EMT-B Midterm Chapters 1-23

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"PASTE" is an alternate assessment tool for ___________. Select one: A. respiratory patients B. seizure patients C. stroke patients D. cardiac patients

A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should: Select one: A. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible. B. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering. C. obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents. D. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adult

The bony prominence on the lateral/superior aspect of the thigh is called the: Select one: A. sacroiliac joint. B. greater trochanter. C. sacral symphysis. D. iliac crest.

The circulation of blood throughout the body, filling the capillaries and supplying the cells and tissues with oxygen and nutrients, is called: A. physiology. B. perfusion. C. bleeding. D. metabolism.

An EMT makes up a set of vitals for inclusion on the prehospital care report (PCR). This is called: A. assault. B. libel. C. falsification. D. battery.

An at-rest heart beating faster than 100 beats per minute is referred to as: A. bradycardia. B. ventricular fibrillation. C. tachycardia. D. atrial fibrillation.

An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or over flexed because: Select one: A. the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position. B. the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat. C. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible. D. he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse.

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. B. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs. C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. D. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional.

An insufficiency in the supply of oxygen to the body's tissues is called: A. anoxia. B. no-oxia. C. hypoxia. D. cyanosis.

An objective statement is: A. one that is made from a particular point of view. B. one that is made by the patient or a family member. C. one that describes observable or measurable information. D. one's own assessment of what is wrong with the patient.

Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the: Select one: A. femur. B. tibia. C. patella. D. calcaneus.

Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of: Select one: A. an acute ischemic stroke. B. obstruction of the airway. C. a cardiac dysrhythmia. D. severe blunt trauma.

The left cerebral hemisphere controls: Select one: A. heart rate and pupil reaction. B. the right side of the face. C. breathing and blood pressure. D. the right side of the body.

The legal extent or limits of the EMT's job are formally defined by the: A. patient. B. DOT curriculum. C. state. D. scope of practice.

The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the: Select one: A. ischium. B. sacrum. C. ilium. D. coccyx.

The most superior section of the sternum is called the: Select one: A. angle of Louis. B. costal arch. C. xiphoid process. D. manubrium.

The largest portion of the brain is the ___________, which is commonly referred to as the "gray matter." Select one: A. brain stem B. diencephalon C. cerebellum D. cerebrum

The negligent EMT may be required to pay for all of the following except the patient's: A. lost wages. B. medical expenses. C. pain and suffering D. health insurance costs.

The parietal peritoneum lines the: Select one: A. surface of the abdominal organs. B. retroperitoneal space. C. lungs and chest cavity. D. walls of the abdominal cavity.

The part of the brain that controls the left side of the body is the: Select one: A. right temporal lobe. B. left parietal lobe. C. left-side cerebrum. D. right-side cerebrum.

The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the: Select one: A. pulse pressure. B. diastolic pressure. C. blood pressure. D. systolic pressure.

The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called: Select one: A. digestion. B. suspension. C. absorption. D. adsorption.

The purpose of defibrillation is to: Select one: A. improve the chance of CPR being successful in resuscitation. B. prevent asystole from deteriorating into ventricular fibrillation. C. cause a rapid decrease in the heart rate of an unstable patient. D. stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells.

The skin of a patient with inadequate breathing will most likely be: A. pale, cool, and dry. B. red, hot, and clammy. C. yellow, warm, and dry. D. blue, cool, and clammy.

"Gastro" in the word "gastroenteritis" means: Select one: A. stomach. B. tongue. C. bowel. D. intestine.

A 29-year-old pregnant woman has had severe vomiting for the last 2 days. Today, she is vomiting large amounts of blood. Her skin is cool and pale and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. Mallory-Weiss tear. B. acute pancreatitis. C. esophagitis. D. esophageal varices.

A 40-year-old male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should: Select one: A. open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver. B. apply a pressure dressing to the patient's arm. C. apply a cervical collar and suction his airway. D. tilt the patient's head back and lift up on his chin.

A 45-year-old female patient who is vomiting coffee-ground-like material and complaining of abdominal pain probably has: A. internal bleeding. B. a seizure history. C. gallbladder problems. D. ingested a strong acid.

A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours' duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to: Select one: A. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock. B. transport him in a supine position. C. assess his blood pressure to determine perfusion adequacy. D. determine the exact location and cause of his pain.

A 50-year-old male presents with altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a "small stroke" three years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen if needed, you should: Select one: A. prepare for immediate transport. B. perform a head-to-toe assessment. C. repeat the primary assessment. D. inquire about his family history.

A 59-year-old male presents with sudden-onset severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should: Select one: A. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport. B. request a paramedic unit to give the patient pain medication. C. vigorously palpate the abdomen to establish pain severity. D. place the patient in a sitting position and transport at once.

A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. begin CPR until an AED is available. B. start CPR and transport immediately. C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated. D. determine if he has a valid living will.

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a: Select one: A. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading. B. falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading. C. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading. D. falsely low systolic and diastolic reading.

A conscious hypoglycemic patient who is able to swallow is frequently administered: A. oral glucose. B. insulin. C. nitroglycerin. D. epinephrine.

A device that allows the control of oxygen in liters per minute is called a: A. flowmeter. B. G tank. C. humidifier. D. reservoir.

A diabetic found with a weak, rapid pulse and cold, clammy skin who complains of hunger pangs suffers from: A. hypoglycemia. B. cardiogenic shock. C. hyperglycemia. D. ulcers.

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: Select one: A. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. B. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. C. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. D. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.

A division of the peripheral nervous system that controls involuntary motor functions is called the _____ nervous system. A. autonomic B. central C. sensory D. motor

A flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device should have all of the following features except: A. an audible alarm when ventilation is activated. B. a trigger that enables the rescuer to use both hands. C. a peak flow rate of up to 40 liters per minute. D. a rugged design and construction.

A general impression of the patient is formed by an EMT: Select one: A. at a distance when the patient is first seen. B. when the patient is in the ambulance. C. speaking with family members or bystanders first. D. speaking privately with the patient.

A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: Select one: A. bilateral. B. proximal. C. unilateral. D. medial.

A patient who gives a poor general impression should be considered a _____ priority. A. high B. low C. delayed D. stable

A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being: Select one: A. diaphoretic. B. edematous. C. flushed. D. plethoric.

A patient's short-term memory is MOST likely intact if he or she correctly answers questions regarding: Select one: A. date and event. B. event and person. C. time and place. D. person and place.

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing: Select one: A. tolerance. B. withdrawal. C. addiction. D. dependence.

A strangulated hernia is one that: Select one: A. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues. B. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs. C. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours. D. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention.

A young male is unresponsive after overdosing on an opioid. He is not breathing and his pulse is weak. The EMT should immediately: Select one: A. ventilate with a BVM. B. request an ALS ambulance. C. begin chest compressions. D. administer naloxone.

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), recommended immunizations and tests include a: Select one: A. tetanus/diphtheria/pertussis booster every 10 years. B. two-shot hepatitis A vaccination series. C. smallpox vaccine every 5 years. D. TB skin test every 6 months.

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: A. paramedic. B. EMT. C. AEMT. D. EMR.

According to the terminal drop hypothesis: Select one: A. mental function is presumed to decline in the 5 years preceding death. B. most elderly patients experience depression after the death of a loved one. C. a person's physical health begins to decline after the age of 75 years. D. most late-stage adults retain high brain function until 1 month before death.

Activities such as walking, talking, and writing are regulated by the: Select one: A. somatic nervous system. B. involuntary nervous system. C. central nervous system. D. autonomic nervous system.

Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are trade names for the generic medication: Select one: A. ibuprofen. B. aspirin. C. nitrostat. D. acetaminophen.

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old woman with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and dissipation of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should: Select one: A. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine. B. consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction. C. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine. D. transport her rapidly, as it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine.

After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: Select one: A. hemostasis. B. hematemesis. C. hemiplegia. D. hemolysis.

After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: Select one: A. report the incident to your supervisor after the call. B. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention. C. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution. D. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible.

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to: Select one: A. identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment. B. determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions. C. find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life. D. look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion.

After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should: Select one: A. repeat the order to medical control word for word. B. perform the intervention as ordered. C. confirm the order in your own words. D. ask the physician to repeat the order.

After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n): Select one: A. side effect. B. untoward effect. C. therapeutic effect. D. unpredictable effect.

An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): Select one: A. paramedic. B. EMT. C. advanced EMT (AEMT). D. EMR.

An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called: A. paramedic. B. advanced EMT (AEMT). C. EMT. D. EMR.

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: A. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. B. reassure him or her that everything will be all right, even if it will not be. C. ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint. D. demand the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport.

As a woman approaches menopause: Select one: A. her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity. B. she cannot become pregnant because of fluctuating hormone levels. C. she usually experiences abdominal cramping without vaginal bleeding. D. her risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease lowers significantly.

As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: A. your local EMS protocols. B. an order from a paramedic. C. the patient's condition. D. the transport time to the hospital.

As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the: Select one: A. alveoli. B. capillaries. C. bronchi. D. pleura.

Assessment of a patient's blood pressure with an automatic BP cuff reveals that it is 204/120 mm Hg. The patient is conscious and alert and denies any symptoms. The EMT should: Select one: A. obtain a manual blood pressure. B. conclude that she has hypertension. C. prepare for immediate transport. D. reassess her blood pressure in 5 minutes.

At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children? Select one: A. 10 to 18 months B. 18 to 24 months C. 6 to 8 months D. 24 to 36 months

Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: Select one: A. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. B. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management. C. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses. D. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency.

Because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following a sting: Select one: A. it can continue to inject venom for up to 20 minutes. B. the body's immune system deactivates the bee's venom. C. the stinger should quickly be removed with tweezers. D. the toxicity of the venom decreases within 10 minutes.

Before the oxygen cylinder's pressure gauge reads a minimum of _____ psi, you must switch to a fresh cylinder. A. 200 B. 400 C. 800 D. 1,000

Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: Select one: A. gallbladder. B. stomach. C. kidneys. D. pancreas.

Capnography is used to: Select one: A. determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled. B. trend a patient's blood pressure and assess for shock. C. assess how much oxygen is reaching the body's tissues. D. assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin.

Changes in your professional life to reduce and prevent stress can include: A. requesting a change of shift or location. B. taking on another part-time position. C. working additional overtime shifts. D. requesting a busier location.

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: Select one: A. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations. B. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations. C. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations. D. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations.

Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. shallow chest movement. B. supraclavicular retractions. C. use of accessory muscles. D. gasping attempts to breathe.

Common questions asked by patients with a serious illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. "Which hospital am I going to?" B. "Will I be permanently disabled?" C. "Am I going to die?" D. "What are you doing to me?"

Common signs and symptoms of AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. pain exacerbated by breathing. B. irregular heartbeat. C. shortness of breath or dyspnea. D. sudden unexplained sweating.

Common signs and symptoms of severe hyperglycemia include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. cool, clammy skin. B. rapid, thready pulse. C. warm, dry skin. D. acetone breath odor.

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: Select one: A. right atrium. B. right ventricle. C. left atrium. D. left ventricle.

Determining blood pressure by palpation is: A. not as accurate as the auscultation method. B. used when there is no noise around a patient. C. documented as the "palp/diastolic." D. used whenever the patient is hypertensive.

Drags are used only in emergencies because they: A. do not protect the patient's neck and spine. B. require excessive energy from the EMT. C. may injure the EMT's back. D. provide full immobilization.

During an EMT call, a lethal threat is made by the 24-year-old intoxicated male. The EMT should first: A. retreat to a safe area. B. radio for assistance. C. reevaluate the situation. D. remedy the situation.

During the reassessment, whenever you believe there may have been a change in the patient's condition, you should immediately: A. repeat the primary assessment. B. transport the patient immediately. C. document trends in vital signs. D. repeat the rapid trauma assessment.

During the secondary assessment of the head of a trauma patient, inspect the: A. ears and nose for blood or clear fluids. B. inner surface of the eyelids. C. skin color of the cheeks. D. mouth for blood and clear fluids.

EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the: A. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA). B. National Association of EMTs. C. individual state's EMS protocols. D. National Registry of EMTs.

EMTs receive a call for a possible sexual assault. The patient is a young female who is conscious and alert and has no apparent injuries. She states, "I cannot remember anything, but I know I was raped." The EMTs should suspect that: Select one: A. the patient was given a drug prior to the incident. B. the patient knew her attacker, but is afraid to say. C. an underlying head injury is causing her amnesia. D. the traumatic experience has created a mental block.

Each of the following is the responsiblity of an EMT at a hazardous-materials (hazmat) incident except: A. entering hazmat scenes with SCBA. B. protecting yourself and others. C. recognizing potential problems. D. notifying the hazardous-materials response team.

Emergency care of a patient having a behavioral or psychiatric emergency includes each of the following except: A. plenty of physical contact. B. encouraging the patient to discuss what is troubling him. C. not lying to the patient. D. being prepared to spend time talking to the patient.

End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring is clearly indicated for patients who present with: Select one: A. respiratory distress. B. abdominal pain. C. high blood pressure. D. headache.

Febrile seizures: Select one: A. are usually benign but should be evaluated. B. often result in permanent brain damage. C. occur when a child's fever rises slowly. D. are also referred to as absence seizures.

For a patient with a gastrointestinal complaint, it is MOST important for the EMT to _________. Select one: A. identify whether the patient requires rapid transport B. determine the cause of the patient's complaint C. avoid transporting the patient if the condition is minor D. perform all interventions prior to transport

For an adult, the normal resting pulse should be between: Select one: A. 60 and 100 beats/min. B. 50 and 60 beats/min. C. 50 and 70 beats/min. D. 70 and 110 beats/min.

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by: Select one: A. adequate amounts of surfactant. B. pulmonary capillary constriction. C. water or blood within the alveoli. D. surfactant-destroying organisms.

Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: Select one: a. if you ventilate a patient too quickly. b. in patients who are intubated. c. when you deliver minimal tidal volume. d. when the airway is completely obstructed.

Hemoglobin is a molecule that attaches to ___________ and carries oxygen. Select one: A. erythrocytes B. monocytes C. thrombocytes D. leukocytes

His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. bronchiolitis. B. pertussis. C. croup. D. epiglottitis.

If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: Select one: A. minute volume is decreased. B. inspiratory reserve is increased. C. overall tidal volume is increased. D. expiratory reserve volume is decreased.

If anyone at the scene is in possession of a weapon, the EMT should: A. notify the police immediately. B. ask the person to give it to you. C. ignore the person with the weapon. D. advise the person to leave the scene.

If gastric distention begins to make positive-pressure ventilation difficult, you should: Select one: A. reposition the patient's airway. B. increase the rate of ventilation. C. suction the patient's oropharynx. D. insert an oropharyngeal airway.

If the patient does not wish to go to the hospital, the EMT should: A. document with a refusal-of-care form. B. take the patient to the hospital anyway. C. end the assessment immediately. D. call for another crew to subdue him.

In a limited number of situations, you may have to utilize force. The use of force by an EMT is allowed: A. to defend against an attack by an emotionally disturubed patient. B. whenever the patient refuses to be transported. C. if the patient refuses to follow your care plan. D. if the patient has taken any drugs.

In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer: Select one: A. may be relatively painless. B. is typically not as severe. C. can be controlled in the field. D. often presents with acute pain.

In contrast to the parietal peritoneum, the visceral peritoneum: Select one: A. is supplied by nerves of the autonomic nervous system, which are less able to localize pain or sensation. B. lines the walls of the abdominal cavity and is stimulated when the solid abdominal organs contract. C. is less likely to become inflamed or infected because it lines the abdominal organs themselves. D. is supplied by the same nerves from the spinal cord that supply the skin of the abdomen.

In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system: Select one: A. slows the heart and respiratory rates. B. causes an increase in the heart rate. C. dilates the blood vessels in the muscles. D. prepares the body to handle stress.

In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: Select one: A. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself. B. possesses a valid driver's license. C. is mentally competent and able to refuse. D. has a poor relationship with his or her parents.

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _______ beats/min. Select one: A. 60, 100 B. 30, 130 C. 40, 120 D. 50, 110

In the anatomical position, the person's palms will be facing: A. forward. B. backward. C. upward. D. downward.

In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? Select one: A. Alveoli B. Bronchi C. Capillaries D. Trachea

In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information? Select one: A. The patient is competent and signs a release form B. The family requests a copy for insurance purposes C. A media representative inquires about the patient D. A police officer requests a copy to place on file

Information that you can see, hear, feel, and smell is called: A. signs. B. sensations. C. symptoms. D. assessments.

Instead of providing mouth-to-mouth ventilations on the nonbreathing patient, the EMT, when acting alone, should use a(n): A. pocket mask with a one-way valve. B. one-way valve. C. bag-valve mask. D. endotracheal tube.

Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. cerebral vasodilation. B. an acute arterial rupture. C. an embolism. D. a thrombus.

It is especially important for EMS personnel to develop non-adversarial relationships with their coworkers because they: Select one: A. depend on one another for their safety. B. must work together every third day. C. may have to bunk in the same room. D. are highly prone to stress and burnout.

It is important for the EMT to determine when the ingestion of a poison occurred because: A. different poisons act on the body at different rates. B. those who ingest poison in the evening tend to vomit frequently. C. dilution of the poison is never effective after 10 minutes. D. the antidote is more effective once the poison reaches the stomach.

It would be MOST appropriate for a patient to take his or her prescribed nitroglycerin when experiencing: Select one: A. chest pain that does not immediately subside with rest. B. difficulty breathing that awakens the patient from sleep. C. an acute onset of dizziness during a period of exertion. D. sharp chest pain that lasts longer than 10 to 15 minutes.

Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is: Select one: A. sitting up at a 45° angle. B. in a supine position. C. in a recumbent position. D. in a prone position.

Laypeople are often trained to perform all of the following skills, EXCEPT: A. insertion of an oropharyngeal airway. B. control of life-threatening bleeding. C. splinting of a possible fracture. D. one- or two-rescuer CPR.

Major risk factors for AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. hypoglycemia. B. diabetes mellitus. C. elevated cholesterol. D. hypertension.

Medications encased in a gelatin shell that are taken by mouth are called: Select one: A. capsules. B. pills. C. caplets. D. tablets.

Medications that are carried on the ambulance and that EMTs can administer include activated charcoal, oxygen, and: A. oral glucose. B. nitroglycerin. C. epinephrine. D. all of these.

The descending aorta divides into the two iliac arteries at the level of the: Select one: A. umbilicus. B. nipple line. C. iliac crest. D. pubic symphysis.

National guidelines for EMS care are intended to __________. Select one: A. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States B. facilitate a national EMS labor group C. unify EMS providers under a single medical director D. reduce expenses at the local and state levels

Negative-pressure breathing involves: Select one: A. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity. B. increasing airway resistance during breathing. C. relaxing the respiratory muscles. D. pushing or forcing air into the lungs.

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: Select one: A. who have experienced a head injury. B. with a history of an ischemic stroke. C. who have taken up to two doses. D. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.

Nitroglycerin, when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain: Select one: A. relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries. B. constricts the veins throughout the body. C. increases myocardial contraction force. D. increases blood return to the right atrium.

Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called: Select one: A. diffusion. B. breathing. C. osmosis. D. ventilation

Patients who become dependent upon EMS personnel or other health care providers often feel: Select one: A. shamed. B. hopeful. C. superior. D. relieved.

Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an: Select one: A. increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain. B. increase in muscle strength and reflexes. C. increase in height because of spinal disc expansion. D. increase in respiratory rate due to increased metabolism.

Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: Select one: A. offer little or no side protection. B. do not have shatterproof lenses. C. are not secured with a strap. D. have large, rounded lenses.

Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include: Select one: A. family history. B. excess stress. C. lack of exercise. D. hyperglycemia.

Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. forceful coughing. B. acute cyanosis. C. inability to speak. D. grasping the throat.

Signs of adequate breathing in the adult include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a reduction in tidal volume. B. rhythmic inhalation and exhalation. C. bilaterally clear breath sounds. D. respirations of 18 breaths/min.

Signs of excited delirium include: Select one: A. diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations. B. slurred speech, bradycardia, and a high fever. C. subdued behavior, crying, and suicidal thoughts. D. pallor, hypotension, and constricted pupils.

Situations that are higher risks of a lawsuit against an EMS agency are: A. patients who refuse care. B. on-scene deaths. C. cardiac arrest cases. D. pedestrians struck by cars.

Supplemental oxygen without assisted ventilation would MOST likely be administered to patients: Select one: A. with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume. B. who are semiconscious with shallow respirations. C. who have accessory muscle use and slow breathing. D. with rapid respirations and a reduced tidal volume.

The AED has delivered a shock to an elderly male in cardiac arrest. Following 2 minutes of CPR, you re-analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm and receive a "no shock advised" message. After further resuscitation, you restore a palpable carotid pulse. Your next action should be to: Select one: A. reassess airway and breathing and treat accordingly. B. obtain a blood pressure and apply the pulse oximeter. C. transport at once and re-analyze his rhythm en route. D. place him in the recovery position and apply oxygen.

