CWB
37. For the GTAW process an electrode can carry much higher current without overheating when it is used on: a) DCRP. B) material type and group C) carbon content d) Welding parameters. e) Coating thickness.
B) material type and group
Whats the difference between a dead hooker and a ferrari?
I dont have a ferrari in my garage
102. Acetylene cannot be used safely at pressures greater than: a) 103 Kpa (15 psi). b) 172 Kpa (25 psi). c) 310 Kpa (45 psi). d) 552 Kpa (80 psi). e) 15167 KPa (2200 psi).
a) 103 Kpa (15 psi).
27. An impact test is used to determine: a) Hardness. b) Toughness c) Ductility. d) Crack size. e) Cracking rates.
b) Toughness
103. A single V-groove weld made with the SMAW process in 20 mm (3/4 in) thick quenched and tempered steel must not have an interpass temperature higher than: a) 200°C (400°F). b) 275°C (525°F). c) 300oc (575°F). d) 315°C (600°F). e) 425oC (800°F).
a) 200°C (400°F).
1.To measure the strength of a welded joint what mechanical test would you prescribe? a) A transverse weld tension test b) A charpy test. c) A CTOD test. d) An all weld metal tension test. e) A side bend test.
a) A transverse weld tension test
91. The primary use for radiographic and ultrasonic inspection of welds during construction is to: a) Assess weld quality. b) Locate areas in procedure test specimens that are sound for destructive testing. c) Locate defective areas for cut-out. d) Be used in conjunction with destructive test methods to inspect production welds.
a) Assess weld quality.
48. When conducting a tension test, the rate of loading up to the yield point is usually limited to some maximum value. What is the reason for this? a) Because a fast loading rate might increase the yield stress b) Because a fast loading might lower the UTS. c) To prevent the specimen from breaking before reaching the UTS. d) To allow time for readings to be taken. e) To allow time for hydrogen to dissipate from the specimen.
a) Because a fast loading rate might increase the yield stress
32. Which of the following statements is false regarding the radiographic examination of welds? a) Both slag and tungsten inclusions appear on a radiograph as dark areas. b) Porosity or gas pockets in a weld show on the radiograph as a round or slightly elongated dark spots. c) Internal cracks appear as fine dark lines, either straight or irregular. d) Weld spatter would look like scattered, light colored spots. e) Incomplete penetration will show a straight, dark colored line at or near the weld centre-line.
a) Both slag and tungsten inclusions appear on a radiograph as dark areas.
41. On an ultrasonic angle beam probe, the index point is: a) Checked on a calibration block b) Fixed on the probe so that checking is not required. c) The optimal wavelength frequency of the sound waves. d) One half the skip distance.
a) Checked on a calibration block
43. The electrode most suitable for welding type 304 stainless steel is: a) E308ELC b) E62018M C) EM12K d) E4110 e) E09T1-03
a) E308ELC
89. Lamellar tears in weldments are usually found: a) In the heat affected zone area. b) In the root pass. c) In thin wall fabrications welded with GMAW. d) In the weld centreline. e) Anywhere in the weld.
a) In the heat affected zone area.
36. From the welding problems identified below which one of the five does not fit the pattern established by the other four? a) Insufficient throat'. b) Incorrect bevel angle. c) Loss of shielding gas. d) Improper fit up. e) Use of wrong consumable.
a) Insufficient throat
87. In radiographic inspection, the term "film density" is used to describe the: a) Lightness or darkness of the image on the film. b) Weight of the film. c) Class of the film. d) %of the welds which are exposed to radiographic inspection. e) % of his time that the radiographer spends exposing the film.
a) Lightness or darkness of the image on the film.
100. The term "cleaning action of the arc" when used with the GTAW process refers to: a) Oxide removal while welding. b) Removing grease & dirt from the weld area before welding is started. c) Inter pass cleaning of the weld. d) Dipping the electrode in a chemical solvent to ensure cleanliness before welding. e) cleaning the electrode tip periodically.
a) Oxide removal while welding.
