 years, after knee artroscopic surgery, has chronic obstructive lunge disease, atrial fibrillation. Calculate his CHA2DS2-VASc score. a. 1; b. 2; c. 4; d. 0.

d

Oral anticoagulants reduce stroke risk in patients with: a. Just permanent atrial fibrillation; b. Just symptomatic atrial fibrillation; c. Does not affect the risk of stroke in patients with atrial flutter; d. Any atrial flutter or atrial fibrillation type.

d

Sotalol and amiodarone for AVNRT (Atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia) long term treatment are: a. First line treatment. b. Second line treatment. c. May be considered , doctors choice; d. Not mentioned in 2019 European Heart rate association guidelines as treatment methode

d

Sustained Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is described as follows, excluding: a. Different QRS complex morphology; b. Different QRS complex polarity; c. Durations is more than 30 seconds; d. Occurs only in case of the prolonged QT interval; e. Could be irregular.

d

The cerebral infarction high risk criteria in patients with atrial fibrillation according to CHA2DS2-VASc are all followed, except: a. Diabetes mellitus; b. Arterial hypertension; c. Age is over 65 years; d. Peripheral arteries diseases (including coronary arteries); e. Aortic valve stenosis.

d

The following arrhythmias increase a possibility of ventricular fibrillation. 1) Atrial fibrillation 2) Group-like ventricular extrasystoles 3) Atrial flutter 4) Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia 5) Ventricular tachycardia a. Only 1 is correct b. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct c. 1, 3 and 4 are correct d. Only 2 and 5 are correct e. Only 2, 4 and 5 are correct

d

What arrhythmia is characterized by severe pulse deficit? a. Sinus bradycardia; b. Complete atrioventricular block; c. Atrioventricular block 2; d. Tachisystolic atrial fibrillation.

d

What is recommended in patients with atrial fibrillation for reduction of the systemic thromboembolism? a. Aspirin; b. Antiplatelets; c. Only the thienopyridine group; d. Anticoagulants; e. All have the same effect.

d

When oral anticoagulation is initiated in a patient with AF who is eligible for DOAC (apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban or rivaroxaban) a DOAC is recommended in preference to a vitamin K antagonist. a. False; b. Just for patients with chronic kidney disease; c. It is bases on the patients and doctors choice; d. True, except for patients with mechanical heart valve implantation or for patients with antiphospholipid syndrome.

d

Which antiarrhythmic agent can be used for restoring of the sinus rhythm inpatient with WPW and atrial fibrillation? a. Digoxin b. Adenosine c. Verapamil d. Procainamide e. Diltiazem

d

Woman, 65 years, chronic lung disease, deep vein thrombosis, arterial hypertension grade 2, chronic kidney disease, type 2 diabetes, atrial fibrillation. Calculate her CHA2DS2-VASc score. a. 1; b. 2; c. 3; d. 4; e. 5.

d

Woman, 75 years, had STEMI, has cardiomyopathy, left ventricle ejection fracture 35%, chronic lunge disease, metabolic syndrome, chronic kidney disease, type 2 diabetes, arterial hypertension, atrial fibrillation. Calculate her CHA2DS2-VASc score. a. 3; b. 5; c. 6; d. 7.

d

First line treatment of wide QRS tachycardia in stable patients: a. Verapamil 10 mg intravenous infusion over 5 minutes; b. Synchronised electric cardioversion; c. Consider amiodarone 5mg for 1 kg patients body weight in 30 minutes; d. Adenosine intravenously; e. Vagal maneuvers.

e

How long time after the restoring of sinus rhythm is recommended to use oral anticoagulants in patients with atrial fibrillation and CHA2DS2-Vasc 4 points? a. Four weeks at least b. 2 month c. 6 month at least d. 1 year e. life long therapy

e

The arrhythmic ventricular contraction always is observed in case of: a. Atrial flutter; b Second-degree atrioventricular block Mobitz II; c. First degree atrioventricular block; d. Sino-atrial block; e. Atrial fibrillation.

e

The main diagnostic method of long QT syndrome (LQTS) is: a. Nuclear magnetic resonance; b. Echocardiography; c. 3D Echocardiography; d. Positron emission tomography; e. Electrocardiography.

e

What ir recommended for patient with chronic sinus bradycardia (49 beats per minute) without clinical symptoms as fatigue, dizziness, shortness of breath etc. a. Atropine; b. Nitrates; c. Permanent pacemaker implantation; d. Any of the mentioned treatment methods; e. The mentioned treatment methods are unnecessary.

e

What is the recommended sinus rhythm maintenance option in case of atrial fibrilation for the patient without significant structural heart disease? a. Amiodarone; b. Propafenone; c. Atenolol; d. Catheter ablation; e. Class IC antiarrhythmics or catheter ablation by patient's choice.

e

Which is the first choice treatment options for the long term therapy of narrow QRS tachycardia? a. Amiodarone; b. Verapamil; c. Adenosine; d. Propranolol; e. Catheter ablation.

e

The indirect anticoagulant Warfarin is the most effective and safe oral anticoagulant used in clinical practice. True False

false