The EMT should perform a "rapid scan" to determine if the patient is __________ during the __________. Select one: A. stable or unstable; primary assessment B. breathing or not breathing; primary assessment C. complaining of vaginal bleeding; history taking D. pregnant; secondary assessment

The EMT writes "The patient is alert and oriented" on the prehospital care report (PCR). This is an example of: A. objective information. B. a statement beyond his or her training. C. subjective information. D. nonfactual information.

The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes: Select one: A. administering oxygen and transporting immediately. B. advising the patient not to make any attempts to cough. C. performing five back blows and five abdominal thrusts. D. visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction.

The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: Select one: A. substandard or inappropriate patient care. B. low morale and frequently missed shifts. C. tension among coworkers and supervisors. D. punitive action and the loss of a job.

The ____________ deals with the well-being of the EMT, career progression, and EMT compensation. A. human resources department B. local public health department C. office of the medical director D. EMS administrator or chief

The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ______ mg of epinephrine, and the infant-child auto-injector delivers ______ mg. Select one: A. 0.3; 0.15 B. 0.1; 0.01 C. 0.03; 0.3 D. 0.01; 0.1

The best way to deliver high-concentration oxygen to a breathing patient is to use a: A. nonrebreather mask. B. partial rebreather mask. C. bag-valve mask. D. nasal cannula.

The carpal bones form the: Select one: A. wrist. B. ankle. C. hand. D. foot.

The complications of sickle cell disease can include each of the following except: A. destruction of the pancreas, B. acute chest syndrome. C. priapism. D. stroke.

The criteria to be licensed and employed as an EMT include: A. proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases. B. successful completion of a recognized bystander cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) course. C. demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds. D. a minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care.

The diastolic blood pressure represents the: Select one: A. minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries. B. average pressure against the arterial walls during a cardiac cycle. C. difference in pressure between ventricular contraction and relaxation. D. increased arterial pressure that occurs during ventricular contraction.

The difference between the general impression steps for a medical patient and those for a trauma patient is: A. manual stabilization of the head for a trauma patient. B. no SAMPLE is taken for a trauma patient. C. the medical patient is treated faster. D. the AVPU is not used for a medical patient.

The distal aspect of the tibia forms the: Select one: A. medial malleolus. B. Achilles tendon. C. lateral condyle. D. lateral malleolus.

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: Select one: A. sinoatrial node. B. coronary sinus. C. bundle of His. D. atrioventricular node.

The heart is located in the center of the _____ cavity. A. thoracic B. cranial C. pelvic D. cardiac

The highest point in the shoulder is the: A. acromion process. B. humerus. C. metatarsal. D. clavicle.

The inferior cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the: Select one: A. xiphoid process. B. sternal notch. C. angle of Louis. D. jugular notch.

The limited number of interventions an EMT can provide include all of the following except: A. administration of intravenous fluids. B. application of an AED. C. application of oxygen. D. insertion of oral or nasal airways.

The main function of the endocrine system is to _________. Select one: A. maintain homeostasis B. produce glandular secretions C. regulate blood flow D. regulate glucose and calcium

The means of providing artificial ventilation are: 1. Pocket face mask with supplemental oxygen 2. Two-person bag-valve mask with supplemental oxygen 3. Flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilator 4. One-person bag-valve mask with supplemental oxygen. Which of these is the best method to use? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

The mental status of a patient who has experienced a generalized seizure: Select one: A. is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes. B. is easily differentiated from that of acute hypoglycemia. C. progressively worsens over a period of a few hours. D. typically does not improve, even after several minutes.

The next step in the primary assessment after establishing unresponsiveness is to: A. ensure an open airway. B. check for adequate breathing. C. check for circulation. D. look for profuse bleeding.

The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be: Select one: A. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries. B. as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented. C. performed in the presence of at least two police officers. D. deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician.

The primary assessment takes different forms, which depend on the age of the patient and whether he or she: A. has a medical problem or a trauma problem. B. is alert or conscious. C. has a history of diabetes. D. has a history of head injury.

The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is: Select one: A. one-third the diameter of the chest, or about 1½ inches. B. one-half the diameter of the chest, or about 1½ inches. C. one-half to two-thirds the diameter of the chest. D. two-thirds the diameter of the chest, or about 2 inches.

The reduction of breathing to the point where oxygen intake is not sufficient to support life is called: A. respiratory failure. B. anoxic metabolism. C. respiratory arrest. D. respiratory support.

The right coronary artery supplies blood to the: Select one: A. right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle. B. right atrium and posterior wall of the right ventricle. C. left ventricle and posterior wall of the right ventricle. D. left ventricle and inferior wall of the right atrium.

The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is MOST directly related to: Select one: A. shrinkage of the brain. B. blood vessel dilation. C. meningeal deterioration. D. a decrease in neurons.

The sperm typically fertilizes the egg in the _________. Select one: A.fallopian tube B. vagina C. uterus D. ovary

The standard respiratory fitting on a bag-valve mask that ensures a proper fit with other respiratory equipment is: A. 15/22 mm. B. 10/14 mm. C. 5/20 mm. D. 20/26 mm.

The steps in the focused history and physical exam of the unresponsive medical patient include the following: 1. Obtain baseline vital signs. 2. Gather the history of the present illness from bystanders and family. 3. Conduct a rapid physical exam. 4. Gather a SAMPLE history from bystanders and family. Which is the correct order in which these steps should be performed? A. 3, 1, 2, 4 B. 2, 3, 4, 1 C. 3, 2, 4, 1 D. 1, 2, 3, 4

The three major parts of the brain are the: Select one: A. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem. B. cerebellum, medulla, and occiput. C. brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord. D. midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord.

The vocal cords are located in the: Select one: A. larynx. B. nasopharynx. C. oropharynx. D. pharynx.

To avoid injury when pushing a patient or other object, you should: Select one: A. avoid pushing the patient with your elbows fully extended. B. push the patient from an overhead position if possible. C. kneel if you are pushing an object that is above waist level. D. push from the area of your body between the knees and hips.

To load the wheeled ambulance stretcher into the ambulance, the two EMTs should position themselves on _____ of the stretcher. A. opposite sides B. opposide ends C. the same side D. one end and one side

To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the: Select one: A. corner of the mouth to the earlobe. B. corner of the mouth to the superior ear. C. angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth. D. center of the mouth to the posterior ear.

To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose? Select one: A. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor B. A semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex C. An unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin D. A conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting

Together, the right and left lungs contain how many lobes? Select one: A. Five B. Three C. Four D. Six

Twelve pairs of ribs attach to which section of the spinal column? Select one: A. Thoracic B. Sacral C. Lumbar D. Coccyx

Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. assess the scene for potential hazards. B. request a paramedic unit for assistance. C. determine if you need additional help. D. gain immediate access to the patient.

What are the three components of the "perfusion triangle"? Select one: A. Heart, blood vessels, blood B. Plasma, red blood cells, platelets C. Heart, brain, lungs D. Arteries, veins, capillaries

What is the function of platelets? Select one: A. Initial formation of a blood clot B. Defense against invading organisms C. Transport of cellular waste materials D. Transport of oxygen and nutrients

What is the function of the left atrium? Select one: A. It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs. B. It ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta. C. It receives oxygenated blood from the vena cava. D. It receives blood from the pulmonary arteries.

When a 45-year-old male patient tells you that he has a disease with which you are not familiar, it is best to respond by saying: A. "I'm not familiar with that disease. Could you tell me about it?" B. "That doesn't concern me. My job is to treat emergencies." C. "Interesting disease. I just studied it during EMS training." D. "I'm not a physician. Just tell me what's wrong today."

When a female has reached menarche: Select one: A. she is capable of becoming pregnant. B. she can no longer produce an ovum. C. she usually requires hormone therapy. D. menstrual periods become less frequent.

When a patient is dying, he or she may experience regression. This is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. behavior consistent with an earlier developmental stage. B. anger projected toward the EMT or other providers. C. fear of being completely dependent upon other people. D. a decreased ability to exercise age-appropriate judgment.

When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. You should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then: Select one: A. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit. B. apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. C. document your findings and perform a detailed assessment. D. conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age.

When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should: Select one: A. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful. B. observe for abdominal guarding, which is characterized by sudden relaxation of the abdominal muscles when palpated. C. visually assess the painful area of the abdomen, but avoid palpation because this could worsen his or her condition. D. ask the patient to point to the area of pain or tenderness and assess for rebound tenderness over that specific area.

When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the: Select one: A. rate and depth of breathing. B. rate of the patient's pulse. C. presence of a medical identification tag. D. patient's mental status.

When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate and he develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of: Select one: A. negligence. B. assault. C. battery. D. abandonment.

When interviewing a patient, you can show him or her that you understand the situation by: Select one: A. repeating statements back to him or her. B. using medical terminology whenever possible. C. interrupting him or her as needed for clarification. D. maintaining constant eye contact with him or her.

When managing the airway of a child, an airway consideration you should remember is that: A. the mouth and nose are smaller and more easily obstructed. B. the chest wall is firmer in a child. C. the trachea is wider and less easily obstructed. D. all of these are airway considerations in a child.

When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes, it would be MOST important to determine: Select one: A. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress. B. the name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin. C. approximately how much water the patient drank that day. D. if there is a family history of diabetes or related conditions.

When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: Select one: A. with one or two hands. B. 80 to 100 times per minute. C. until a radial pulse is felt. D. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches.

When performing a rapid exam on a supine patient, what part of the body is typically assessed last? Select one: A. Posterior B. Abdomen C. Anterior chest D. Extremities

When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the V1 and V2 electrodes should be placed: Select one: A. on either side of the sternum. B. in the midaxillary line. C. on the left and right arms. D. in the midclavicular line.

When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal: Select one: A. respirations increase in rate and depth. B. exhalation lasts longer than inhalation. C. the brain stem inhibits respirations. D. respirations decrease in rate and depth.

When treating a patient who is trapped in a vehicle and covered with broken glass, it is BEST to wear: Select one: A. puncture-proof leather gloves over your latex gloves. B. thick firefighter gloves over two pairs of latex gloves. C. firefighter gloves only, to preserve manual dexterity. D. latex gloves with thick leather gloves underneath.

When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears. B. most older patients are confused due to a decrease in brain cells. C. deafness and blindness are a normal part of the process of aging. D. the majority of older patients experience a loss of low-frequency hearing

Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor? Select one: A. Driver's license B. Social Security card C. Voter registration card D. Insurance card

Which is not generally considered a sign or symptom of stress? A. Decisiveness B. Guilt C. Loss of interest in work D. Difficulty sleeping

Which layer of the skin is composed of fatty tissue and serves as an insulator for the body? Select one: A. Subcutaneous B. Sebaceous C. Dermal D. Epidermis

Which of the following MOST accurately describes a simple partial seizure? Select one: A. A seizure that begins in one extremity B. A generalized seizure without incontinence C. A seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly D. A seizure that is not preceded by an aura

Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of naloxone (Narcan)? Select one: A. Slow respirations B. Tachycardia C. Extreme agitation D. Hypertension

Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? Select one: A. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation B. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation C. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation D. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke? Select one: A. Hypovolemia B. Intracranial bleeding C. Hypoglycemia D. A postictal state

Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training? Select one: A. EMT B. Paramedic C. EMR D. AEMT

Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? A. a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured B. a vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting C. a team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients

Which of the following has the weakest transmission signal and, as a result, is LEAST likely to be heard by the party being called? Select one: A. Hand-held portable radio B. Multiplex base station C. Mobile repeater station D. Land-base repeater station

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? Select one: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Simple pneumothorax C. Spinal cord injury D. Liver laceration

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing in an adult? Select one: A. Respirations of 20 breaths/min and bilateral chest movement B. Respirations of 30 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume C. Cool, clammy skin and retractions above the clavicles D. Use of the accessory muscles in the neck and cyanosis

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? Select one: A. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin B. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis C. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? Select one: A. Metabolic coordination B. Temperature regulation C. Sensory reception D. Pressure and pain perception

Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections? Select one: A. Cystic fibrosis B. Celiac sprue C. Multiple sclerosis D. Severe acute respiratory syndrome

Which of the following is a good guideline for physical examination of any patient? Select one: A. Avoid touching without permission. B. Complete the physical exam first, then check the ABCs. C. Examine extremities first. D. Always work toe-to-head.

Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group? Select one: A. Secondary sexual development begins. B. Muscle and bone growth both decrease. C. The systolic blood pressure decreases. D. The normal pulse rate steadily increases.

Which of the following is an example of a rules-based medication error? Select one: A. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director. B. The EMT accidentally gives a higher drug dose than what is indicated. C. The EMT administers the correct drug, but gives it by the wrong route. D. The EMT administers a drug that is contraindicated for the patient.

Which of the following is considered an organic brain syndrome? Select one: A. Alzheimer dementia B. Schizophrenia C. Depression D. Anxiety conditions

Which of the following is correct about the secondary assessment for a high-priority patient? Select one: A. You may not have time to complete a secondary assessment. B. Never contact medical direction before completing the secondary assessment. C. Never perform a secondary assessment on a high-priority patient. D. The secondary assessment must be performed prior to transport.

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? Select one: A. Long backboard B. Scoop stretcher C. Portable stretcher D. Wheeled stretcher

Which of the following is the MOST significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs? Select one: A. Immunity B. Race C. Gender D. Age

Which of the following is the greatest danger to the patient in an emergency move? A. A spinal injury may be aggravated. B. Bleeding may increase after movement. C. The airway may become obstructed. D. There is no danger associated with an emergency move.

Which of the following is the name for a condition caused by excessive fluid build-up in the lungs because of the inadequate pumping of the heart? A. Congestive heart failure B. Acute heart failure C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Chronic myocardial infarction

Which of the following may help reduce your patient's nausea? Select one: A. Low-flow oxygen B. Positive-pressure ventilation C. Cricoid pressure D. Oral glucose

Which of the following organs is NOT part of the digestive system? Select one: A. Kidney B. Pancreas C. Stomach D. Gallbladder

Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the "M" in the SAMPLE history? Select one: A. "How much Tylenol do you take each day?" B. "How long have you had your chest pain?" C. "Have you ever had any major surgeries?" D. "When was the last time you ate a meal?"

Which of the following respiratory sounds made by an unresponsive adult most likely indicates a serious airway problem requiring immediate intervention? A. Snoring or gurgling B. Slight wheezing C. Sniffling D. Whistling or grunting

Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? Select one: A. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed. B. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. C. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. D. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries.

Which of the following sets of vital signs would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with acute cocaine overdose? Select one: A. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min B. BP, 60/40 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min C. BP, 190/90 mm Hg; pulse, 40 beats/min D. BP, 180/100 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min

Which of the following signs/symptoms is considered particularly significant in gynecological emergencies? Select one: A. Syncope B. Abdominal cramping C. Painful urination D. Vaginal bleeding

Which of the following situations or conditions warrants immediate transport? Select one: A. Severe chest pain and cool, pale skin B. Mild pain in the lower abdomen C. Responsiveness and ability to follow commands D. Decreased ability to move an extremity

Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training? A. AED B. oral glucose for hypoglycemia C. intranasal medication administration D. use of a manually triggered ventilator

Which of the following statements is MOST consistent with the bargaining phase of the grieving process? Select one: A. "I will be compliant with all my medications if I can just see my grandson graduate." B. "The doctors must be wrong in their diagnosis because I have always been healthy." C. "I understand that my death is inevitable and I am ready to die when the time comes." D. "It is because of our lousy health care system that I developed this brain tumor."

Which of the following statements is NOT appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR? Select one: A. "General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated." B. "The patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day." C. "After oxygen was administered, the patient's breathing improved." D. "Significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle."

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct? Select one: A. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction. B. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen. C. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure. D. Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure.

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: A. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream. B. Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream. C. Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic. D. Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route.

Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct? Select one: A. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. B. The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected. C. Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needle stick. D. Studies have shown that fewer than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers.

Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct? Select one: A. Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system. B. Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects. C. Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally. D. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.

Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct? Select one: A. With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. B. Positive-pressure ventilation allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart from the body. C. Unlike negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation does not affect the esophageal opening pressure. D. To prevent hypotension, the EMT should increase the rate and force of positive-pressure ventilation.

Which of the following statements regarding stridor is correct? Select one: A. It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound. B. It is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway. C. It suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs. D. It is caused by incorrect airway positioning.

Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? A. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to the disabled. B. The ADA only applies to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability. C. The requirements to successfully complete an EMT program are different for those who are disabled. D. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam

Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? Select one: A. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled. B. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability. C. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam. D. The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled.

Which of the following statements regarding the medulla oblongata is correct? Select one: A. The medulla is sensitive to pH changes and sends messages via the phrenic nerve to contract the diaphragm. B. The medulla reduces the rate and depth of breathing if it detects an increase in carbon dioxide levels. C. The medulla is a portion of the cerebrum and primarily responds to an increase in the pH of cerebrospinal fluid. D. The medulla's primary role is to increase the body's level of oxygen, not to decrease its level of carbon dioxide.

Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is NOT correct? Select one: A. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column. B. You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her. C. Both sides of the patient must be accessible for a scoop stretcher to be used. D. The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits X-rays while the patient is on it.

Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle? Select one: A. Skeletal system B. Urinary system C. Gastrointestinal tract D. Blood vessels

Which part of the central nervous system is responsible for coordinating bodily movements such as writing or sewing? Select one: A. Cerebellum B. Hypothalamus C. Brain stem D. Cerebrum

Which term applies to a pulse slower than 60 beats per minute? A. Bradycardia B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Tachycardia D. Atrial fibrillation

Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies? Select one: A. Scanner B. Duplex station C. Simplex station D. Mobile repeater

While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should: Select one: A. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest. B. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions. C. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations. D. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.

While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. You should: Select one: A. continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash. B. remain at the scene until law enforcement and another ambulance arrive. C. ask a bystander to remain with your patient as you treat the crash victims. D. stop and triage the patients while your partner remains in the ambulance.

While transporting a woman with diabetes, you inadvertently give her oral glucose even though her blood glucose level was high. You reassess the patient and note that her condition did not change; she remained stable. You should: Select one: A. contact medical control and notify them of the error. B. notify law enforcement so they can file an incident report. C. exclude this intervention from the PCR because it did not harm the patient. D. document the error and report it to your supervisor.

Why do some EMS systems use humidified oxygen? A. Lack of humidity can dry out the patient's mucous membranes. B. It provides a reservoir for the oxygen. C. It limits the risk of infection. D. It is helpful when transporting patients short distances.

With regard to the assessment of a patient's cardiovascular status, capillary refill time is MOST reliable in: Select one: A. patients who are younger than 6 years of age. B. patients who were exposed to cold temperatures. C. patients who are significantly hypotensive. D. patients who are older than 70 years of age.

You and your partner are EMTs who have been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a residential fire. While standing next to the ambulance observing the firefighters, you see a woman frantically moving around in her burning house. You should: Select one: A. immediately notify the incident commander or safety officer. B. stay where you are until firefighters remove her from the house. C. don a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) and rescue the woman. D. request permission from the fire chief to enter the structure.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should: Select one: A. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. B. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup. C. have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders. D. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.

You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of the following should be your MOST appropriate action? Select one: A. Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag. B. Quickly exit the residence and request the fire department to move the patients. C. Perform a rapid assessment and then move the patients from their residence. D. Request another ambulance to assist with lifting and moving the patients.

You and your partner respond to the residence of a 66-year-old male with shortness of breath. As you are assessing the patient, his wife tells you that he was recently diagnosed with lung cancer. The patient is verbally abusive and tells you that failure of the health care system caused his disease. Which stage of the grieving process is this patient's behavior consistent with? Select one: A. Anger B. Denial C. Bargaining D. Depression

You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will MOST likely find that she: Select one: A. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence. B. has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration. C. will readily allow you to separate her from her mother. D. is unable to track your movements with her eyes.

You are assessing a middle-aged man with chest pain that you suspect is caused by a cardiac problem. The patient tells you that he does not want to go to the hospital and insists that you leave him alone. You should: Select one: A. explain the seriousness of the situation to him, but avoid causing undue alarm. B. reassure him that he will not receive a bill for the EMS call if he cannot pay. C. tell him that he is having a heart attack and that he needs to go to the hospital. D. proceed to treat him because the stress of the situation has impaired his thinking.

You are assessing the airway of an unconscious male patient. You recall that most airway problems are caused by: A. the tongue. B. asthma. C. shock. D. the epiglottis.

You are attending to a 27-year-old male driver of a car. According to his passenger, the patient had been acting strangely while driving, then slumped forward against the steering wheel, apparently unconscious. The car drove off the road and struck a telephone pole. The patient remains unconscious, and physical assessment reveals only a large hematoma on his right forehead with no other physical signs. Your patient is a diabetic who had been under a lot of stress lately and may have missed meals. This is an example of a: Select one: A. combination of a medical and trauma emergency. B. medical emergency. C. combination of a psychiatric and trauma emergency. D. trauma emergency.