55. Which of the following best describes the function of the slag generated by certain welding processes? a) Protects the molten weld metal from contamination b) Aids in the addition of oxygen and removal of impurities from the molten weld metal. c) Controls the carbon content of the deposited weld metal. d) Controls weld metal chemistry.
a) Protects the molten weld metal from contamination
34. Two steel plates each 8 mm thick are to be welded together. One plate has 2 bevels cut onto the edge to be welded and the other plate is left square. This weld would be identified as a) Single bevel groove weld. b) Double bevel groove weld. c) Single vee groove weld. d) Double vee groove weld. e) Flare bevel groove weld.
a) Single bevel groove weld.
76. When performing GMAW in the overhead position (the 4G and 4F positions) using the short-circuiting arc metal transfer method there are several advantages. Which of the following is not an advantage of this process: a) Small molten weld pool size b) Improved bead contour. c) Efficient metal transfer. d) Speed, high rates of travel are possible. e) Less spatter and loss of filler metal
a) Small molten weld pool size
24. A crack perpendicular to the length of the weld is called a: a) Transverse crack . b) Longitudinal crack. c) Throat crack. d) Underbead crack.
a) Transverse crack .
85. Which one of the following defects cannot be detected by visual inspection in a finished weld? a) Underbead cracks. b) Crater cracks. c) Undercut. d) Arc strikes. e) Spatter.
a) Underbead cracks.
57. Select the one correct qualifying statement from the following: a) Welder /operator qualification verification requires knowledge of the qualification test requirements by the verifier/ b) Verification of type and grade of steel is by notation on detail drawings. c) Total inspection of welds only can be done after the weld is made, so the welding procedure is "after the fact" and its information is not required. d) The welding inspector should instruct the welder on proper welding procedure if required.
a) Welder /operator qualification verification requires knowledge of the qualification test requirements by the verifier/
95. Which one of the following statements is applicable to welding fumes? a) Welding fumes may contain a condensed metallic component b) Welding fumes only contain smoke elements (e.g., carbon) caused by surface contaminates. c) Personnel fume protection devices or appropriate safety equipment are not required while welding on stainless steel. d) Fumes from welding on galvanized steel are not harmful. e) Natural dilution ventilation is sufficient to remove fume from the welder's breathing zone.
a) Welding fumes may contain a condensed metallic component
59. A tension test has been carried out on a weld test specimen. Before the tension test the diameter was 0.505 in. At yield point the diameter was 0.375 in. What is the percent difference? a) 12.8% b) 25.7% c) 34.6% d) 53.4% e) 74.1%
b) 25.7%
3. Which of the following refers to a welder test where a pipe assembly is placed vertically and the joint welded in the horizontal position without rotating the assembly? a) 1G b) 2G c) 3G d) 5G e) 6G
b) 2G
51. Which of the following is a method of minimizing distortion: a) Avoid preheat b) Balance welds around the neutral axis of the weldment. c) Increase the groove angle for butt joints. d) Increase the number of weld passes. e) Weld progressively from a given start point.
b) Balance welds around the neutral axis of the weldment.
56. The two basic types of stud welding processes are: a) Cold and pressure stud welding. b) Capacitor discharge and arc stud welding. c) Submerged arc and flux cored stud welding. d) flat and horizontal stud welding. e) Shop and field stud welding.
b) Capacitor discharge and arc stud welding.
29. Which of the following outlines the elements which generally have the most effect upon Carbon Equivalent and weldability of steel? a) Silicon and Nickel. b) Carbon and Manganese c) Sulphur, Nickel and Boron. d) Chromium and Nickel. e) Calcium and Nitrogen.
b) Carbon and Manganese
4. Which of the following imperfections is normally considered as unacceptable regardless of size or location? a) Porosity. b) Crack. c) Inadequate penetration. d) Lamination. e) Burn-through.
b) Crack.
