EMT FRTG Midterm

In the adult , bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than____beats / min , and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than_____beats / min . A. 60 , 100 B. 30,130 C. 50,110 D. 40 , 120

A. 60 100

Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis ? A. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed B. EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and become familiar with data analysis . C. The federal government requires the implementation of changes to existing emergency care protocols at least every five years . D. Statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness .

A. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed

Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct ? A. An EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office , not the EMS medical director . B. The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT's scope of practice without state approval . C. An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval . D. The EMS medical director can expand the EMT's scope of practice but cannot limit it without state approval .

A. An EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office , not the EMS medical director .

Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training ? A. Automated external defibrillation B. Oral glucose for hypoglycemia C. Use of a manually triggered ventilator D. Intranasal medication administration

A. Automated external defibrillation

Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe ? A. Direct B. Radio C. Online D. Off - line

A. Direct B. Radio C. Online D. Off - line

Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body ? A. Pituitary B . Adrenal C . Parathyroid D . Thyroid

A. Pituitary

Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT ? A. Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases B. Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds C. A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care D. Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course

A. Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases

Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct ? A. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing . B . The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs . C. The NREMT regulates EMS training standards . D. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTS .

A. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing .

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as : A. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small , harmful organisms within the body . B. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional . C. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs . D . a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms .

A. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small , harmful organisms within the body .

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model , an EMT should be able to : A. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications . B. interpret a basic ( ECG ) rhythm and treat accordingly . C. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route . D. insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids .

A. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications .

Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that : A. contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange . B . receives oxygen but is unable to release carbon dioxide . C. must be filled with air before gas exchange can take place . D . includes the alveoli and capillaries surrounding the alveoli .

A. contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange .

The nose , chin , umbilicus ( navel ) , and spine are examples______of . anatomic structures . A. midline B. proximal C . midaxillary D . superior

A. midline

The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the : A. state office of EMS . B. regional trauma center . C. American Heart Association . D. National Registry of EMTs .

A. state office of EMS .

Which of the following is an example of a symptom ? A . Tachycardia B . Headache C . Hypertension D . Cyanosis

B . Headache

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as : A. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs . B . a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small , harmful organisms within the body . C. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional . D. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms .

B . a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small , harmful organisms within the body .

The systematic head - to - toe assessment should be performed on : A. responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI . B . patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients . C. stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened . D. all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport .

B . patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients .

The axial skeleton is composed of the : A. lower part of the torso and the legs . B . skull , face , thorax , and vertebral column . C. bones that constitute the pelvic girdle . D. arms , legs , and pelvis .

B . skull , face , thorax , and vertebral column .

Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation ? A. " Are there medications that you cannot take ? " B. " Does your mother have diabetes ? " C. " Does the pain stay in your chest ? " D. " Has this ever happened to you before ? "

B. " Does your mother have diabetes ? "

The goal of oxygenation for most patients is an oxygen saturation of : A. 90 % to 94 % B. 94 % to 99 % C. 88 % to 90 % D. 100 %

B. 94 % to 99 %

Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS ? A. A 53 - year - old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin B. A 48 - year - old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device C. A 61 - year - old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen D. A 64 - year - old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain

B. A 48 - year - old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device

Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services ( EMS ) ? A. A vast network of advanced life support ( ALS ) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting B. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured C. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders ( EMRS ) and emergency medical technicians ( EMTS ) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients D. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients

B. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured

Which of the following skills would a layperson most likely be trained to perform before the arrival of EMS ? A. Administration of supplemental oxygen B. Bleeding control using a tourniquet C. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway D. Obtaining a manual blood pressure

B. Bleeding control using a tourniquet

The most distal four spinal vertebrae , which are fused together , form the : A. sacrum . B. coccyx . C. ischium . D. ilium .

B. coccyx .

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened , demanding , or unpleasant is to : A. reassure the patient that everything will be all right , even if it will not be . B. continue to be nonjudgmental , compassionate , and respectful . C. ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint . D. demand that the patient remain quiet and cooperative during transport .

B. continue to be nonjudgmental , compassionate , and respectful .

A patient's short - term memory is MOST likely intact if they correctly answer questions regarding : A. event and person . B. day and event . C. time and place . D. person and place .

B. day and event .

Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called : A . breathing . B. diffusion . C. osmosis . D. ventilation .

B. diffusion .

Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include : A. glucagon and noradrenaline . B. epinephrine and norepinephrine . C. norepinephrine and acetylcholine . D. acetylcholine and insulin .

B. epinephrine and norepinephrine .

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model , an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to : A. use an automatic transport ventilator . B. insert a peripheral intravenous catheter . C. apply and interpret data from a pulse oximeter . D. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain .

B. insert a peripheral intravenous catheter .

The goal of the systematic head - to - toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to : A. definitively rule out significant internal injuries . B. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment . C. assess only the parts of the body that are injured . D. detect and treat all non - life - threatening injuries .

B. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment .

Continuing education in EMS serves to : A . enforce mandatory attendance at agency - specific training . B. maintain , update , and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills . C . provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system . D. confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care .

B. maintain , update , and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills .

Factors that increase the risk for developing methicillin - resistant Staphylococcus aureus ( MRSA ) include : A. a history of a respiratory illness within the past 6 to 8 weeks . B. prolonged hospitalization , especially in an intensive care unit . C. prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis . D. failure to be vaccinated against any strain of hepatitis .

B. prolonged hospitalization , especially in an intensive care unit .

White blood cells , which are also called leukocytes , function by : A. carrying oxygen and other nutrients . B. protecting the body from infection . C. producing the body's erythrocytes . D. producing blood - clotting factors .

B. protecting the body from infection .

In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age , you should palpate the pulse at the . ____artery . A. femoral B. radial C. carotid D. brachial

B. radial

If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95 % of the time , you should : A. determine which device the American Heart Association recommends . B. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives . C. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim . D. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic .

B. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives .

When performing a reassessment of your patient , you should first : A. reassess your interventions . B. repeat the primary assessment . C. confirm medical history findings . D. obtain updated vital signs .

B. repeat the primary assessment .

An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as : A. the EMT's prediction of the type of illness a patient has based on how the call is dispatched . B. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness . D. ruling out specific medical C. determining the underlying cause of a patient's medical condition based on signs and symptoms . conditions based on the absence of certain signs and symptoms .

B. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness .

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C , which means that it : A. is a more contagious type of disease . B. leads to chronic infection after exposure . C . has a greater ability to produce disease . D. is less resistant to treatment .

C . has a greater ability to produce disease .

The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the : A. Purkinje fibers . B. atrioventricular node . C . sinoatrial node . D. bundle of His .

C . sinoatrial node .

EMRS such as firefighters , law enforcement officers , and park rangers are an integral part of the EMS system because : A. they can initiate certain ALS procedures before EMS arrival . B. they are usually trained to assist paramedics with certain procedures . C . they often arrive at the scene before the ambulance and EMTs . D. the average response time for the EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes .

C . they often arrive at the scene before the ambulance and EMTs .

Capnography is used to : A. trend a patient's blood pressure and assess for shock . B . assess how much oxygen is reaching the body's tissues . C . determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled . D. assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin .

C determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled .

Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway ? A. Unresponsiveness B . Audible breathing C. Ability to speak D. Inspiratory stridor

C. Ability to speak

Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge - based failure ? A. Due to an improperly applied cervical collar , a patient's spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled . B. A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first . C. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug . D. An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient , although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so .

C. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug .

Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient's illness ? A. Refraining from asking open - ended questions B. Focusing solely on how the call is dispatched C. Asking questions related to the chief complaint D. Trending of the patient's vital signs over time

C. Asking questions related to the chief complaint

All critical life functions are coordinated in which part of the brain ? A. Cerebellum B. Gray matter C. Brainstem D. Cerebrum

C. Brainstem

Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy ? A. The construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash B. Teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two - rescuer infant CPR C. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving D. Protecting a patient's spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height

C. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving

Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space ? A. Gallbladder B. Ascending aorta C. Kidneys D. Spleen

C. Kidneys

Which of the following is not a facial bone ? A. Zygoma B. Mandible C. Mastoid D . Maxilla

C. Mastoid

When assessing a patient with a medical complaint , which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem ? A Index of suspicion B. Baseline vital signs C. Medical history D. Primary assessment

C. Medical history

EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the : A. National Registry of EMTS . B. individual state's EMS protocols . C. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration ( NHTSA ) . D. National Association of EMTS .

C. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration ( NHTSA ) .

In addition to obtaining a SAMPLE history and asking questions related to the chief complaint , what else should you specifically inquire about when assessing a patient with a potentially infectious disease ? A. Sexual practices B. HIV status C. Recent travel D. Drug allergies

C. Recent travel

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass - casualty incident should be determined after : A. area hospitals have been notified . B. a physician arrives at the scene . C. all the patients have been triaged . D. medical control has been contacted .

C. all the patients have been triaged .

The_______deals with the well - being of the EMT , career progression , and EMT compensation . A. local public health department B. office of the medical director C. human resources department D. EMS administrator or chief

C. human resources department

The continuous quality improvement ( CQI ) process is designed to : A. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient . B. administer punitive actions to EMTS who do not follow local protocols . C. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed . D. ensure that all EMTS maintain licensure through the state EMS office .

C. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed .

The secondary assessment of a medical patient : A. is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious . B. should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe . C. is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short . D . should be performed at the scene , especially if the patient is critically ill .