You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract. B. inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm. C. inflammation of the bronchioles. D. bacterial infection of the epiglottis.

You are attending to a 34-year-old male patient who requires transport to the hospital for assessment of his chronic back pain. The patient weighs over 750 pounds. Your bariatric stretcher has a wider surface area to allow for: Select one: A. increased patient comfort and dignity. B. increased stability and leverage when lifting with more than two providers. C. increased lifting capacity and patient weight load. D. better stability when moving the patient on uneven ground.

You are attending to a 54-year-old female patient in a homeless shelter. The patient tells you that she had the flu a couple of weeks ago, and she has not gotten over it. She has been tired and keeps waking up at night, sweating. She has been coughing up green sputum occasionally and has been experiencing episodes of chest pain that get worse when she breathes. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. tuberculosis. B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). C. influenza Type A. D. pneumonia.

You are caring for a 68-year-old man with sudden onset of left-sided paralysis and slurred speech. His airway is patent, his respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate depth, and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. recovery position and transport. B. high-flow oxygen and transport. C. ventilatory assistance and transport. D. oral glucose gel and transport.

You are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. You should report the information to __________. Select one: a. the receiving nurse or doctor b. your medical director c. the state motor vehicle department d. law enforcement personnel

You are dealing with a patient who is in severe respiratory distress from a life-threatening asthma attack. If breathing stops completely, the patient is in: A. respiratory arrest. B. ventilatory reduction. C. artificial ventilation. D. respiratory failure.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who complains of lower abdominal pain, fever and chills, and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Which of the following additional assessment findings would increase your index of suspicion for pelvic inflammatory disease? Select one: A. A shuffling gait when walking B. Bright red blood in the urine C. A history of ectopic pregnancy D. Vaginal passage of blood clots

You are dispatched to a residence for a 66-year-old male who, according to family members, has suffered a massive stroke. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: Select one: A. initiate CPR and attach an AED as soon as possible. B. perform CPR for 5 minutes before applying the AED. C. obtain a blood glucose sample to rule out hypoglycemia. D. assess the patient for a facial droop and hemiparesis.

You are transporting a veteran whose legs were amputated in the war. When calling your radio report to the emergency department, which of the following words would be the MOST appropriate to use when describing the patient? Select one: A. Disabled B. Handicapped C. Deformed D. Crippled

You arrive on the scene of a family who is very anxious because the father, a 45-year-old male, and the 17-year-old daughter were piling wood when they found a beehive. They both have numerous stings, but the daughter is experiencing signs of an anaphylactic reaction while the father is experiencing a simple allergic reaction. You will most likely find that: A. the daughter has hypotension. B. the father has hypertension. C. the daughter has hives. D. the father has swelling of the airway structures.

You question an elderly man sitting on a bench in the park. He has a respiratory complaint, and he speaks in short, two or three word sentences. Is this significant? A. Yes, he is probably very short of breath. B. No, elderly patients always talk slowly. C. No, he is probably always like that. D. Yes, he probably has a complete airway obstruction.

You receive a call to a residence where a man found his wife unresponsive on the couch. The patient's respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min, her breathing is shallow, her heart rate is 40 beats/min, and her pulse is weak. The husband hands you an empty bottle of hydrocodone (Vicodin), which was refilled the day before. You should: Select one: A. ventilate her with a BVM. B. contact the poison control center. C. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious; has slow, shallow breathing; and has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should: Select one: A. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed. B. decide on further action once the DNR order is produced. C. transport the patient without providing any treatment. D. honor the patient's wishes and withhold all treatment.

Your 18-year-old male patient has severe burns of the entire front (anterior) surface of the torso. The torso of the body is composed of the abdomen, pelvis, and: A. thorax. B. upper arms and legs. C. extremities. D. head.

Your patient complains of chronic "burning" stomach pain that improves after eating. You should suspect: Select one: A. peptic ulcer disease. B. pneumonia. C. kidney stones. D. aortic aneurysm.

Your patient has HIV. You are accidentally stuck with a needle that has some infected blood on it. Your chance of contracting the disease is about: A. 0.5 percent. B. 5 percent. C. 10 percent. D. 15 percent.

___________ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures. Select one: A. Hydrostatic B. Diffusion C. Osmotic D. Oncotic

The adequate rate of artificial ventilations for a nonbreathing adult patient is _____ breaths per minute. A. 6-8 B. 10-12 C. 14-16 D. 18-20

A 21-year-old male patient has no history of allergies and is having his first allergic reaction. What action should you take? A. Consult with medical direction. B. Treat for shock and transport immediately. C. Administer epinephrine via auto-injector. D. Attempt to determine the cause immediately.

A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: Select one: A. reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about. B. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother. C. attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety. D. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability.

A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: Select one: A. lactic acid. B. heat. C. oxygen. D. nitrogen.

A continuous self-review with the purpose of identifying and correcting aspects of the EMS system that require improvement is called: A. standing orders. B. quality improvement. C. protocols. D. medical direction.

A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called: Select one: A. crepitus B. subcutaneous emphysema. C. Korotkoff sounds. D. rhonchi.

A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no more than ________ hours following the incident. Select one: A. 6 B. 72 C. 12 D. 24

A method of lifting and carrying a patient in which one EMT slips hands under the patient's armpits and grasps the wrists while another EMT grasps the patient's knees is called the: A. direct ground lift. B. extremity lift. C. draw-sheet method. D. direct carry method.

A nasal cannula provides between _____ percent and _____ percent oxygen concentrations. A. 10; 21 B. 24; 44 C. 36; 58 D. 72; 96

A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted: Select one: A. into the larger nostril with the tip pointing away from the septum. B. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare. C. into the smaller nostril with the tip following the roof of the nose. D. with the bevel pointing downward if inserted into the left nare.

A patient is sitting in a chair, leaning forward on his outstretched arms. His head and chin are thrust forward. This position indicates that he: Select one: A. is experiencing severe back pain. B. is experiencing difficulty breathing. C. has abdominal muscle spasms. D. has a decreased level of consciousness.

A patient who does not respond to your questions, but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched, is said to be: Select one: A. conscious and alert. B. responsive to painful stimuli. C. completely unresponsive. D. responsive to verbal stimuli.

A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she: Select one: A. is older than 60 years of age. B. has bleeding within the brain. C. has a GCS score that is less than 8. D. has had a prior heart attack.

A patient with an altered mental status is: Select one: A. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus. B. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused. C. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli. D. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events.

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because: Select one: A. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen. B. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow. C. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing. D. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow.

A patient with obvious spinal injuries is found on the floor of a burning building. The EMT rates the situation hazardous but not yet dire. Alone and without special equipment, the EMT should use the: A. cradle carry. B. clothes drag. C. firefighter's carry. D. pack-strap method.

A patient with vaginal bleeding _________. Select one: A. will have profound and obvious signs of shock B. may not have obvious signs of shock even if she has experienced significant blood loss C. may want to stand, rather than sit or lie on the stretcher D. will have a weak and rapid pulse but not pale or diaphoretic skin

The artery that can be palpated on the anterior surface of the foot is the: Select one: A. posterior tibial. B. dorsalis pedis. C. anterior tibial. D. ventral pedis.

A physician who assumes the ultimate responsibility for the patient-care aspects of the EMS system is called the: A. Designated Agent. B. Medical Director. C. Off-line Director. D. Primary Care Physician.

A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be: Select one: A. weak. B. regular. C. irregular. D. strong.

A type of flowmeter that has no gauge and allows for the adjustment of flow in liters per minute and in stepped increments is called a: A. Bourdon gauge flowmeter. B. constant flow selector valve. C. humidifier. D. pressure compensated flowmeter.

A young female presents with costovertebral angle tenderness. She is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Which of the following organs is MOST likely causing her pain? Select one: A. Gallbladder B. Kidney C. Pancreas D. Liver

A young girl fell while ice skating and injured the protrusion on the inside of the ankle. The medical term for this location is the: A. acromion. B. medial malleolus. C. lateral malleolus. D. calcaneus.

According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, an employer must: Select one: A. guarantee a 100% risk-free environment prior to employment. B. offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk of exposure. C. screen all prospective employees for blood-borne pathogens. D. provide gloves and other personal protective equipment to full-time paid employees only.

According to the American Heart Association guidelines, when ventilating a patient with a bag mask that has supplementary oxygen, the volume administered should be: A. 400 milliliters. B. sufficient to achieve visible chest rise. C. 800 milliliters. D. as much as possible during the 1-second time frame.

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to: A. apply and interpret data from a pulse oximeter. B. insert a peripheral intravenous catheter. C. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain. D. use an automatic transport ventilator.

After assisting your patient with prescribed nitroglycerin, you should: Select one: A. perform a secondary assessment before administering further doses. B. reassess his or her blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension. C. place the patient in a recumbent position in case of fainting. D. avoid further dosing if the patient complains of a severe headache.

After forming a general impression, the next step of the primary assessment is: A. assessing breathing. B. assessing mental status. C. determining the priority of the patient. D. assessing the airway.

Age-related changes in the renal system result in: Select one: A. dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function. B. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed. C. a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body. D. the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%.

Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when: Select one: A. slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide. B. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing. C. dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream. D. the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases.

All critical life functions are coordinated in which part of the brain? Select one: A. Gray matter B. Brain stem C. Cerebrum D. Cerebellum

Always assume that any patient with a: A. cold has a bloodborne disease. B. productive cough has TB. C. fever has typhoid. D. rash has measles.

An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the MOST appropriate method of immobilizing this patient? Select one: A. Move her to a supine position and immobilize her with a scoop stretcher and padding. B. Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard. C. Apply a cervical collar and place her in a sitting position on the wheeled stretcher. D. Immobilize her in a supine position on a long backboard and secure her with straps.

An _____ is a national-level EMT who has been trained to start IVs, perform advanced airway techniques, and administer some medicines beyond the EMT. A. EMT-First Responder B. EMT-Intermediate C. EMT-Critical Care D. EMT-Paramedic

An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will: Select one: A. have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min. B. be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses. C. exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs. D. assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing.

An advantage of the advance directive is that: A. the patient is not involved in making a secision about her treatment. B. the patient's expressed wishes may be followed. C. no matter what the family says, CPR is not given. D. it protects the EMT from charges of negligence.

An agency privacy officer is required by the: A. Ryan White Law. B. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. C. National Fire Protection Association Standards. D. Privacy Control Act of 2002.

An important aspect in the treatment of a patient with severe abdominal pain is to: Select one: A. administer analgesic medications to alleviate pain. B. provide emotional support en route to the hospital. C. encourage the patient to remain in a supine position. D. give 100% oxygen only if signs of shock are present.

An important part of the assessment or care was not performed. This is called: A. submission. B. omission. C. inhibition. D. commission.

An irregular heart rhythm is called: A. mechanical pump failure. B. arrythmia. C. cardiogenic shock. D. congestive heart failure.

The axial skeleton is composed of the: Select one: A. bones that constitute the pelvic girdle. B. skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column. C. arms, legs, and pelvis. D. lower part of the torso and the legs.

Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one: A. severe allergic reaction that typically resolves without treatment. B. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems. C. allergic reaction that causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction. D. moderate allergic reaction that primarily affects the vasculature.

Angina pectoris occurs when: Select one: A. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. B. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. C. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand. D. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm.

As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of: Select one: A. a paramedic supervisor. B. another EMT. C. the general public. D. the medical director.

As an EMT, the standards of emergency care are often partially based on: Select one: A. a consensus among paramedic supervisors. B. locally accepted protocols. C. the priorities of the medical director. D. the wishes of the general public.

As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should: Select one: A. look for drug paraphernalia. B. be alert for personal hazards. C. quickly gain access to the patient. D. observe the scene for drug bottles.

Asthma is caused by a response of the: Select one: A. endocrine system. B. immune system. C. cardiovascular system. D. respiratory system.

At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed: Select one: A. 80 beats/min. B. 100 beats/min. C. 70 beats/min. D. 90 beats/min.

Atherosclerosis is defined as ________. Select one: A. dilation of the arteries B. the blockage of a coronary artery C. constriction of the blood vessels D. the buildup of plaque inside blood vessels

Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: Select one: A. pancreas. B. gallbladder. C. kidneys. D. stomach.

Breathing occurs as the result of a(n): Select one: A. increase in oxygen, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. B. increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. C. decrease in oxygen, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. D. decrease in carbon dioxide, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: Select one: A. is self-paced and brief. B. involves hands-on practice. C. occurs every 24 months. D. is delivered by computer.

CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: Select one: A. horizontal. B. prone. C. supine. D. on a firm surface.

Capillary sphincter closure during internal or external bleeding is detrimental because: Select one: A. carbon dioxide and other waste can enter the cells, but oxygen cannot. B. waste products are not removed and nutrients are not delivered to the cells. C. high levels of oxygen remain in the cells and can cause significant damage. D. available blood is shunted off to another venule while still carrying oxygen.

Carbon monoxide blocks the ability of the blood to oxygenate the body because it: Select one: A. causes the body to expel too much carbon dioxide. B. binds with the hemoglobin in red blood cells. C. destroys the number of circulating red blood cells. D. fills the alveoli in the lungs with thick secretions.

Cardiac output (CO) is affected by: Select one: A. blood pressure. B. stroke volume and heart rate. C. heart rate only. D. stroke volume only.

Chronic renal failure is a condition that: Select one: A. causes dehydration from excessive urination. B. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes. C. can be reversed with prompt treatment. D. occurs from conditions such as dehydration.

Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. history of chronic disease. B. distrust of EMTs. C. mental disorders. D. fear of medical personnel.

Common presentations of patients experiencing psychiatric emergencies include each of the following except: A. panic or anxiety. B. severe pain after falling and striking the head. C. suicidal or self-destructive behavior. D. unusual speech patterns (ex: too rapid or pressured-sounding speech).

Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include: Select one: A. altered mental status and bradycardia. B. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities. C. anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea. D. unilateral paralysis and slurred speech.

Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. liver laceration. B. gastric distention. C. a fractured sternum. D. rib fractures.

Complications associated with using a manually triggered ventilation device include: Select one: A. inadequate ventilation and hypercarbia. B. lung tissue injury and gastric distention. C. reduced tidal volume delivery and hypoxia. D. inadequate oxygenation and tracheal injury.

Deoxygenated blood from the abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremities is returned to the right atrium via the: Select one: A. superior vena cava. B. inferior vena cava. C. common iliac vein. D. coronary sinus vein.

Diastolic blood pressure indicates the arterial pressure created as the: A. heart contracts. B. heart refills. C. artery contracts. D. artery relaxes.

Drinking alcohol along with taking other drugs frequently results in: A. uncontrolled shivering. B. depressed vital signs. C. extreme agitation. D. all of the above.

During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should reassess him or her at least ________ times. Select one: A. 3 B. 2 C. 6 D. 4

During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should: Select one: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assist ventilations. B. ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed. C. ask family members if the patient has a history of stroke. D. immediately determine the patient's blood glucose level.

During your assessment of a young female with nontraumatic vaginal bleeding, you note that her level of consciousness is decreased, her respirations are rapid and shallow, her skin is cool and moist, and her pulse is rapid and weak. You should: Select one: A. perform a rapid secondary assessment. B. assist her ventilations with a BVM. C. assess her blood pressure and elevate her legs. D. perform a visual assessment of her vaginal area.

EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the: A. individual state's EMS protocols. B. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA). C. National Association of EMTs. D. National Registry of EMTs.

EMTs respond to a known heroin abuser who is unresponsive. If they give naloxone (Narcan) to this patient, the EMTs should recall that: Select one: A. the effects of naloxone last longer than most opioid drugs. B. naloxone should not be given if the patient's breathing is slow. C. naloxone should be administered in increments of 2 mg. D. naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient.

Each of the components of the blood has specialized functions. The _____ are the cells that are critical in response to infection and the mediators of the body's immune response system. A. red blood cells B. white blood cells C. platelets D. plasma

Everyone exhibits some signs and symptoms of mental illness at some point in life ____________. Select one: A. because mental illness affects everyone B. but that does not mean a person is mentally ill C. and needs medication administered to control them D. and should be physically restrained for their own safety and the safety of the EMT

Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of ________. Select one: A. neurogenic shock B. anaphylactic shock C. psychogenic shock D. septic shock

Girls are usually finished growing by the age of: A. 14. B. 16. C. 18. D. 20.

Heroin is an example of a(n): Select one: A. sympathomimetic. B. opioid. C. cholinergic. D. hypnotic.

If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: A. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic. B. recognize that this does not mean it will save more lives. C. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim. D. determine which device the American Heart Association suggests.

If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately: Select one: A. begin assisting his or her breathing. B. reevaluate his or her airway status. C. determine his or her respiratory rate. D. auscultate his or her breath sounds.

If a patient's level of responsiveness is lower than "Alert," you should: A. apply a cervical collar. B. administer a high-concentration oxygen. C. place him or her in a recovery position. D. bandage all bleeding wounds.

If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________. Select one: A. place the patient on his or her side B. remove it C. leave it in place D. continue chest compressions

Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should: Select one: A. reassess the patient's vital signs. B. properly dispose of the syringe. C. record the time and dose given. D. notify medical control of your action.

In 1970, the _____ was founded to establish professional standards for EMS personnel. A. American Medical Association B. National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians C. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration D. U.S. Department of Transportation

In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner. Select one: A. paramedic-administered B. peer-assisted C. patient-assisted D. EMT-administered

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall: Select one: A. diverts blood flow to the vagina. B. becomes engorged with blood. C. thins and begins to separate. D. sheds and is expelled externally.

In contrast to AMI, a dissecting aortic aneurysm: Select one: A. is typically preceded by other symptoms, such as nausea. B. often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset. C. is more commonly associated with pressure in the chest. D. usually presents gradually, often over a period of hours.

In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: Select one: A. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher. B. increased stability from a wider wheelbase. C. weight capacity of up to 650 lb. D. a collapsible undercarriage.

In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified? Select one: A. A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts when she takes a deep breath. B. A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath. C. A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse. D. A 53-year-old man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times.

Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. your perception of the severity of the problem. B. a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem. C. a brief summary of the care you provided. D. a brief history of the patient's current problem.

Inhalation occurs when the: Select one: A. diaphragm and intercostal muscles ascend and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. B. diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. C. diaphragm ascends and the intercostal muscles contract, causing a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. D. diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure.

Injury to a hollow abdominal organ would MOST likely result in: Select one: A. profound shock due to severe internal bleeding. B. leakage of contents into the abdominal cavity. C. impairment in the blood's clotting abilities. D. pain secondary to blood in the peritoneum.

The bones that constitute the fingers and toes are called: Select one: A. carpals. B. phalanges. C. metatarsals D. metacarpals.

It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to: Select one: A. have a false positive home pregnancy test result. B. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted. C. lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours. D. become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide.

Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include: Select one: A. acetylcholine and insulin. B. epinephrine and norepinephrine. C. glucagon and noradrenaline. D. norepinephrine and acetylcholine.

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her what happened, she tells you that she does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that all she wants to do is clean up. You should: Select one: A. advise her that she cannot clean herself up because this will destroy evidence. B. provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma. C. ask her if there is anyone you can contact, such as a friend or relative. D. perform a limited hands-on assessment to detect life-threatening injuries.

Lifestyle changes that can help the EMT deal with stress include all of the following except: A. exercise to burn off tension. B. increased consumption of fatty foods. C. decreased consumption of caffeine. D. decreased consumption of alcohol.

Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to _________. Select one: A. correct the patient's underlying problem B. address the patient's symptoms C. reduce the need for transport to the hospital D. confirm the patient's diagnosis

Neurogenic shock occurs when: Select one: A. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury. B. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. C. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container. D. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging.

Normal at-rest respiration rates for adults vary from _____ breaths per minute. A. 5 to 10 B. 12 to 20 C. 15 to 30 D. 20 to 32

Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: A. EMS medical director. B. individual EMT. C. EMS training officer. D. State Bureau of EMS

Of the different types of stress, which is a positive form that helps the EMT work under pressure and respond effectively? A. Eumulative stress B. Eustress C. Distress D. Critical incident stress

Of the four avenues of poisoning, generally ___________ is the most worrisome in terms of treatment to the EMS provider. Select one: A. absorption B. injection C. inhalation D. ingestion

Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called: Select one: A. remote pain. B. referred pain. C. visceral pain. D. radiating pain.

Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be: Select one: A. palliating. B. radiating. C. referred. D. provoking.

Pale and clammy skin indicates: A. nervous system damage. B. poor circulation. C. extremely high temperature. D. an airway problem.