35. Arc blow is a phenomenon encountered when welding with what type of power source? a) AC b) DC c) AC with high frequency d) Inverters e) All of the above
b) DC
12. Reverse polarity refers to the use of a: a) AC power source, electrode + b) DC power source, electrode+ c) AC power source, electrode- d) DC power source, electrode-
b) DC power source, electrode+
7. An irregular, dense white spot is seen on the radiograph of a weld. Assuming it was caused by the welding process used, which one of the processes below would be responsible? a) SMAW process. b) GTAW process. c) GMAW process. d) ST process. e) ESW process.
b) GTAW process.
44. Which of the following welding processes uses a non-consumable electrode? a) GMAW. b) GTAW. c) SMAW. d) FCAW. e) ESW.
b) GTAW.
63. The cooling rate of aT-joint is: a) Less than that in a butt joint. b) Greater than that in a butt joint c) Greater than that in a butt joint only where the carbon equivalent is high. d) Greater at the mid-section than at the start. e) Greater at the mid-section than at the finish.
b) Greater than that in a butt joint
9. The ultrasonic transducer is pressed against the plate of a welded joint. The sound travels longitudinally through the plate to the opposite side. The signal seen on the UT screen that comes from this opposite side of the plate: a) Is the initial pulse signal. b) Is the back reflection signal. c) Is the front reflection signal. d) Must be equal in amplitude to any defect signal. e) Cannot be used for establishing the thickness of the material under test.
b) Is the back reflection signal.
49. Where deviations from the drawings are warranted the inspector should do which of the following? a) Authorize approval of the changes. b) Obtain official approval for the changes c) Reject the work without any further consideration. d) Stop the work until drawing revisions have been completed.
b) Obtain official approval for the changes
45. In general terms, which one of the following five variables would not be considered to be an essential variable in either the SMAW or GMAW processes. a) A change in the approved filler metal. b) Substitution of one qualified welder for another qualified welder. c) A change in the type of shielding gas. d) A change from upward to downward welding. e) An increase in electrode diameter.
b) Substitution of one qualified welder for another qualified welder.
73. What are the two main ultrasonic wave forms used in ultrasonic testing? a) Shear and perpendicular. b) Transverse and longitudinal. c) Perpendicular and transverse. d) Acoustic and magnetic.
b) Transverse and longitudinal.
105. The difference in electrical potential between the surface of the molten metal and the tip of the welding wire is: a) Welding amperage. b) Welding voltage. c) Welding resistance. d) Ionization potential. e) if the arc travel speed is increased
b) Welding voltage.
5. Select the correct penetrameter thickness for 2% sensitivity when radiographing a weldment 1 .25 inches in thickness. a) 0.012 in. b) 0.015 in. c) 0.025 in d) 0.030 in.
c) 0.025 in
65. A weld tension test specimen shows a final gauge length of 2.208 in. The original length was 2.000 n. The percent elongation will be: a) 1.04%. b) 5.20% c) 10.40% d) 90.18% e) 110.40%
c) 10.40%
30. A steel bar of square cross-section 2 inches x 2 inches is subject to a load of 48 kips. What is the tensile stress in the bar? a) 12,000 ksi. b) 24 kips. c) 12,000 psi. d) 12 Mpa. e) 24,000 psi.
c) 12,000 psi.
39. In the choices given below, metallographic tests would be the least informative with regard to the: a) Presence of the non-metallic inclusions. b Grain structure in the weld and fusion zone. c) Ability of the material to withstand repeated fluctuating loads d) Extent and structure of the heat affected zone. e) Number of weld passes.
c) Ability of the material to withstand repeated fluctuating loads
66. The continuous method of magnetic particle inspection means: a) Carrying out all the steps in the process without pause. b) Using DC current. c) Applying magnetic particles to the weld while the current is flowing in the yoke d) Applying magnetic particle to the test surface while current flows from one leg of the yoke through the material to the other leg of the yoke. e) Precautions must be taken to prevent over-magnetization of the material.
c) Applying magnetic particles to the weld while the current is flowing in the yoke d) Applying magnetic particle to the test surface while current flows from one leg of the yoke through the material to the other leg of the yoke.