C. is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short .

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury , your partner should : A. prepare the immobilization equipment . B. assess the rest of the body for bleeding . C. maintain stabilization of the head . D. look in the ears for gross bleeding .

C. maintain stabilization of the head .

A patient who presents with a headache , fever , confusion , and red blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having : Select one : A MERS - CoV B. tuberculosis . C. meningitis . D. hepatitis

C. meningitis

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by : A. taking another set of vital signs . B. reassessing the nature of illness . C. repeating the primary assessment . D. reviewing all treatment performed .

C. repeating the primary assessment .

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease , your next priority should be to : A. notify law enforcement . B. contact medical control . C. take standard precautions . D. quickly access the patient .

C. take standard precautions .

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover : A . one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow . B . the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow . C. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow . D . one half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow .

C. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow .

Skeletal muscle is also called : A. involuntary muscle . B. smooth muscle . C. voluntary muscle . D. autonomic muscle .

C. voluntary muscle .

As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles , the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the : A . capillaries . B. pleura . C . bronchi . D . alveoli .

D . alveoli .

The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the : A. venules . B. arterioles . C. arteries . D . capillaries .

D . capillaries .

After performing a primary assessment , a rapid exam of the body should be performed to : A . find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life . B . look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion . C . determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions . D . identify less - obvious injuries that require immediate treatment .

D . identify less - obvious injuries that require immediate treatment .

The muscle tissue of the heart is called the : A. epicardium . B. endocardium . C. pericardium . D . myocardium .

D . myocardium .

The carpal bones form the : A. ankle . B. hand . C. foot . D . wrist .

D . wrist .

The elbow is an example of a__joint . A. gliding B. saddle C. ball - and - socket D . hinge

D hinge

The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the : A . pulmonary arteries . B. superior venae cavae . C . inferior venae cavae . D . pulmonary veins .

D pulmonary veins .

A 29 - year - old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him , is confused as to the time and date , and is able to move all of his extremities on command . His Glasgow Coma Scale ( GCS ) score is : A. 14 . B. 10 . C. 12 . D. 13.

D. 13.

EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of : A. the Emergency Medical Services Act . B. the Department of Transportation's White Paper : Death and Dying . C. Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured . D. Accidental Death and Disability : The Neglected Disease of Modern Society .

D. Accidental Death and Disability : The Neglected Disease of Modern Society

The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time - consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based mostly on : A. regional trauma guidelines . B. the lead EMT's decision . C. local protocols . D. EMS research .

D. EMS research .

Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life- threatening conditions ? A. Assessment of oxygen saturation B. Focused secondary assessment C. Noninvasive blood pressure monitoring D. Systematic head - to - toe examination

D. Systematic head - to - toe examination

Which of the following is a specific example of the Mobile Integrated Healthcare ( MIH ) model ? A. Paramedics pick up a patient from an acute care clinic B. EMTS assess a patient whose lung disease is " acting up " C. EMTs respond to a woman who complains of high fever D. The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination

D. The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination

The central nervous system is composed of the : A. brain and sensory nerves . B. motor and sensory nerves . C. spinal cord and sensory nerves . D. brain and spinal cord .

D. brain and spinal cord .

The EMT certification exam is designed to : A. identify those EMTS who are prepared for advanced levels of training . B. rank EMTs based on performance on the certification exam . C. provide EMTS with the best possible wage once certification is achieved . D. ensure that EMTS are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills .

D. ensure that EMTS are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills .

The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTS to perform emergency medical care in the field is the : A. EMS administrator . B. field training officer . C. shift supervisor . D. medical director .

D. medical director .

Cardiac monitoring , pharmacologic interventions , and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the : A. EMR . B. AEMT . C. EMT . D. paramedic .

D. paramedic .

When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure , the measurement you obtain is the : A. cardiac output pressure . B . diastolic blood pressure . C . pulse pressure . D. systolic blood pressure .

D. systolic blood pressure .

An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as : A. ruling out specific medical conditions based on the absence of certain signs and symptoms . B. determining the underlying cause of a patient's medical condition based on signs and symptoms . C. the EMT's prediction of the type of illness a patient has based on how the call is dispatched . D. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness .

D. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness .

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by : A . decreased blood oxygen . B. venous vasoconstriction . C. increased blood oxygen . D. peripheral vasodilation .

A . decreased blood oxygen .

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a : A . falsely high systolic and diastolic reading . B. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading . C. falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading . D . falsely low systolic and diastolic reading .

A . falsely high systolic and diastolic reading .

Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the : A . individual EMT. B . EMS medical director . C . State Bureau of EMS . D . EMS training officer .

A . individual EMT.

As an EMT , you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on : A . medical director approval . B . the patient's condition . C. the transport time to the hospital . D . an order from a paramedic .

A . medical director approval .

Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they A cough . B. vomit C. have a fever . D. are bleeding .

A cough .