Patient complaints of pain during intercourse, lower abdominal discomfort, and nausea may be indicative of which of the following? Select one: A. Chlamydia B. Pelvic inflammatory disease C. Gonorrhea D. Bacterial vaginosis

Prehospital patient care decisions should be based on __________. Select one: A. the experiences of EMTs B. EMS research C. the opinions of physicians D. an EMS agency's fiscal resources

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: Select one: A. septic shock. B. cardiogenic shock. C. anaphylactic shock. D. neurogenic shock.

Rapid, labored breathing in a patient with signs and symptoms of AMI should make you suspicious for: Select one: A. a cardiac arrhythmia. B. congestive heart failure. C. right ventricular failure. D. significant hypotension.

Repeaters are: A. phones that transmit radio signals over airwaves instead of wires. B. devices used to transmit radio signals over long distances. C. patients who consistently call 911. D. a type of cellular phone used in EMS.

Retreating to a world of one's own after hearing one is going to die is a result of the stage of grief called: A. bargaining. B. depression. C. denial. D. anxiety.

Signs and symptoms of bacterial vaginosis typically include _________. Select one: A. blood associated with vaginal intercourse B. "fishy," foul-smelling discharge C. low back pain D. rectal pain and discharge

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would result in: Select one: A. tachycardia. B. a slower heart rate. C. vasoconstriction. D. a strong pulse.

The EMT is authorized to treat and transport an unconscious patient because of the legal consideration known as _____ consent. A. applied B. implied C. triage D. immunity

The MOST common error associated with the use of the AED is: Select one: A. inability of the EMT to recognize ventricular fibrillation. B. failure of the EMT to ensure the battery is charged. C. malfunction of the AED's internal computer processor. D. inappropriately placed adhesive defibrillation electrodes.

The MOST important treatment for a patient with severe abdominal pain and signs of shock is: Select one: A. administering high-flow oxygen. B. transporting the patient without delay. C. giving oral fluids to maintain perfusion. D. positioning the patient on his or her side.

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: Select one: A. diabetes mellitus. B. hypertension. C. severe stress. D. heavy exertion.

The ____________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen. Select one: A. costal arch B. diaphragm C. costovertebral angle D. mediastinum

The compliance-monitoring component of an infection control plan should: Select one: A. identify who to notify after an exposure and where treatment should be provided. B. ensure that employees understand what they should do and why it is important. C. address issues such as medical waste collection, storage, and ambulance disinfection. D. consist of a list of tasks that pose a risk for contact with blood or other body fluids.

The condition in which a patient's skin or lips are blue or gray is called: A. stridor. B. cyanosis. C. pallor. D. anemia.

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: Select one: A. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known. B. after the primary assessment has been completed. C. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment. D. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint.

The elbow is an example of a ____________ joint. Select one: A. saddle B. hinge C. gliding D. ball-and-socket

The electrical stimulus that originates in the heart's primary pacemaker is controlled by impulses from the brain that arrive by way of the: Select one: A. pons and medulla. B. autonomic nervous system. C. parietal lobe. D. somatic nervous system.

The final stage of death and dying MOST commonly takes the form of: Select one: A. anger. B. acceptance. C. denial. D. depression.

The form of infection control that assumes that all body fluids should be considered potentially infectious is: A. infectious disease. B. Standard Precautions. C. immunity. D. universal precautions.

The heart muscle has property called _____. This means that the heart has the ability to generate and conduct electrical impulses on its own. A. contractibility B. automaticity C. involuntary contraction D. conductibility

The hepatitis B vaccine program, a component of the infection control plan, addresses all of the following issues, EXCEPT: Select one: A. record keeping and tracking. B. family history of hepatitis. C. postvaccine antibody titers. D. vaccine safety and efficacy.

The large, flat, triangular bone that overlies the posterior thoracic wall is called the: Select one: A. glenoid. B. scapula. C. acromion. D. clavicle.

The leaf-shaped flap of cartilage that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is called the: Select one: A. vallecula. B. epiglottis. C. pharynx. D. uvula.

The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the: Select one: A. superior venae cavae. B. pulmonary veins. C. inferior venae cavae. D. pulmonary arteries.

The major artery that supplies all other arteries with blood is the: Select one: A. femoral. B. aorta. C. carotid. D. brachial.

The medical term for an extremely low blood glucose level is: Select one: A. hypotension. B. hypoglycemia. C. hyperglycemia. D. hypertension.

The mental status of an unconscious infant is typically checked by: A. splashing cold water on him. B. shouting a flicking his feet. C. perorming a pin prick on the feet. D. applying a sternal rub.

The organs found outside the peritoneum and between the abdomen and the back are in the: A. posterior pelvic compartment. B. retroperitoneal space. C. periumbilical region. D. posterior buttocks.

The pelvic bones are formed by the fusion of the: Select one: A. ilium, pubis, and sacrum. B. ilium, ischium, and pubis. C. sacrum and ischium. D. pubis and acetabulum.

The phase of the cardiac cycle in which the ventricles fill with blood is called: Select one: A. cardiac output. B. diastole. C. systole. D. stroke volume.

The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated: Select one: A. between the trachea and the neck muscle. B. behind the medial malleolus, on the inside of the ankle. C. on the dorsum of the foot. D. in the fossa behind the knee.

The primary function of the right atrium is to: Select one: A. receive blood from the pulmonary veins. B. receive blood from the vena cava. C. pump blood to the pulmonary artery. D. pump blood to the lungs for reoxygenation.

The principal prehospital treatment of a patient who has inhaled poisonous gas is: A. administering activated charcoal. B. administering high-concentration oxygen. C. rapidly administering an antidote. D. irrigating the respiratory tract with water.

The procedures by which life-threatening respiratory problems are initially treated by the EMT include all of the following except: A. opening and maintaining the airway. B. inserting an endotracheal tube immediately. C. providing supplemental oxygen to the breathing patient. D. ensuring a clear airway with frequent suctioning.

The stinger from a honeybee should be: A. left in place and covered. B. scraped away from the skin. C. squeezed with tweezers and removed. D. irrigated with copious amounts of water.

The techniqur of measuring blood pressure with a sphygmomanometer and a stethoscope is called: A. palpation. B. auscultation. C. oscillation. D. priaprism.

The two main types of cells contained in blood are called _________. Select one: A. hemoglobin A and S B. erythrocytes and leukocytes C. transport and clotting D. platelets and plasma

The two most common airway adjuncts for the EMT to use are the oropharyngeal airway and the: A. nasal cannula. B. nasopharyngeal airway. C. endotracheal tube. D. Yankauer.

The widening of the nostrils of the nose with respirations is called: A. hyperventilating. B. nasal flaring. C. nasal gurgling. D. wheezing.

There is no specific EMT intervention for the patient with: A. chest pain. B. abdominal pain. C. a fractured leg. D. a serious laceration.

To ensure crew safety, one member of the crew should always: A. remain in the ambulance. B. carry a portable radio. C. wear a bulletproof vest. D. carry a canister of pepper gas.

To maintain balance when lifting a patient-carrying device, it is best to use _____ rescuers to carry the device. A. three B. an even number of C. an odd number of D. bystanders and

Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations? Select one: A. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia B. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg C. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85% D. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should: Select one: A. apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient. B. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head. C. apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag. D. slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board.

Upon arriving at the scene of a patient with difficulty breathing, you determine that the scene is safe. You enter the residence and find the patient sitting in a chair in respiratory distress. Your first action should be to: Select one: A. assess the patient's airway status. B. introduce yourself to the patient. C. ask the patient what's wrong. D. obtain a set of baseline vital signs.

Victims of inhaled poisoning will require which of the following? Select one: A. Suctioning to clear the airway B. Transport to an emergency department for evaluation C. An oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal device to maintain an airway D. Ventilation with a bag-valve mask

What is an EMT's primary service area? Select one: A. The area serviced by the EMT's medical director B. The main area in which the EMS agency operates C. The only area the EMT is certified to provide patient care D. The location where the EMT provides essential care during a 9-1-1 call

What is the name for a gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is raised above the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and lowered below the level of the abdominal catheter to drain the fluid out? A. Continuous cycler-assisted peritoneal dialysis B. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis C. Abdominal dialysis D. Primary fluid exchange process

What is the route of administration for the EpiPen auto-injector? Select one: A. Intravenous B. Intramuscular C. Intraosseous D. Sublingual

What type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? A. direct B. off-line C. online D. radio

When a patient's lower extremities are trapped under a farm tractor, the blood supply is diminished to the cells in the legs. This injury can result in: A. no lactic acids being produced. B. anaerobic metabolism. C. no carbon dioxide being produced. D. none of these.

When a psychiatric emergency arises, a patient is most likely to exhibit which of the following behaviors? Select one: A. Visual or auditory hallucinations B. Any behaviors that are a violent threat to the patient, EMTs, or others C. Disruptions to activities of daily living D. Any behaviors unacceptable to the patient, family, or community

When assessing motor function in a conscious patient's lower extremities, you should expect the patient to: Select one: A. note any changes in temperature. B. wiggle his or her toes on command. C. feel you touching the extremity. D. identify different types of stimuli.

When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the ________ artery. Select one: A. carotid B. brachial C. femoral D. radial

When auscultating the blood pressure in a patient's upper extremity, you should place the head of the stethoscope over the _________ artery. Select one: A. femoral B. brachial C. radial D. apical

When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: Select one: A. an absence of breath sounds. B. abnormal breath sounds. C. diminished breath sounds. D. normal breath sounds.

When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should: Select one: A. allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment. B. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags. C. ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her. D. advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes.

When caring for a patient experiencing excited delirium, the EMT should remember that: Select one: A. lights and siren are effective in redirecting the patient's behavior. B. sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled. C. most patients will have low blood pressure and hyperglycemia. D. excited delirium is worsened by nervous system depressant drugs.

When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: Select one: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient. B. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible. C. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away. D. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital.

When caring for the parents of a child who has died of leukemia, the EMT should: Select one: A. refrain from using words such as "died" or "dead." B. acknowledge the death of their child in private. C. immediately refer them to a counselor. D. tell them that their feelings are understood.

When comparing body structure positions, the knees are said to be _____ to the toes, and the toes are _____ to the knees. A. inferior; superior B. proximal; distal C. distal; dorsal D. anterior; posterior

Most heart attacks are caused by the narrowing or occlusion of a _____ artery. A. cephalic B. brachial C. coronary D. carotid

When confronted with an unconscious minor without parents or a legal guardian present, the EMT should: A. seek a physician's approval before beginning care. B. consider consent for care to be implied and begin care. C. ask the child for consent and begin care. D. consider consent to be applied and begin care.

When forming a general impression of a child's condition, the environment can provide clues. An example would be a child: A. complaining of nausea or vomiting. B. holding pieces of a toy in his or her hand. C. with a blood pressure of 120/80. D. with a rapid heartbeat.

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs. B. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. C. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. D. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured.

When in the anatomical position, a person is facing: A. away from you. B. the observer. C. face down. D. face up.

When is forcible restraint permitted? Select one: A. Anytime that the EMT feels threatened B. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others C. Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior D. Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member

When is the EMT allowed to use reasonable force? A. Only when the police are on the scene B. To defend against attack by an emotionally disturbed patient C. Whenever a patient refuses treatment D. Whenever alcohol abuse is suspected

When performing a secondary assessment on a conscious patient with non-traumatic abdominal pain and stable vital signs, you should: Select one: A. examine the patient from head to toe. B. focus on his or her chief complaint. C. prepare the patient for transport first. D. only palpate tender areas of the abdomen.

When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: Select one: A. using coded medical language. B. not disclosing his or her name. C. withholding medical history data. D. refraining from objective statements.

When should nonlifesaving interventions be performed for your multisystem trauma patient? Select one: A. During the primary assessment B. En route to the hospital C. Prior to transport D. Immediately after the injuries are discovered

When the EMT asks the patient "Have you recently had any surgery or injuries?" he is inquiring about the: A. patient's medications. B. patient's pertinent past history. C. events leading up to the illness. D. allergies that the patient may have.

When the mother strokes the infant's lips and the baby starts sucking, this is a nervous system reflex known as the _____ reflex. A. Moro B. sucking C. palmar D. rooting

When the myocardium requires more oxygen: Select one: A. the heart rate decreases significantly. B. the arteries supplying the heart dilate. C. the heart contracts with less force. D. the AV node conducts fewer impulses.

When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. the older patient's central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock. B. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting. C. compensation from the respiratory system usually manifests with increased tidal volume. D. medications older patients take for hypertension often cause an unusually fast heart rate.

When using the pulse oximeter as part of your assessment of a patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. carbon monoxide has no effect on pulse oximetry readings because the pulse oximeter presumes that oxygen is saturating the hemoglobin. B. any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value. C. pulse oximetry is especially useful in patients who have cold extremities because vasoconstriction forces blood to the capillary beds. D. as long as the patient's oxygen saturation is greater than 95%, oxygen is usually not necessary, even if the patient is experiencing respiratory distress.

When you and your partner arrive at the residence of a man in cardiac arrest, you immediately recognize the patient as the drunk driver who killed your brother several years earlier. A backup ambulance is en route to the scene. You should: Select one: A. advise your partner that you cannot provide care to this patient. B. begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. C. obtain permission from medical control to not attempt resuscitation. D. wait for the backup ambulance while your partner performs CPR.

When you inspect a patient's pupils with a penlight, the pupils should normally react to the light by: Select one: A. fluttering. B. constricting. C. enlarging. D. dilating.

Which is not a component of the primary assessment? A. Determining patient priority B. Evaluating extremity mobility C. Forming a general impression D. Assessing breathing

Which is not a high-priority condition? A. Shock B. A fever with a rash C. A complicated childbirth D. Severe pain anywhere

Which of the following MOST accurately describes what the patient will experience during the postictal state that follows a seizure? Select one: A. Hyperventilation and hypersalivation B. Confusion and fatigue C. A rapidly improving level of consciousness D. A gradually decreasing level of consciousness

Which of the following are central pulses? Select one: A. Brachial and radial B. Femoral and carotid C. Temporal and pedal D. Popliteal and ulnar

Which of the following conditions frequently results in an acetone smell of the patient's breath? A. Stroke B. Hyperglycemia C. Ulcers D. Hypoglycemia

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct? Select one: A. Patients with asthma are at lower risk of developing anaphylaxis. B. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension. C. Most anaphylactic reactions occur within 60 minutes of exposure. D. The signs of anaphylaxis are caused by widespread vasoconstriction.

Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? A. a vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting B. a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured C. a team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients D. a system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients

Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure? Select one: A. Rubella B. Syphilis C. Mumps D. Chickenpox

Which of the following is LEAST important when obtaining a medical history from a patient complaining of chest discomfort? Select one: A. History of previous heart attack B. Family history of hypertension C. Presence of personal risk factors D. History of cigarette smoking

Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy? A. protecting a patient's spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height B. community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving C. the construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash D. teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR

Which of the following is an example of a psychiatric emergency? Select one: A. A person going on a week-long "bender" after losing a job B. A person violently attacking family members C. A person who is depressed and no longer caring for himself D. A person who is experiencing a panic attack

Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses? Select one: A. Whooping cough B. MRSA C. Avian flu D. H1N1

Which of the following is not considered a high-risk area for TB? A. Correctional facilities B. Daycare centers C. Homeless shelters D. Nursing homes

Which of the following is the MOST reliable method of estimating a patient's cardiac output? Select one: A. Listen to heart sounds with a stethoscope. B. Assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse. C. Connect the patient to an electrocardiogram. D. Determine the average diastolic blood pressure.

Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent eventual death from a tension pneumothorax? Select one: A. Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask B. Decompression of the injured side of the chest C. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids D. Early administration of high-flow oxygen

Which of the following medication routes would be the MOST appropriate to use in an unresponsive patient when intravenous access cannot be obtained? Select one: A. Intramuscular B. Intraosseous C. Subcutaneous D. Transcutaneous

Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines? Select one: A. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) B. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) D. Albuterol (Ventolin)

Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient? Select one: A. Blood glucose levels B. Lung sounds C. Distal pulse, motor, sensation D. Orthostatic vital signs

Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately? Select one: A. Systemic vasodilation B. Upper airway swelling C. Severe hypotension D. Diffuse urticaria

Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space? Select one: A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Spleen D. Gallbladder

Which of the following patient responses would establish the "E" in the SAMPLE history? Select one: A. "I am not having any difficulty breathing." B. "I was mowing the lawn when the pain began." C. "The chest pain started about 45 minutes ago." D. "I was in the hospital a week ago."

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure? Select one: A. Flat jugular veins B. Dependent edema C. Pulmonary edema D. Labored breathing

Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is seen MOST commonly in pediatric patients? Select one: A. Pursed-lip breathing B. Seesaw breathing C. Accessory muscle use D. Rapid respirations

Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is typically unique to infants and children? Select one: A. Irregular breathing pattern B. Seesaw respirations C. Unequal chest expansion D. Unequal breath sounds

Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes? Select one: A. Total lack of appetite B. Weight loss and polyuria C. Low blood glucose level D. Weight gain and edema

Which of the following signs would indicate that your partner is experiencing significant stress? Select one: A. Hyperactivity during an EMS call B. Isolation from the rest of the crew C. Increased interest in daily activities D. Acute increase in appetite

Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway? Select one: A. Rales B. Stridor C. Rhonchi D. Wheezing

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? Select one: A. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field. B. There is no vaccine against HIV infection. C. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood. D. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B.

Which of the following statements regarding agonal respirations is correct? Select one: A. Agonal respirations typically occur before the heart stops. B. Agonal respirations are ineffective and need to be assisted. C. Agonal respirations result in excessive tidal volume. D. Agonal respirations are characterized by fast, irregular breaths.

Your patient is a medical patient with a suspected drug overdose. He is lying supine on your stretcher, and you have been maintaining his airway. When moving him from the ambulance stretcher to the hospital stretcher, you will probably use the: A. crade carry. B. modified draw-sheet method. C. direct ground lift. D. extremity lift.

Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct? Select one: A. Hemodialysis is effective but carries a high risk of peritonitis. B. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness. C. The purpose of dialysis is to help the kidneys retain salt and water. D. Acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of dialysis.

Which of the following statements regarding epinephrine administration via the intramuscular (IM) route is correct? Select one: A. The IM route should not be used in children. B. The 1:1000 concentration should be used. C. The preferred injection site is the upper arm. D. The maximum single adult dose is 0.15 mg.

Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is correct? Select one: A. A maximum of five nitroglycerin doses should be given to a patient. B. Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes. C. Nitroglycerin should be administered between the cheek and gum. D. The potency of nitroglycerin is increased when exposed to light.

Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct? Select one: A. Most of the patient's weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher. B. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso. C. A semi-sitting patient's weight is equally distributed on both ends. D. The EMT at the patient's head will bear the least amount of weight.

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct? Select one: A. The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active. B. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. C. PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past. D. The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain.

Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct? Select one: A. Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel. B. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen. C. Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly. D. The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin.

Which of the following statements regarding the AED and defibrillation is correct? Select one: A. The AED will shock any rhythm not accompanied by a pulse. B. The AED will not analyze the rhythm of a moving patient. C. CPR should be performed for 5 minutes before using the AED. D. Defibrillation is the first link in the AHA chain of survival.

Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct? A. The EMS medical director can expand the EMT's scope of practice but cannot limit it without state approval. B. An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval. C. An EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the EMS medical director. D. The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT's scope of practice without state approval.

Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct? Select one: A. Refrigeration of food will prevent salmonellosis. B. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning. C. The Salmonella bacterium produces toxins that cause food poisoning. D. Symptoms of salmonellosis appear within 12 hours.

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct? Select one: A. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated. B. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized. C. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver. D. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs.

Which of the following statements regarding the hepatitis B vaccine is correct? Select one: A. Vaccination with the hepatitis B vaccine confers immunity against hepatitis A. B. OSHA requires that your employer offer you the vaccine free of charge. C. The hepatitis B vaccine provides protection against the disease for 2 years. D. Vaccination against hepatitis B provides partial immunity for life.

Which one of the following is a true vital sign? A. Nausea B. Skin temperature C. Level of responsiveness D. Age

Which one of the following is not an example of a high-priority condition? A. Difficulty breathing B. Nausea and vomiting C. A severed artery D. A mental status of "U"

Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? Select one: A. Stomach B. Spleen C. Cecum D. Liver

Which statement best describes an important concept of documentation? A. Always fill out a continuation sheet. B. If it is not written down, you didn't do it. C. It should include plenty of medical terms. D. Document everything you see.

Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? Select one: A. Informed B. Expressed C. Formal D. Implied

While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? Select one: A. Early pulmonary edema B. Aspiration pneumonia C. Widespread atelectasis D. Acute asthma attack

While you are treating a patient with a severely bleeding forearm, the patient's pet dog appears. The patient states, "He won't hurt you. He's very friendly." Your best course of action would be to: A. have your partner observe the dog closely while you treat the patient. B. quickly control the bleeding; then have the dog locked in another room. C. ignore the dog because the patient assures you it is friendly and will not harm you. D. do all of these.