84. What are the five basic joints? a) Square, U, J, bevel, flare-bevel. b) Lap, groove, tee, corner, edge. c) Butt, tee, corner, edge, lap d) Fillet, butt, corner, edge slot or plug.
c) Butt, tee, corner, edge, lap
52. The liquid penetrant technique relies for its effectiveness upon the ability of liquid to penetrate openings to the surface due to the phenomenon of: a) Crack opening displacement. b) Material and penetrant viscosity. c) Capillary action d) Liquid fluorescence. e) Flux leakage.
c) Capillary action
79. What type of electrode would be best suited to minimize underbead cracking? a) E4924 b) E4311 c) E4918 d) E4312 e) E491 0
c) E4918
47. What particular defect is associated with the SMAW process when the welder does not carry out adequate interpass cleaning? a) Longitudinal cracking. b) Lack of fusion. c) Elongated slag lines d) Incomplete penetration.
c) Elongated slag lines
40. With the appropriate electrode, which of the following welding processes can operate with or without a shielding gas: a) Electrogas welding process. b) Gas metal arc welding process. c) Flux cored arc welding process. d) Submerged arc welding process. e) Pulsed gas metal arc welding process.
c) Flux cored arc welding process.
104. Distortion from welding will be more pronounced: a) When preheat is used. b) For single pass welding. c) For multi pass welding d) For welding thick plate than thin plate. e) If the arc travel speed is increased.
c) For multi pass welding
81. For the FCAW, GMAW & SAW processes what does an increase in arc length do? a) Arc voltage does not change. b) Decreases the arc voltage drop across the arc. c) Increases the arc voltage drop across the arc d) Amperage is increased. e) Makes no change to the amperage.
c) Increases the arc voltage drop across the arc
16. An advantage of an AC welding circuit is: a) It is best used with large electrodes on thin materials. b) It is best used with small electrodes on thin sections. c) It helps to eliminate arc blow. d) It minimizes internal undercut.
c) It helps to eliminate arc blow.
42. A common ultrasonic transducer frequency used for weld inspection is the 2.25 MHz transducer. This means: a) It produces a wave form having 2.25 million cycles per hour. b) That at this frequency it has to be a shear wave transducer producing 25000 cycles per second. c) Its ability to detect very fine defects is superior to a 1 MHz transducer d) It produces 25 million cycles per second e) It is ineffective in the longitudinal beam mode when applied to the task of locating laminations in steel plate
c) Its ability to detect very fine defects is superior to a 1 MHz transducer
58. What kind of defect can usually be observed running along the centre line of a weld? a) HAZ cracks b) Transverse weld metal crack c) Solidification crack d) Hydrogen blister e) Lamellar tear
c) Solidification crack
22. Which side of a fillet weld gauge is used for measuring the size of a concave faced fillet weld? a) Leg side. b) Straight side. c) Throat side d) Face side. e) Toe side.
c) Throat side
67. The radiation intensity from a gamma ray source at a distance of 3 meters will be how much less at 6 meters distance: a) 0.5 times less. b) 1.5 times less. c) 2 times less. d) 4 times less. e) 6 times less.
d) 4 times less.
97. The electromagnetic yoke is one of the most commonly used pieces of test equipment to carry out magnetic particle inspection in the field. To locate lack of fusion between the weld and the parent metal at test surface. a) DC current would have to be used with the yoke legs parallel to the weld direction b) AC current would have to be used with the yoke legs parallel to the weld direction c) Either AC or DC current could be used with the yoke legs either parallel or transverse to the weld direction d) AC current would be the best choice providing the legs of the yoke were transverse to the weld e) DC current with its penetrating magnetic field would do the best job providing a wet magnetic particle medium was applied while the yoke was energized and its legs were positioned parallel to the weld direction.
d) AC current would be the best choice providing the legs of the yoke were transverse to the weld
19. The mechanical test used to determine the ability of a material to resist failure by brittle fracture requires the use of: a) A tensile test specimen. b) A bend test specimen. c) A compression test specimen. d) An impact test specimen . e) A spectrographic test.
d) An impact test specimen .