You are managing a 34-year-old male who you suspect has had a narcotic overdose. His respirations are very slow and shallow, and you will need to assist them. When choosing a means of ventilating a patient, your last choice would be: A. flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device. B. one-rescuer bag-valve mask. C. two-rescuer bag-valve mask. D. mouth-to-mask with high-flow supplemental oxygen.

Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis? A. EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and become familiar with data analysis. B. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed. C. The federal government requires that changes be made to existing emergency care protocols at least every 5 years. D. Statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness.

Why can nasal congestion be a major problem in the first few months of life? A. Because the liver is so large in patients in this age group. B. Because children in this age group are primarily nasal breathers. C. Because it is an indication of life-threatening airway compromise. D. Because children in this age group breathe with their diaphragm.

Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells: Select one: A. rely solely on glucose, which is completely converted into adenosine triphosphate. B. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood. C. begin to metabolize fat, resulting in the production and accumulation of ketoacids. D. cease metabolism altogether, resulting in carbon dioxide accumulation in the blood

Without practice, your CPR skills will __________. Select one: A. become part of your muscle memory B. deteriorate over time C. improve over time D. come back automatically when needed

You and your paramedic partner are caring for a patient who ingested codeine, acetaminophen (Tylenol), and hydrocodone (Vicodin). The patient is unresponsive, his breathing is slow and shallow, and his pulse is slow and weak. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. assisted ventilation and flumazenil (Romazicon). B. assisted ventilation and naloxone (Narcan). C. oxygen via a nasal cannula and atropine sulfate. D. high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient. Your partner is controlling severe bleeding from the patient's lower extremities as you attempt ventilations with a bag-valve mask. After repositioning the mask several times, you are unable to effectively ventilate the patient. You should: Select one: A. continue attempted ventilations and transport immediately. B. begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique. C. hyperextend the patient's head and reattempt ventilations. D. suction the patient's airway for 30 seconds and reattempt ventilations.

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. After applying high-flow oxygen, you expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should: Select one: A. move the nitroglycerin patch to the other side of his chest in case you need to apply the AED, keep him warm, and transport without delay. B. remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport. C. ask him if the nitroglycerin patch he is wearing has improved his chest pressure, complete your secondary assessment, and transport promptly. D. immediately remove the nitroglycerin patch, apply the AED in case he develops cardiac arrest, and transport to the closest hospital.

You are assessing a 54-year-old woman who is unconscious and has a noisy upper airway. If she has dentures, during airway procedures the EMT should: A. remove them right away. B. leave them in unless they are loose. C. remove the teeth one at a time. D. hold them in place with a free hand.

You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale on a 60-year-old woman. When she holds both of her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall to her sides. You should: Select one: A. instruct the patient to keep her eyes open and then repeat the arm drift test. B. repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient's arms into position yourself. C. defer this part of the test and assess her for facial droop and slurred speech. D. repeat the arm drift test and ensure that her palms are facing downward.

You are attending to a 27-year-old patient with a history of depression. The patient's family tells you that she has been openly talking about harming herself and suicide, and they got scared when she tried to overdose on some medications. The patient did not take the pills and is alert and oriented. Despite all of your best efforts to convince her, the patient refuses to go to hospital for treatment. Based on this information, you should: Select one: A. ensure that the patient is competent and completes the required documentation, and leave her in the care of her family. B. stay with the patient while you arrange for other transport options as a potentially life-threatening emergency exists. C. call for the police to attend the scene and, once they arrive, release responsibility for patient transport to them D. restrain the patient and transport her to the hospital as she represents a threat to her safety.

You are dispatched to a convenience store for a patient who passed out. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two off-duty EMTs performing CPR on the patient, a 58-year-old male. Your initial action should be to: Select one: A. have the EMTs stop CPR and assess for a pulse. B. feel for a pulse while compressions are ongoing. C. quickly attach the AED and push the analyze button. D. request a paramedic unit and quickly attach the AED.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 56-year-old male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient's wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious; has rapid, shallow respirations; and has a thready pulse. You should: Select one: A. apply a nonrebreathing mask. B. begin ventilatory assistance. C. attach the AED immediately. D. obtain baseline vital signs.

You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate who is "sick." When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to: Select one: A. request a paramedic unit. B. provide assisted ventilation. C. assess his blood pressure. D. apply a pulse oximeter.

You are examining an elderly woman sitting on a park bench. She is sitting forward with her elbows outward and speaking in short, choppy sentences. Is this significant in her history? A. No, she is probably always like that. B. Yes, she is probably short of breath. C. No, elderly patients like to sit forward like that. D. Yes, she probably has a spine injury.

You are off duty at a park when you witness an apparently healthy 12-year-old child suddenly collapse. There are no bystanders around and your mobile phone is in your car. After confirming that the child is in cardiac arrest, you should: Select one: A. perform chest compressions only until a bystander arrives. B. call 9-1-1 and then return to begin CPR on the child. C. deliver five rescue breaths before starting chest compressions. D. perform CPR for 2 minutes and then call 9-1-1.

You are transporting to a 66-year-old patient with a history of heart problems. The patient chart indicates that he has hepatomegaly. The root of the term indicates that: Select one: A. the problem is unrelated to the patient's heart condition. B. the problem is with the patient's liver. C. the problem is a direct consequence of the patient's heart disease. D. the organ involved is enlarged.

You are treating a 28-year-old conscious diabetic who has an altered level of consciousness. She is lying on the floor at the moment. To move her from the floor to a stair chair, use the: A. indirect carry. B. extremity lift. C. slide transfer. D. chair lift.

You are treating a patient who your partner states has a normal breathing rate for an adult. The patient's breathing rate is most likely: A. 6 to 10 per minute. B. 12 to 20 per minute. C. 15 to 30 per minute. D. 25 to 50 per minute.

You are treating a respiratory patient who is conscious, alert, and in severe distress. He took an Albuterol treatment prior to your arrival on the scene. At this point, you have been administering CPAP for about 10 minutes. You notice that his mental status is rapidly diminishing. What should you do next? A. Administer another bronchodilator treatment per medical control. B. Remove the CPAP and ventilate the patient with a BVM device. C. Lower the level of pressure in the CPAP device considerably. D. Turn up the pressure of the oxygen going into the CPAP device.

You are treating the driver of a vehicle involved in a collision. He is a 22-year-old male who requires immediate airway and bleeding control. You are unable to provide this treatment in the vehicle. You should: A. check the patient's vital signs. B. make an urgent move. C. remove the patient on a short backboard. D. do all of these.

You arrive at the residence of a 33-year-old woman who is experiencing a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. She has a small amount of vomitus draining from the side of her mouth. After protecting her from further injury, you should: Select one: A. wait for the seizure to stop, manually open her airway, insert an oropharyngeal airway, and assess her oxygen saturation with the pulse oximeter. B. maintain her airway with manual head positioning, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer high-flow oxygen. C. restrain her extremities to prevent her from injuring herself, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, and assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. D. place a bite block in between her teeth, apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and consider inserting a nasopharyngeal airway.

You have been called to a restaurant for a patient who collapsed at the dinner table. According to a family members, she did not strike her head as she slid out of the chair when she went unconscious. To open her airway, the EMT should use a _____ maneuver. A. modified jaw-thrust B. head-tilt, chin-lift C. head-tilt, neck-lift D. modified chin-lift

You receive a call for a domestic dispute. When you arrive at the scene, you find a young male standing on the front porch of his house. You notice that an adjacent window is broken. The patient has a large body, is clenching his fists, and is yelling obscenities at you. Which of the following findings is LEAST predictive of this patient's potential for violence? Select one: A. His shouting of obscenities B. His large body size C. The broken window D. His clenched fists

You respond to a call for a woman who was described as sleeping in her car. The police have arrived, and a car window needed to be broken to gain access to the 35-year-old female because the doors were locked and she is unconscious. As you enter the vehicle, there is a strong smell of rotten eggs. What should you suspect happened? A. The exhaust fumes were not well vented on the vehicle, causing carbon dioxide to leak. B. She may have attempted suicide by mixing chemicals to produce hydrogen sulfide. C. There was a cyanide leak into the vehicle. D. She may have taken a double dose of a strong sleeping pill.

You respond to a residence for a child who is having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you enter the residence and find the mother holding her child, a 2-year-old male. The child is conscious and crying. According to the mother, the child had been running a high fever and then experienced a seizure that lasted approximately 3 minutes. You should: Select one: A. advise the mother to take her child to the doctor the following day. B. transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route. C. cover the child with wet towels and give oxygen via nasal cannula. D. call medical control and request permission to give the child aspirin.

You should deliver chest compressions to an unresponsive adult patient in cardiac arrest by: Select one: A. depressing the sternum more than 2.5 inches in depth. B. compressing the sternum between the nipples. C. compressing quickly and releasing slowly. D. placing the heel of your hand on the xiphoid.

You should gently palpate a patient's pelvis only if: Select one: A. the possibility of a pelvic fracture has been ruled out. B. the patient does not complain of pelvic pain. C. the MOI suggests significant trauma to the pelvis. D. you note gross deformity to the pelvic area.

You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 lb with fewer than _______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength. Select one: A. six B. four C. five D. three

Your patient complains of abdominal pain that occurs mostly at night or after eating fatty foods. You should suspect ____________. Select one: A. a hernia B. cholecystitis C. kidney stones D. appendicitis

Your patient has a history of alcoholism and is complaining of stomach pains and feeling weak and dizzy. He states that he vomited twice and has had very dark, foul-smelling diarrhea all day. What is the likely cause of today's problem? A. He also has diabetes and needs insulin. B. He has a bleeding ulcer. C. He is having a stroke. D. His spleen is malfunctioning.

Most poisonings occur via the __________ route. Select one: A. inhalation B. absorption C. ingestion D. injection

Adequate signs of breathing include all of the following except: A. equal expansion of both sides of the chest. B. air moving in and out of the nose. C. blue or gray skin coloration. D. present and equal breath sounds.

A 19-year-old female was stung multiple times on the legs by fire ants. She states that she is allergic to fire ants, but does not carry her own epinephrine. The patient is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the area of the bites. Her blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and strong, and her respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. You should: Select one: A. advise her to see her physician as soon as possible. B. request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine. C. administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital. D. position her legs well above the level of her heart.

A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? Select one: A. High-flow oxygen administration B. Full immobilization of her spine C. Rapid transport to a trauma center D. Intravenous fluid administration

A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure, which stopped before you arrived at the scene. The patient is conscious, is answering your questions appropriately, and refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the MOST compelling reason to disagree with his refusal of transport? Select one: A. He has experienced seizures since he was 20 B. His wife states that this was his "usual" seizure C. He is currently not prescribed any medications D. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15

A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is: Select one: A. a beta-antagonist. B. an antihistamine. C. epinephrine. D. albuterol.

After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should: Select one: A. transport the patient at once. B. assess for a carotid pulse. C. immediately resume CPR. D. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm.

A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should: Select one: A. check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current. B. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress. C. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication. D. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did.

A 37-year-old male is found unresponsive in his car. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and labored. As you and your partner are assessing and treating the patient, a police officer hands you a medication named Alupent, which he found in the backseat of the patient's car. This medication suggests that the patient has a history of: Select one: A. hypertension. B. allergic reactions. C. asthma. D. heart disease.

A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should: Select one: A. quickly tend to the bleeding wound. B. tell the patient that you want to help. C. calmly identify yourself to the patient. D. approach the patient with caution.

A 40-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient's wife tells you that he has an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do? Select one: A. Continue CPR and transport the patient to the closest appropriate hospital. B. Avoid defibrillation as this will damage the patient's AICD. C. Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR. D. Contact medical control and request permission to defibrillate.

A 49-year-old male presents with confusion, sweating, and visual hallucinations. The patient's wife tells you that he is a heavy drinker and she thinks he had a seizure shortly before your arrival. This patient is MOST likely experiencing: Select one: A. acute hypovolemia. B. acute schizophrenia. C. delirium tremens. D. alcohol intoxication.

A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? Select one: A. Acute pulmonary embolism B. Rupture of the diaphragm C. Spontaneous pneumothorax D. Exacerbation of his COPD

A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. acute pancreatitis. B. strangulated hernia. C. aortic aneurysm. D. kidney stones.

A canvas or rubberized stretcher that can be used to move a patient through a narrow hallway or restricted are is called a _____ stretcher. A. basket B. portable C. flexible D. wheeled-ambulance

A disease spread by inhaling or absorbing droplets from the air through the eyes, nose, or mouth is considered: A. bloodborne. B. noncommunicable. C. airborne. D. viral.

A disease that is spread by exposure to an open wound or sore of an infected individual is caused by a(n) _____ pathogen. A. universal B. airborne C. bloodborne D. infectious

A nasopharyngeal airway should be: A. turned 180 degrees with the tip facing the roof of the mouth. B. inserted with the bevel on the lateral side of the nostril. C. measured from the patient's nostril to the earlobe. D. inserted in the left nostril when possible.

A patient found lying on her back is in the _____ position. A. anatomical B. prone C. supine D. lateral recumbent

A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" in this measurement represents: Select one: A. atrial contraction. B. ventricular relaxation. C. ventricular contraction. D. ventricular filling.

A patient in the end stage of a respiratory disease may have switched over to: A. hyperventilation syndrome. B. hyperbaric therapy. C. hypoxic drive. D. carbon dioxide drive.

A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced? Select one: A. Obstructive lung disease B. Thoracic aortic aneurysm C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Uncontrolled hypertension

A percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) restores blood flow to the ischemic myocardium by: Select one: A. placing a stent inside the coronary artery to keep it from narrowing. B. scraping fatty deposits off of the lumen of the coronary artery. C. dilating the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon. D. bypassing the coronary artery with a vessel from the chest or leg.

A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue. B. a unilaterally collapsed lung. C. fluid accumulation outside the lung. D. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli.

A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called: Select one: A. purpura. B. urticaria. C. a wheal. D. a pustule.

A stress reaction that involves either physical or psychological behavior manifested days or weeks after an incident is called a(n): A. cumulative stress disorder. B. burnout. C. post-traumatic stress disorder. D. acute stress reaction.

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: A. insert a peripheral intravenous (IV) line and infuse fluids. B. interpret a basic electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly. C. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications. D. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route.

Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because it: Select one: A. induces vomiting and empties the stomach. B. is a direct antidote for many toxic substances. C. binds to the substance and prevents absorption. D. decreases absorption of poisons into the lungs.

Artificial ventilation may be inadequate if the: A. chest rises with each ventilation. B. heart rate returns to normal. C. rate of ventilation is too fast or too slow. D. skin becomes warm and dry.

As an EMT, you have been assigned to take a terminally ill patient back and forth to chemotherapy multiple times a week for the next few weeks. You realize that the patient has been going through emotional stages in the following order: A. depression, bargaining, denial, acceptance, anger. B. acceptance, rage, depression, acceptance, bargaining. C. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance. D. bargaining, acceptance, denial, anger, depression.

As time progresses following a significant injury: Select one: A. most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding. B. the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly. C. the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases. D. the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable.

As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: Select one: A. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient. B. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. C. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. D. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs.

As you approach a patient lying at the side of the roadway, you observe severe bleeding from the leg. What should your first action be? Select one: A. Administer oxygen. B. Open the airway. C. Control the bleeding. D. Check for a pulse.

Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________. Select one: A. associated symptoms B. field diagnosis C. nature of illness D. medical history

At the scene of a collision, an off-duty EMT provides care to the patient, acting in good faith and to the best of her abilities. In many states, this EMT is protected from care-related lawsuits by _____ laws. A. applied consent B. total immunity C. Good Samaritan D. jeopardy

At the site of the injury, signs and symptoms of an animal or insect bite or sting may include pain, localized heat, and a wheal, which appears as __________. Select one: A. an uncomfortable depression in the skin B. a series of small, raised pustules C. a raised, well-defined area of the skin D. a large area of red, blotchy skin

Between each chest compression, you should __________. Select one: A. check for a pulse B. remove your hands from the chest C. allow full chest recoil D. administer a breath

CPR should be initiated when: Select one: A. signs of putrefaction are present. B. the carotid pulse is very weak. C. a valid living will is unavailable. D. rigor mortis is obvious.

Carbon monoxide, chlorine, and ammonia are examples of _____ poisons. A. ingested B. injected C. inhaled D. absorbed

Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense: Select one: A. increased levels of oxygen in the blood and a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. B. slight decreases in carbon dioxide and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. C. slight increases in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. D. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

Chlamydia, bacterial vaginosis, and gonorrhea are all examples of _________. Select one: A. "women's conditions" B. diseases that can cause scarring of the fallopian tubes C. sexually transmitted diseases D. causes of vaginal bleeding

Common side effects of nitroglycerin include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. hypotension. B. bradycardia. C. hypertension. D. severe headache.

Critical incident stress management (CISM) can occur at an ongoing scene in all of the following circumstances, EXCEPT: Select one: A. before personnel are preparing to reenter the scene. B. when personnel are assessed during periods of rest. C. when patients are actively being assessed or treated. D. before leaving the scene after the incident is resolved.

During each heartbeat, ___________ of blood is ejected from the adult heart, an amount called the stroke volume. Select one: A. 40 to 50 mL B. 90 to 100 mL C. 70 to 80 mL D. 100 to 120 mL

EMRs such as fire fighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers, are an integral part of the EMS system because: A. they are trained to assist paramedics with certain procedures. B. they can initiate ALS before EMS arrival. C. the presence of a person trained to initiate basic life support (BLS) care cannot be ensured. D. the average response time for the EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes.

Each one of the following is an example of patent problems that has no specific EMT intervention except: A. headache. B. sickle-cell crisis. C. hyperthermia. D. post-surgical complications.

Ethnocentrism is defined as: Select one: A. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you feel that your own values are more acceptable. B. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question. C. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture. D. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently.

Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called: Select one: A. dyspepsia. B. polydipsia. C. polyphagia. D. dysphasia.

For a stable patient, the EMT should perform the reassessment every _____ minutes. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? Select one: A. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion B. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery C. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery D. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery

Most EMT training programs are based on standards developed by the: A. American Red Cross (ARC). B. American Heart Association (AHA). C. National Highway Transportation Safety Administration (NHTSA). D. National Institutes of Health (NIH).

General treatment for a woman with vaginal bleeding and shock following sexual assault includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. supplemental oxygen and keeping the patient supine. B. refraining from placing any dressings into the vagina. C. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina. D. treating external lacerations with sterile compresses.

If a patient is experiencing breathing difficulty but is breathing adequately, it is usually best to place him in the _____ position. A. tripod B. supine C. sitting-up D. recovery

If a patient is talking or crying, assume that the patient: A. is in little pain. B. has no life-threatening bleeding. C. has an open airway. D. has an "A" mental status.

If a patient is unable to speak in full sentences, this could be a sign of: A. complete airway blockage. B. snoring. C. shortness of breath. D. respiratory arrest.

If a patient refuses care and then becomes unconscious, it is best for the EMT to: A. refuse to treat or transport the patient. B. ask a family member for permission to treat. C. treat life-threatening problems and transport. D. contact medical direction for advice.

If an on-duty EMT fails to provide the standard of care and if this failure causes harm or injury to the patient, the EMT may be accused of: A. assault. B. abandonment. C. negligence. D. breach of promise.

If fertilization has not occurred in approximately 14 days postovulation: Select one: A. the ovum will begin to travel to the uterus. B. another egg will be released. C. menstruation will begin. D. All of these answers are correct.

If the patient is not alert and her breathing rate is slower than 8 breaths per minute, the EMT should: A. insert an oral airway. B. place the patient in a prone position. C. assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. D. apply the PASG.

If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient whose collapse was not witnessed, you should: Select one: A. apply an AED at once. B. assess for adequate breathing. C. immediately begin CPR. D. palpate at another pulse site.

If you think your patient has TB, you should wear the usual personal protective equipment plus a: A. surgeon's mask. B. gown. C. HEPA or N-95 respirator. D. Tyvek suit.

If you use a waterless hand washing substitute in the field, it is important to: Select one: A. wait at least 5 minutes before touching another patient. B. immediately dry your hands with a paper towel. C. wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital. D. avoid donning another pair of gloves for at least 10 minutes.

Immediately after being dispatched to a residence for an elderly patient with diabetic complications, you should: Select one: A. ask the dispatcher if the patient is conscious or unconscious. B. request that law enforcement secure the scene before you arrive. C. confirm with dispatch that you received the call information. D. ask the dispatcher to obtain a medical history from the caller.

In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis: Select one: A. can be prevented with a vaccination. B. typically does not cause yellow skin. C. is not a communicable disease. D. is a far more transmittable disease.

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: Select one: A. a drug overdose. B. a cardiac dysrhythmia. C. respiratory arrest. D. severe chest trauma.

In most cases, the oral wishes of the patient's family to withhold care are: A. all that is needed to stop CPR from being initiated. B. all that is needed to stop CPR once it is initiated. C. not a reason to withhold medical care. D. not sufficient unless they are given in writing.

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: Select one: A. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. B. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane. D. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen.

In relation to the chest, the back is: Select one: A. inferior. B. anterior. C. posterior. D. ventral.

In some states, _____ help protect the off-duty EMT from lawsuits when stopping at the scene of a collision to offer assistance. A. professional associations B. blanket insurance policies C. Good Samaritan laws D. abandonment laws

Infants and young children under the age of _____ are abdominal breathers. A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 12

Ischemic heart disease is defined as: Select one: A. death of a portion of the heart muscle due to a decrease in oxygen. B. decreased blood flow to the heart muscle due to coronary dilation. C. decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium. D. absent myocardial blood flow due to a blocked coronary artery.

Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: Select one: A. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. B. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive. C. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. D. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later.

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a product of: Select one: A. heart rate and stroke volume. B. heart rate and systemic vascular resistance. C. cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance. D. stroke volume and systemic vascular resistance.

Menstrual flow will typically last approximately _________. Select one: A. 1 day B. 3 days C. 1 week D. 1 month

Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on the impedance, which is the: Select one: A. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body. B. actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver. C. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity. D. distance between the two AED pads on the chest.

Most cases of poisoning: A. are intentional in nature. B. involve elderly patients. C. involve young children. D. lead to disability or death.

Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac-related chest pain by: Select one: A. contracting the smooth muscle of the coronary and cerebral arteries. B. constricting the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. C. dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. D. increasing the amount of stress that is placed on the myocardium.

Normal diastolic blood pressures range from _____ mmHg. A. 50 to 80 B. 50 to 90 C. 60 to 80 D. 60 to 90

Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be: Select one: A. pale, cool, and moist. B. flushed, cool, and dry. C. pink, warm, and dry. D. pink, warm, and moist.

Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they: Select one: A. are bleeding. B. have a fever. C. cough. D. vomit.

Peritonitis may result in shock because: Select one: A. intra-abdominal hemorrhage is typically present. B. severe pain causes systemic dilation of the vasculature. C. fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues. D. abdominal distention impairs cardiac contractions.

Poisons that are swallowed are _____ poisons. A. absorbed B. inhaled C. ingested D. injected

Shock due to severe infection is called ________. Select one: A. anaphylactic shock B. hypovolemic shock C. septic shock D. neurogenic shock

Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who: Select one: A. are older than 40 years of age. B. have had a stroke in the past. C. have chronic hypertension. D. regularly take illegal drugs.

Stress after a major EMS incident is: A. unusual and expected. B. a sign of weakness. C. normal and to be expected. D. part of the grieving process.

Systolic blood pressure indicates the arterial pressure created as the: A. artery contracts. B. artery relaxes. C. heart contracts. D. heart relaxes.

The 46-year-old male with chest pain may have any of the following conditions except: A. angina. B. acute myocardial infarction. C. seizure. D. rib fracture.

The EMT documents that the chest pain patient denies shortness of breath. This is most appropriately termed: A. an informative objective. B. advisory information. C. a pertinent negative. D. run data information.

The EMT should ensure that vaginal bleeding is _________. Select one: A. controlled directly by the patient B. not caused by traumatic injury C. taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation D. severe enough to warrant transport

The MOST common reason that many people experiencing AMI do not seek immediate medical attention is because they: Select one: A. do not trust EMTs. B. cannot afford it. C. are in denial. D. are elderly.

The MOST effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to: Select one: A. wear a heavy, thick jacket or coat. B. avoid outer clothing with zippers. C. wear at least three layers of clothing. D. wear socks made of heavy-duty cotton.

The MOST important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is: Select one: A. evacuating the bystanders. B. calling the hazardous materials team. C. ensuring your personal safety. D. identifying the hazardous material.

The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: Select one: A. confusion among team members. B. causing patient anxiety or fear. C. injury to you or your patient. D. unnecessarily wasting time.

The _____ carry must be performed in one unbroken sweep. A. pack strap B. front piggyback C. firefighter's D. four-rescue

The __________ and _________ are folds of tissue that surround the urethral and vaginal openings. Select one: A. fallopian tubes; uterus B. perineum; anus C. labia majora; labia minora D. vagina; cervix

The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. Select one: A. mastoid B. occiput C. orbit D. sphenoid

The _____________ connect(s) each ovary with the uterus. Select one: A. abdomen B. egg C. fallopian tubes D. cervix

The ability to understand others and have them understand you is known as __________. Select one: A. self-confidence B. scene leadership C. communication D. teamwork and diplomacy

The adequate rate of artificial ventilations for a nonbreathing infant or child patient is _____ breaths per minute. A. 8-10 B. 6-8 C. 12-20 D. 22-25

The adolescent years are the beginning of: A. better decision making skills. B. nasal breathing. C. self-destructive behaviors. D. all of these.

The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called the: Select one: A. inspiratory reserve volume. B. tidal volume. C. residual volume. D. expiratory reserve volume.

The amount of medication that is given is known as the _________. Select one: A. side effect B. contraindication C. dose D. indication

The analytical process that assists the EMT in reaching a field diagnosis is referred to as: A. active assessment. B. passive assessment. C. critical thinking. D. detailed assessment.

The anatomical name for the kneecap is the: A. ilium. B. malleolus. C. patella. D. phalange.

The average adult has approximately ___________ of blood in his or her vascular system. Select one: A. 4 L B. 3 L C. 6 L D. 5 L

The body system that is responsible for the breakdown of food into absorbable forms is called the _____ system. A. urinary B. nervous C. digestive D. integumentary

The body's backup system of respiratory control, which is based on low concentrations of oxygen in the blood, is called the: Select one: A. oxyhemoglobin drive. B. hypocarbic drive. C. hypoxic drive. D. pneumotaxic drive.

The bones of the cheek are called the _____ bones. A. orbit B. maxillae C. zygomatic D. mandible

The bones of the forearm are called the: Select one: A. humerus and ulna. B. radius and humerus. C. radius and ulna. D. tibia and radius.

The circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs is called: Select one: A. metabolism. B. cardiac output. C. perfusion. D. respiration.

The cranium consists of the: A. facial bones. B. mandible and maxillae. C. top, back, and sides of the skull. D. zygomatic bones.

The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is MOST often related to: Select one: A. hypotension. B. kidney failure. C. atherosclerosis. D. medication use.

The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the: Select one: A. bundle of His. B. Purkinje fibers. C. sinoatrial node. D. atrioventricular node.

The emergency situation in which there is a failure of the cardiovascular system to provide sufficient blood to all the vital tissues is called: A. respiratory arrest. B. respiratory failure. C. shock. D. cardiac arrest.

The exocrine gland of the pancreas secretes: Select one: A. bile. B. glucose. C. pancreatic juice. D. insulin.

The first step in providing artificial ventilation of a stoma breather is to: A. leave the head and neck in a neutral position. B. ventilate at the appropriate rate for the patient's age. C. clear any mucus or secretions obstructing the stoma. D. establish a seal using a pediatric-sized mask.

The first time a person is exposed to an allergen, the immune system: A. reacts violently. B. shuts down. C. forms antibodies. D. ignores the allergen.

The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n): Select one: A. leukotriene. B. antibody. C. allergen. D. histamine.

The goal of invaders such as bacteria and viruses is to __________. Select one: A. cause an immune response B. kill their human host C. use a human body as a home D. spread disease and destruction

The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: Select one: A. 21 and 30 years. B. 25 and 35 years. C. 19 and 25 years. D. 18 and 22 years.

The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by: Select one: A. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles. B. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart. C. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling. D. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression.

The inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from all of the following areas, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. legs. B. kidneys. C. brain. D. abdomen.

The legal concept of negligence requires that three circumstances must me demonstrated. Which of the following is not one of the three circumstances? A. The EMT had a duty to act. B. The EMT committed a breach of duty. C. The EMT had a local duty. D. The breach of duty caused harm.

The muscle tissue of the heart is called the: Select one: A. pericardium. B. epicardium. C. myocardium. D. endocardium.

The myocardium receives oxygenated blood from the __________, which originate(s) from the __________. Select one: A. aorta, inferior vena cava B. coronary sinus, vena cava C. coronary arteries, aorta D. vena cava, coronary veins

The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: Select one: A. notifies the admitting clerk of the patient's arrival at the hospital. B. informs dispatch of the patient's arrival at the emergency department. C. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse. D. gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility.

The patient-carrying device of choice for the 20-year-old male who is dizzy by not injured is the _____ stretcher. A. portable ambulance B. wire basket C. wheeled ambulance D. slat

The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the: A. EMS administrator. B. shift supervisor. C. medical director. D. field training officer.

The proper oxygen flow rate when ventilating a patient with a BVM is _____ liters per minute. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

The proper technique for using the power grip is to: Select one: A. rotate your palms down. B. hold the handle with your fingers. C. lift with your palms up. D. position your hands about 6² apart.

The recommended treatment for absorbed or contact poisons includes _________. Select one: A. transporting the patient to the emergency department with the poisonous substance in place B. collecting and transporting the poisonous substance to the emergency department for identification C. safely removing or diluting the poisonous substance D. neutralizing the poisonous substance with a chemical

The smooth muscles that cause the artery to contract are found in the: Select one: A. tunica adventitia. B. lumen. C. tunica media. D. tunica intima.

The spleen is located in the _____ quadrant. A. upper right B. lower right C. upper left D. lower left

The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: A. regional trauma center. B. American Heart Association. C. state office of EMS. D. National Registry of EMTs.

The structure that divides the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity is the: A. meninges. B. duodenum. C. diaphragm. D. spinal column.

The superior portion of the sternum is called the: A. xiphoid process. B. sternal body. C. manubrium. D. clavicle.

The systematic head-to-toe assessment should be performed on: Select one: A. responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI. B. stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened. C. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients. D. all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport.

The term "pericardiocentesis" means: Select one: A. surgical repair of the sac around the heart. B. narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart. C. the removal of fluid from around the heart. D. a surgical opening made in the heart.

The two basic categories of diagnosis that a physician will use for behavioral crises or psychiatric emergencies are ____________. Select one: A. organic brain syndrome and altered mental status B. functional and nonfunctional C. physical and psychological D. All of these answers are correct.

To assist in describing the location of abdominal organs, we divide the abdomen into _____ parts. A. two B. three C. four D. five

To be considered a severe allergic reaction, a patient must have signs and symptoms of shock and/or: A. a history of allergies. B. massive swelling. C. respiratory distress. D. increased blood pressure.

Trauma to the __________ lobe of the brain would likely result in visual disturbances. Select one: A. temporal B. parietal C. occipital D. frontal

Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should: Select one: A. request another ambulance. B. remove all bystanders. C. ensure that you are safe. D. move the patient to safety.

Urticaria is the medical term for: Select one: A. burning. B. swelling. C. hives. D. a wheal.

Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: Select one: A. inanimate objects. B. direct contact. C. animals or insects. D. smoke or dust.

Ways an EMT can avoid a potential back injury include all of the following except: A. push, rather than pull, a load. B. keep the back locked in while lifting. C. keep arms straight when pulling. D. push or pull from a kneeling position if the weight is below waist level.

What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR? Select one: A. 5:1 B. 30:1 C. 30:2 D. 3:2

What is the most common misconception surrounding mental illness? Select one: A. All persons with mental disorders are physically violent and dangerous. B. Many mental illnesses stem from drug or alcohol abuse. C. Feeling "bad" or "depressed" means that you must be "sick." D. Everyone has some form of mental illness.

What is typically the most important intervention that an EMT can provide to the victim of sexual assault? Select one: A. Control of vaginal bleeding B. Calling for ALS personnel C. Comfort and reassurance D. High-flow oxygen therapy

What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle? Select one: A. Contact medical control. B. Request another ambulance. C. Ensure the vehicle is stable. D. Check for other patients.

When a 42-year-old patient presents with more than one condition or with a familiar condition but under unusual circumstances, the EMT should: A. call medical direction right away. B. call for an ALS unit right away. C. assess the patient as usual. D. assign a higher priority to the patient.

When a patient has two or more medical conditions that are presenting symptoms at the same time, it is good to: A. treat them all at once. B. treat them one at a time. C. consult with medical direction for advice. D. just manage the ABCs and forget the rest.

When an allergic reaction proceeds to life-threatening anaphylaxis, it will usually do so __________. Select one: A. slowly, over more than 30 minutes. B. slowly, over several hours. C. quickly, within 30 minutes. D. quickly, within 30 seconds.

When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock. B. the patient's respirations are deep during the early stages of shock. C. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock. D. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion.

When assessing a patient's abdomen, you will evaluate for all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. open wounds or eviscerations. B. gross bleeding and tenderness. C. subcutaneous emphysema. D. rigidity and obvious bleeding.

When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of: Select one: A. bacterial infection. B. reactive airway disease. C. cardiovascular disease. D. non-insulin-dependent diabetes.

When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should: Select one: A. observe movement of the arms for approximately 2 minutes. B. expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side. C. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment. D. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down.

Which of the following is an appropriate interpersonal communication technique? A. Standing above a patient B. Avoiding eye contact C. Directly facing a patient D. Standing with arms crossed

Which of the following is not required by the OSHA bloodborne pathogen standard? A. Postexposure evaluation and follow-up B. Personal protective equipment C. HEPA or N-95 respirator D. Housekeeping controls and labeling

When caring for a known alcoholic patient with severe trauma to the chest and abdomen, you should be concerned that: Select one: A. signs and symptoms of shock may be masked by the stimulant effects produced by alcohol. B. long bone fractures are likely because chronic alcohol consumption weakens the structure of the bones. C. internal bleeding may be profuse because prolonged alcohol use may impair the blood's ability to clot. D. delirium tremens (DTs) are commonly induced by physical trauma and can lead to life-threatening seizures.

When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for: Select one: A. an acute stroke. B. a febrile convulsion. C. a seizure. D. respiratory distress.

When considering his or her personal life, it is important for the EMT to realize that: Select one: A. he or she should not discuss stressful issues with family members. B. shift work is the least stressful type of an EMS-related work schedule. C. family or friends may not understand the stress associated with EMS. D. it is more difficult to effectively relax at home than it is while on duty.

When evaluating circulation in infants, the EMT should use the: A. femoral pulse. B. distal pulse check. C. capillary refill test. D. radial pulse.

When forming a general impression, the EMT takes into consideration all of the following except the patient's: A. position. B. age and sex. C. blood pressure. D. sounds.

When handling oxygen cylinders, the EMT should do all of the following except: A. have the cylinders hydrostatically tested every 5 years. B. ensure that valve seat inserts and gaskets are in good condition. C. store reserve cylinders in a warm, humid room. D. use medical-grade oxygen in all cylinders.

When lifting an injured patient, the EMT should: A. keep the back loose and knees locked. B. twist or attempt to make moves other than the lift. C. use the leg muscles to do the lift. D. try not to talk to her or his partner.

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that there is a short interval between pulsations. This indicates that the pulse is: Select one: A. irregular. B. thready. C. rapid. D. slow.

When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the "LL" and "RL" electrodes should be placed: Select one: A. on either side of the chest. B. anywhere on the arms. C. on the thighs or ankles. D. on the lower abdomen.

When responding to a violent situation, observation beings when you: A. enter the scene. B. exit the ambulance. C. enter the neighborhood. D. arrive at the patient's side.

When suctioning a 19-year-old patient who you suspect has bleeding into his throat, you should: A. suction on the way in and the way out. B. avoid using eyewear or a mask. C. never suction for longer than 15 seconds. D. hypoventilate prior to suctioning.

When transporting a stable stroke patient with a paralyzed extremity, place the patient in a: Select one: A. sitting position with the head at a 45° to 90° angle. B. supine position with the legs elevated 6 feet to 12 feet. C. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down. D. recumbent position with the paralyzed side up.

When treating a patient with chest pain, you should assume that he or she is having an AMI because: Select one: A. most patients with chest pain are experiencing an AMI. B. angina and AMI present identically. C. the cause of the pain cannot be diagnosed in the field. D. angina usually occurs after an AMI.

When you are obtaining medical history from the family of a suspected stroke patient, it is MOST important to determine: Select one: A. if there is a family history of a stroke. B. the patient's overall medication compliance. C. when the patient last appeared normal. D. if the patient has been hospitalized before.

Which is the MOST appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher? Select one: A. Extremity carry B. Direct carry C. Draw sheet method D. Log roll

Which method of infection control reduces exposure to yourself, your crew, and your next patient? A. Wearing a HEPA or N-95 respirator B. Taking universal precautions C. Hand washing after each patient contact D. None of these

Which of the following assessments would be the MOST useful in determining the possible cause of a patient's altered mental status? Select one: A. Respiratory rate B. Blood pressure C. Blood glucose level Correct D. Capillary refill time

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain? Select one: A. Blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe B. Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe C. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest D. Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to pelvic inflammatory disease if left untreated? Select one: A. Genital herpes B. Ectopic pregnancy C. Chlamydia D. Ovarian cysts

Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure? A. Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient's spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled. B. A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first. C. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.

Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body? Select one: A. Parathyroid B. Thyroid C. Pituitary D. Adrenal

Which of the following infections, when left untreated, may lead to infection of the blood and brain? Select one: A. Pelvic inflammatory disease B. Bacterial vaginosis C. Gonorrhea D. Chlamydia

Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system? Select one: A. Constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system B. Dilation of blood vessels in the muscles C. Constriction of blood vessels in the muscles D. Increases in the heart and respiratory rates

While the ages can vary, women typically experience menstruation from approximately _________ to ____________ years of age. Select one: A. 10; 40 B. 20; 60 C. 11; 50 D. 10; 70

Which of the following is required for an EMT to administer a drug to a patient? Select one: A. A patient with stable vital signs B. An alert adult patient C. Medical direction approval D. A patient with an altered level of consciousness

Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs? Select one: A. Evaluating the patient's chest for cyanosis B. Looking for the presence of accessory muscle use C. Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope D. Applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SpO2

Which of the following is true of the medical radio report? A. The EMT uses codes to communicate patient information. B. The EMT makes sure to give his or her patient diagnosis. C. The EMT paints a picture of the patient's problem in words. D. The EMT speaks rapidly to limit transmission time.C.

Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation? Select one: A. "Does the pain stay in your chest?" B. "Are there medications that you cannot take?" C. "Does your mother have diabetes?" D. "Has this ever happened to you before?"

Which of the following medications would the EMT be LEAST likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint? Select one: A. Albuterol B. Aspirin C. Ibuprofen D. Oral glucose

Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space? Select one: A. Ascending aorta B. Gallbladder C. Kidneys D. Spleen

Which of the following patient populations typically require a modified drug dose? Select one: A. Patients with asthma B. Middle adults C. Pediatric patients D. Females

Which of the following questions would be LEAST pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance? Select one: A. How much of the substance was taken? B. How long ago was the substance taken? C. Why was the substance ingested? D. What type of substance was taken?

Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS? A. a 61-year-old trauma patient whose chest is decompressed with a needle B. a 53-year-old patient who is given glucagon for significant hypoglycemia C. a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED) D. a 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a multilumen device

Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? Select one: A. A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen B. A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain C. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device D. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin

Which of the following signs/symptoms are indicative of respiratory involvement of an allergic reaction? Select one: A. Flushed, itching, or burning skin B. A sense of impending doom C. Tightness in the chest or throat D. All of these answers are correct.

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: A. The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells. B. Most cells will function normally without glucose. C. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen. D. Blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin.

Which of the following statements regarding nervous system control of the cardiovascular system is correct? Select one: A. When stimulated, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for increasing the heart rate. B. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems work together to perform the same function. C. Baroreceptors located throughout the body provide information to the brain regarding the blood pressure. D. Alpha-adrenergic receptors are located exclusively in the heart and are stimulated by epinephrine.

Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? A. EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT. B. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. C. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. D. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs.

Which of the following statements would NOT be appropriate to say to the family of a dying patient? Select one: A. "Tell me how you are feeling." B. "This must be painful for you." C. "Things will get better in time." D. "It is okay to be angry and sad

Which of the following symptoms would lead the EMT to believe that a patient's headache is caused by sinus congestion? Select one: A. There is numbness in the extremities B. The headache began suddenly C. The pain is worse when bending over D. There is associated neck stiffness

Which of the following will help improve radio communications? Select one: A. Use codes to speed communication. B. Answer questions with "yes" or "no." C. Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking. D. Hold the radio at least 6 inches from your mouth.

Which one fo the following is a name for adult chest pain due to a decreased blood supply to the heart muscle? A. Stroke B. Arrhythmia C. Congestive heart failure D. Angina pectoris

Which type of stress reaction occurs when an EMT is exposed to many insignificant stressors over a period of several months or years? Select one: A. Critical incident stress reaction B. Post-traumatic stress reaction C. Cumulative stress reaction D. Acute stress reaction

Which ventilation device is contraindicated in infants and children? A. Bag-valve mask B. Pediatric pocket mask C. Flow-restricted, oxygen powered ventilation device D. Nonrebreather mask.