71. If the root opening is too large on a joint welded from one side only without backing, which of the following is the probable consequence? a) It will be difficult to strike an arc. b) Lack of penetration will occur. c) An acceptable cap pass would be difficult to obtain. d) Burn through will occur . e) The electrode will not access the root.
d) Burn through will occur .
94. Which of the following weld defects is most likely to be missed by radiography in a weld: a) Undercutting. b) Porosity. c) Slag inclusion d) Cracking. e) Burn through.
d) Cracking.
11. Which of the following is a stainless steel electrode? a) E4918-1 b) E4918-A1 c) E4818 d) E308-16 e) E4111
d) E308-16
20. Select the electrode that would be best suited for welding high sulphur steels in the flat position: a) E4924 b) E4914 c) E4927 d) E4918
d) E4918
53. Which electrode would be used for all position welding, when severe impact requirements must be met? a) E4924 b) E4948 c) E6218-BL3 d) E4918-1 e) E4312
d) E4918-1
18. Which one of the following SMAW electrodes is restricted to horizontal and flat position welding? a) EXX18 b) E4916 c) EXX10 d) E4924 e) E4914
d) E4924
50. The electrode that would be used for SAW is: a) E347T-3 b) E120T5-G c) E90T1-D3 d) EM12K
d) EM12K
77. When the arc is visible in the SAW process it means that the: a) Process is working properly. b) Filler wire has run out. c) Voltage being used is incorrect. d) Flux cover has been lost. e) final pass id underway
d) Flux cover has been lost.
13. Which welding process(es) can result in metallic inclusions in the weld? a) SMAW. b) FCAW. c) GMAW. d) GTAW e) SAW
d) GTAW
88. if there is inadequate penetration at the root of a double vee groove, which of the following statements best defines the reason for this a) Groove angle exceeds specified amount. b) Root opening too large. c) Groove depth too large causing melt through on the second side d) Groove angle is too small e) Excessive plate thickness.
d) Groove angle is too small
68. What are slag and non-metallic inclusions usually caused by? a) Moisture in the weld joint. b) High welding current. c) Loss of shielding gas. d) Inadequate interpass cleaning.
d) Inadequate interpass cleaning.
74. The purpose of the penetrameter image on a radiograph is to: a) Identify film contrast levels. b) Estimate flaw sizes in a weld. c) Provide film identification. d) Judge image quality e) Indicate radiation field direction.
d) Judge image quality
82. A guided root bend test on a weld test specimen would show: a) The weld ductility by measuring the difference in distance between gauge marks. b) Excessive reinforcement. c) The integrity of the face-weld. d) Lack of penetration or fusion. e) HAZ properties.
d) Lack of penetration or fusion.
33. The use of stress relief to control welding distortion is: a) Always used. b) Never used. c) Always used after machining operations. d) Not used except in special circumstances. e) Used only on longitudinal members.
d) Not used except in special circumstances.
54. Situations may arise where deviations from drawings and specifications covering the job may be necessary. In such cases, the inspector should: a) Make a decision based on sound welding inspection techniques. b) Make a decision based on the co-operation received from the fabrication shop. c) Tell the fabrication shop what should be done. d) Obtain official approval from the agency responsible for the design and approval of the work
d) Obtain official approval from the agency responsible for the design and approval of the work
31. Which of the following combinations of gases may be used for flame cutting of ferrous materials? a) Air-acetylene. b) Oxygen-butane. c) Nitrogen-acetylene. d) Oxygen-acetylene. e) Natural gas.
d) Oxygen-acetylene.
6. Which of the following statements concerning porosity is true? a) Porosity cannot be trapped within a weld. b) Porosity moves up through later passes and will show only in a final pass. c) Porosity is restricted to the centre line of a weld. d) Porosity can result from faulty welder technique. e) Porosity can be dissipated by an appropriate heat treatment.
d) Porosity can result from faulty welder technique.