While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the: Select one: A. atria contracting. B. ventricles contracting. C. ventricles relaxing. D. atria relaxing.

While obtaining a 12-lead ECG prior to ALS arrival, you note the presence of artifacts on the tracing. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this? Select one: A. placement of the leads B. Abnormal cardiac electrical activity C. Excessive movement of the patient D. The patient's pulse is irregular.

While trying to make a family member feel better after a loved one has died, your partner states, "I know how you are feeling." The family members may view this as: Select one: A. coaching them through the grieving process. B. a show of respect for the person who has died. C. your partner's attempt to diminish their grief. D. your partner's caring and supportive attitude.

While you are on duty, your partner asks you out on a date and touches you in an inappropriate location without your consent. You should: Select one: A. warn your partner that you will report him or her if it happens again. B. notify law enforcement personnel and have your partner arrested. C. tell your partner to stop and report the incident to your supervisor. D. tell your partner to quit kidding around and focus on the job.

Why might EMTs encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large? Select one: A. It is a common misperception; EMTs do NOT encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large. B. EMTs respond with law enforcement. C. EMTs respond to patients who, by definition, are having an emergency. D. EMTs have to restrain patients.

Worn-out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the: Select one: A. pancreas. B. kidney. C. spleen. D. liver.

You are assessing a 45-year-old female who is severely depressed. She states that it seems as though her entire world is crashing down around her. She further states that she has had frequent thoughts of suicide, but is not sure if she can actually go through with it. How should you manage this situation? Select one: A. Encourage the patient to remain quiet during transport. B. Leave the scene and have a neighbor check in on her. C. Ask the patient if she has developed a suicidal plan. D. Have law enforcement place her in protective custody.

You are caring for a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate? Select one: A. "This is nothing to worry about. Please try to stay calm. The physician at the hospital will probably not find any signs of a heart problem." B. "I notice that you are a retired paramedic, so I'm sure you will understand all of the things that we will be doing to you." C. "It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow." D. "We need to take you to the ED stat. We will give you ASA and NTG en route and then reassess your vitals. Do you have any questions?"

You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: Select one: A. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs. B. the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction. C. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times. D. an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to: Select one: A. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history. B. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital. C. determine if she was injured when she fainted. D. provide emotional support regarding her sister.

You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should: Select one: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning. B. place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting. C. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation. D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once.

You are dispatched to the scene of a crash involving a large tanker truck. While you are en route, dispatch advises you that there are multiple patients and that the fire department is en route as well. As you approach the scene, you should: Select one: A. don personal protective equipment and quickly triage all patients. B. immediately begin evacuating residents who live near the crash site. C. maintain a safe distance and try to read the placard with binoculars. D. cordon off the area and quickly remove all of the injured patients.

You are on the scene of a patient whom the police have been talking with for quite some time. They were originally called to the private residence because a neighbor though she had heard shots fired. Apparently no one was injured, but there are weapons in the home. You are unable to perform normal assessment and care procedures because the patient is aggressive and hostile. What action should you take? A. Restrain the patient immediately. B. Ask a family member to assist you. C. Seek advice from medical direction. D. Call the patient's physician.

You are summoned to a convalescent center for an 88-year-old female with an altered mental status. A staff nurse advises you that the patient has terminal cancer and her physician stated that she would probably die within the next few hours; a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order is presented to you. When caring for this patient, you should: Select one: A. provide no interventions and transport to the hospital. B. begin chest compressions if she experiences cardiac arrest. C. make her comfortable and provide emotional support. D. depart the scene and allow her to die with dignity.

You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: Select one: A. arrange for an ALS rendezvous. B. take his vital signs in 15 minutes. C. reassess his condition in 5 minutes. D. repeat your secondary assessment.

You are transporting a 67-year-old female patient to the hospital for investigation of abdominal pain. The patient care record indicates that the patient has a history of AAA. Based on this information, the patient care record includes an abbreviation for: Select one: A. against ambulance advice. B. acute abdominal aneurysm . C. abdominal aortic aneurysm. D. acute abdominal assessment.

You are treating a 25-year-old female diabetic patient. If you cannot administer glucose gel because she is not alert enough to swallow, you should: A. wait until her mental status improves. B. contact medical direction immediately. C. treat her like any other patient with altered mental status. D. place her in a position of comfort.

You are treating a 45-year-old male who twisted his ankle in the upstairs bathroom. To carry this patient on the stairs, you should: A. keep the stretcher as level as possible. B. use a long backboard at all times. C. use a stair chair whenever possible. D. do all of these.

You are treating a patient who initially had a chief complaint of severe difficulty breathing. You have concerns that this may be leading to respiratory failure, which is: A. cause by electrocution in young adults. B. another term used to describe respiratory arrest. C. inadequate breathing and is a precursor to respiratory arrest. D. the complete cessation of expiration.

You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. Select one: A. negligence B. assault C. slander D. libel

You receive a high-priority call to meet an incoming airplane on the tarmac at the regional airport. A 60-year-old female patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis and 35 years of smoking a pack a day of cigarettes is acutely short of breath. This shortness of breath began about 20 minutes ago, and the EMTs are administering oxygen by nonrebreather mask at this time. The duration of the flight was approximately 6 hours. What do you suspect is the patient's prehospital diagnosis? A. An acute exacerbation of her COPD B. The development of epiglottits C. A pulmonary embolism D. Acute pulmonary edema

You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should: Select one: A. assess the rate and quality of his pulse. B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. C. apply direct pressure to the wound. D. immediately evaluate his airway.

You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to ___________. Select one: A. peripheral vasoconstriction B. an increased heart rate C. peripheral vasodilation D. hypothermia

Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the ___________. Select one: A. CO2 drive B. alternate drive C. hypoxic drive D. COPD drive

Your patient has a decreased cardiac output and poor myocardial contractility. This will likely lead to ___________. Select one: A. septic shock B. hypovolemic shock C. cardiogenic shock D. neurogenic shock

Your patient has hepatitis B. You are accidentally stuck with a needle that has some of this patient's infected blood on it. Your chance of contracting the disease is about: A. 10 percent. B. 20 percent. C. 30 percent. D. 40 percent.

Your patient is a 45-year-old female who has been vomiting and has had diarrhea for the past week. There is a danger that she may have a condition called: A. extremity edema. B. an excess of body fluid. C. dehydration. D. all of these.

Your patient is in shock, but the body's defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. This is called ___________. Select one: A. irreversible shock B. decompensated shock C. compensated shock D. late shock

Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to: Select one: A. retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport. B. perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment. C. administer oxygen with the appropriate device. D. assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure.

______________ may be a cause of vaginal bleeding in a patient who states that she is NOT pregnant. Select one: A. Bacterial vaginosis B. Hypotension C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Menopause

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: Select one: A. apply pressure to the brachial artery. B. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen. C. wrap the towel with pressure bandages. D. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.

A 26-year-old female presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. She is conscious, but restless. Her blood pressure is 84/54 mm Hg, her pulse is 120 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. She tells you that she inserted a tampon about 2 hours ago. You should: Select one: A. administer high-flow oxygen, ask her to remove the tampon, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport promptly. B. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask, place one sterile dressing into her vagina, perform a rapid secondary assessment, and transport. C. administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed assessment of her vaginal area for signs of trauma, place her on her side, and transport. D. administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay.

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: Select one: A. 10. B. 14. C. 12. D. 13.

A 30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. keep her supine and keep her warm. B. give her high-flow supplemental oxygen. C. rapidly transport her to the hospital. D. protect her airway from aspiration.

A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient? Select one: A. Ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine tablets that you can administer. B. Quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epinephrine. C. Remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance. D. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept.

A 38-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia is reported by neighbors to be screaming and throwing things in his house. You are familiar with the patient and have cared for him in the past for unrelated problems. Law enforcement officers escort you into the residence when you arrive. The patient tells you that he sees vampires and is attempting to ward them off by screaming and throwing things at them. He has several large lacerations to his forearms that are actively bleeding. The MOST appropriate way to manage this situation is to: Select one: A. try to gain the patient's trust by telling him that you see the vampires too. B. request that the police officers arrest him and take him to the hospital. C. approach the patient and calm him by placing your hand on his shoulder. D. restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries.

A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: Select one: A. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history. B. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin. C. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin. D. assess the adequacy of his respirations.

A 62-year-old male is seen with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering supplemental oxygen if needed and contacting medical control, you should: Select one: A. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit. B. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure. C. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours. D. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.

A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and with an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should: Select one: A. place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a bag-valve mask and high-flow oxygen. B. force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-valve mask at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min. C. place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing. D. apply a CPAP device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.

A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: Select one: A. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure. B. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once. C. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice. D. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.

A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious and alert and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Which of the following is NOT indicated for this patient? Select one: A. Rapid head-to-toe exam B. Treating her for possible shock C. Application of a cervical collar D. Gentle palpation of the pelvis

A 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. She is conscious and alert, but anxious. Her blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. She took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. You should: Select one: A. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. B. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. C. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions. D. recall that geriatric patients often have slower absorption and elimination times, which may necessitate modification of the dosing of certain drugs.

A bag-valve mask should have or be all of the following except: A. a self-refilling shell. B. a clear face mask. C. easily cleared and sterilized. D. a pop-off valve.

A behavioral crisis interferes with which of the following? Select one: A. Activities of daily living B. Behavior that is acceptable to the community C. Dressing, eating, or bathing D. All of these answers are correct.

A child falls of a trampoline at an elementary school and twists her ankle. Because the parents are not present, the child's consent is A. not needed. B. actual. C. implied. D. meaningless.

A decrease in blood pressure may indicate: Select one: A. increased blood volume. B. arterial constriction. C. forceful cardiac contraction. D. loss of vascular tone.

A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she: Select one: A. is unable to swallow. B. has low blood sugar. C. urinates frequently. D. is excessively thirsty.

A noisy, harsh sound heard during inhalation that indicates a partial airway obstruction is: A. gurgling. B. snorting. C. stertorous respirations. D. crowing.

A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should: Select one: A. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate. B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest. C. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest. D. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place.

A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: Select one: A. document the patient's request but continue to transport him. B. request that the police place the patient under protective custody. C. have the patient sign a refusal form and return him to his office. D. assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired.

A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing: Select one: A. paraplegia. B. aphasia. C. dysphagia. D. dysarthria.

A patient with an altered mental status; high blood glucose levels; and deep, rapid breathing may have a condition known as __________. Select one: A. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma B. hypoglycemic crisis C. hyperglycemic crisis D. diabetic ketoacidosis

A patient with pelvic inflammatory disease will typically complain of _________. Select one: A. aches and fever associated with urination B. bleeding associated with stress C. nausea and vomiting associated with intercourse D. abdominal pain associated with menstruation

A patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be: Select one: A. authorized by a judge. B. witnessed by a notary. C. reported to the police. D. an informed refusal.

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover: Select one: A. one half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. B. the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. C. one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow. D. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.

A wheeze is a common breathing sound found in a patient having: A. an asthma attack. B. an allergic reaction. C. bronchospasm. D. any one of these.

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office in order to: A. use an automatic transport ventilator. B. apply and interpret a pulse oximeter. C. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain. D. perform blood glucose monitoring.

Activated charcoal is contraindicated for patients who have ingested: A. alkalis. B. gasoline. C. acids. D. all of these.

After performing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient who has a pulse, you should: Select one: A. provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance. B. assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity. C. place him or her in the recovery position. D. suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.

All of the following are types of calls that have a high potential for causing excessive stress except: A. calls involving infants and children. B. patients with severe injuries. C. cases of abuse and neglect. D. motor vehicle collisions.

American Heart Association protocols are based on __________. Select one: A. theories ready for field trial B. opinions from a core group of cardiologists C. trends in the EMS community D. evidence-based research

An EMT can inspire patient confidence and cooperation by: A. transporting the patient from the scene to a hospital. B. providing patient care without regard for her own personal safety. C. telling the patient that everything will be all right. D. being pleasant, cooperative, and sincere, and a good listener.

An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if: Select one: A. the patient is currently experiencing hypotension. B. transport time to the hospital is greater than 30 minutes. C. the patient is believed to be experiencing an acute stroke. D. authorization from medical control has been obtained.

An anatomical term that is occasionally used to refer to the sole of the foot is: A. calcaneus. B. ventral. C. dorsal. D. plantar.

An emergency move is required in each of the following situations except when: A. the scene is hazardous. B. care of life-threatening conditions requires repositioning. C. other patients who have life threats must be reached. D. the patient is unconscious.

An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because: Select one: A. as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilate. B. the infant's total blood volume decreases with age. C. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age. D. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.

An infection that causes inflammation of the liver is called: A. meningitis. B. tuberculosis. C. typhoid. D. hepatitis.

An oropharyngeal airway should be inserted in: A. all patients with inadequate breathing. B. trauma patients with a gag reflex. C. medical patients with a gag reflex. D. all unconscious patients with no gag reflex.

An overdose of acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will MOST likely cause: Select one: A. CNS depression. B. gastric ulcers. C. kidney failure. D. liver failure.

An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should: Select one: A. slide a scoop stretcher under his buttocks and rotate him laterally. B. perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment and apply a cervical collar. C. maintain manual stabilization of his head and grasp him by the clothes. D. apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device.

Anaphylaxis caused by stinging insects is typically an allergic reaction to ____________ rather than the bite or sting itself. Select one: A. injected poison B. irritating toxin C. deadly venom D. All of these answers are correct.

Any action of a drug other than the desired action is called a(n): A. contraindication. B. indication. C. reflex. D. side effect.

As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: A. an order from a paramedic. B. the transport time to the hospital. C. the patient's condition. D. your local EMS protocols.

As an EMT, your overriding concern at all times is: A. the patient's safety. B. the safety of patients and bystanders. C. the patient's life. D. your own safety.

As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: Select one: A. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. B. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once. C. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call. D. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician.

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should: Select one: A. prepare the immobilization equipment. B. look in the ears for gross bleeding. C. assess the rest of the body for bleeding. D. maintain stabilization of the head.

As you near an emergency scene, you should: A. sound your siren to broadcast your arrival. B. go straight to the front door. C. secure the scene as quickly as possible. D. turn off your lights and siren.

Both areas of the pons are used to: Select one: A. set the base rate and depth of breathing in a healthy person. B. ensure that the lungs do not over inflate during breathing. C. provide forced inspiration or expiration as needed. D. augment respirations during emotional or physical stress.

CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? Select one: A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood flow to her heart. B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating, which restored her pulse. C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which restored her pulse. D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: A. EMT. B. EMR. C. AEMT. D. paramedic.

Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by: Select one: A. a profound increase in the patient's heart rate. B. hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting. C. widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature. D. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle.

Care for a victim of an immunologic emergency who is severely hypotensive should include which of the following? Select one: A. Routine spinal immobilization due to the potential for traumatic injury B. Initiate basic life support measures, including the use of an automated external defibrillator, if necessary. C. Position the patient's airway and initiate positive-pressure ventilations. D. Apply high-flow oxygen therapy, place the patient in a shock position, and help maintain the patient's body temperature.

Causes of vaginal bleeding include which of the following? Select one: A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Vaginal trauma C. Spontaneous abortion D. All of these answers are correct.

Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. restlessness or anxiety. B. cool and clammy skin. C. rapid, shallow breathing. D. absent peripheral pulses.

Continuing education in EMS serves to: Select one: A. enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training. B. confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care. C. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system. D. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills.

Contraction of the right ventricle causes: Select one: A. closure of the mitral and aortic valves. B. a return of blood from the pulmonary veins. C. ejection of blood into the systemic circulation. D. blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation.

Cool, clammy skin in a middle-aged male most likely indicates: A. high fever. B. exposure to cold. C. mild fever. D. shock.

Crackles (rales) are caused by _________. Select one: A. mucus in the larger airways B. severe bronchoconstriction C. narrowing of the upper airways D. air passing through fluid

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by: Select one: A. venous vasoconstriction. B. peripheral vasodilation. C. increased blood oxygen. D. decreased blood oxygen.

Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that: Select one: A. must be filled with air before gas exchange can take place. B. receives oxygen but is unable to release carbon dioxide. C. includes the alveoli and capillaries surrounding the alveoli. D. contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange.

Distributive shock occurs when: Select one: A. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain. B. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. C. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster. D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.

During gynecologic emergencies, in addition to the standard SAMPLE questions, the EMT should attempt to determine which of the following? Select one: A. The amount of time since of the patent's last menstrual cycle B. The possibility that the patient may be pregnant C. If the patient is sexually active D. All of these answers are correct.

During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher's responsibilities include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. screening and assigning a priority to each call based on local protocols. B. selecting and notifying the EMS response units and personnel. C. coordinating responding EMS units with other public safety personnel. D. discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives.

During the primary assessment, all of the following are assessed except: A. airway. B. mental status. C. circulation. D. blood pressure.

During your assessment of a 19-year-old male, you are told that he is being treated with factor VIII. This indicates that: Select one: A. he has a thrombosis. B. his blood clots too quickly. C. he has thrombophilia. D. he has hemophilia A.

During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should: Select one: A. repeat your question because he probably did not hear you. B. tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions. C. ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea. D. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it.

Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a marked increase in the exhalation phase. B. a complete cessation of respiratory effort. C. labored breathing with reduced tidal volume. D. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.

Engineering controls that prevent the spread of bloodborne diseases include: A. pocket masks. B. needle containers. C. disposable airway equipment. D. all of these.

Epinephrine stimulates the ________ response, increasing blood pressure and relieving bronchospasm. Select one: A. respiratory B. cardiac C. parasympathetic D. sympathetic

Every employer of EMTs must provide free of charge: A. a yearly physical examination. B. a life insurance policy. C. universal health insurance. D. hepatitis B vaccination.

From a mental health standpoint, an abnormal or disturbing pattern of behavior is a matter of concern if it lasts for at least: Select one: A. 2 weeks. B. 1 week. C. 3 weeks. D. 1 month.

How do poisons typically act to harm the body? Select one: A. By causing a slowing of nearly all bodily functions B. By interfering with normal neurologic function C. By causing burns and damage to either external or internal organs D. By changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them

Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. an overdose of aspirin. B. a respiratory infection. C. high blood glucose levels. D. a narcotic overdose.

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of: Select one: A. crack cocaine. B. amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine). C. ecstasy. D. oxycodone (Percocet).

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: Select one: A. platelets. B. whole blood. C. red blood cells. D. plasma.

If the victim of a toxicologic emergency vomits, an EMT should _________. Select one: A. not approach the vomitus. B. have the patient enclose the vomitus in a container and take it to the emergency department. C. safely dispose of the vomitus as soon as possible and decontaminate the vehicle as necessary. D. use appropriate personal protective equipment and examine the vomitus for pill fragments or other clues for patient care.

If you are an EMT with a service that does not provide the appropriate personal protective equipment, why should you serve as an advocate for this equipment? A. Your crew members could be injured unneccessarily. B. You could be seriously injured. C. An injured EMT is of little help to the patient. D. All of these are reasons to serve as an advocate.

In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by: Select one: A. diaphoresis. B. hypovolemia. C. tachycardia. D. hypothermia.

Some women experience ___________ during ovulation. Select one: A. hypotension B. severe bleeding C. severe abdominal pain D. slight cramping

In an apparent suicide attempt, a 19-year-old female ingested a full bottle of amitriptyline (Elavil). At present, she is conscious and alert and states that she swallowed the pills approximately 30 minutes earlier. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, her pulse is 140 beats/min and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. When transporting this patient, you should be MOST alert for: Select one: A. an increase in her blood pressure. B. a sudden outburst of violence. C. acute respiratory depression. D. seizures and cardiac arrhythmias.

In an otherwise healthy adult, blood loss would cause: Select one: A. vascular constriction and bradycardia. B. vascular dilation and tachycardia. C. vascular dilation and bradycardia. D. vascular constriction and tachycardia.

In cases of sexual assault, it is important to ensure that you do which of the following? Select one: A. Immediately write down your observations of the scene before assessing the patient. B. Call for a female EMT or ALS care provider. C. Discuss with law enforcement any suspicions that you may have about the perpetrator. D. All of these answers are correct.

In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air: Select one: A. decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases. B. decreases, which increases diffusion in the lungs and causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide. C. remains unchanged because the lungs have become accustomed to years of breathing pollution. D. increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.

In pre-conventional reasoning, children: Select one: A. make decisions based on their conscience. B. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children. C. look for approval from their peers and society. D. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want.

Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is called ________. Select one: A. hypoxia B. perfusion C. hypotension D. shock

Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the: Select one: A. pancreas. B. brain. C. kidneys. D. liver.

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem. Select one: A. cardiac B. endocrine C. respiratory D. neurologic

Ketone production is the result of: Select one: A. blood glucose levels higher than 120 mg/dL. B. rapid entry of glucose across the cell membrane. C. acidosis when blood glucose levels are low. D. fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable.

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to: Select one: A. lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position. B. sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent. C. sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles. D. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.

Most patients with an infectious disease will have _________. Select one: A. a low blood glucose level B. seizures C. abdominal pain D. a fever

Normal respiratory rates should not exceed _______ breaths per minute in toddlers and _______ breaths per minute in infants. Select one: A. 18, 28 B. 30, 40 C. 20, 30 D. 40, 60

Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: A. State Bureau of EMS. B. EMS training officer. C. EMS medical director. D. individual EMT.

One of the functions of the integumentary system is to: A. regulate the diameter of the blood vessels in the circulation. B. eliminate excess oxygen into the atmosphere. C. allow environmental water to carefully enter the body. D. protect the body from the environment, bacteria, and other organisms.

Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that: Select one: A. worsen the pain. B. initiate the pain. C. change the pain. D. alleviate the pain.

Patients may experience allergic reactions to which of the following substances? Select one: A. Food and medications B. Insect or animal bites and stings C. Plant material D. All of these answers are correct

Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear: Select one: A. pink. B. flushed. C. cyanotic. D. ashen.

Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should: Select one: A. perform CPR for 30 seconds. B. contact medical control. C. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds. D. dry the chest if it is wet.

Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: Select one: A. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts. B. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy. C. touches another person without his or her consent. D. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.

Serious conflicts occur in families as the issues of control and independence collide with children in which age group? A. Toddler B. Preschool C. School age D. Adolescent

Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A. when you deliver minimal tidal volume. B. when the airway is completely obstructed. C. in patients who are intubated. D. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.

Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a patient who blocks access to another seriously injured patient. B. a patient whose condition requires immediate transport to the hospital. C. a patient who needs immediate care that requires a supine position. D. a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle.

Some EMTs participate in activities that attract legal actions, while most EMTs are rarely involved in legal entanglements. You can prevent most lawsuits if you: A. provide care within the scope of your practice. B. properly document your care. C. are courteous and respectful to all your patients. D. do all of these.

Stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors results in: Select one: A. increased heart rate. B. dilation of the blood vessels. C. increased cardiac contractility. D. constriction of the blood vessels.

Sudden death following AMI is MOST often caused by: Select one: A. severe bradycardia. B. cardiogenic shock. C. congestive heart failure. D. ventricular fibrillation.

Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient: Select one: A. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose. B. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections. C. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion. D. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.

The 52-year-old male conscious patient with a possible heart attack is best transported in the: A. recovery position. B. medical coma position. C. traumatic coma position. D. position of comfort.

The 59-year-old female patient with slurred speech may have had: A. a stroke. B. an overdose. C. a seizure. D. any combination of these.

The BEST way to reduce your risk of contracting a work-related disease following exposure is to: Select one: A. get vaccinated against the disease you think you were exposed to. B. vigorously wash the affected area with an antimicrobial solution. C. be evaluated by a physician within 72 hours following the exposure. D. activate your department's infection control plan as soon as possible.

The EMT should assess for hypoglycemia in small children with a severe illness or injury because: Select one: A. illness or injury causes the pancreas to produce less insulin. B. a child's cells do not uptake glucose as rapidly as adults' do. C. children overproduce insulin during severe illness or injury. D. children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults.

The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if: Select one: A. his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest. B. special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia. C. he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse. D. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available.

The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: Select one: A. state EMS office. B. local health district. C. EMS supervisor. D. medical director.

The ___________ portion of the spinal column is joined to the iliac bones of the pelvis. Select one: A. thoracic B. lumbar C. coccyx D. sacrum

The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is called __________. Select one: A. integrity B. patient advocacy C. patient empathy D. time management

The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of: Select one: A. 7 and 14 months. B. 6 and 8 months. C. 3 and 4 months. D. 9 and 18 months.

The central nervous system is composed of the: Select one: A. brain and sensory nerves. B. spinal cord and sensory nerves. C. motor and sensory nerves. D. brain and spinal cord.

The communicable disease that kills the most health workers every year in the United States is: A. tuberculosis. B. HIV/AIDS. C. meningitis. D. hepatitis B virus.

The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to: A. administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols. B. ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office. C. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient. D. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.

The descending aorta branches into the: Select one: A. internal carotid arteries. B. external carotid arteries. C. deep femoral arteries. D. common iliac arteries.

The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: A. the lead EMT's decision. B. regional trauma guidelines. C. local protocols. D. EMS research.

The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: Select one: A. the lead EMT's decision. B. regional trauma guidelines. C. local protocols. D. EMS research.

The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during: Select one: A. respiration. B. ventilation. C. exhalation. D. inhalation.

The diaphragm is unique because it: Select one: A. does not have striations like skeletal muscle. B. does not receive impulses from the brain. C. is the exclusive muscle of breathing. D. is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle.

The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration. Select one: A. 30 minutes B. 30 seconds C. 1 hour D. 1 minute

The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the: Select one: A. venules. B. arteries. C. arterioles. D. capillaries.

The extremity lift would NOT be appropriate to use on a patient: Select one: A. with forearm lacerations. B. without a spinal injury. C. who complains of nausea. D. with a deformed humerus.

The femoral head forms a ball-and-socket joint with the: Select one: A. femoral condyle. B. ilium. C. ischium. D. acetabulum.

The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to: Select one: A. definitively rule out significant internal injuries. B. assess only the parts of the body that are injured. C. detect and treat all non-life-threatening injuries. D. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.

The head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the: Select one: A. subclavian arteries. B. iliac arteries. C. brachial arteries. D. carotid arteries.

The heart is _____ to the stomach. A. distal B. medial C. proximal D. superior

The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to: Select one: A. lack of proper immunizations. B. excessive blood splashing or splattering. C. noncompliance with standard precautions. D. careless handling of sharps.

The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: Select one: A. American Heart Association. B. regional trauma center. C. National Registry of EMTs. D. state office of EMS.

The suffix "-pathy" means: Select one: A. enlargement. B. specialist. C. study of. D. disease.

The term used to describe the conclusion that an EMT makes about a patient's condition, after assessing the patient, is called the: A. presumptive diagnosis. B. EMT diagnosis. C. EMS diagnosis. D. all of these are correct.

To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should: Select one: A. use universal precautions with every patient encounter. B. utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient. C. always transport patients to the hospital of their choice. D. provide competent care that meets current standards.

To protect a restrained patient and prevent him from using leverage to break free, the EMT should secure __________. Select one: A. only the patient's torso B. both arms at the patient's sides C. both arms above the head D. one arm above the head

To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as: Select one: A. the lungs. B. the heart. C. the brain. D. the skin.

Urinary tract infections are more common in ____________. Select one: A. men B. active adults C. sedentary adults D. women

What happens when blood volume is lost from the body? Select one: A. Widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease. B. Arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles. C. The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion. D. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.

What is (are) the primary female reproductive organ(s) called? Select one: A. Uterine tubes B. Uterus C. Vagina D. Ovaries

When a drug is administered subcutaneously, the drug is: A. dissolved under the tongue. B. injected into a vein. C. rubbed into a muscle. D. injected under the skin.

When a foreign substance invades the body, the body will __________. Select one: A. protect itself B. go on alert C. attempt to inactivate the foreign substance D. All of these answers are correct.

When a patient's respirations are shallow: Select one: A. carbon dioxide elimination is increased. B. oxygenation occurs more efficiently. C. chest rise will be easily noticeable. D. tidal volume is markedly reduced.

When an adult patient is breathing at a respiratory rate of 12 times a minute, you would expect that the minute volume would be approximately _____ mL per minute. A. 3,000 B. 4,500 C. 5,000 D. 6,000

When assessing the skin of an unresponsive patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called: Select one: A. flushing. B. pallor. C. mottling. D. cyanosis.

When conducting a patient interview on an adult patient, the EMT should do all of the following except: A. position oneself close to the patient. B. identify oneself and reassure the patient. C. gently touch the patient's shoulder or rest a hand over the patient's hand. D. avoid asking the patient's age.

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should: Select one: A. count the number of pulsations in 15 seconds and multiply by four. B. count the number of pulsations in 30 seconds and multiply by two. C. count the pulse rate for at least 30 seconds to ensure accuracy. D. count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading.

When planning to lift a patient, all of the following are important considerations for the EMT except: A. the weight of the patient. B. one's physical characteristics. C. communicating with one's partner. D. the distance the patient needs to be carried.

When prioritizing care for the victim of a sexual assault, the EMT should focus on _________ first. Select one: A. preserving evidence B. relaying the patient's account of the event to law enforcement C. soft-tissue injuries D. life-threatening injuries

When the force of the pulse is weak and thin, it is described as: A. shallow. B. full. C. partial. D. thready.

When using an air mattress, the patient is placed on the device and the air is _____ by a pump. The mattress will then form a _____ and conforming surface around the patient.

When writing the narrative section of a prehospital care report (PCR), the EMT should do all of the following except: A. use medical terminology correctly. B. avoid nonstandard abbreviations. C. write legibly and use correct spelling. D. state one's personal opinion of the patient's condition.

When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you. B. your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem. C. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age. D. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions.

When you are documenting exactly what a patient told you on the prehospital care report (PCR), you should: A. paraphrase for brevity. B. summarize the key points. C. use medical terminology. D. use quotes around the statement.

When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the: Select one: A. diastolic blood pressure. B. cardiac output pressure. C. pulse pressure. D. systolic blood pressure.

Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? Select one: A. Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will B. Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs C. Transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training D. Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury

Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock? Select one: A. Bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation B. Viral infection of the blood vessels, vascular damage, and vasoconstriction C. Widespread vasoconstriction and plasma loss due to a severe viral infection D. Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation

Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway? Select one: A. Rhonchi B. Crackles C. Rales D. Stridor

Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant? Select one: A. Responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently B. Knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance C. Walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions D. Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up

Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias has the greatest chance of deteriorating into a pulseless rhythm? Select one: A. Extra ventricular beats B. Sinus bradycardia C. Sinus tachycardia D. Ventricular tachycardia

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia? Select one: A. Pleural effusion B. Narcotic overdose C. Pulmonary edema D. Severe anxiety

Which of the following drugs is commonly referred to as "roofies"? Select one: A. Ketamine B. GHB C. MDMA D. Rohypnol

Which of the following helps filter the blood and has no digestive function? Select one: A. Small intestine B. Stomach C. Large intestine D. Spleen

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker? Select one: A. Syncope or dizziness B. Heart rate less than 60 beats/min C. Generalized weakness D. A rapid heart rate

Which of the following is NOT a function of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)? Select one: A. Monitoring all radio traffic and conducting field spot checks B. Licensing base stations and assigning appropriate radio call signs C. Allocating specific radio frequencies for use by EMS providers D. Maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance

Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure? Select one: A. Brain tumor B. Head trauma C. Massive stroke D. Poisoning

Which of the following is not a function of the musculoskeletal system? A. It gives the body shape. B. It protects the internal organs. C. It provides for body movement. D. It regulates body temperature.

Which of the following is not true about the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? A. It attacks the immune system. B. It doesn't survive well outside the human body. C. It can be introduced through puncture wounds. D. It is an airborne pathogen.

Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse? Select one: A. Apply firm pressure to the artery with your ring and little fingers. B. Use your thumb to increase the surface area that you are palpating. C. Avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure. D. Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point.

Which of the following is the condition in which a portion of the myocardium dies because of oxygen starvation? A. Angina pectoris B. Mechanical pump failure C. Cardiogenic shock D. Acute myocardial infarction

Which of the following is true of the structure of infants' and children's airways? A. The trachea is more rigid and less flexible than an adult's. B. The tongue is proportionately smaller than an adult's. C. The cricoid cartilage is more rigid than and adult's. D. They depend more on the diaphragm for respiration than adults do.

Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies? Select one: A. Liver B. Kidney C. Pancreas D. Spleen

Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction? Select one: A. A 21-year-old female who inhaled pollen B. A 30-year-old male who was stung by a bee C. A 50-year-old male who was exposed to latex D. A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin

Which of the following questions is used to determine a patient's chief complaint? Select one: A. "Are you having trouble breathing?" B. "Do you have a history of diabetes?" C. "When did the chest pain begin?" D. "What seems to be the matter?"

Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities? Select one: A. Cardiac arrest B. Accidental knife wound C. Drug overdose D. Attempted suicide

Which of the following skills would a layperson MOST likely be trained to perform before arrival of EMS? A. Obtaining a manual blood pressure B. Administration of supplemental oxygen C. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway D. Bleeding control using a tourniquet

Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct? Select one: A. An infant's heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats/min. B. An infant's normal heart rate increases by 10 beats/min each month. C. By 6 months of age, an infant's normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/kg. D. An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's.

Which of the following statements regarding plasma is correct? Select one: A. Plasma has no role in the body's blood-clotting mechanism. B. Most of the body's plasma is contained within the large veins. C. Approximately 45% of the blood is composed of plasma. D. Plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients.

Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. administer high-flow oxygen. B. move her to the ambulance stretcher. C. ventilate her with a bag-valve mask. D. check her airway for obstructions.

Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct? Select one: A. Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion. B. Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion. C. The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation. D. Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.

Which of the following statements regarding the heart is correct? Select one: A. The heart can tolerate an interruption of oxygen for 5 minutes. B. The heart relies on an external electrical source to function correctly. C. The heart receives its blood supply from the pulmonary arteries. D. The heart is under the control of the autonomic nervous system.

Which of the following suffixes mean "pertaining to"? Select one: A. "-ic" and "-ology" B. "-al" and "-ology" C. "-ology" and "-oma" D. "-al" and "-ic"

Which of the following terms applies to a state of delusion in which the patient is out of touch with reality? Select one: A. Agitated delirium B. Suicidal C. Schizophrenia D. Psychosis

Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient's allergic reaction? Select one: A. The time of year in which the exposure occurred B. The patient's family history C. The patient's general physical appearance D. The environment in which the patient is found

Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire? Select one: A. A large cluster of shrubs B. Stacked empty barrels C. Behind a car door D. A concrete barricade

Which set of nerves is responsible for carrying information from the body to the central nervous system? Select one: A. Motor B. Vertebral C. Cranial D. Sensory

While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55-year-old male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to: Select one: A. give the patient nitroglycerin to increase his blood pressure. B. give the patient activated charcoal to rule out a drug overdose. C. withhold drug therapy until an intraosseous catheter is in place. D. administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect.

While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. You should: Select one: A. deliver up to five back blows and reassess him. B. encourage him to cough as forcefully as he can. C. place him in a supine position and open his airway. D. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts.

You are assessing a woman who was thrown from a horse. She is located in a large field and you can see that a thunderstorm is rapidly approaching. Suddenly, you feel your skin begin to tingle and the hair on your arms stands on end. The ambulance is located about 30 yards away. You should: Select one: A. quickly cover the patient with a blanket and then lie down flat on the ground. B. immediately lie down on your side and draw your knees into your abdomen. C. sit down, bend your knees, and hold your crossed arms close to your body. D. crouch down in a position so that only your feet are touching the ground.

You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should: Select one: A. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption. B. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition. C. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation. D. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.

You are attending to a 22-year-old female patient who has overdosed. The patient is unresponsive in an upstairs bedroom. The most appropriate way to bring the patient downstairs is: Select one: A. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the head end. B. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the foot end. C. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the foot end. D. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end.

You are attending to a 32-year-old male patient. The patient's wife tells you that he returned from Afghanistan last year. While he initially seemed fine, lately he has become withdrawn and distanced himself from his family and friends. He does not talk about it, but she knows that he has been having terrible nightmares that wake him up. The most appropriate question to ask regarding his experience in Afghanistan is: Select one: A. Can you tell me about your experience? B. Have you ever been diagnosed with PTSD? C. Were you in combat? D. Were you shot at or under fire?

You are called to the home of a dialysis patient who has extreme abdominal pain and a fever. She said that she spent the whole day at the clinic and was not feeling well since she got home. She tells you that she was told she has a thrill in the arm used for dialysis. What does that mean? A. There is a hairline fracture in the bone in that extremity. B. She is missing a number of vessels in the extremity. C. It is a very tight bandage applied after the procedure to minimize blood clots. D. It is a vibration felt on palpation, which typically occurs within an arterial-venous fistula.

You are caring for a 56-year-old male patient complaining of abdominal pain. Your service has recently switched to an electronic PCR system (ePCR). When completing the ePCR, it is important to be aware that: Select one: A. the ePCR does not contain the same level of information as the written version and your verbal report should be expanded. B. the ePCR is relatively unsecured and should not contain patient-specific information. C. a written patient care record will need to be completed on arrival at the hospital. D. the ePCR allows patient information to be transmitted directly to the receiving hospital's computers.

Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should: Select one: A. perform abdominal thrusts. B. place the patient supine. C. administer back blows. D. encourage the patient to cough.

Your first step when called to care for any attempted suicide victim is to: A. gain access to the patient. B. wait for police assistance. C. survey for behavioral changes. D. ensure your own safety.

You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient supplemental oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should: Select one: A. immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin transport, and reattempt to contact medical control when you receive a cell signal. B. notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient. C. place her in a supine position, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route. D. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital.

You are talking with a patient and he states that has has had COPD for the past 10 years. What is COPD? A. A type of shock B. A type of ventilation C. A mechanism of breathing D. Chronic pulmonary disease

You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: Select one: A. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time. B. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay. C. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared. D. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her.

You are treating a 45-year-old woman who was stung by a hornet and has a rash. She tells you that she is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto-injector. She also tells you that she takes medication for hypertension. Her breath sounds do not reveal any wheezing, her breathing is unlabored, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. What should you do if you are not able to make contact with medical control? Select one: A. Give her half the dose of her epinephrine in case her allergic reaction is delayed. B. Administer her epinephrine, reassess her condition, and transport her promptly. C. Begin immediate transport and request an intercept with a paramedic ambulance. D. Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route.

You are treating a conscious and mentally competent adult patient who wants to refuse your care and transport to the hospital. This refusal must be _____ and documented. A. implied B. actual C. involuntary D. informed

You are treating a patient who fell down a flight of metal stairs. Which maneuver is most appropriate for an unconscious patient found lying at the bottom of a stairwell? A. Head-tilt, chin-lift B. Head-tilt, neck-lift C. Jaw-pull lift D. Jaw-thrust

You are treating a patient who initially had a chief complaint of severe difficulty breathing. You have concerns that this may be leading to respiratory failure. As you assess and manage the patient, you decide she is either not breathing or her breathing is inadequate. Thus, it will be necessary to provide: A. artificial ventilation. B. positive pressure ventilation. C. assistance with a bag-valve mask device. D. all of these are correct.

You are treating a patient who initially had a chief complaint of severe difficulty breathing. You have concerns that this may be leading to respiratory failure. The patient could have any of the following signs except: A. absent or minimal chest movement. B. noises such as wheezing, gurgling, stridor, or crowing. C. diminished or absent breath sounds. D. air that can be felt at the nose or mouth on exhalation.

You are treating a patient who was involved in a serious accident. Based on the leading causes of death, what age group is this patient most likely to be in? A. Infant B. School age C. Adolescent D. Young adult

You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation. As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the statement "He has a gun!" Your MOST appropriate action should be to: Select one: A. continue into the apartment and apprehend the gunman. B. continue into the apartment using extreme caution. C. get in your ambulance and leave the scene immediately. D. seek a safe place and request law enforcement assistance.

You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? Select one: A. Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital. B. Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent. C. Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment. D. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital.

You have administered one dose of epinephrine to a 40-year-old female to treat an allergic reaction that she developed after being stung by a scorpion. Your reassessment reveals that she is still having difficulty breathing, has a decreasing mental status, and has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. You should: Select one: A. monitor her en route to the hospital and call medical control if she worsens. B. administer a nebulized bronchodilator to improve the status of her breathing. C. crush up an antihistamine tablet and place it in between her cheek and gum. D. request permission from medical control to give another dose of epinephrine.

You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be to: Select one: A. begin chest compressions and request backup. B. open the airway and give two rescue breaths. C. immediately transport the child to the hospital. D. assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds.

Your 60-year-old male patient tells you that he has a tearing sensation going into the middle of his back. He states that he has no back problems and has a history of hypertension. What is possible wrong with him? A. A kidney stone B. Acute pulmonary edema C. Acute appendicitis D. An abdominal aortic aneurysm

Your ability to remain awake is a function of the: Select one: A. cerebellum. B. limbic system. C. pons and medulla. D. reticular activating system.

Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: Select one: A. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch. B. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads. C. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns. D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.

Your patient is an unconscious adult female stroke patient. Which carry is considered very difficult to use with an unconscious person? A. Cradle B. Three-rescuer C. Shoulder D. Piggyback

Your patient opens his eyes, moans, and pulls away from you when you pinch his trapezius muscle. You should assign a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of: Select one: A. 6. B. 9. C. 7. D. 8.

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