23. A backing gas is used to: a) Prevent root burn-through. b) Reduce root concavity. c) Support the molten root metal. d) Prevent root oxide contamination.
d) Prevent root oxide contamination.
8. Which of the following operations is known to result in the emission of ionizing radiation at levels dangerous to human health? A) shield metal arc welding. B) Plasma arc welding. C) Operation of high voltage portable generator sets. d) Radiographic inspection. e) Electroslag and electrogas welding.
d) Radiographic inspection.
96. Which of the following can create a brittle condition in alloy steel weldments and could possibly generate cracks? a) Lack of fusion. b) Overlap. c) Tungsten inclusions. d) Stray arc strike. e) Misalignment of the parts to be joined.
d) Stray arc strike.
72. What is the distance from the toe of the weld to the intersection of the horizontal and vertical a) Twice the effective throat. b) The actual throat. c) The weld size. d) The leg length.
d) The leg length.
99. The use of shielding gas pre-purge and post purge in the GTAW process enables: a) The easier ionization of the arc gap. b) The deoxidization of the parent plate in advance of the arc. c) The welder to "see" the shielding gas flow before the weld commences. d) The workpiece and the electrode to be protected from oxidization. e) The workpiece and the torch to be cooled before and after welding.
d) The workpiece and the electrode to be protected from oxidization.
61. Select from the following the process which has the highest weld metal deposition potential: a) Flux cored welding. b) Single wire submerged arc. c) Cold wire feed gas tungsten arc. d) Twin wire submerged arc. e) Gas metal arc with 99.9% helium rich shielding gas.
d) Twin wire submerged arc.
21. Two steel plates are to be welded together. Each plate has a bevel cut on the face to be welded. What type of weld will be made? a) Double bevel groove weld. b) Double vee groove weld. c) Single bevel groove weld. d) Vee groove weld. e) Flare bevel groove weld.
d) Vee groove weld.
101. From the choices below, which one is correct with regard to a qualification test on a pipe assembly: a) Welded horizontally at the 3G position. b) Welded vertically at the 2G position. c) Welded in the 5G position at 45°. d) Welded in the 6G position at 45°. e) Welded in the 4G flat position.
d) Welded in the 6G position at 45°.
75. Which one of the following gases does not produce a spray arc transfer with GMAW process? a) 80% Argon/20% CO2 b) 100% Argon c) 98% Argon/2% Oxygen d) Helium rich gases e) 100% C02
e) 100% C02
14. In producing a drawing for a scale of 1:50, what would be the distance represented by a distance on the drawing of 6 em? a) 12 em. b) 30 em. c) 50 em. d) 240 em. e) 300 em.
e) 300 em.
28. For the liquid penetrant inspection method you would: a) Apply a thick coat of developer over the penetrant on the weld surface in order to develop the crack defects. b) Apply a thin coat of developer over the penetrant on the weld surface in order to develop the crack defects. c) Apply a thin coat of penetrant over the developer for a period of time equal to one half the required developer time. d) Apply the magnetic particles before you applied the developer. e) Apply a thin coat of developer over the clean surface of the weld after the dwell time has elapsed and en excesses penetrant has been completely removed.
e) Apply a thin coat of developer over the clean surface of the weld after the dwell time has elapsed and en excesses penetrant has been completely removed.
83. When the ultrasonic transducer or probe is in direct contact with the material under test the ultrasonic method is a) The shear wave method. b) The longitudinal wave method. c) The transverse wave method. d) The angle beam technique. e) Can be any of the above.
e) Can be any of the above.
25 Which of the following electrodes is classified as a basic electrode: a) E-6010 b) E4914 c) All cellulosic electrodes. d) Electrodes containing titania. e) E4916
e) E4916
80. When welding high-manganese steels, which one of the following must be avoided? a) Using electrodes with a rutile coating. b) Welding with D.C. current. c) Welding with A.C. current. d) Contact with Argon shielding gas. e) Inhalation of welding fumes.
e) Inhalation of welding fumes.
93. From the choices below the most likely cause of incomplete penetration would be: a) Electrode diameter too small. B b) Too wide a root gap c) Excessive bevel angle d) Excessive heat input e) Insufficient heat input
e) Insufficient heat input
78. When using the GMAW process, the type of transfer depends on which of the following? a) Shielding gas. b) Current. c) Electrode composition. d) Electrode size. e) It depends on all four (4) items listed here
e) It depends on all four (4) items listed here
2. Select the cutting process that would provide the narrowest heat affected zone when cutting 12.5 mm (0.5 in) thick carbon steel. a) Oxy-acetylene cutting. b) Air-carbon arc cutting. c) Oxy-propane cutting. d) Plasma arc cutting. e) Laser beam cutting
e) Laser beam cutting
90. The liquid penetrant inspection method is an effective NOT method for: a) Locating incomplete penetration in a double vee groove weld. b) Detecting very fine indications of porosity beneath the weld surface. c) Detecting lack of fusion at the root of a groove weld with a backing strip. d) Locating internal undercutting in groove and fillet welds. e) Locating very fine surface cracks in the weld cap providing it is clean and not too rough
e) Locating very fine surface cracks in the weld cap providing it is clean and not too rough
17. The resistance of steel to failure by brittle fracture is commonly assessed by conducting a: a) Rockwell C hardness test. b) Tensile test. c) Chemical analysis. d) Hydrogen embrittlement test. e) Notched bar impact test.
e) Notched bar impact test.
64. Which welding process uses electrodes that can suffer from "flux breakage"? a) EB. b) FCAW (self-shielded). c) PAW. d) FCAW (gas-shielded). e) SMAW
e) SMAW
46. Which welding process has an arc drawn between the work piece and the member being welded to it? a) SAW. b) CAW-G. c) PAW. d) EGW. e) SW.
e) SW.
15. As a general rule, weld discontinuities detected by ultrasonic testing are accepted or rejected on the basis of: a) Vertical linearity. b) Time base analysis. c) Horizontal response data. d) Noise to signal ratio. e) Signal amplitude.
e) Signal amplitude.
70. Which of the following would be considered to be a structural fault in a weld? a) Incorrect bevel angles. b) Incorrect fit up. c) Insufficient throat. d) Incorrect joint design e) Slag inclusion
e) Slag inclusion
86. Which of the following describes the edge preparation for a double bevel butt joint in a steel plate assembly a) An edge on each plate is beveled for its full thickness. b) Both of the plates are beveled from both sides. c) Each plate is beveled from one side. d) Each plate is beveled from opposite faces. e) The edge of one plate has two bevels and the other plate edge is square.
e) The edge of one plate has two bevels and the other plate edge is square.
98. When using the ultrasonic testing method to inspect a weld: a) Any angle of transducer may be used. b) Any frequency of transducer may be used. c) ±. 1 oo from the required transducer angle is the normal tolerance. d) Couplant is unnecessary for contact testing. e) The transducer index point should be periodically verified on the IIW block
e) The transducer index point should be periodically verified on the IIW block
106. Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding welding inspectors certified to CSA Standard W178.2? a) Welding inspectors who do not renew their certification on or before their expiry date shall be decertified. b) Welding inspectors who do not rewrite their standard I code exam at the intervals specified by W178.2 shall be decertified if they have a single standard I code endorsement. c) Welding inspectors who have more than one standard I code exam accreditation shall lose the accreditation if they do not complete the mandatory rewrite requirement for that standard I code at the intervals specified by CSA W178.2 d) Welding inspectors who fail to meet the renewal requirements shall be decertified and shall be subject to rewrite of the entire examination should they wish to regain their certification e) Welding inspectors who lose their certification due to failure to renew their certification before the expiry date are required to submit their renewal forms and fee and rewrite the standard code examination
e) Welding inspectors who lose their certification due to failure to renew their certification before the expiry date are required to submit their renewal forms and fee and rewrite the standard code examination
